Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

biology > exam cram t2 > Flashcards

exam cram t2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

what is the cell

A

the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living brings, it is the smallest part of an organisms body which is capable of independent existence and of performing the essential functions of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do most organisms start off as

A

a zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is meant by protoplasm

A

it is the total living substance of a cell, that is, the cytoplasm and the nuclrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does protoplasm look like

A

translucent somewhat colorless, greyish, brownish fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the common elements in protoplasm

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, iron, phosophorus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

list 4 differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells with 2 examples each

A
  1. prokaryotik cell: nucleus is not well defined (nucleoid)
    eukaryotic: well defined nucleus with a nuclear membrance
  2. prokaryotik: a single length of deoxyribonucleic acid only.
    eukaryotic: several lengths of chromosomes containing dna
  3. prokaryotic: small ribosomes
    eukaryotic: larger ribosomes
  4. prokaryotic: no other cell organelles
    eukaryotic: several organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum etc.
  5. eg prokaryotic: bacteria, blue green algae
    eg eukaryotic: euglena, amoeba
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

state the 4 structural differences between plant and animal cells

A
  1. Plant cells have a definite cell wall made up of cellulose while animal cells dont have a cell wall
  2. plant cells dont have centrosome, animals cells have centrosome
  3. plant cells have prominent vacuoles, one or more concerned with excretion or secretion, animal cells might not have vacuoles, if any they are small and temporary
  4. plant cells usually have plastids while animal cells dont have plastids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

state the three major points of cell theory

A
  • the cell is the smallest unit of structure of all living things
  • the cell is the unit of function of all living things
  • all cells arise from pre-existing cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

list 3 functions of the cell wall

A
  • gives rigidity and shape to the plant cell
  • allows substances in solution to enter and leave the cell
  • provides protection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

list 3 functions of the plasma membrance

A
  • separates content of cell from its surroundings
  • regulates the entry of certain solutes and ions
  • Maintains shape of animal cell
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

list 3 functions of cytoplasm

A
  • different organelles in it have different functions
  • all metabolic activities occur here
  • medium for initial steps of respiration (production of pyruvic acid) (anaerobic respiration)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

list 2 functions of endoplasmic reticulum

A
  • supportive framework for the cell

- synthesis and transport of proteins and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

list 2 functions of mitochondria

A
  1. release of energy from pyruvic acid stores in cytoplasm in the form of ATP. Seat of cellular aerobic respiration and stores energy
  2. synthesis of respiratory enzyme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

list 2 functions of golgi apparatus

A
  1. synthesis and secretion of enzymes, hormones etc.

2. formation of acrosome of sperm (only in animals and humans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the function of ribosomes

A

protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

list 4 functions of lysosomes

A
  • intracellular digestion
  • destroy foreign substances
  • when cell is old or injured, these rapidly destroy organelles hence theyre called suicide bags
  • digest cartilages during formation of bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

list 2 functions of centrosomes

A
  • initiates and regulates cell division

- forms spindle fibres with the help of asters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

list 3 functions of plastids

A
  • chromoplasts impart colour to flowers and fruits (xanthophyll: yellow, carotene:orange , red which helps in pollination of flower and dispersal of seed
  • choloroplasts (green) trap solar energy for photosynthesis contain the pigment chlorophyll
  • leucoplast stores starch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

list 3 functions of nucleus

A
  • regulates cell function
  • if removed, the cell dies
  • contains chromosomes (bearers of genes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

list 3 functions of nucleolus

A
  • produces ribosomes
  • participates in protein synthesis by forming and storing RNA
  • dictates ribosomes to synthesise proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the function of chromatin fibres

A

chromosomes carry genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

list 3 functions of vacuoles

A
  • store water and other substances like food and waste products
  • gives turgidity to plant cells by pressing against cel wall
  • contains pigments like anthocyanins etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

give one function of granules

A

store starch (in plant cells), glycogen (in animal cells) and fat-containing granules which serve as food for the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is self pollination

A

it is the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or to the stigma of another flower on the same plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is autogamy

A

when pollen is transfered from the anther to the stigma of the same flower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is geitonogamy

A

the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of another flower on the same plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

give 2 requirements for self-pollination to occur

A
  • bisexuality: self pollination can occur in bisexual flowers ie flowers having both male and female organs or it can also occur in such unisexual flowers where both male and female flowers are borne on the same plant
  • homogamy: the anther and stigma of a flower must mature at the same time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

list 5 advantages of self-pollination

A
  • it is much surer in such bisexual flowers where stamens and carpels mature at the same time
  • parental characters r preserved indefinitely
  • there is no wastage of pollen grains, even a small quantity will suffice
  • the flowers dont need to be large and showy
  • scent and nectar dont need to be produced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

list 3 disadvantages of self-pollination

A
  • continued self pollination, generation after generation may lead to weakening of the variety, the seeds produced are poor in quality.
  • the weaker characters of the breed cannot be eliminated
  • it does not yield new varieties thus there is little chance for improvement in the next generation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

give 2 examples of self pollinating flowers

A

pea, pansy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is cross pollination

A

the transfer of pollen from the anthers of a flowers of one plant to the stigma of a flower of another plant of the same species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

give 2 examples of cross pollinating flowers

A

oxalis, hibiscus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

list 3 advantages of cross pollination

A
  • the offsprings r healthier
  • the seeds produced r abundant and viable
  • new varieties can be produced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

list 3 disadvantages of cross pollination

A
  • pollination is not always certain as an agent of pollination may not be available at that time.
  • pollen has to be produced in large quantities to ensure maximum chances of pollination meaning a lot of wastage of pollen
  • the process is uneconomical because the flowers have to be large, colored, scented and have to produce nectar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are insect-pollinated flowers also called

A

entomophilous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

list 7 characteristics of insect pollinated flowers

A
  • the flowers r large
  • they r bright colored to attract insects
  • they usually emit scent to attract insects
  • they produce nectar as food for insects
  • they pollen grains are sticky, making it easier to carry
  • the stigma is sticky and doesnt usually hang out
  • the flowers tend to be in clusters to make them conspicuous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are wind-pollinated flowers also called

A

anemophilous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

list 8 qualities of wind pollinated flowers

A
  • the flowers are small
  • they are usually not bright colored and often dull green
  • they do not produce scent or nectar
  • their stamens are long and hang out to be exposed to the wind
  • their anthers are large and loosely attached so even the slightest wind can move them
  • pollen is produced in very large quantities
  • pollen grains r light, dry and smooth so they can easily be carried away by the wind
  • the stigmas are feathery and hang out to trap the pollen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

list 5 conditions which show that nature favours cross pollination

A
  • unisexuality: the flowers may be either male or female and they may be borne on separate plants. in this way cross pollination is the only possibility
  • dichogamy: in many bisexual flowers, the anthers and stigma of the same flower mature at different times
  • self sterility: this is a condition in which even if the stigma receives pollen from the anthers of the same flower, the pollen fails to undergo further growth, in such cases only the pollen from another plant of the same species can complete the process of setting the seeds
  • herkogamy: in some flowers, the pollen of a flower cannot reach the stigma of the same flower
  • heterostyly: in such flowers, the stigma and anthers grow at different heights which does not favor self pollination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

explain the process from pollination to fertilization

A

the pollen grain on falling on the stigma is stimulated to germinate due to the secretion of sugars. Through a point in the exine, a pollen tube grows out og the pollen grain, carrying the generative nucleus and the tube nucleus, the generative nucleus divides into 2 sperm nuclei (also male gamete nuclei). The pollen tube grows through the stigma and style by dissolving the tissues with the help of enzymes and reaches the ovary. There, it pushes through the micropyle and reaches the embryo sac. The tube nucleus then disentegrates. Then the pollen tube enters one of the synergids and releases its 2 sperm nuclein, one fuses with the egg cell nucleus to form the zygote while the other fuses with the 2 polar nuclei in the centre.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how many nuclei are there in a germinating pollen grain

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

define fruit

A

the enlarged ripened ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

define seed

A

ripened ovule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is monocot and dicot seeds, give 2 examples for each

A

monocot seeds contain one ctyledon
eg: maize, grasses
dicot seeds contain two cotyledons
eg: pea, gram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

define germination

A

the process of formation of a seedling developed from the embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

give 3 points on germinatio

A
  • on a dry seed. the embryo is in a state of dormancy
  • the dry seeds consume oxygen and give out carbon dioxide both in extremely minute quanities and they release some heat as well
  • when placed under proper conditions, the dormant embryo awakens and starts growing into a seedling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what type of seed is bean

A

dicot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what type of seed is maize

A

monocot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

list 7 differences between bean and maize

A

bean has two cotyledons while maize has one cotelydon

= bean has no endosperm while maize has large endosperm

  • bean has large embryo while maize has small embryo
  • bean has folded plumule leaves while maize has rolled plumule leaves
  • bean has large plumule, maize has small plumule
  • bean has visible hilum and micropyle, maize has not visible hilum and micropyle
  • in bean, seed separately contained in the fruit called pod, in maize the seed wall and the fruit wall fused to form a single grain with no separate seed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the structure of the testa

A

outermost hard brownish covering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the function of the testa

A

protects the delicate inner parts of the seed from injury and from the attack of bacteria, fungi and insects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the structure of tegmen

A

thin inner layer next to testa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the function of tegmen

A

protective in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the structure of hilum

A

a whitish oval scare on concave side of seed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what does hilum represent

A

spot where ovule was attached to ovary wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what does the micropyle work

A

the opening through which pollen tube entered the ovule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

list 2 functions of micropyle

A

seeds absorb water through the micropyle

- provides for the diffusion of respiratory gasses for embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how many cotyledons r there in bean seed

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the function of cotyledon bean

A

contains food for embryo and protects it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

where is the embryo located bean

A

attached to one of the cotyledons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what r the 2 parts of embryo bean

A

radicle, plumule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what does the radicle later form

A

root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what does the plumule later form

A

shoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the structure of the plumule

A

consists of a short stem with a pair of tiny leaves and a growing point between them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

where is the epicotyl

A

the region of the axis between the point of attachment of cotyledons and the plumule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

where is the hypocotyl

A

the region of axis below the cotyledons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what do we call a grain

A

a single-seeded fruit where the fruit wall and seed coat r fused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

where is the embryo maize

A

on one side of the grain where there is a small light colored oval area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

list the 9 parts of maize grain

A

endosperm, embryo, aleurone layer, scuttelum, radicle, plumule, coleorhiza, coleoptile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

where is the endosperm

A

the remaining major part of the grain outside the embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

how r the endosperm and embryonic parts separated

A

by a thin epithelial layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the aleurone layer

A

outermost layer of endosperm rich in protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what r the 3 parts of the embryo maize

A

scutellum, radicle, plumule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the structure of the radicle

A

the radicle is towards the pointed end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is the coleorhiza

A

protective sheath which encloses radicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

where is plumule located

A

towards the upper broader side of the embryonic region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the coleoptile

A

protective sheath which encloses the plumule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what are the 3 differences between hypogeal and epigeal germination

A
  1. in hypogeal cotyledons remain underground, in epigeal cotyledons r pushed above ground
  2. in hypogeal, epicotyl elongates faster, in epigeal, hypocotyl elongates faster
  3. hypogeal usually happens in monocot seeds while epigeal usually happens in dicot seeds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what are the three conditions for germination

A

water
suitable temperature
oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what r the uses of water in germination, 2 points

A

the seed swells and then the coat ruptures allowing the radicle to come out and form the root system

water is used for chemical reactions and for enzymes to act upon the food stored so that it may convert into a form that can be utilized by the growing embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

why is suitable temperature needed for germination

A

both too high and too low tempeartures r unsuitable, a very low temperature inhibits the growth of the embryo and a very high temperature destroyes its delicate tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the optimum temperature for germination

A

25-35 degrees celsius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

why is oxygen needed in germination

A

in germination, energy is required and that can only be available by respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

give 2 reasons why seeds sown deep fail to germinate

A
  1. no proper supply of oxygen

2. insufficient pushing force in the embryonic parts to break through the upper layers of soil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

explain the experiment to prove water is necessary for germination

A

take two beakers, mark them A and B. In A, place seeds of chick pea on wet cotton wool. In beaker B, place similar seeds on dry cotton wool. Keep both beakers in an ordinary room. In a day or two, seeds in A will germinate while B wont showing water is necessary for germination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

explain experiment to prove that suitable temperature is needed for germinaton

A

take two beakers, A and B. Place some green gram seeds on wet cotton wool in each of them. Keep beaker A in an ordinary room and B in a fridge. In a day or two, beaker a will germinate while the seeds in beaker B may not show signs of germination or they germinate after several days showing that a suitable temp. is needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

explain experiment to prove oxygen is necessary for germination

A

take 2 conical flasks, name them A and B, spread wet cotton wool in each flask and place some soaked gram seeds. Lower a test tube of pyrogallic acid which absorbs oxygen in flask B with a thread, arrange A in a similar manner but use plain water. Place both in an ordinary room, the seeds in flask b do not germinate like flask a (may be minimal germination due to anaerobic repisration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

list the 6 classes of food

A

carbohydrates, fats, proteins, mineral salts, vitamins, water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the function of carbohydrates

A

they are the principal energy sources in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

list 3 roles of roughage

A
  • they absorb a lot of water as theyre fibrous and help in keeping faecal matter soft and prevent constipation
  • the movement of undigested food through the intestine becomes easier
  • it stimulates muscle contraction in the intestinal wall, making the movement of faecal matter easy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

list 4 functions of fat

A
  • it produces energy
  • it is an importate form of food storage
  • it serves as a solvent for fat-soluble vitamins
  • fat under skin provides insulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the function of protein

A
  • growth and repair of body cells and tissues, in time of emergency they can release energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

cause of kwashiorkor

A
  • caused when mothers stop breast feeding their babies at an early age leaving to a diet poor in proteins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

list 8 symptoms of kwashiorkor

A 
underweight
belly protruding out
dark and scaly skin
stunted growth
loss of appetite
repeated diaorrhea
enlarged liver and anaemia
oedema of the feet and face due to accumulation of water in tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is the treatment for kwashiorkor

A

the child should be given a protein-rich diet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

who is usually affected by marasmus

A

infants below 1 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what is the cause of marasmus

A

sudden stoppage of breast feeding followed by a diet poor in energy-giving foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

list 6 symptoms of marasmus

A
  • less body weight
  • degenerations resulting in a weak body
  • skin is loosely folded
  • thin face and thin limbs
  • retarded physical and mental growth
  • ribs appearing prominent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

who is affected by kwashiorkor

A

children of ages 1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

list 5 differences between kwashiorkor and marasmus

A
  • kwashiorkor affects children of 1-5 years of age, maramus affects infants up to 1 years
  • kwashiorkor is due to deficiency of proteins, marasmus is due to deficiency of proteins, carbohydrates and fats
  • there is oedema in kwashiorkor, no oedema in marasmus
  • skin of kwashiorkor patient becomes dark and scaly, no darkening of skin in marasmus
  • no degeneration of muscles in kwashiorkor, there is degeneration of muscles in marasmus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is the 2 functions of calcium

A

constituent of bones and enamel

required for muscle contraction and clotting of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is the function of sodiun

A

regulates acid-base equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is the function of iron

A

synthesis of haemoglobin associated with oxidation, reduction reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is the function of iodine

A
  • component of thyroxin hormonr secreted by thyroid gland
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

list 3 functions of Vitamin A

A
  • promotes growth,
  • resists infection of the skin and mucous membrane
  • component of visual purple in the retinal cell of the eyes for perception of image
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

list 2 deficiency diseased of vitamin A, describe them

A

Night Blindness (poor vision in dim light)

xerophthalmia (dryness of the cornea and ulceration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is the function of Vitamin d

A

helps the body use calcium and phosphorus to form bones and teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

list 2 deficiency deases of vitamin d and describe

A

rickets in children (bones lack calcium and become soft)

osteomalacia in adults, fractures may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what is the function of vitamin e

A

prevents oxidation of vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is the 3 deficiency diseases of vitamin e

A

muscle weakness, nerve damage, immune system problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is the function of vitamin k

A

clotting of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is the deficiency disease of vitamin k, describe it

A

haemorrhage (delay in clotting time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is the function of B12 vitamin

A

normal functioning of red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is the deficiency disease of b12, explain

A

penicious anaemia ( a severe anaemia coupled with great weakness and gastrointestinal disturbance, degeneration of spinal cord.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is the function of vitamin c

A

promotes functioning of capillary walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

list 2 deficiency diseases of vitamin c, explain

A
  • increased susceptibility to infections

- scurvy ( spongy and bleeding gums, loosening of teeth.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what is the definition of malnutrition

A

the condition in which a person suffers due to lack or deficiency of one or more essential elements of food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what is a balanced diet

A

a diet which contains all the principle constituents of food in proper quantity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

list 5 functions of water in nutrition

A
  • acts a solvent in the body for thousands of substances
  • used to produce digestive juices
  • helps in transportation of digestes foods and oyxgen throughout the body
  • used in the excretion of soluble wastes
  • involved in the maintenance of body temperature.
120
Q

what is the importance of balanced diet

A

to get enough nutrients in good balance for functioning of body.

121
Q

list 3 sources of calcium,

A

dairy foods, beans, cabbage

122
Q

list a source of sodium

A

table salt

123
Q

list 6 sources of iron

A

whole cereals, fish, nut, egg yolk, liver, kidney

124
Q

list3 sources of iodine

A

iodised salt, water, sea foods

125
Q

list 3 sources of vitamin A

A

butter, egg yolk, liver

126
Q

list 3 sources of Vitamin d

A

milks, eggs, uv rays

127
Q

list 3 sources of vitamin E

A

meat. milk. whole weat

128
Q

list 1 source of vitamin k

A

leafy greens (cabbage and spinach)

129
Q

list 3 sources of vit, b12

A

meat, milk, cereals and pulses

130
Q

list 3 sources of vitamin c

A

citrus fruits, tomatoes, germinating seeds

131
Q

what ratio is hydrogen and oxygen in, in carbs

A

2:1

132
Q

how do carbs release energy

A

they are oxidised in cells

133
Q

give 2 forms of carbs

A

sugars, starch

134
Q

what are the 2 categories of sugar

A

monosaccharides, disaccharides

135
Q

what is the formula of monosaccharides

A

C2H12O6

136
Q

what is a characteristic of monosaccharides

A

these need no digestion and are straightaway absorbed

137
Q

give 3 types of simple sugars

A

glucose, fructose, galactose

138
Q

what is glucose known as

A

grape sugar

139
Q

what is the most common and simplest sugar found in organisms

A

glucose

140
Q

what do we mean when we say blood sugar level

A

we mean the glucose level in blood

141
Q

what is fructose also called

A

fruit sugar

142
Q

where is fructose most common

A

plants

143
Q

where is galactose found

A

milk

144
Q

what is the chemical formula of double sugars

A

c12h22O11

145
Q

what is a characteristic of disaccharides

A

they require digestion to be absorbed

146
Q

list 3 types of disaccharides

A

sucrose, maltose, lactose

147
Q

what is our commercial sugar

A

sucrose

148
Q

how is sucrose obtained in india

A

from sugarcane

149
Q

what is sucrose made of

A

glucose and fructose

150
Q

what is maltose also called

A

malt sugar

151
Q

what is maltose made of

A

2 glucose molecules

152
Q

what is lactose also called

A

milk sugar

153
Q

what is lactose also made of

A

glucose and galactose

154
Q

in what form do plants commonly store carbohydrates

A

starch

155
Q

list a characteristic of starch

A

its insoluble

156
Q

list 3 sources of starch

A

potatoes, grains, bread

157
Q

what is the chemical formula of starch

A

C6H10O5)n

158
Q

what is starch also called

A

polysaccharide

159
Q

name two other insoluble polysaccharide carbs

A

cellulose, glycogen

160
Q

where is cellulose found

A

cell walls of plants

161
Q

what is the function of cellulose

A

it contributes in providing roughage

162
Q

what is the function of glycogen

A

the form in which carbs r stored in animals

163
Q

where is glycogen stored

A

majorly in liver and some muscles

164
Q

what elements are fats composed of

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen

165
Q

do fats produce less energy than carbs or more

A

more

166
Q

list three foods rich in fat

A

butter, ghee, vegetable oils

167
Q

what are fats and oils made up of

A

fatty acids and glycerol

168
Q

what elements is protein made of

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen

169
Q

which is the most essential element in proteins

A

nitrogen

170
Q

list 3 examples of food rich in protein

A

lean meat, fish, eggs

171
Q

define vitamins

A

chemical substances needed in minute amounts which help maintain a healthy body

172
Q

what do most vitamins act as

A

catalysts or enzymes in essential chemical changes in the body,

173
Q

list 2 macro nutrients

A

calcium, sodium

174
Q

list 2 micro nutrients

A

iron, iodine

175
Q

what is the difference between fat and water soluble vitamins

A

fat soluble vitamins can be stored in the body for long periods of time while water-soluble cannot

176
Q

list 4 fat soluble vitamins

A

A,D,E,K

177
Q

list 2 water soluble vitamins

A

B complex, C

178
Q

what are the different types of teeth

A

Incisors, canines, premolars, molars

179
Q

what are the incisors shaped like

A

broad and sharp cutting edges

180
Q

what is the function of incisors

A

biting and cutting

181
Q

what are canines shaped like

A

conical and sharply pointed

182
Q

what is the function of canines

A

holding and tearing food

183
Q

what is the structure of premolars

A

two cusps on its surface called bicuspid

184
Q

what is the function of premolars

A

grinding and crushing

185
Q

what is the shape of molars

A

larger surface than premolars

186
Q

what is the wisdom tooth

A

last molar on each side of jaw

187
Q

when do wisdom teeth last appear

A

age of 17-20

188
Q

what is the dental formula of an adult

A

2 1 2 3 | 2 1 2 3

189
Q

what are the three sections of a tooth

A

crown, root, neck

190
Q

what is the crown

A

part exposed above the gum

191
Q

what is the root of the tooth

A

part embedded in a cup-like socket of the jaw bone

192
Q

what is the neck of the tooth

A

slight constriction between the root and the crown

193
Q

what are the 4 parts of the tooth

A

enamel, dentine, cement, pulp

194
Q

what is the hardest substance in the body

A

enamel

195
Q

what is the enamel also called

A

ivory

196
Q

what is the enamel

A

the material which covers the crown

197
Q

what forms the bulk of the tooth

A

dentine

198
Q

what is the hardness of dentine

A

harder than bone but not as hard as enamel

199
Q

what is the structure of the dentine

A

has minute canals through which run the strands of cytoplasm of the cells in pulp cavity

200
Q

what is cement

A

another bone like structure covering and fixing the root in position

201
Q

what is the pulp

A

soft connective tissue contained in the central space of the tooth (pulp cavity).

202
Q

what does the pulp consist of

A

blood capillaries, lymph vessels and nerve fibres which are continuous below those of the body through the opening of the pulp cavity at the base of the root

203
Q

what are the three salivary glands

A

parotid glands
submandibular glands
sublingual glands

204
Q

wher r the parotid glands located

A

just in front of and beneath each year

205
Q

where are the submandibular glands locaed

A

lose to the inner side of the lower jaw on each side

206
Q

where is the sublingual glands located

A

below the tongue

207
Q

what is saliva

A

a very slightly acidic fluid containing water, salts, mucus and an enzyme salivary amilase

208
Q

what is ptyalin

A

salivary amilase

209
Q

what is the function of salivary amilase

A

it converts starch into maltose

210
Q

what is the oesophagus

A

the tube which simply conducts the food from the throat to thr stomach

211
Q

where is the oesophagus

A

it passes through the diaphragm close to the backbone

212
Q

how is food in the oesophagus conducted

A

through peristalsis

213
Q

what is peristalsis

A

peristalsis is the wave of constrictions caused by the circular muscles of the gut pushing food along

214
Q

where does peristalsis occur

A

all regions of the gut

215
Q

what is mucus

A

a slimy fluid secreted by all regions of the gut which lubricates food

216
Q

what is the stomach

A

an elastic bag located below the diapghram

217
Q

how much food can the stomach hold in an average adult

A

2-3 litres

218
Q

why are stomach walls highly muscular

A

to churn the food thoroughly to mix with the gastric juice

219
Q

what is the pylorus

A

the opening of the stomach into the intestine

220
Q

what is a sphincter

A

a ring of muscles

221
Q

what is the function of a sphincter in stomach

A

to keep the opening closed like a valve to prevent food passing from the stomach until it is thoroughlry churned, also prevents regurtitation from the duodenum

222
Q

where is the cardiac sphincter

A

front end of the stomach

223
Q

what is the function of the cardiac sphincter

A

to prevent back flow of blood into the oesophagus

224
Q

what does the inner lining of the stomach secrete

A

gastric juice

225
Q

what does gastric juice contain

A

water, some salts, hcl and an enzyme called pepsin

226
Q

what r the 2 functions of gastric juice

A
  • it kills any germs which may have entered along with the food
  • it activates pepsin to act on proteins, pepsin digests proteins
227
Q

what percent of protein does pepsin digest

A

20%

228
Q

how is pepsin formed

A

pepsinogen is changed into pepsin by the hydrochloric acid

229
Q

how are peptides formed

A

pepsin digests proteins into peptides

230
Q

how is rennin formed

A

prorennin is changed into rennin by hcl

231
Q

how is paracasein formed

A

casein is changed to paracasein by rennin

232
Q

where is rennin found

A

in babies

233
Q

how long does food stay in the stomach

A

3 hours

234
Q

what is chyme

A

the pulp-like form attained by the food when it stays in the stomach for three hours.

235
Q

what is the length and width of the small intestine

A

7 meters long, 2.5 cm wide

236
Q

what are the 3 sub-divisions of the small intestine

A

duodenum
jejunum
ileum

237
Q

where is the duodenum located

A

short upper part next to stomach

238
Q

where does the common bile duct open into

A

duodenum

239
Q

how long is the jejunum

A

12 finger widths

240
Q

how long is the jejunum

A

2 metres

241
Q

which part of the intestine is often found empty after death

A

the jejunum

242
Q

how long is the ileum

A

4 metres

243
Q

what are villi

A

number of tiny finger like projections which the inner lining of the ileum are made into

244
Q

how does the villi help

A

they increase the inner surface area of the intestine which facilitates the absorption of digested food

245
Q

what are between villi, what do those things do

A

small holes through which intestinal juice secreted by glandular cells is poured into the lumen of the intestine

246
Q

what is the villus covered by

A

single cell thick epithelium

247
Q

what are the 4 components inside the villus

A

an artery, a vein, inter-connecting capillaries, a lymph vessel called lacteal

248
Q

what are the two functions of the mall intestine

A

both digestion and absorbtion

249
Q

what are the 2 digestive juices received in the duodenum

A

bile, pancreatic juice

250
Q

what are the 4 adaptations of ileum for absorption of digested food

A
  1. it is very long and more surface area is provided
  2. the large number of villi increase surface area too
  3. single celled epithelium
  4. it is narrow which slows the movement of food which allows absorption
251
Q

list 2 physical qualities of bile

A

yellowish-green watery fluid

252
Q

where is bile produced

A

the liver

253
Q

how is bile transported

A

hepatic duct

254
Q

how is the common bile duct formed

A

the hepatic duct is joined by the cystic duct

255
Q

what happens to bile

A

it may flow directly into the duodenum or get temporarily stored in the gall bladder

256
Q

how does bile gain its color

A

it is due to pigment (biliverdin, bilirubin)

257
Q

how is biliverdin and bilirubin produced

A

by the breakdown of dead and wornout rbc

258
Q

what are the two roles of bile

A
  • acidic chyme is converted by NaHCO3 (sodium bicarbonate) in bile to alkaline chyme
  • fat is converted into emulsified fat by bile salts.
259
Q

where is pancreatic juice produced

A

produced in a whitish gland, pancreas, located behind the stomach

260
Q

list the 3 kinds of enzymes in pancreatic juice

A

amylopsin, trypsin, steapsin

261
Q

list the role of pancreatic enzymes in 4 points

A

trypsinogen is activated into trypsin by enterokinase

  • proteins and peptides are turned into smaller peptides and amino acides by trypsin
  • leftover starch is turned into maltose by amylopse
  • emulsified fat is turned into fatty acids + glycerol by steapsin
262
Q

what is amylopsin also called

A

pancreatic amylase

263
Q

what are the 5 changes in intestinal juice

A
  • remaining peptides are turned into amino acids by erepsin or peptidases
  • maltose is digested into glucose by maltase
  • sucrose is split into glucose + frictose by sucrase
  • lactose is digested into glucose and galactose by lactase
  • emulsified fat is digested into fatty acids and glycerol by lipase
264
Q

how are amino acids absorbed

A

they have small-sized molecules which are absorbed through the thin epithelium of the villi, carried to the liver by the hepatic portal vein.

265
Q

how are the fatty acids and glycerol absorbed

A

they are absorbed into the lacteals to enter the lymphatic system.

266
Q

how long is the large intestine

A

1.5 metres long

267
Q

what are the three parts of the large intestine

A

caecum. colon, rectum

268
Q

what is the caecum, where is it located

A

a small, blind pouch situated at the junction of the small and large intestines.

269
Q

what is the vermiform appendix

A

a functionless organ shaped like a narrow worm shaped tube projecting from the blind end of the caecum

270
Q

what causes appendicitis

A

the inflamation of the vermiform appendix

271
Q

how long is the colon

A

a little more than a metre

272
Q

where is the colon located

A

it passes up the abdomen on the right, crosses to the left just below the stomach and down on the left side

273
Q

how long is the rectum

A

about 15 cm long

274
Q

where does the rectum kpen

A

at the anus

275
Q

why does the anus have sphincters

A

to keep it closed expect when passing bowels

276
Q

what does the mouth secrete

A

saliva

277
Q

what does the stomach secrete

A

gastric juice

278
Q

what does the duodenum secrete

A

bile and pancreatic juice

279
Q

what does the ileum secrete

A

intestinal juice

280
Q

what is the function of the large intestine

A

it absorbs much water and mostly undigested material. after much water is absorbed. the content becomes semi-solid faeces and is expelled at intervals

281
Q

what is defaecation

A

the expulsion of undigested remains of food

282
Q

what is assimilation

A

the conversion of absorbed digested food into body material.

283
Q

what is glycogenesis

A

the conversion of excess glucose into glycogen which can be temporarily stored.

284
Q

what is glycogenolysis

A

the reconversion of glycogen into glucose by the liver which puts it back in the blood circulation

285
Q

why is glucose required in the body

A

as a source of energy in cellular respiration and also in the synthesis of certain compounds

286
Q

what are the building blocks of protein

A

amino acids

287
Q

what is deamination

A

the process by which excess amino acids are broken down in the liver through the removal of the nitrogen-containing amino group which is converted into urea for extraction

288
Q

how much does the liver weigh

A

1.5 kg

289
Q

what is the color of the liver

A

reddish-brown

290
Q

where is the liver located

A

the upper right side of the abdomen, just below the diaphragm

291
Q

explain test for glucose

A

a little glucose is added to fehlings solution in a test tube, tilt the test tube away from you and heat it over a flame until bubbles begin to appear but dont allow it to boil over. The color changes from blue-green to brick red with the appearance of a precipitate. A small piece of apple or grape will give the same result.

292
Q

explain test for starch

A

a little starch powder is shaken in a test tube with some water and then boiled to make a solution. When the solution is cold, add a few drops of iodine. The starch solution would turn blue-black indicating the presence of starch

293
Q

explain test for proten

A

place a piece of hard-boiled egg-white in a test tube. Add a few drops of concentrated nitric acid enough to immerse the sample of food. Heat the test tube gently, then cool it by placing it under tap water and add ammonium hydroxide. You would notice the color changes from white to yellow under heating and then from yellow to orange upon adding ammonium hydroxide

294
Q

explain test for fats and oils

A

rub a piece of groundnut, walnut, a piece of butter on a plane paper. The spot rubbed turns translucent especially when viewed against light,

295
Q

What is pollination in the same flower, same plant but diff flower, diff plant called respectively

A

Autogany
Geitonogamy
Allogamy

biology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions