Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three main stages of motor learning?

A

(1) cognitive
(2) associative
(3) autonomous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the purpose of the cognitive stage?

A

develop an overall understanding of the task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which stage is movement primarily guided by vision?

A

cognitive stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the training strategies for the cognitive stage of motor learning?

A

(1) LOTS of extrinsic feedback
(2) verbal instruction
(3) manual guidance
(4) demonstrations
(5) mental practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the purpose of the associative stage?

A

refining the strategy for the task; improving coordination and efficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

during what stage of motor learning are proprioceptive cues more important than visual cues?

A

associative stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

during which stage of motor learning does the patient develop a reference of correctness?

A

cognitive stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the training strategies for the associative stage of motor learning?

A

(1) video self assessment
(2) less verbal cues
(3) allow for performer to refine movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the purpose of the autonomous stage?

A

movement is refined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what stage of motor learning is the patient able to perform the task in a variety of environments and able to do secondary tasks?

A

autonomous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the training strategies for the associative stage of motor learning?

A

(1) primarily intrinsic feedback

(2) treatment is enhanced by a variety of environmental situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is concurrent feedback?

A

extrinsic feedback given during the task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is terminal feedback?

A

extrinsic feedback given at the end of a task

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is knowledge of performance?

A

related to the nature or quality of the movement pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is knowledge of results?

A

terminal feedback about the end result or outcome of the movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when is constant feedback given?

A

after every trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when is delayed feedback given?

A

after a brief time delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when is summary feedback given?

A

after a set number of trials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is faded feedback given?

A

less frequently with ongoing practice (feedback is faded)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how is bandwidth feedback given?

A

given only if performance falls outside of a predetermined error range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how does FREQUENT extrinsic feedback affect motor performance and motor learning?

A

(1) IMPROVES motor performance

(2) SLOWS motor learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how does INFREQUENT extrinsic feedback affect motor performance and motor learning?

A

(1) SLOWS motor performance

(2) IMPROVES motor learning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

during which stage of learning is extrinsic feedback used more frequently? which stages is it used less?

A

(1) More: cognitive (helps develop reference of correctness

(2) Less: associative and autonomous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is massed practice?

A

practice time is GREATER than rest time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is distributed practice?
practice time is LESS than or equal to rest time
26
what is constant practice? is it better for motor performance or motor learning?
(1) practice the same way | (2) promotes motor performance
27
what is variable practice? is it better for motor performance or motor learning?
(1) practice with variations of the task | (2) promotes motor learning
28
what is blocked practice? is it better for motor performance or motor learning?
(1) one task practiced repeatedly | (2) promotes motor performance
29
what is random practice? is it better for motor performance or motor learning?
(1) variety of tasks performed in random order | (2) promotes motor learning
30
what are the three components of motor function?
(1) task (2) individual (3) environment
31
what are four different types of tasks?
(1) transitional mobility (2) stability (3) dynamic postural control (4) skill
32
what is a discrete task?
has a definite beginning and end (ex. sit to stand)
33
what is a continuous task?
no definite beginning or end (ex. walking or riding a bike)
34
what is a serial task?
series of discrete tasks strung together (ex. getting dressed)
35
what is the difference between open and closed tasks?
open tasks are variable changing environment; closed tasks
36
what are two types of mobility dysfunction?
(1) tissue extensibility (extraarticular) | 2) joint mobility (intrarticular
37
what are two types of stability dysfunction?
(1) isolated (isolated weakness, joint laxity, etc.) | 2) complex (multiple systems, motor control
38
what is the purpose of screening?
to check risk and protect somebody from something unpleasant or dangerous
39
what is the purpose of testing?
to gauge ability; series of questions, problems and tasks (measurement with no interpretation needed)
40
what is the purpose of assessment?
to estimate inability; calculate a value based on various factors
41
what are the 7 components of the FMS?
(1) deep squat (2) hurdle step (3) in-line lunge (4) shoulder mobility (5) active SLR (6) trunk stability push-up (7) rotary stability
42
what are the scores for the FMS?
0 - pain 1 - can't perform (no pain) 2 - performs with compensations 3 - performs correctly
43
is the FMS a diagnostic tool?
NO; it's a screening tool but NOT diagnostic
44
how is the SFMA scored?
(1) Functional Non-painful (2) Functional Painful (3) Dysfunctional Painful (4) Dysfunctional Non-painful
45
when creating a functional performance test, what should be included?
(1) match the sport or occupation (2) objective (3) reliable (4) sensitive to change (ex. having an athlete perform a S/L leg press)
46
what should be addressed first when a patient presents with impairments, mobility or stability?
generally speaking, mobility is worked on before stability (getting full ROM takes priority)
47
what is a Functional Capacity Assessment?
assessment examine if the patient can do their job and the demands the job imposes on the patient
48
what is the difference between an assessment and an evaluation?
an assessment is collecting objective data and an evaluation is using your clinical decision making to determine what the objective data means
49
why were FCE's created?
introduced by workers' comp to help objectively measure a patient's level if function within the individual's work environment
50
what are a few ways physical therapists can get into preventative medicine within the workplace?
(1) pre-employment screenings (2) job analysis (3) education on body mechanics and prevention of overuse syndromes
51
in a workman's comp situation, who is the most affected person? who the 2nd most affected person?
(1) 1st: the employee who's out of work | (2) 2nd: the employer who has to pay an employee not to work
52
What grip should be used for PNF techniques?
-Lumbrical
53
What are preporatory verbal cues?
-ques to get ready for the movement, use in the cognitive stage
54
what is a safe functional maximum?
(1) maximum effort performed safely | 2) not dictated by pain (the activity can be safe and be uncomfortable
55
What are corrective cues?
-used to modify or improve the movement
56
what are potential outcomes of an FCA?
(1) return to work (2) go to work hardening (3) disability (4) job modification
57
what should be performed prior to an FCA/E?
a normal PT evaluation so you know the physical limitations
58
what is the difference between malingering and symptom magnification?
(1) malingering: psychological diagnosis (describes motivation) (2) symptom magnification: describes objective inconsistency of the test (describes behavior) PTs use symptom magnification NOT malingering
59
What is approximation used for?
-to facilitate a muscle response or extensor pattern and during stabilizing activities
60
What is traction used for?
-To facilitate smooth motion, muscle elongation or resist some part of the motion
61
What is irradiation?
-the spread of a response to a stimuli
62
Irradiation response will increase as what increase?
-Duration or intensity of the stimulus
63
What is a quick stretches used to facilitate?
-a muscle contraction and contraction of synergistic muscles
64
What is the only time you should utilize a quick stretch technique?
-When you are trying to facilitate a dynamic muscle activity
65
What is a contraindication of a quick stretch?
-injury or instability
66
What is rythmic initiation?
- Rythmic motion of the limb/body through a desired range, starting with PROM and working up to resistend
67
What is rythmic initiation used for? (5)
-Initiating movement, learning movement, changing the direction of movement, relaxation and Coordination/control
68
What is dynamic reversals?
-changing from agonist to antagonist contraction without pause or relaxation
69
What are Dynamic reversals used for? (5)
-Changing direction of movement, strength, endurance, coordination and ROM
70
What are stabilizing reversals?
- alternating isometric contraction with stabilizing hold onto agonist, THEN antagonist opposed by enough resistance to prevent movement - INTENTION TO MOVE
71
What does stabilizing reversals help improve? (5)
-Stability, Strength, Coordination, EnDurance and ROM
72
What is Rhythmic Stabilization?
- Alternating Isometric contraction of agonist patterns against resistance focusing on cocontraction? - NO INTENTION TO MOVE
73
What does Rhythmic Stabilization help with?
-Everything expect motion (learning, ititiating, starting)
74
What is repeated Quick Stretch?
-Stretch Reflex elicited from a muscle under tension of contraction
75
What can repeated quick stretch help?
-Everything except pain, relaxation and stability
76
What is combination of isotonics?
-use of concentrics, isometrics and eccentrics
77
What is combination of isotonics used for?
-Learning a motion, strength, stability, coordination
78
Hold Relax improves what?
-ROM, pain and relaxation
79
What does timing for emphasis improve?
-strength and coordination
80
Contract relax improves what?
-ROM
81
Hold Relax improves what?
-ROM, pain and relaxation
82
why were FCE's created?
introduced by workers' comp to help objectively measure a patient's level if function within the individual's work environment
83
what are a couple ways physical therapists can get into preventative medicine within the workplace?
(1) pre-employment screenings (2) job analysis (3) education on body mechanics and prevention of overuse syndromes
84
in a workman's comp situation, who is the most affected person? who the 2nd most affected person?
(1) 1st: the employee who's out of work | (2) 2nd: the employer who has to pay an employee not to work
85
what is the purpose of an FCE? (3)
``` (1) determine the presence/degree of disability (2) improve job role performance by identification of functional decrements (3) improve the likelihood of safe return to job/task performance ```
86
does an FCA look primarily at abilities or disabilities?
abilities; looking at what the person CAN do functionally
87
what is a safe functional maximum?
(1) maximum effort performed safely | 2) not dictated by pain (the activity can be safe and be uncomfortable
88
what are reasons to stop an FCA?
physiological reasons that can't be faked (such as angina, SOB, skin color, HR, etc.)
89
what are potential outcomes of an FCA?
(1) return to work (2) go to work hardening (3) disability (4) job modification
90
what should be performed prior to an FCA/E?
a normal PT evaluation so you know the physical limitations
91
what is the difference between malingering and symptom magnification?
(1) malingering: psychological diagnosis (describes motivation) (2) symptom magnification: describes objective inconsistency of the test (describes behavior) PTs use symptom magnification NOT malingering
92
When doing Anterior-Elevation/Posterior-Depression of the scapula, and deviation is noted, what should you do?
-Elevated the scapula, use lateral border to downward rotate and retract it back to neutral
93
When doing Posterior-Elevation/Anterior-Depression of the scapula, and deviation is noted, what should you do?
-Move shoulder into posterior elevation and compress and upwardly rotate it
94
What does Anterior Elevation help with?
-Reaching, Rolling Forward, Terminal Stance of gait (opposite leg at terminal swing)
95
What muscle are involved in anterior elevation?
-Levator, Rhomboids, Serratus
96
What does posterior depression help with?
-trunk extension, rolling backward, using crutches, pushing up with a straight trunk
97
What muscle are involved with posterior depression?
-lats rhomboids serratus
98
What does posterior elevation help with?
-moving backward, reaching back before throwing, donning a shirt
99
What muscles are involve in posterior elevation?
-Traps, Levator
100
What does anterior depression help with?
-Reaching down, or forward, rolling forward or the end phase of throwing a ball
101
What muscle are involved in anterior depression of the scauple?
-Rhomboids, pec major and minor, serratus
102
What does anterior elevation of the pelvis help with?
-rolling forward and swing phases of gait
103
What muscle are involved with anterior elevation of the pelvis?
-internal/external obliques (ipsilateral)
104
What does posterior depression of the pelvis help with?
-terminal stance, jumping, walking stairs, making high steps
105
What muscles are involved with posterior depression of the pelvis?
-contralateral internal/external obliques
106
What does posterior elevation of the pelvis help with?
-walking backward, preparing to kick a ball
107
What muscle are involved with posterior elevation of the pelvis?
-QL, lats, iliocostalis, longissimus
108
What does anterior elevation of the pelvis help with?
-going down stair, initial contact, loading response
109
What muscle are involve in anterior depression of the pelvis?
-contralateral QL, illiocostalis, longissimus
110
Scapular anterior elevation with pelvic posterior depression cuases what?
-Trunk elongation, with rotation (symmetrical reciprocal)
111
Scapular posterior depression, and pelvic anterior elevation caused what?
-Trunk shortening, with rotation (symetrical reciprocal)
112
Scapular Anterior Depression and Pelvic anterior Elevation causes what?
-Massed Flexion (Asymmetrical)
113
Scapular Posterior depression and pelvic posterior elevation causes what?
-Massed extension (Asymmetrical)
114
LE D2 Extension helps with what movements?
-Supine to side lying
115
What functional Activities does UE D1 Extension help with?
-sit to stand, scooting forward, sit to side lying
116
What Functional activities does UE D2 flexion help with?
-reaching a seat belt, reching in general
117
What functional Activities does UE D2 extension help with?
-putting on a seat belt, tucking in a shirt
118
What type of pattern would D1 flexion with D2 flexion be?
-Bilateral Asymmetrical (both flexed, opposite pattern)
119
What type of pattern would D1 flexion with D1 extension be?
-Bilateral Symmetrical Reciprocal (same pattern, opposite movement)
120
What type of pattern would D1 Flexion and D2 extension be?
-Bilateral Symmetrical Reciprocal
121
Chops and Lifts are considered to be what type of pattern?
-Bilateral Asymmetrical
122
Whats help with what activities?
-Supine to side lying/prone, supine to sit
123
Lifts help wit what activities?
-Side lying to supine
124
LE D1 Flexion helps with what activies?
-Swing phase of gait, ascending stairs
125
LE D1 Extension helps with what?
-Stance phase of gait, descending stairs
126
LE D2 Flexion helps with what movements?
-Stepping into a shower, Sitting to side lying
127
LE D2 Extension helps with what movements?
-Supine to side lying
128
What is balance?
-The ability to maintain the CENTER OF GRAVITY within the BASE OF SUPPORT
129
What must you be able to to do maintain balance?
-detect bodies position and movements, relay info back to CNS, and select the appropriate response
130
What three systems play into balance?
-Vestibular, Visual, Somatosensory
131
What sense is most relied on in healthy adults?
-Somatosensory
132
What system measure perception of the orientation of the head/eye with the environement?
-Visual
133
What system registers orientation and movement of the head?
-Vestibular
134
What system relied on feedback from mechanoreceptor and sense the position and movement of the body?
-somatosenory
135
What is the ability to maintain a point of visual fixation during head movement?
-vestibulo-ocular reflex
136
What controls the center of gravity?
-postural muscles
137
What factors can effect balance?
-posture, diease, drugs, deconditioned state, disuse, injury, fatigue
138
Posture can effect what 3 things?
-balance, strength and coordination
139
What is crucial to balance?
-Postural Equilibrium
140
How does fatigue affect balance?
-it worsens or impairs proprioceptions and nueromuscular control
141
What are the 3 position of the rhomburg?
-Feet together, eyes closed, hands at side
142
What are the positions of the balance error scoring system?
- feet together, SLS non dominnat, tandem non dominant forward - firm and foam surface
143
What type of exercise should you used to train balance?
-CKC
144
How do CKC exercises help improve balance?
-stimulate mechanoreceptors and encourages functional cocontractions
145
What is the center of performance and function?
-proprioception
146
posture requires input from what 3 systems?
-visual, vestibular, somatosensory
147
How can you stimulate mechanoreceptors?
-WB, Ocillations, and isometrics
148
What is static balance?
-COG over fixed BOS
149
What is semidynamic balance?
- COG over fixed BOS on an unstable surface | - Transfers of COG over fixed BOX on stabel surface
150
What is dynamic balance?
-COG over moving BOS
151
What type of exercises should you start with when beginning to train balance?
-Static, sitting, eyes open, stable surfaces
152
True or false, you need full WB to train balance?
-False
153
Closing your eye does what?
-enhances somatosensory control of balance