Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neurobiology of Disease > Exam I > Flashcards

Exam I Flashcards

1
Q

The central dogma states
a. Genes on DNA are transcribed to mRNA and translated on ribosomes to peptides
b. Genes on RNA are transcribed to polypeptides and translated on mRNA to proteins
c. Genes on DNA are translated to protein and folded to their tertiary structure with chaperone proteins
d. Proteins are coded by genes and mediate the functions on the cell

A

a. Genes on DNA are transcribed to mRNA and translated on ribosomes to peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The outward appearance of an organism, resulting from genotype plus environment is referred to as the
a. Genotype
b. Penetrance
c. Concordance
d. Phenotype

A

d. Phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a gene has 100% penetrance, this means that given you have the genotype of interest
a. You will not have the phenotype of interest
b. It will hurt
c. All individuals that have that genotype will express that phenotype of interest
d. Siblings will share only 50 of their genes

A

c. All individuals that have that genotype will express that phenotype of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following is a protein involved in making a gene more likely to be expressed
    a. Transcription al repressor
    b. General transcription factor
    c. Promoter
    d. Antagonist
A

b. General transcription factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Phenotype results from
    a. Genotype
    b. Environment
    c. All of the above
    d. None of the above
A

c. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which is a disorder that is considered to be integrated as a dominant Mendelian trait?
    a. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
    b. Schizophrenia
    c. Parkinson’s Disease
    d. Huntington’s Disease
A

d. Huntington’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An SNP is
a. A single nucleotide polymorphism
b. Useful in linkage studies
c. May or may not be cause of the disease
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What process that occurs during meiosis allows us to identify that relative location of genes or polymorphisms on a chromosome?
a. Dominance
b. Recombination
c. Dependent inheritance
d. Reductive division

A

c. Dependent inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The primary structure of a protein can be defined as
a. The final structure of the folded protein in 3 dimensions
b. The complex the protein forms with other subunits
c. The sequence of nucleotides in the DNA
d. The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide

A

The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The resting potential of a neuron is generated/maintained primarily by
a. Sodium potassium chloride co-transporter
b. Sodium calcium exchanger
c. Sodium potassium pump
d. Proton pump

A

c.Sodium potassium pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Voltage-gated sodium channels
a. Open quickly with depolarization and then inactivate
b. Open slowly and close with repolarization
c. Open quickly with ligand binding
d. None of the above

A

a. Open quickly with depolarization and then inactivate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What brain region(s) is (are) most involved in the CS-US association in auditory fear conditioning
a. Medial amygdala
b. Lateral amygdala
c. Basal and accessory basal amygdala
d. Central amygdala

A

b. Lateral amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which receptor is closely related to anxiety?
a. DA
b. D1
c. 5HTT
d. 5HT1a

A

d. 5HT1a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Activation of the above receptor with a serotonin agonist has what effect on anxiety?
a. Increases it
b. Decreases it
c. No effect
d. Turns into depression

A

b. Decreases it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An SSRI modulates a specific neurotransmitter’s function by
a. Increasing its release
b. Decreasing its release
c. Blocking its reuptake
d. Blocking its degradation

A

c. Blocking its reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is a way that a synapse may adjust to compensate for overstimulation to make the synapse less sensitive?
a. Phosphorylation of AMPA receptors
b. NMDA activation by PKA
c. Receptor internalization
d. Magnesium ejection and calcium influx

A

c. Receptor internalization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The role of the Hippocampus in the stress response is
a. To activate the HPA axis
b. To inhibit the HPA axis
c. To activate the HPG axis
d. To inhibit the HPG axis

A

a. To activate the HPA axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The monoamine hypothesis of depression states that
a. Increasing monoamine concentration in the brain should cause depression
b. Increasing monoamine concentration in the brain should reduce depression
c. Depression results from increased serotonin concentration
d. Depression results from decreased acetylcholine concentration

A

a. Increasing monoamine concentration in the brain should cause depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is common polymorphism used in Linkage Analysis?
a. Dimpled chin
b. SNPs
c. SPNTFGis
d. Dominant mutations

A

b. SNPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The outward appearance of an organism, resulting from genotype plus environment is referred to as the
a. Genotype
b. Penetrance
c. Concordance
d. Phenotype

A

d. Phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Phenotype results from
a. Genotype
b. Environment
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

c. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If a gene has 100% penetrance, this means that given you have the genotype of interest,
a. You will not have the phenotype of interest
b. It will hurt
c. All individuals that have that genotype will also express that phenotype of interest
d. Siblings will share only 50% of their genes

A

c. All individuals that have that genotype will also express that phenotype of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is a protein involved in making a gene more likely to be expressed
a. Transcriptional repressor
b. General transcription factor
c. Promoter
d. Antagonist

A

b.General transcription factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The central dogma of molecular biology states:
a. Genes on DNA are transcribed to mRNA and translated on ribosomes to peptides
b. Genes on RNA are transcribed to polypeptides and translated on mRNA to proteins
c. Genes on DNA are translated to protein and folded to their tertiary structure with chaperone proteins
d. Proteins are coded for by genes and mediate the functions of the cell

A

a. Genes on DNA are transcribed to mRNA and translated on ribosomes to peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is a brain disorder that is considered to be inherited as a Dominant Mendelian trait?
a. Phenylketonuria (PKU) -
b. Schizophrenia
c. Parkinson’s Disease
d. Huntington’s Disease

A

d. Huntington’s Disease

26
Q

An SNP is
a. A single nucleotide polymorphism
b. b. Useful in linkage studies
c. May or may not be the cause of the discase
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

27
Q

What process that occurs during meiosis allows us to identify the relative location of genes or polymorphisms on a chromosome?
a. Dominance
b. Recombination
c. Dependent inheritance
d. Reductive division

A

b. Recombination

28
Q

The primary structure of a protein can be defined as
a. The final structure of the folded protein in 3 dimensions
b. The complex the protein forms with other subunits
c. The sequence of nucleotides in the DNA
d. The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide

A

d. The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide

29
Q

What is a common polymorphism used in Linkage Analysis?
a. Dimpled chin
b. SNP’s
c. SPNIFGiS

A

b. SNP’s

30
Q

What brain region(s) is (are) most involved in the CS-US association in auditory fear conditioning
a. Medial amygdala

b. Lateral amygdala

c. Basal and accessory basal amygdala
d. Central amygdala

A

b. Lateral amygdala


31
Q
  1. Which receptor is closely related to anxiety?

    a. DA
    b. DI

    c. 5HTT

    d. 5HT1A
A

d. 5HT1A

32
Q

Characterize the receptor identified in the previous question:

a. Ionotropic
b. Metabotropic

c. Zetatropic

d. Coprophagic

A

b. Metabotropic


33
Q

Activation of the above receptor with a serotonin agonist has what effect on anxiety?

a. Increases it

b. Decreases it
c. No affect
d. Turns in to depression

A

b. Decreases it

34
Q
  1. An SSRI modulates a specific neurotransmitter’s function by

    a. Increasing its release

    b. Decreasing its release

    c. Blocking its reuptake

    d. Blocking its degradation

A

c. Blocking its reuptake


35
Q

Which is a way that a synapse may adjust to compensate for overstimulation to make the synapse less sensitive?

a. Phosphorylation of AMPA receptors

b. NMDA activation by PKA

c. Receptor internalization

d. Magnesium ejection and calcium influx

A

c. Receptor internalization


36
Q

Which of the following is a form of epigenetic modification

a. SNP

b. DNA methylation

c. Histone phosphorylation

d. RNAi

A

b. DNA methylation


37
Q

What effect do 5-HT1A agonists typically have on the firing rate of serotonin neurons in the raphe nucleus?

a. Increase firing rate
b. Decrease firing rate
c. No effect on the firing rate
d. Variable effect on firing rate

A

b. Decrease firing rate

38
Q

What effect do 5-HT1A agonists typically have on the firing rate of glutamatergic or GABAergic neurons in the amygdala?

a. Increase firing rate

b. Decrease firing rate

c. No effect on the firing rate

d. Variable effect on firing rate

A

b. Decrease firing rate


39
Q

Where are presynaptic 5-HT1A receptors primarily located?

a. Amygdala

b. Raphe nuclei

c. Septum

d. Hippocampus

A

b. Raphe nuclei


40
Q

Name the two basic protein secondary structures

A

A protein in primary structure is made of a chain of amino acids. A protein in a secondary structure includes an alpha helix and a beta-pleated sheet.

41
Q

What does it mean if there is 100% concordance for a trait between identical twins ( include in your answer a basic description of what concordance is)?

A

Concordance refers to the degree of similarity between twins for a specific trait. 100% concordance for a trait between identical twins means that if one twin exhibits the trait, the other twin will always have it too. This perfect match indicates that the trait is likely entirely determined by genetics, as identical twins share 100% of their DNA. It suggests minimal to no environmental influence on the trait’s development. However, 100% concordance is rare in real-world scenarios, even for identical twins, as most traits are influenced by both genetic and environmental factors to varying degrees.

42
Q

Identify a disadvantage or difficulty in performing a linkage analysis

A

linkage analysis is poorly powered in the context of a genetic locus that explains only a small percentage of variation in the trait

43
Q

What is the purpose of a linkage analysis?

A

Linkage analyses can be used to identify areas of the chromosome for further analysis/genotyping

44
Q

What is an RFLP and what type of polymorphism is it used to identify?

A

An RFLP, which stands for “Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism,” is a molecular biology technique used to identify variations in DNA sequences at specific sites recognized by restriction enzymes, resulting in different lengths of DNA fragments when digested and analyzed through gel electrophoresis.

45
Q

Very briefly identify two important shortcomings of the limbic system model of emotion as discussed in Ledoux

A

The study is subjective as emotions are complex and cannot be measured
Emotions are grouped together

46
Q

What two ions when allowed to flow freely through an average neuron’s cell membrane will flow against their electrical gradient?

A

Sodium and potassium

47
Q

Name the two basic protein primary structures

A

A protein in primary structure is made of a chain of amino acids. A protein in a secondary structure includes an alpha helix and a beta-pleated sheet.

47
Q

What does it mean if there is 100% concordance for a trait between identical twins ( include in your answer a basic description of what concordance is) ?

A

Concordance refers to the degree of similarity between twins for a specific trait. 100% concordance for a trait between identical twins means that if one twin exhibits the trait, the other twin will always have it too. This perfect match indicates that the trait is likely entirely determined by genetics, as identical twins share 100% of their DNA. It suggests minimal to no environmental influence on the trait’s development. However, 100% concordance is rare in real-world scenarios, even for identical twins, as most traits are influenced by both genetic and environmental factors to varying degrees.

48
Q

What is the purpose of linkage analysis?

A

Linkage analyses can be used to identify areas of the chromosome for further analysis/genotyping

49
Q

Identify a disadvantage or difficulty in performing a linkage analysis

A

linkage analysis is poorly powered in the context of a genetic locus that explains only a small percentage of variation in the trait,

50
Q

What is an RFLP and what type of polymorphism it is used to identify?

A

An RFLP, which stands for “Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism,” is a molecular biology technique used to identify variations in DNA sequences at specific sites recognized by restriction enzymes, resulting in different lengths of DNA fragments when digested and analyzed through gel electrophoresis.

51
Q

Very briefly identify two important shortcomings of the limbic system model of emotion as discussed by Ledoux.

A

The study is subjective as emotions are complex and cannot be measured
Emotions are grouped together

52
Q

Draw an action potential tracing against time. Label all phases and components and describe the mechanism or cellular components that mediate each of the phases or changes that occur.

A

Resting K+ channels open
Depolarization: Na+ channels open
Repolarization: Na+ channels close, K+ channels open
Hyperpolarization: Excess K + efflux

53
Q

Identify the 4 major cortical brain regions in depression and what symptoms they are likely to underlie.

A

Prefrontal cortex: Executive function, mood regulation
Anterior cingulate cortex: Emotional processing, motivation
Hippocampus: Memory, stress response
Amygdala: Fear, anxiety, emotional responses

54
Q

Describe the relationship between 5-HT1a receptors and the GABAa receptor

A

5-HT1a receptors indirectly modulate GABAa receptors. Activation of 5-HT1a can enhance GABAergic transmission, potentially leading to anxiolytic effects.

55
Q

What factors are involved in making resilience to depression more likely? In your answer be sure to describe the relevant animal models of depression and relevant brain regions.

A

Resilience factors: social support, positive coping strategies, exercise, genetics. Animal models: chronic mild stress, learned helplessness. Relevant brain regions: prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, amygdala, nucleus accumbens.

56
Q

Describe the experiment that led to our understanding of the role of the 5HT1a receptor in anxiety, then of the pre- vs post-synaptic 5HT1a in the presentation of anxiety.

A

The key experiment involved knockout mice lacking 5-HT1A receptors. These mice showed increased anxiety-like behaviors in tests such as the elevated plus maze and open field. Further studies using conditional knockout mice and pharmacological approaches revealed that presynaptic 5-HT1A autoreceptors in the raphe nuclei and postsynaptic 5-HT1A receptors in forebrain regions have opposing roles. Presynaptic activation reduces serotonin release and anxiolytic effects, while postsynaptic activation in areas like the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex mediates anxiolytic responses. This dual action explains why some 5-HT1A agonists can have both anxiogenic and anxiolytic effects depending on dose and target region.

57
Q

Describe how a linkage analysis is performed

A

Collect DNA samples and phenotypic data from family members
Genotype genetic markers across the genome
Construct family pedigrees
Calculate linkage scores (LOD scores) for each marker
Identify regions with high LOD scores, indicating potential linkage
Fine-map linked regions to narrow down candidate genes

58
Q

Describe auditory fear conditioning as discussed in class. Be complete: draw the neural pathways involved, compare it to context conditioning, and the structures and pathways involved in that

A

Auditory fear conditioning involves pairing an auditory stimulus (CS) with an aversive stimulus (US). The neural pathway includes:
The auditory cortex receives sound input
Information flows to the thalamus and amygdala
Amygdala (lateral nucleus) associates CS and US
The central nucleus of the amygdala mediates fear response
Context conditioning differs by involving the hippocampus for spatial/contextual information processing. The hippocampus communicates with the amygdala to associate context with fear.

59
Q

Describe the triphasic effect of SSRIs when used to treat anxiety. Be sure to discuss the receptor systems involved, and how they are related to anxiety in a general sense to provide context for your answer.

A

Triphasic Effect of SSRIs in Anxiety Treatment
* Initial phase: Increased anxiety due to sudden serotonin boost.
* Delayed anxiolytic effect: Desensitization of 5-HT1A autoreceptors.
* Long-term anxiolytic effect: Increased serotonin transmission and neuroplasticity.
* Receptor systems involved: 5-HT1A, 5-HT2A/C, GABA.

60
Q

Describe the role of the Hippocampus in depression

A

Role of Hippocampus in depression:
Stress regulation: HPA axis modulation
Neuroplasticity: Reduced in depression, improved with treatment
Memory processing: Negative bias in depression
Neurogenesis: Decreased in depression, increased with antidepressants
Connectivity: Altered connections with the prefrontal cortex and amygdala

The hippocampus is crucial in the neurobiology of depression, affecting stress responses, emotional memory, and cognitive symptoms.

Neurobiology of Disease (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions