Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

Role of endocrine system

A

homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Main endocrine product

A

Hormones go directly into the interstitium or directly to the blood for affecting different target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Main endocrine product

A

Hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hormones and Target Cells

A

hormones bind to specific receptors either on the surface or within the cells. They typically generate second messengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Structural groupings of hormones

A

Peptides and proteins -
steroids - testosterone
amino acid derivatives - thyroid hormones, epinephrine
fatty acid derivatives - eicosanoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

features of endocrine systems

A

ductless, cells are epitheliod in appearance often arranged in cords or clusters, sparse CT, very vascular and often fenestrated (leaky) sinusoidal capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

hypophysis (pituitary gland) role

A

the relay station, feedback from target organs and the brain controls its responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Developmental biology of hypophysis

A

1) neurohypophysis: downward extension form the floor of the hyothalamus (diencephalon)
2) adendohypophysis develops as a pouch-like ectodermal outpocketing of the oral cavity
(stomodeum) , it surrounds the neurohypophysis

Pictures in the notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hypophysis (Pit. Gland) morphology

A

saddle-shaped depression of the sphenoid bone (sella turcica). It
has two distinct parts (neurohypophysis and adenohypophysis) with vascular connections. The two parts will be
covered individually followed by an explanation of the vascular connection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neurohypophysis (posterior lobe)

A

extension of the nervous system.
3 regions
median eminence, infundibular stalk, neural lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stroma

A

astroglial-like stromal cell called pituicyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hypothalmic nuclei

A

neuron cell bodies in the parenchyma that produce the neurosecretory products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Neurosecretory products of parenchyma

A

The secretion is transported down their axons and stored within
axonal dilatations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

stimulation of hypothalamic nerve bodies…

A

produces an axon potential that travels
down the axon and results in the release of the neurosecretion to nearby
(fenestrated) capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Adenohypophysis (anterior lobe)

A

has cells that are epitheliod (i.e.‘epithelial-like’) which
is understandable since it develops as an outpocketing of the oral cavity, an epithelial lined cavity.
3 regions
pars tuberalis, pars intermedia, pars distalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

pars tuberalis

A
Surrounds median eminence/
infundibular stalk. Very vascular
(contains part of venous portal
system vessels) Basophilic cells with melatonin
receptors i.e. may have role in
photoperiod regulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Pas intermedia

A
Between pars distalis and neural
lobe of neurohypophysis (large
ruminants have ‘Wulzen’s cone’ i.e.
pars distalis type cells)
Basophilic cells (melanotropes) –
produce melanocyte stimulating
hormone. (hypothalmic control)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pas distalis

A
Largest, most distal part of
pituitary.
Basophilic and acidophilic staining
cells (hypothalamic control via a
venous portal system)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Somatotrope

A

Growth hormone

PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

lactotrope (mammotrope)

A

prolactin

PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Thyrotrope

A

TSH thyrotropin

PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Corticotrope

A

corticotropin (ACTH)

PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gonadotrope

A

FSH, LH

PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Chromophobe

A

Possibly a degranulated cell
small, no granules
PD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

melanotropes /Wulzen cone

A

Pale basophil
MSH
PI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

cells with melatonin receptors (some gonadotropes and thyrotropes)

A

Pale basophil
have melatonin receptors playing a role in photoperiod effects of melatonin
PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the hypophyseal (venous) portal system

A

connecting the neuro- and adenohypophysis

venous portal system = two veins with a capillary bed inbetween

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HPS #1

A

transport of hypothalmic neurosecretions waiting inthe axonal dilitations in the median eminence/infundibular stalk region, to the pars distalis cells this is where they reach capillary beds and are released to the interstitium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HPS #2

A

Pars distalis cells are stimulated or inhibited to release their specific hormones into the
surrounding interstitium, these hormones are then transported into the general circulation
via veins draining the pituitary gland. Now these hormones can have a wide-range of
affects on distant targets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pineal gland morphology

A

cone shaped projection from roof of third ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

pineal gland development

A

This gland develops as a neuroectodermal evagination of the dorsocaudal part of the
diencephalon (epithalamus), located caudal to the anterior choroid plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Pineal gland anatomy

A

The stroma
consists of supportive glial cells.
A unique histological feature is corpora arenacea (“brain sand”), calcareous
concretions composed of calcium phosphates and carbonates, that increase with age
and may actually be seen on radiographs i.e., this can also serve as a useful clue for
identification of this organ on histological section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Parenchyma of pineal gland

A

pinealocytes and capillaries for easy up take and dissemination of their secretory product, MELATONIN. no blood brain barrier here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

pinealocytes

A

acidophilic cell with many processes and a leptochromatic nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

melatonin

A

indoleamine: from tryptophan
Melatonin’s role is to inhibit the secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone from
the hypothalamus – which results in a decrease production of hormones (e.g., FSH, LH) by the gonads.
affect seasonal trends and circadian rhythm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

relaying light signal

A

In mammals the pineal is indirectly stimulated. The “light signal” is relayed from the retina  to the suprachiasmatic
nucleus (hypothalamus)  to the cranial cervical ganglion  to the pineal via (postganglionic fibers which then directly
stimulate the pinealocyte to produce melatonin.)
lower vertebrates are directly stimulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

adrenal gland morphology

A

flattened triangular shaped, located at the cranial point of each kidney, cortex and medullary sections are apparent upon transection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Cortex of adrenal gland

A

develops from the urogenital area mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

medulla of adrenal gland

A

develops from the neural crest ectoderm which migrates to the cortical tissues (vasculature linkage to cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

stroma of adrenal gland

A

connective tissue capsule which extends septa

into the organ, carrying blood vessels and nerves to the medulla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Parenchyma of Adrenal gland

A

cortex has ‘epitheliod’ shaped secretory cells organized into cords (two
cells thick) next to fenestrated capillaries. Hormones are not stored, rather they are released after synthesis.
Medulla has irregular shaped cells (modified postganglionic neurons) in close association to vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Zona Glomerulosa (cortex of AG)

A

cell clusters or loops of cells.
H: mineralcorticoids
T: kidneys
A: sodium reabsorption, K excretion maintain balance
C: hypoplasia (addisons disease) results in sodium and fluid loss leading to shock and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

zona Fasciculata (middle largest cortical region AG)

A
radially arranged cell cords
H: glucocorticoids in response to ACTH from pituitary gland
T: many
Action: metabolism and immunosuppression
C: hyperplasia (cushings syndrome)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

zona reticularis ( cortex of AG)

A

network of cell cords
H: glucocorticoids, weak androgens in response to ACTH
T: many

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

medulla of AG

A

cells are modified postganglionic neurons, innervated by preganglionic
sympathetic neurons.
H: NE, E
(methylation of NE leads to E)
The peripheral region of the medulla may have the
highest concentration of epinephrine containing cells e.g., ruminant, pig and
horse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dual artery supply to the medulla AG

A

direct: branches off the capsular artery
indirect: vessels draining cortex (adrenomedullary collecting vein)

the glucocorticoids produced in the cortex are carried to the medullary region stimulating the conversion of NE to E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Adrenal gland drainage

A

central adrenomedullary vein drain the entire gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Thyroid gland morphology

A

shield shaped, unpaired with 2 lobes
Species variable appearance: single lobed
structure, lobes connected by an isthmus or totally separated lobes.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

thyroid gland development

A

endodermal outgrowth (foregut)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Thyroid gland stroma

A

capsule (thin) with CT septa into gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Thyroid gland parenchyma

A

thyroid follicles (functional unit), a sphere-like cluster of
follicular cells resting on an outer basement membrane and surrounded
by sinusoidal capillaries and lymphatics. Cell height: variable, dependent
on cell’s activity level. Cell surface: microvilli. Additional cell type in
thyroid gland: parafollicular cells, located adjacent (or incorporated
into) thyroid follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

hormone of follicular cells (TG)

A

thyroid hormone T3 and T4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Thyroid hormone

A
Hormone is stored within the
thyroid follicle lumen (*colloid)
until needed and release is
stimulated by thyrotrope cells
(thyroid stimulating hormone)
of the adenohypophysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Steps in synthesis and secretion of t3 and t4 (note)

A

chart in notes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Thyroid hormone Target and action

A

many cells and metabolic processes. ACTIONS: binds to receptor in cytoplasm 
ligand/receptor complex then binds to thyroid hormone response elements in nuclear DNA  activation of cellular DNA 
upregulation of general protein synthesis and increased metabolic rate in target cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

TH Clinical low

A

Low levels of TH depresses cellular metabolism causing immune destruction of the thyroid gland, iodine deficiency leading to inability to produce TH, body increases TSH (dog hypothyroidism)
Signs: depression of general activity level, weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

TH clinical high

A

Cats: hyperthyroidism (Grave’s disease) is more common then

hypothyroidism in cats. This condition can be due to a tumor of thyroid gland. Signs: weight loss but voracious appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

parafollicular cell

A
develop: neural crest origin
 pale, acidophilic
cytoplasm, many mitochondria and
small membrane bound granules.
Located throughout the thyroid gland
[within the follicular basement
membrane (singly) and between
follicles (in clusters)].
H: CALCITONIN
decrease blood Ca
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Parathyroid gland morph and development

A

pair associated with each lobe of the thyroid (4)

derivation from the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Parathyroid gland stroma

A

capsule comprised of thin CT surrounds each gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Parathyroid gland parenchyma

A

mainly small cells (in clusters or cords) called the Chief (or

principal) cells. These cells secrete parathyroid hormone. [Dark Chief cells are metabolically active (basophilic
cytoplasm) and have nuclei with condensed chromatin. Light Chief cells are inactive or depleted of granules.]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

parathyroid gland etc,

A

H: parathyroid hormone
helps to control blood Ca levels (detect and stimulate)
. CLINICAL: high levels (hyperparathyroidism) SIGNS: calcium deposits in blood
vessels, heart, kidneys, AND osteoporosis. Low levels (hypoparathyroidism). SIGNS: nerve hyperexcitability, muscle
spasm and tetany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

APUD

A

Amine Precursor Uptake and Decarboxylation (the diffuse neuroendocrine system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

APUD Info

A

Single cells or small clusters located throughout the body
Paracrine and autrocrine routes to transfer multiple hormones
H: biologically active amines
Amine precursors uptake  intracellular decarboxylation  biologically active amines.
Hormone products - stored (vesicles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Exocrine pancreas

A

85% of the pancreas and secretes digestive enzymes, water, NaHCO3 into the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Exocrine pancreas Stroma

A

Sparse stroma (investing CT) very thin capsule and delicate CT septa that divide the gland into many distinct lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Ex. Pancreas Parenchyma

A

functional part of the organ. contains:
acinus
acinar cells
centroacinar cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

acinus

A

the main functional pancreatic unit
responsible for synthesizing and secreting enzymes and proenzymes. Each acinus is comprised of about 50 acinar cells within a
basal lamina. There are no myoepithelial cells in pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

acinar cells

A

are highly polarized and pyramidal in shape with basal

nuclei and abundant RER; apical, membrane bound zymogen granules are evident.

70
Q

centroacinar cells

A

pale, cuboidal cells with elongated central nuclei and abundant mitochondria located in the center of the acini;
(they secrete water and electrolytes and are the first cells of the intercalated ducts. They are difficult to visualize in histological sections

71
Q

Ex. Pancreas Duct system

A

intercalated ducts, intraloular ducts, interlobular ducts

72
Q

intercalated ducts pancreas

A

exit of centroacinar cells composed of low cuboidal or simple squamous epithelium secretes large amounts of bicarbonate ions which neutralize acid from the stomach

73
Q

intralobular ducts (pancreas)

A

made from several fused intercalated ducts. their epithelium is still cuboidal (Pancreas has no striated ducts)

74
Q

interlobular ducts

A

found in stromal C.T. leading to the main
duct, which may be lined by columnar epithelium. The main duct
runs the length of the gland and pierces the wall of the duodenum.

75
Q

Pancreas storage

A

enzymes and zymogen synthesized in acinar and stored in granules

76
Q

Zymogen

A

granules accumulated at apex of acinar cell when the cell is stimulated by a hormonal signal or a nerve impulse,
the contents of the granules are released into a duct leading into theduodenum.

77
Q

Pancreatic juice

A

enzymes that digest the main components of ingested food.
Zymogen enzymes are inactive
proenzymes, which are activated by specific proteolytic cleavages
within the duodenum. These are carried to the duodenum along with
water, electrolytes and bicarbonate (HCO3

78
Q

General islets

Endocrine

A

islet parenchymal cells are derived from the endoderm of the developing duodenum

79
Q

Pancreatic islets

endocrine

A

are
scattered throughout the exocrine pancreas with cells arranged in
cords or clusters and occupy 1-2% of pancreatic volume.

80
Q

Endocrine pancreas stroma

A

sparse reticular CT

81
Q

Endo. pancreas parenchyma

A

several types of cells in cords or clusters these are islet cells 4 that secrete polypeptides

82
Q

Alpha islet cells

A

produce and release glucagon (10-20% of islets)

83
Q

Beta islet cells

A

Produce and release insulin (60 - 75% islet )

84
Q

delta islet cells

A

produce and release somatostatin (4-6% islet)

85
Q

PP cells

A

produce and release pancreatic polypeptide 2%

86
Q

Fenestrated capillaries

A

have pores thta open directly between vascular spce and the capillary basement membrane (endocrine glands one of the few places that these form)
leads to rapid diffusion into the circulatory system (not big enough for platelets

87
Q

Islet hormone major targets

A

anabolic actions of insulin: liver, adipose, and muscle.

need to have insulin cell receptors.

88
Q

insulin in liver

A

promote glycogen synthesis with glycogen synthetase (inhibiting glycogen phosphorylase)

89
Q

insulin in muscle and adipose

A

uptake of glucose through GLUT4.

muscles make glycogen and adipose makes FA for triglyceride storage

90
Q

insulin in muscles

A

stimulate uptake of AA. suppress mobilization of fuels (no breakdown of glycogen in liver, release of AA or FA)

91
Q

Role of Female System

A

production of ovum, secretion of hormones, a conduit for transport of
sperm, environment for embryo/fetal development and a means for parturition.

92
Q

Ovary morph

A

oval shaped with indentation (hilus) where nerves and vessels enter and exit

93
Q

Ovary Stroma

A

Dense connective tissue
capsule (tunica albuginia) covered with tunica serosa
(visceral peritoneum). Connective tissue support
throughout organ, large vessels in medullary region

94
Q

Ovary parenchyma cortex

A

contain ovarian follicles and cords of cells (cortical cords). endocrine cells between the follicles that produce estrogen

95
Q

ovary parenchyma medula

A

embryonic remnants arranged as cords of cells (medullary cords) some with a small cavity (rete ovarii)

96
Q

mare difference ovary

A

mare cortex and
medulla are reversed i.e. medullary tissue surrounds most of cortical tissue except in an indented
region the ovulation fossa (ovulation site).

97
Q

ovary development

A

primordial germ cells migrate from the yolk sac to the gonadal ridge .
PGC mitotic division result in lifetime supply of ovuum at birth.
meiosis: arrested at the primary oocyte stage with a single flattened layer of surrounding follicular cells (primordial follicle)
develop when chosen after puberty

98
Q

ovarian follicle steps

A

oocyte, follicular cells, ovulation, Corpus Luteum, CL degrade to Corpus albicans

99
Q

primordial follicle

A

inactive single layer of flattened follicular cells

100
Q

primary follicle

A

1st active stage, a single layer cuvoidal follicular cell. Zona Pellucida beginning to form.

101
Q

secondary follicle

A

2 or more layers of follicular cells (stratum granulosa layer). obvious: zona Pelucida, outer basement membrane and thecal layers

102
Q

tertiary follicle

A

antral growing (graffian follicle) same layers as secondary follicle, but more
elaborate. NEW features (1) follicular antrum (cavity); (2) cumulus oophorus a ‘cloud’ of follicular cells that
remains associated with the primary oocyte, the innermost cells are called the corona radiata.

103
Q

Estrogen production follicles

A

larger follicles produce Estrogen to prime the uterus to receive a fertilized egg. secretion of uterine “milk” to supply the egg with nutrients

104
Q

Steps of Estrogen production

A

2-cell gonadotropin model: LH binds theca interna cells stimulating testosterone production. T diffuses into the stratum granulosum layer.
Granulosa cells receive FSH making enzymes to convert T to estradiol

105
Q

follicle fate

A

degeneration
ovulation
corpus luteum formation
luteolysis

106
Q

follicle degeneration

A

nucleus condenses or breaks apart, basement membrane components may
thicken. Degeneration can happen at any stage e.g. small follicles may reabsorb completely, large
follicles may be replaced by a ‘scar’

107
Q

follicular ovulation

A

tertiary follicle rupture and the release of antral fluid plus oocyte. The
will float into the uterine tube, where it may encounter sperm. If fertilization occurs the zygote will
float toward the uterus. Unfertilized ovum will degenerate.

108
Q

Follicular CL

A

Post-Ovulation  corpus hemorrhagicum  corpus luteum.
bloody clot formation of tert. follicle due to rupture, stromal cells remove clot, The follicle wall remnants and surrounding theca interna cells transform into steroid-secreting
cells (luteinization) and are now termed “luteal cells”. The corpus luteum (CL) produces progesterone,
this hormone stimulates uterine glands to secrete and hinders uterine contractions to support the fertilized egg and allow attachment

109
Q

follicular luteolysis

A

CL no longer needed (not pregnant) prostaglandins will be produced by the uterus and result in luteolysis

110
Q

prostoglandin depends on species

A

most: produced in uterus and transported through venous drainage and entire system to reach CL.
Sow, ewe, cow: passive transport from venous drainage into adjacent ovarian artery (counter exchange) avoid breakdown in system

111
Q

follicular phase

A

follicules main with estrogen produced.

priming for breeding (estrus)

112
Q

luteal phase

A

CL main with progesterone produced.

post ovulation: prepare for fertilization and implantation. enrich the environment. no fertilization: luteolysis

113
Q

tubular organs of females

A

same layers found in typical tubes : tunica mucosa
tunica submucosa
tunica muscularis
tunica serosa/advenitia

114
Q

tunica mucosa

A

epithelium, lamina propria (CT), muscularis mucosa(smooth muscle)
muscle layer separates from next layer

115
Q

Tunica submucosa

A

referred to as t. mucosa/submucosa. Glands may be present

116
Q

tunica muscularis

A

may be composed of smooth or skeletal muscle, depending on the specific tubular organ

117
Q

tunica serosa/adventitia

A

indicates the presence or absence of an outer serosal covering (dependent on tubular organ you’re dealing with

118
Q

Key female repro features

A
luminal epithelium (simple columnar with cilia or not or stratified squamous).
Wall features: glands in the t. muc./submuc.? t. muscularis have smooth or skeletal muscle?
119
Q

key features chart

A

in notes look at it

120
Q

events in the female tubes

A

After fertilization of the ovum within the uterine tube and initial cleavage within this tube, the resultant
blastocyst floats to the uterus. Within the uterine lumen the secretions from the glands in this region
(“uterine milk”) provide the needed initial nourishment to this developing embryo.

121
Q

Placenta

A

union of extraembryonic membranes (chorion and allantois) with portions of the uterine
lining cells/wall to create an area of metabolic exchange (nourishment and waste removal) in addition to the
production of hormones important for pregnancy and parturition.

122
Q

nondeciduate or deciduate (shed)

A

Deciducate type of placentation
will shed a part of endometrium
during parturition

123
Q

Chorionic fold distribution

A

the pattern of contact between fetal and maternal tissue

124
Q

fetal/maternal blood separation

A

the materna layer that the chorion is apposed to

125
Q

vagina

A

site for insemination in most species, monitor heat cycles from vaginal swabs

126
Q

vestibule/vulva

A

st. squamous with erectile tissue and mucosal glands (vestibule). dense vascular plexus (vulva)
T. muscularis has smooth and skeletal

127
Q

clit

A

penis homologue paired erectile tissue

128
Q

female urethra

A

open at vag. vest. junction.
epithelium: transitional changing to stratified cuboidal-columnar and the stratified squamous near external urethral orifice.
L.propria/submucosa with erectile tissue (endothelial lined cavernous spaces may be prominent)
T. muscularis: several ill-define layers; smooth muscle proximally, skeletal muscle (urethralis m.) near the external urethral orifice

129
Q

Scrotum

A
skin pouch with 2 cavities lined with parietal vaginal tunic, each containing a testis.
tunica dartos (sm. muscle in wall) regulate temp and position
130
Q

testis

A

covered with visceral vaginal tunic

131
Q

testis stroma

A

CT blends with dense irrecular CT of testicular capsule (tunica albuginea).
Septa subdivides testes into lobes

132
Q

Testis parenchyma

A

germinal epithelium of tubes and interstitial endocrine cells

133
Q

Interstitial endocrine cells (leydig cells)

A

produce testosterone and lay between testicular ducts

134
Q

intra testicular ducts

A

convoluted seminiferous tubules (CST)  straight tubules (ST)  rete testis (RT) and this connects to the extra testicular duct

135
Q

extra testicular duct

A

efferent ductules  epididymal duct  ductus deferens

136
Q

convoulted seminifersous tubules (CST)

A

stratified
epithelium containing cells related to sperm formation and
supportive (sustentacular) cells (details below). Many coiled
loops of tubules fill the testis

137
Q

straight tubules

A

small section of duct (only sustentacular cells) connects CST to RT

138
Q

Rete tubules

A

last portion of intra. test. ducts connects to epididymis

simple cuboidal - columnar

139
Q

CST stroma

A

tubules surrounded by basal lamina and peritubular contractile cells. contraction moves sperm and secretes out tubes

140
Q

CST parenchyma

A

sustentacular (sertoli) cells

several types of spermatogenic cells

141
Q

sustentacular cells

A

have a large nucleus with a prominent nucleoli; cytoplasmic processes surround
developing spermatogenic cells; tight junctions connect cells to each other. FUNCTION: nourish,
support spermatogenic cells; synchronize spermatogenesis; form blood testis barrier

142
Q

blood testis barrier

A

tight junctions between adjacent sustentacular and serves to compartmentalize the
epithelium into basal and adluminal (apical) compartments. Tissue fluid has relatively free access to the
basal compartment but not to the apical compartment where meiosis and spermiogenesis occur

143
Q

spermatogenic cells

A

stratified in epithelium according to stage of development/differentiation

144
Q

Spermatogenesis

A

spermatocytogenesis, meiosis, spermiogenesis

145
Q

spermatocytogenesis

A

multiple mitotic divisions of
spermatogonia  primary spermatocyte Cell moves to
adluminal compartment.

146
Q

meiosis of spermatogenesis

A

1 primary spermatocyte (4N)  2 secondary

spermatocytes (2N)  4 spermatids (1N)

147
Q

spermiogenesis

A

transformation of round spermatid to elongate sperm. form acrosome (enzyme cap). condense nucleus, lose cytoplasm and form motile tail

148
Q

epididymis morph

A

head, body, tail

149
Q

epididymis stroma

A

visceral vaginal tunic and a dense irregular CT covering

150
Q

Epididymis parenchyma

A

efferent ducts: from RT.

become one coiled ductus epididymis in head region and tail is continuous with ductus deferens

151
Q

efferent ductules:

A

tubules with CT and contractile cells. cilia to move the sperm long and non ciliated to reabsorb fluid

152
Q

ductus epididymis

A

head to body to tail increase in smooth muscle.

Epithelium: PSc with long branched microvilli often matted together. they resorb most fluid that leaves the testes

153
Q

sperm storage

A

tail of epididymis

transit takes 10 to 15 days

154
Q

ductus deferens morph

A

straight tube continuation of epididymis. opens into urethra at the prostate

155
Q

DD stroma

A

multiple layers of Sm m.

156
Q

DD parenchyma

A

PSC epithelium with microvilli to SC

some species have accessory glands at the end called ampulla

157
Q

Acessory gland

A

produce the seminal plasma providing nutrients, transport, cleaning, lubrication

has SM. m. that squeezes to secrete the gland

158
Q

4 accessory male organs

A

ampulla, vesicular, prostate, bulbourethral

chart of who has what in the notes

159
Q

Prostate who has what

A

all have HRPDC

160
Q

bulbourethral who has what

A

HRPC have and dog doesnt

161
Q

prostate gland

A

body: at the level of colliculus seminalis (around or on top of )
disseminate can only see microscopically

162
Q

Prostate gland Stroma

A

capsule with DICT and sm. m.

skeletal urethralis m. may surround disseminate

163
Q

prostate gland parenchyma

A

cuboidal columnar. disseminate - mucous type glands deep to mucosa

164
Q

urethra

A

tube for urine outflow

165
Q

pelvic urethra

A

portion in pelvic canal has pre and post prostatic parts possible

166
Q

penile urethra

A

close to the bladder is sm. m. (internal urethral sphincter)
sk. m. (external urethral sphincter) of distal urethra. transitional epithelium. may have mucosal

167
Q

Penis

A

root, body, free part

168
Q

fibroelastic penis

A

stiff, nonexpansile, has sigmoid flexure which straightens for elongation

169
Q

musculovascular

A

flexiblie with expansion due to blood flow and stiffening (horses and dogs)

170
Q

Erectile tissue

A

dense collagenous CT with elastic

helicine arteris with longitudinal sm. m. in tunica interna resulting in an irregular outline.
relaxation allows blood flow into the erectile tissue

171
Q

identifiable features ofr root body and free part

A

in notes