Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

majority of Ab in circulation, unique ability to cross mammalian placenta (passive immunity)

A

IgG

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2
Q

expressed on surface of naive B cells, only Ab made when see infection for primary immune response

A

IgM

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3
Q

Ab in allergic reactions and parasitic infections

A

IgE

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4
Q

less common than IgM

A

IgD

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5
Q

found in mucosal areas, most produced per day in adult

A

IgA

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6
Q

antigen that elicits immune response

A

immunogen

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7
Q

Ag that induces immunological tolerance or immune non-responsiveness

A

tolerogen

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8
Q

Ag that causes immediate hypersensitivity reaction

A

allergen

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9
Q

cross-reactivity

A

between Ab and Ag generated against a diff but similar Ag

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10
Q

differences between gram negative and positive cell envelopes

A
\+ = thick PDG, teichoic acid, small periplasmic space, no outer membrane or LPS
- = thin PDG, no teichoic acid, outer membrane, LPS
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11
Q

transporters that move iron across outer membrane

A

TonB recepter (gram - only)- transfers iron siderophore complex

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12
Q

transporters that move iron across plasma/inner membrane

A

ABC transporters

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13
Q

gram positive cell wall

A

thick, lots PDG and teichoic acids

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14
Q

gram negative cell wall

A

thin, little PDG, b/t PM and OM in periplasmic space

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15
Q

hair like filaments ached to PM, function to attach to surfaces

A

pili (fimbriae)

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16
Q

types of specialized pili

A

F-pilus = sex pilus, exchange DNA b/t G- via conjugation

Type IV pilus = produced by pathogenic bacteria, adhere to host cell and inject virulence effector molecules

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17
Q

categories of metabolic reactions

A

fueling - generate energy, reducing agents and precursor metabolites
biosynthetic - use precursor metabolites to form macromolecules
polymerization - macromolecule synthesis
assembly - localization of macromolecules into cellular compartments

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18
Q

3 fueling reaction pathways

A

glycolytic, pentose phosphate, krebs

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19
Q

terminal e- acceptors of anaerobic respiration

A

Fe3+, SO42-, NO3-

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20
Q

types of mobile genetic elements

A

transposons, IS elements, plasmids

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21
Q

extrachromosomal, circular, self replicating DNA fragments

A

plasmids

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22
Q

mediate own transfer from cell to cell or species to species

- responsible for spread of antibiotic resistance

A

conjugative plasmid

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23
Q

What do plasmids and conjugative plasmids always have in structure

A

O of R, antibiotic resistance gene, restriction enzyme recognition site

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24
Q

What do plasmids sometimes have in structure

A

origin of transfer, other genes

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25
Q

advantages of plasmid

A

selective advantage, pathogenic ability

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26
Q

What are transposable elements

A

excise themselves from chromosome or plasmid and insert into another chromosome or plasmid

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27
Q

IS element structure

A

transposes gene flanked by inverted repeats

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28
Q

Non composite transposon structure

A

transposes + accessory genes; flanked by in repeats

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29
Q

composite transposon structure

A

accessory genes, flanked by 2 IS elements

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30
Q

advantages of transposition

disadvantages

A
  • selective advantage and pathogenic virulence

- can knockout imp/essential/virulence genes

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31
Q

one way transfer of genetic material between bacterial cells through sex pilus

A

conjugation

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32
Q

what does TRA genes encode?

A

sex pilus proteins, proteins that fuse to membrane and surface exclusion proteins to prevent mating

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33
Q

direct uptake of naked DNA from environment by competent cells

A

transformation

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34
Q

What makes cell competent?

A

ability of bacterium to take up DNA directly from environment (induced by DNA damaging stress)

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35
Q

advantages of transformation

disadvantages

A
  • DNA damage repair, selective advantage, pathogenic virulence
  • possible gene activation or loss
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36
Q

transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by phage

A

transduction

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37
Q

options for linear DNA once acquired by bacterium (homologous recombination)

A

naked DNA -> transformation

transduced DNA -> incorporated into chromosome or plasmid

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38
Q

requirement for homologous recombination

A

large area, Rec A protein

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39
Q

Fur regulation (negative repressible operon)

A

iron = co-repressor
fur = repressor
High iron -> iron binds fur -> fur binds fur-box -> blocks transcription
Low iron -> promotor site free -> transcription -> express siderophore

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40
Q

alternative sigma factors

A

allow bacteria to alter gene expression in response to extracellular stress signals

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41
Q

components of 2 component regulatory system

A

component 1 = sensory histidine kinase
- detects signal -> autophosphorylates in response to signal -> transfers phosphoryl group to component 2
component 2 = response regulator
- gets phosphorylated -> activates or represses transcription

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42
Q

roles of normal human microbiota

A

exclude pathogens, prime immune system, aid in nutrition

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43
Q

skin defenses

A

skin lipids and fatty acids, conjunctiva/eye mucous membrane secretes lysozyme, digest cell wall

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44
Q

where are the highest bacterial levels in skin

A

moist areas, staphylococci, propionibacterium all over skin

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45
Q

mouth bacteria

A

streptococci

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46
Q

throat bacteria, stomach, small intestine, colon

A

neisseria, H.pylori, streptococci E.coli and clostridium, E coli

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47
Q

nostrils bacteria, nasopharynx, lower respiratory tract

A

S aureus, S pneumo N meningitidis Haemophilus, transient bacteria due to cilia

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48
Q

vagina bacteria, puberty, menopause, bladder

A

staphylococci, lactobacilli, lactobacilli, sterile except lower 1 cm

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49
Q

Where are virulence genes found in a cell?

A

pathogenicity islands, plasmid encoded (virulence plasmids), transposon, prophage

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50
Q

quorum sensing

A

system of cell to cell communication where bacteria monitor density of population to synchronize behavior to accomplish task

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51
Q

signaling molecule in gram - QS

A

acyl homoserine lactone (produced by LuxI)

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52
Q

receptor/response regulator in gram - QS

A

Lux R -detects AHL -> turns on expression of virulence genes

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53
Q

signaling molecule in gram + QS

A

oligopeptide - transported out of cell

54
Q

receptor and response regulator in gram + QS

A
receptor = on cell surface
regulator = transcription activator
55
Q

How do non phagocytic bacteria survive once invade host?

A

lyse and escape vacuole -> replicate and infect adj cells

56
Q

how do phagocytic cells survive once invade host?

A

lyse phagosome -> escape into cytosol -> replicate OR

remain in phagosome -> replicate -> prevent lysosome binding and block oxidative bursts

57
Q

Types of immune evasion by bacteria

A

hide, cell envelope modification, effector molecule, mimicry

58
Q

What is a biofilm?

A

organized multicellular community of bacteria

59
Q

biofilm formation

A

planktonic bacteria in fluid environment -> attach to living or inert surface -> multiply -> reach particular density and secrete exopolysaccharide -> grow to mushroom shape

60
Q

Active dispersal of biofilm

A

enzymatic degradation of polysaccharide matrix

61
Q

passive dispersal of biofilm

A

sloughing off or breaking off

62
Q

Advantages of biofilm

A

resistant to antimicrobials, host defenses, and mechanical removal, pool nutritional resources and traps addition nutrients from fluid

63
Q

How is intracellular iron bound?

A

by ferritin or Hemoglobin

64
Q

how is extracellular iron bound?

A

by transferrin

65
Q

What does iron bind after RBC lysis?

A

haptoglobin and hemopexin

66
Q

What does iron bind during infection

A

lactoferrin extracellularly

67
Q

Sources of iron for bacteria

A

receptors already mentioned, siderophores, and hemophores

68
Q

How has host cell adapted to bacterial siderophores?

Bacterial response?

A
produce siderocalin (Sn) -> binds to siderophore receptors so iron can't bind
- bacteria produce stealth siderophores that prevent Sn binding
69
Q

Severe systemic response, interaction of bacterial components with macrophages, characterized by hemodynamic derangement and multiple organ failure

70
Q

Most often cause of sepsis

A

endogenous infections of peritoneum, urinary tract and upper respiratory tract

71
Q

features of hemodynamic derangement

A

decrease BP, increased cardiac output, low organ movement

72
Q

modes of inhibiting cell wall synthesis

A

ALL bactericidal

  • inhibit PDG synthesis
  • disrupt translocation of PDG to cell wall
  • district PDG cross links
73
Q

Modes of inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis

A

ALL bactericidal

  • inhibit DNA gyrase or topoisomerase
  • produce cytotoxic int to damage DNA
  • bind RNAP, prevent transcription
74
Q

Mode of inhibiting protein synthesis

A
  • irreversibly bind 30S ribosomal unit (bactericidal)
  • block tRNA binding to 30S (bacteriostatic)
  • bind peptide transferase component of 50S, blocking peptide elongation (bacteriostatic)
  • bind 50S preventing ribosome movement (bacteriostatic)
75
Q

Modes of inhibiting essential folate synthesis

A

ALL bacteriostatic

  • inhibit dihydrofolate reductase preventing folic acid synthesis
  • compete for incorporations into folic acid synthesis reaction
76
Q

Modes of damaging cell membrane

A

ALL bactericidal

- cationic detergent like activity, permeabilize cells, contents leak out

77
Q

3 types of antibiotic resistance

A

modifications of antibiotic, preventing antibiotic from reaching target, modification of target

78
Q

When does somatic recombination (VDJ) occur and where?

A

in bone marrow during maturation

79
Q

When does central tolerance occur?

A

maturation - checks to see if B cells are recognizing self antigens

80
Q

When does somatic hypermutation occur and where?

A

lymph in differentiation

81
Q

When does affinity maturation, peripheral tolerance and isotope witching occur?

A

differentiation

82
Q

3 signal model of Td B cell activation

A

recognize antigen -> internalize and present on MHC -> B-T conjugate, linked recognition and CD40 costimulatory molecule interaction -> cytokine stimulation -> B cell differentiation

83
Q

linked recognition

A

reduces likelihood that autoreactive B cell will be activated
- B and T cell epitopes must be present on same macromolecular structure or in same pathogen

84
Q

lymphoid follicle vs germinal center

A

follicles are present in context of lymph nodes -> follicular dendritic cells trap ag on cell surface to stimulate B cell differentiation -> 1˚ follicle converted to 2˚/ germinal center

85
Q

somatic hypermutation

A

random point mutation that occur in V region of Ab

86
Q

Function of plasma cells

A

secrete Ab, neutralization and opsonization, APC to T cells

87
Q

Which Ab is active in the primary immune response? secondary?

88
Q

4 effector functions of AB

A

neutralization
classical complement activation - Fc region exposed from binding C1q and MAC
opsonization - Ab enhance recognition by phagocytic cells
Ab-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity - destroy large pathogens, release granulocytes to destroy (NK cells and esosinophils)

89
Q

Which effector functions of Ab are FcR mediated and isotope dependent?

A

classical complement activation is isotope dependent

opsonization and Ab-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity are both FcR mediated and isotope dependent

90
Q

components of BCR

A

non-covalent assoc between membrane bound Ig and transmembrane Iga/IgB heterodimer = BCR

91
Q

Somatic recombination

A

gene rearrangement, NOT Ag driven, occurs during B cell development in bone marrow
- H chain = VDJ while L chain is only VJ

92
Q

Junctional diversity

A

imprecise joining of gene segments

- deletion of nucleotides, add P/N nucleotides during VDJ rearrangement

93
Q

What are CDRs?

A

located on V regions of H/L chains, shortenings stretched of 5-7 aa separated by “framework” regions
- provide diversity for Ig to recognize molecules

94
Q

Linear vs conformation epitope

A
linear = recognized by linear sequence aa 
conformational = 3D shape (most Ab recognize)
95
Q

strength of non covalent assoc b/t one Ag binding site and antigenic epitope

96
Q

overall strength of binding b/t multivalent Ab and Ag

97
Q

results when 1 epitope shared by 2 Ag or 2 epitopes on separate Ag are similar in structure

A

cross-reactivity

98
Q

2 examines of extracellular bacteria

A

strep. pneumonia and aeruginose and staphylococcus aureus

99
Q

Endotoxin vs Exotoxin

A
endotoxin = lipid portions of LPS molecules within gram - cell wall, release when bacterial cell damaged, activate macrophages and induce cytokine production
exotoxin = toxic proteins secreted by gram + or -
100
Q

types of phagocytosis

A

type I = use PRR to bind PAMPs

type II = use opsonic receptors, more efficient

101
Q

2 types intracellular bacteria

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis and listeria monocytogenes

102
Q

Which type of immune mechanism is predominant in extracellular killing of bacteria?

A

cell mediated rather than Ab

103
Q

Good effects of inflammation

A

dilution of toxins, entry of Ab, fibrin formation, delivery of nutrients and O2, stimulation of immune response

104
Q

Harmful effects of inflammation

A

persistant cytokne release, destruction of normal tissues, swelling, inappropriate inflammatory response

105
Q

prostaglandins and nitric oxide

A

vasodilation

106
Q

histamine, bradykinin, complement leukotrienes, prostaglandins, O2 free radicals

A

increase vascular permeability

107
Q

IL, leukotriene, complement

A

chemotaxis

108
Q

complement, IL, platelet activating factor

A

lysosomal granule release

109
Q

complement

A

phagocytosis

110
Q

IL, TNF-a, prostaglandins

111
Q

prostaglandins, bradykinin, histamine

112
Q

lysosomal enzymes, O2 free radical, nitric oxides

A

tissue damage

113
Q

granulomatous inflammation

A

distinctive pattern of chronic inflammation with focal collection of macrophages

114
Q

2 types of outcomes after inflammation

A

resolution and fibrosis

115
Q

variables affecting repair after inflammation

A

infection, nutrition, anti-inflammatory drugs, mechanical variables, vascular disease, tissue type, degree of exudate removal, regulation of cell proliferation

116
Q

4 steps of leukocyte migration

A

1) tethering rolling: slow LC down
2) integrin activation: chemokine act on rolling LC increasing integrin affinity
3) adherence: cytoskeleton rearrangement
4) migration through endothelium

117
Q

2 types of adhesins

A
chemokine = expressed on LC
integrin = expressed on endothelial cells
118
Q

MALT type I mucosa

A

simple columnar or pseudo stratified columnar, organized lymphoid structures (lungs, gut, uterus, urethra)

119
Q

MALT type II mucosa

A

stratified squamous epithelial cells , lack organization (mouth, vagina, nose, middle ear)

120
Q

inductive vs effector sites

A
inductive = encounter Ag 1st
effector = dispatch LC
121
Q

2 major sections of GALT

A

epithelium and lamina propria (lymphoid follicles in LP)

122
Q

What is the main IG present in mucosal sites?

123
Q

3 components of SALT

A

epidermis, dermis, hypodermis

124
Q

dendritic cells of skin

A

langerhan’s cells (APC)

125
Q

What do TLR recognize?

A

LPS, not found in host cell

- TLR tells nucleus to make Type I interferons

126
Q

What do Type I interferons do? TNF a/b?

A

prevent infection from occurring, TNF a/b are two classes of type I interferons that inhibit viral replication and protein synthesis

127
Q

Receptors on phagocytes?

A

N-foryml-methionyl, mannose and scavenger

128
Q

What happens when have DAMPS

A

phagocytosis increases

129
Q

What do all TLR result in the production of?

A

inflammatory cytokines

130
Q

What do intracellular TLR produce?

A

Type I IFN

131
Q

What do cytokines induce formation of?

A

reactive endothelium

132
Q

What are the 3 parts of LPS?

A

lipid A: anchors substrate, toxic
O-antigen: Ab target, outermost region
core polysaccharide: short chain uncommon sugars, highly conserved