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RUSVM Principles of Infectious Diseases Summer 2016 > Exam I > Flashcards

Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

Gram + Bacteria stains ______, while Gram - stains ______.

A

Blue; pink/red

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2
Q

What does PRR stand for?

A

Pattern Recognition Receptors

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3
Q

What does TLR stand for?

A

Toll like Receptors

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4
Q

True or False: TLR’s are PPR’s?

A

TRUE

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5
Q

Are PPR’s part of the innate or adaptive immune system?

A

Innate

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6
Q

What do PPR’s recognize?

A

PAMP’s (pattern recognition molecular patterns)

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7
Q

Which type of cell has PPR’s on it’s surface?

A

Macrophages

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8
Q

Which immune system is the complement system found it?

A

Innate

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9
Q

What are four constitutional factors that make one organism innately more susceptible to certain infections and one organism resistant?

A

Age
Genetic makeup
Metabolic factors
Environment

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10
Q

The flow of fluid in different systems of the body is an example of what kind of barrier?

A

Mechanical

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11
Q

Two examples of a chemical barrier for the body are?

A

Lysosomes in tears and nasal cavity/ sebum on the skin

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12
Q

Normal gut flora is an example of what kind of protections barrier for the body?

A

Microbiological

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13
Q

Type 1 interferons include ______, _______, and _______. Which two are involved in antiviral action?

A

Alpha, Beta, Gamma

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14
Q

What are the three purposes of Type 1 alpha and beta interferons?

A

Increase resistance to viral replication in cells, increase MHC I expression in cells, and activate NK cells to kill virus infected cells.

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15
Q

Neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, and macrophages are all examples of _________.

A

Phagocytes

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16
Q

What do B cells produce and which part of the adaptive immune system do they belong in?

A

Antibodies; humeral

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17
Q

Lymphocytes include three types of cells, what are they?

A

B cells; T cells; NK cells

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18
Q

These cells help B cells make Ab and are involved in the cell mediated response of the adaptive immune system….what are they?

A

T cells

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19
Q

What does a phagosome fuse with in order to digest captured material?

A

A lysosome

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20
Q

What does MHC stand for? Which branch of immune system is it involved in?

A

Major histocompatibility complex; adaptive

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21
Q

Which type of cell has the primary job of phagocytizing bacteria and yeast pathogens in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils

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22
Q

What blocks an NK cells from killing a cell? What activates an NK cell to kill?

A

MHC I molecules on surface of cell; virus infection-association ligand

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23
Q

True or False: All cytokines are interferons.

A

False, interferons are cytokines, but not all cytokines are interferons

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24
Q

What type of cells are important in defense against helminths?

A

Eosinophils

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25
Q

Which type of bacteria needs a host in order to survive?

A

Obligate symbionts

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26
Q

Structural or functional damage caused by a pathogen is called _______.

A

Disease

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27
Q

This structure is normally found on gram - bacteria, is important for movement, and has H-antigens.

A

Flagella

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28
Q

Fimbria( pili) is a structure on bacteria that enables bacteria to _______ to another cell. There is a special sex pili that is responsible for ______.

A

adhere; bacterial conjugation( plasmid transfer)

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29
Q

Which type of exotoxin disturbs cell metabolism by binding to a receptor? What are some examples of the bacteria it comes from?

A

Type I; streptococci, staphylococci, clostridium

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30
Q

What type of exotoxin originates from staphylococcus aureus (penicillin producing) and causes cell wall damage

A

Type II

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31
Q

Type III exotoxins occur __________ and some examples include _______, __________, and ___________.

A

Intracellularly ; Heat labile toxin, tetanospasmin, and shiga toxin

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32
Q

What is an example of a Gram - endotoxin?

A

LPS (lipopolysaccharide)

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33
Q

LTA, LAM, and peptidoglycan are examples of what type of endotoxin? What part of cell do these damage?

A

Gram + ; cell wall

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34
Q

What part of the immune system involves complement pathways? What are the three types?

A

innate; classical, lectin, and alternative

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35
Q

What is the first step to activation of the classical complement pathway?

A

Antibody-antigen complex formation

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36
Q

Which antibodies recognize antigens on pathogenic cells and activated the classical complement pathway? More specifically, which ones can bind onto C1?

A

IgM and IgG

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37
Q

The part of an antibody which recognizes an antigen; the antigen-binding site of an antibody is called a _______.

A

paratope

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38
Q

What are the four consequences of complement activation?

A
  1. Cell Lysis
  2. Opsonization
  3. Inflammation
  4. Clearance of Immune complexes
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39
Q

What is the order of C proteins from the beginning to the end of the classic complement pathway?

A

C1-C4-C2-C3 convertase-C5 convertase-C6-C7-C8-C9-C9-C9-MAC (membrane attach complex)

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40
Q

What activates the lectin complement pathway?

A

MBL binds with a protease

41
Q

The order of C proteins in the lectin pathway is?

A

C4-C2-C3 convertase-C5 convertase-C6-C7-C8-C9-C9-C9-MAC (membrane attach complex)

42
Q

When a C3 protein directly comes in contact with the cell wall of a microbe, it activates what complement pathway?

A

Alternative

43
Q

What the is order of C proteins in the alternative pathway?

A

C3-Factor B-Factor D-properdin-C3 convertase-C5 convertase-C6-C7-C8-C9-C9-C9-MAC (membrane attach complex)

44
Q

What action does a MAC take in the cell of a pathogen?

A

Lysis

45
Q

What is the process called where bacteria targeted for destruction by a phagocyte?

A

Opsonization

46
Q

Which protein in the complement system is responsible for opsonization?

A

C3b

47
Q

The inflammatory response is activated by which complement protein?

A

C3a and C5a

48
Q

B cells secrete antibodies which mediate ________, which is part of the adaptive immune system.

A

Humoral

49
Q

What cells secrete cytotoxins and are important in cell-mediated immunity of the adaptive immune system?

A

T cells

50
Q

Which type of T cells activate macrophages in delayed type hypersensitivity?

A

CD4+ T cells

51
Q

CD8+ T cells function as what in cell mediated immunity?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL)

52
Q

In what part of an immunoglobulin are paratopes found?

A

FAB

53
Q

What are epitopes?

A

Antigen determinants

54
Q

Which receptors are able to recognize native antigens without processing MHC?

A

B cell receptors (BCR) and antibodies

55
Q

What do T Cell receptors (TCR) recognize on MHC of protein?

A

Antigens

56
Q

What is different about a secondary immune response versus a primary immune response?

A

It has a shorter lag phase, greater magnitude, and class switched IgG

57
Q

Do gram + or gram - bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer susceptible to penicillin?

A

Gram +

58
Q

What makes up the scaffolding structure of the peptidoglycan layer (cell wall) of bacteria?

A

NAM and NAG

59
Q

How does bacteria replicate?

A

Binary Fission

60
Q

What type of bacteria has a structure which is toxic to penicillin? What is this structure?

A

Gram -/ Lipid A

61
Q

Capsule, toxins, invasions, adhesions, and the cell wall are all ________ which bacteria do what?

A

virulence factors; infect body

62
Q

A rancher wants to keep his healthy herd of steer protected against infection and decides to used antimicrobials in order to achieve this goal. This is called _______ use of antimicrobials.

A

Prophylactic

63
Q

When is metaphylactic antimicrobial use in a group of animals is utilized?

A

When you have healthy animals and sick animals; you want to prevent further infection in the healthy animals and treat the animals that are already sick .

64
Q

True or False: All antimicrobials are antibiotics, but not all antibiotics are antimicrobials.

A

False; all antibiotics are antimicrobials, but not all antimicrobial are antibiotics.

65
Q

A pharmacokinetic index refers to the ___________ of the drug in the body.

A

movement/metabolism; the body’s effect on the drug

66
Q

The effects a drug has on the body can be measured by a ________ index.

A

pharmacodynamic

67
Q

Clostridium and Bacillus are both produce _________, which ensure the bacteria’s survival during adverse environmental conditions.

A

Endospores

68
Q

When is a time-dependent antimicrobial the most effective? Name examples of some antimicrobials.

A

When the concentration is maintained above the minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC) for as long as possible. Cephalosporins, Penicillins, LIncosamides, Tetracyclines, Macrolides, Sulfonamides.

69
Q

If the concentration of an antimicrobial exceeds the MIC and is the most effective at that point, this is called a _______ antimicrobial.

A

Concentration dependent

70
Q

Are Aminoglycosides concentration or time-dependent drugs?

A

Concentration

71
Q

What type of bacteria has a layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by LPS?

A

Gram -

72
Q

Teichoic acids are found on the peptidoglycan layers of which type of bacteria?

A

Gram +

73
Q

What is the purpose of a capsule?

A

It mediates attachment of bacteria to surfaces and protects from engulfment by protozoa and phagocytes.

74
Q

If a bacteria can only grow in 02 rich environments, what is it called? What is the main example?

A

Obligate aerobe; Gram + penicillin producing staphylococcus

75
Q

A facultative anaerobe like non-penicillin producing gram + cocci has what characteristic?

A

These bacteria prefer to grow in 02 rich environments, but can survive without 02.

76
Q

Clostridium, Peptostreptococcus, Bacteroides, and actinomyces can only survive in an 02 free environment; therefore; they are considered _________.

A

Obligate Anaerobes

77
Q

E. coli, Salmonella, Proteus, and Klebsiella are all considered Gram ______, which are ________ because they grow in 02 rich environments, but can survive without 02.

A
  • rods; facultative anaerobes
78
Q

What is considered the most effective treatment for E. coli? Worst?

A

Cephalosporins and Fluoroquinolones; sometimes amoxicillin/clavulanate if anaerobic conditions exist. //Penicillin, aminopenicillin, metronidazole, lincosamides, macrolides

79
Q

If a dog presents with an non-penicillin producing gram -cocci infection, what is the first medication of choice? Last?

A

Aminopenicillin and Penicillin// Metronidazole

80
Q

Sulfonamides attack folic acid synthesis in enterobacteriaceae and are best at attacking a cell which has a thin peptidoglycan layer. What type of bacteria is it most effective against?

A

Gram - rods

81
Q

Aminoglycosides are best at treating __________ bacteria and worst at treating ________ bacteria.

A

Penicillin producing gram - cocci and Gram - rods//Anaerobes

82
Q

Penicillins, Cephalosporins, and Carbapenems are all considered _______.

A

Beta-Lactams

83
Q

What three groups of antibiotics depend on both the concentration level and time at that level in the body in order to be most effective? What else is unique about these groups?

A

Lincosamides, Macrolides, Tetracyclines’ they are bacteriostatic and used protein synthesis as their mode of action.

84
Q

Which group of antibiotics attacks folic acid synthesis in bacteria cells and is bacteriostatic?

A

Sulfonamides

85
Q

Macrolides are highly ineffective against _________. What are two specific examples of macrolides?

A

Gram - rods; erythromycin and tiamulin

86
Q

Streptomycin, Gentamicin, and amikacin are all examples of ________. These are effective against _______ and ________.

A

Aminoglycosides; gram - rods and penicillin producing staphylococcus.

87
Q

Why is amoxicillin/clavulanate the only penicillin based antibiotic effective against penicillin producing gram + bacteria?

A

The clavulanate is a beta lactamase inhibitor and beta lactamase inactivates penicillin; therefore, the amoxicillin is able to damage the cell wall due to no Beta lactamase trying to inactivate it.

88
Q

What type of parasite doesn’t multiply in the definitive host?

A

Helminths

89
Q

What is a host called that harbors larval state of a parasite?

A

Intermediate host

90
Q

Which stage in a parasite’s life cycle can be found in a definitive host?

A

Adult aka sexual

91
Q

What are the three groups of helminths?

A

Cestodes, Nematodes, and Trematodes

92
Q

If a parasite elicits protection in body against reinfection but the parasite remains in the body, this is called _______.

A

Concomitant immunity

93
Q

What is premunition?

A

It is the host’s resistance to superinfection by presence of parasites kept in check by the host.

94
Q

what are the three main classes of parasites that cause infections in humans?

A

Helminths, protozoa, and ectoparasites

95
Q

What does SIS stand for?

A

Host species
Size of infection
Size of parasite

96
Q

Which parasite has separate sexes and a direct life cycle?

A

Nematodes

97
Q

Cestodes have a ______ life cycle and are considered __________.

A

Indirect; hermaphrodites

98
Q

Which class of parasite has oral and ventral suckers, as well as an indirect life cycle?

A

Trematodes

RUSVM Principles of Infectious Diseases Summer 2016 (2 decks)

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