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PHM603 > EXAM I - Immunity and Hypersensitivity > Flashcards

EXAM I - Immunity and Hypersensitivity Flashcards

1
Q

Which immunity has antigens enter the body naturally?

A

naturally acquired active

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2
Q

Which immunity has antibodies pass from mother to fetus?

A

naturally acquired passive

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3
Q

Which immunity has antigens introduced by vaccines?

A

artificially acquired active

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4
Q

Which immunity introduces preformed antibodies via serums?

A

artificially acquired passive

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5
Q

What are all the types of cytokines?

A

interleukins, TNFs, CSFs and interferons

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6
Q

What cells have IL-1?

A

macrophages

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7
Q

What cells have IL-2?

A

CD4+ T-cells

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8
Q

What cells have IL-4?

A

CD4+ T-cells, mast cells, basophils and eosinophils

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9
Q

What cells have IL-6?

A

CD4+ T-cells, mast cells, macrophages and fibroblasts

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10
Q

What cells have TNF-alpha?

A

macrophages, NK cells, mast cells

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11
Q

What cells have interferon-alpha? Function?

A

monocytes; antiviral

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12
Q

What drug is a G-CSF?

A

filagrastim (Neupogen)

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13
Q

What does filgrastim do?

A

stimulates proliferation of neutrophils

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14
Q

What drug is a GM-CSF?

A

sargramostim (Leukine)

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15
Q

What does sargramostim do?

A

promotes leukopoiesis (WBCs)

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16
Q

What drug is an IL-2?

A

aldesleukin (Proleukin)

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17
Q

What does aldesleukin do?

A

anti-neoplastic and immunomodulator

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18
Q

What drugs are interferon-betas?

A

Avonex, Rebif and Betaseron

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19
Q

What drugs are erythropoietins?

A

Epogen, Procrit and Aranesp

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20
Q

What are the indications for sargramostim?

A

bone marrow transplants, HIV, chemotherapy-induced neutropenia

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21
Q

What are the adverse effects of sargramostim?

A

fever, diarrhea, N/V, fatigue, rash

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22
Q

What are the indications for filgrastim?

A

bone marrow transplants, HIV, chemotherapy-induced neutropenia

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23
Q

What are the adverse effects of filgrastim?

A

bone pain, N/V, increased uric acid, allergic reactions

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24
Q

What are the indications for ESAs?

A

anemia from ESRD, zidovudine treated HIV, chemotherapies

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25
Q

What are the adverse effects of ESAs?

A

HTN, fever, N/V, HA, itching, joint aches, cough

26
Q

What drugs are interferons?

A

peginterfon alfa-2a/b (Pegasys and PegIntron), peginterferon beta-1a (Plegridy)

27
Q

What are the indications for peginterferon alfa-2a/b?

28
Q

What are the indications for peginterferon beta-1a?

A

relapsing multiple sclerosis

29
Q

What are the adverse effets of peginterferon?

A

bone pain, myalgia, HA, fever

30
Q

Explain IgM?

A

largest, pentamer, links and involved in infections

31
Q

Explain IgA?

A

secreted in mucus, tears, saliva, colostrum

32
Q

Explain IgG?

A

most common, crosses the placenta

33
Q

Explain IgD?

A

B cell receptor

34
Q

Explain IgE?

A

involved with allergies and antiparasitic activity

35
Q

What is IVIg?

A

IV blood product containing at least 90% of pooled IgG from at least 1000 patients

36
Q

What are the indications for IVIg? (4)

A

primary immunodeficiency, idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura, neonatal sepsis, acute infections

37
Q

What drugs are liposomal conjugates?

A

amophotericin B and doxorubicin

38
Q

Is SCID a primary or secondary immunodeficiency?

39
Q

What cells have CD3?

A

all T-lymphocytes

40
Q

What cells have CD4?

A

helper T-lymphocytes

41
Q

What cells have CD8?

A

cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

42
Q

What is anergy?

A

defective/lack of immune response

43
Q

What is one drug used to treat lupus?

A

belimumab (Benlysta)

44
Q

What drugs are fusion proteins that are TNF-alpha inhibitors?

A

etanercept (Enbrel)

45
Q

What drugs are MoAbs that are TNF-alpha inhibitors?

A

infliximab and adalimumab

46
Q

What is alloimmunity?

A

immune response to tissue of another individual (transplants/transfusions)

47
Q

What drug is given for Type I hypersensitivty reactions?

A

epinephrine 1:1000 IM or SQ every 15-20 minutes

48
Q

What else can be given during anaphylaxis?

A

oxygen, diphenhydramine (parenteral), H2 receptor blockers (famotidine for late phase), IV fluids/colloids and hydrocortisone sodium succinate

49
Q

What is the major determinant for skin testing reactivity?

A

penicilloyl

50
Q

What Ig is activated in each hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgE for Type 1, IgG for Types 2 and 3, various non-Igs for Type 4

51
Q

Explain complement mediated lysis?

A

antigen attacks target cell and activates complement system for lysis

52
Q

Explain macrophage mediated phagocytosis?

A

cell destruction by macrophages once IgG and C3 opsonize target cell

53
Q

What drug is given to mother to prevent erythroblastis fatalis?

54
Q

What is Grave’s disease an example of?

A

Type II hypersensitivity

55
Q

What is drug-induced lupus an example of?

A

Type III hypersensitivity

56
Q

What drugs are known to cause serum sickness? (10)

A

animal serums, bee venom injections, cefaclor, ciprofloxacin, insulin, iron dextran, MoABs, penicillins, and sulfonamides

57
Q

What diseases are manifested by Type IV hypersensitivity? (7)

A

tuberculosis, leprosy, schistosomiasis, sarcoidosis, contact dermatitis, eczema, and maculopapular exanthemas

58
Q

What are treatments for contact dermatitis?

A

topical steroids, antihistamines, immunomodulators (tacrolimus), calamine lotion, oatmeal baths

59
Q

What are causes for a false negative skin TB test? (7)

A

edlerly, severe debility, disseminated TB, HIV, immunosuppressive treatment, glucocorticoid therapy, recent viral infection

60
Q

What patients are at higher risk for developing SJS/TEN? (4)

A

bone marrow transplantees, pneumocystis jirovecii-infected HIV, SLE, and chronic rheumatologic diseases

PHM603 (3 decks)

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