EXAM I - Immunity and Hypersensitivity

Question 1

Which immunity has antigens enter the body naturally?

Answer 1

naturally acquired active

Question 2

Which immunity has antibodies pass from mother to fetus?

Answer 2

naturally acquired passive

Question 3

Which immunity has antigens introduced by vaccines?

Answer 3

artificially acquired active

Question 4

Which immunity introduces preformed antibodies via serums?

Answer 4

artificially acquired passive

Question 5

What are all the types of cytokines?

Answer 5

interleukins, TNFs, CSFs and interferons

Question 6

What cells have IL-1?

Answer 6

macrophages

Question 7

What cells have IL-2?

Answer 7

CD4+ T-cells

Question 8

What cells have IL-4?

Answer 8

CD4+ T-cells, mast cells, basophils and eosinophils

Question 9

What cells have IL-6?

Answer 9

CD4+ T-cells, mast cells, macrophages and fibroblasts

Question 10

What cells have TNF-alpha?

Answer 10

macrophages, NK cells, mast cells

Question 11

What cells have interferon-alpha? Function?

Answer 11

monocytes; antiviral

Question 12

What drug is a G-CSF?

Answer 12

filagrastim (Neupogen)

Question 13

What does filgrastim do?

Answer 13

stimulates proliferation of neutrophils

Question 14

What drug is a GM-CSF?

Answer 14

sargramostim (Leukine)

Question 15

What does sargramostim do?

Answer 15

promotes leukopoiesis (WBCs)

Question 16

What drug is an IL-2?

Answer 16

aldesleukin (Proleukin)

Question 17

What does aldesleukin do?

Answer 17

anti-neoplastic and immunomodulator

Question 18

What drugs are interferon-betas?

Answer 18

Avonex, Rebif and Betaseron

Question 19

What drugs are erythropoietins?

Answer 19

Epogen, Procrit and Aranesp

Question 20

What are the indications for sargramostim?

Answer 20

bone marrow transplants, HIV, chemotherapy-induced neutropenia

Question 21

What are the adverse effects of sargramostim?

Answer 21

fever, diarrhea, N/V, fatigue, rash

Question 22

What are the indications for filgrastim?

Answer 22

bone marrow transplants, HIV, chemotherapy-induced neutropenia

Question 23

What are the adverse effects of filgrastim?

Answer 23

bone pain, N/V, increased uric acid, allergic reactions

Question 24

What are the indications for ESAs?

Answer 24

anemia from ESRD, zidovudine treated HIV, chemotherapies

Question 25

What are the adverse effects of ESAs?

Answer 25

HTN, fever, N/V, HA, itching, joint aches, cough

Question 26

What drugs are interferons?

Answer 26

peginterfon alfa-2a/b (Pegasys and PegIntron), peginterferon beta-1a (Plegridy)

Question 27

What are the indications for peginterferon alfa-2a/b?

Answer 27

HCV

Question 28

What are the indications for peginterferon beta-1a?

Answer 28

relapsing multiple sclerosis

Question 29

What are the adverse effets of peginterferon?

Answer 29

bone pain, myalgia, HA, fever

Question 30

Explain IgM?

Answer 30

largest, pentamer, links and involved in infections

Question 31

Explain IgA?

Answer 31

secreted in mucus, tears, saliva, colostrum

Question 32

Explain IgG?

Answer 32

most common, crosses the placenta

Question 33

Explain IgD?

Answer 33

B cell receptor

Question 34

Explain IgE?

Answer 34

involved with allergies and antiparasitic activity

Question 35

What is IVIg?

Answer 35

IV blood product containing at least 90% of pooled IgG from at least 1000 patients

Question 36

What are the indications for IVIg? (4)

Answer 36

primary immunodeficiency, idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura, neonatal sepsis, acute infections

Question 37

What drugs are liposomal conjugates?

Answer 37

amophotericin B and doxorubicin

Question 38

Is SCID a primary or secondary immunodeficiency?

Answer 38

primary

Question 39

What cells have CD3?

Answer 39

all T-lymphocytes

Question 40

What cells have CD4?

Answer 40

helper T-lymphocytes

Question 41

What cells have CD8?

Answer 41

cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

Question 42

What is anergy?

Answer 42

defective/lack of immune response

Question 43

What is one drug used to treat lupus?

Answer 43

belimumab (Benlysta)

Question 44

What drugs are fusion proteins that are TNF-alpha inhibitors?

Answer 44

etanercept (Enbrel)

Question 45

What drugs are MoAbs that are TNF-alpha inhibitors?

Answer 45

infliximab and adalimumab

Question 46

What is alloimmunity?

Answer 46

immune response to tissue of another individual (transplants/transfusions)

Question 47

What drug is given for Type I hypersensitivty reactions?

Answer 47

epinephrine 1:1000 IM or SQ every 15-20 minutes

Question 48

What else can be given during anaphylaxis?

Answer 48

oxygen, diphenhydramine (parenteral), H2 receptor blockers (famotidine for late phase), IV fluids/colloids and hydrocortisone sodium succinate

Question 49

What is the major determinant for skin testing reactivity?

Answer 49

penicilloyl

Question 50

What Ig is activated in each hypersensitivity reaction?

Answer 50

IgE for Type 1, IgG for Types 2 and 3, various non-Igs for Type 4

Question 51

Explain complement mediated lysis?

Answer 51

antigen attacks target cell and activates complement system for lysis

Question 52

Explain macrophage mediated phagocytosis?

Answer 52

cell destruction by macrophages once IgG and C3 opsonize target cell

Question 53

What drug is given to mother to prevent erythroblastis fatalis?

Answer 53

Rho-Gam

Question 54

What is Grave's disease an example of?

Answer 54

Type II hypersensitivity

Question 55

What is drug-induced lupus an example of?

Answer 55

Type III hypersensitivity

Question 56

What drugs are known to cause serum sickness? (10)

Answer 56

animal serums, bee venom injections, cefaclor, ciprofloxacin, insulin, iron dextran, MoABs, penicillins, and sulfonamides

Question 57

What diseases are manifested by Type IV hypersensitivity? (7)

Answer 57

tuberculosis, leprosy, schistosomiasis, sarcoidosis, contact dermatitis, eczema, and maculopapular exanthemas

Question 58

What are treatments for contact dermatitis?

Answer 58

topical steroids, antihistamines, immunomodulators (tacrolimus), calamine lotion, oatmeal baths

Question 59

What are causes for a false negative skin TB test? (7)

Answer 59

edlerly, severe debility, disseminated TB, HIV, immunosuppressive treatment, glucocorticoid therapy, recent viral infection

Question 60

What patients are at higher risk for developing SJS/TEN? (4)

Answer 60

bone marrow transplantees, pneumocystis jirovecii-infected HIV, SLE, and chronic rheumatologic diseases