exam cram Flashcards

1
Q
  • What are arachnoid granulations?
  • What do they do?
A
  • Small evaginations (protrusions) of the arachnoid are termed arachnoid villi, large arachnoid villi are arachnoid granulations, and those that become calcified with age are referred to as pacchionian bodies.
  • They protrude from the arachnoid layer, through the dura mater, and into the venous sinuses of the brain.
  • Arachnoid granulations are the major, but not the exclusive, sites of reabsorption of CSF into the venous system.
    • CSF leaves subarachnoid space via the arachnoid granulations and enter the blood stream.
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2
Q

What are the twelve arteries of the Circle of Willis?

(Not including pontine arteries).

A
  • Two communicating arteries.
    • Anterior communicating.
    • Posterior communicating.
  • Two inferior cerebellar arteries.
    • AICA.
    • PICA.
  • Three cerebral arteries.
    • ACA.
    • MCA.
    • PCA.
  • Internal carotid artery.
  • Vertebral artery.
  • Anterior spinal artery.
  • Basilar artery.
  • Superior cerebellar.
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3
Q

What are subarachnoid cisterns?

A
  • Spaces where the arachnoid mater and pia mater are split.
    • Large areas of subarachnoid space.
    • Considerable volume of CSF.
  • Eg Cisterna magna.
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4
Q
  • What are the three primary brain vesicles and five secondary brain vesicles?
  • What structures are associated with the secondary vesicles?
A
  • Primary:
    • Prosencephalon = forebrain.
    • Mesencephalon = midbrain.
    • Rhombencephalon = hindbrain.
  • Secondary:
    • Telencephalon.
      • Cerebrum.
    • Diencephalon.
      • Thalamus.
      • Hypothalamus.
      • Epithalamus.
    • Mesencephalon.
      • Midbrain.
    • Metencephalon.
      • Pons.
      • Cerebellum.
    • Myencephalon.
      • Medulla oblongata.
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5
Q

Differentiate between:

  • Macule
  • Papule
  • Nodule
  • Plaque

Raised, palpable, 9mm, pearly colour…. what would this be?

A
  • Macule
    • Flat with different colour than surrounding skin.
  • Papule
    • Elevated skin lesion < 5mm.
  • Nodule
    • >5mm with depth.
  • Plaque.
    • >5 mm but with no substantial depth.

Nodule.

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6
Q
  • What is the most common site for an ischaemic stroke to occur? (Hint: Circle of Willis).
    • What regions of the brain will have reduced function? (There’s 7)
A
  • Middle cerebral artery.
    • Lateral frontal lobe.
    • Lateral temporal lobe.
    • Lateral parietal lobe.
    • Corona radiata.
    • Globus pallidus.
    • Caudate.
    • Putamen.
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7
Q
  • What five areas of the brain have reduced function when you have an ANTERIOR cerebral artery blockage?
  • What five areas of the brain have reduced function when you have an POSTERIOR cerebral artery blockage?
A
  • ANTERIOR
    • Medial frontal lobe.
    • Medial parietal lobe.
    • Basal ganglia.
    • Anterior fornix.
    • Anterior corpus callosum.
  • POSTERIOR
    • Occipital lobe.
    • Inferomedial temporal lobe.
    • Large portion of the thalamus.
    • Upper brain stem.
    • Midbrain.
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8
Q
  • What are the two functions of the pectoralis major muscle on the humerus?
A
  • Adduction of the humerus @ the sternocostal head.
  • Flexion of the humerus @ the clavicular head.
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9
Q
  • What are some pathological findings of RA?
  • What are some differentiating signs/symptoms of RA?
A

Pathological

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10
Q
  • What is the mechanism of action of entacapone?
  • What are the benefits of entacapone when combining with L-DOPA?
A
  • COMT inhibitor.
    • Selective and reversible.
  • Prevents COMT from metabolising L-DOPA into 3-OMD in the periphery.
    • ​Results in an overall increase of levodopa remaining in the brain and body.
  • Prolongs effects of levodopa dose and reduces motor fluctuations → Allows levodopa use to be reduced + given less frequently.
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11
Q

Which location in the brain contains the most acetylcholine?

A

The striatum.

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12
Q
  • What are the six nerves that come off the lumbar plexus?
    • What nerve roots give rise to them?
A
  • Iliohypogastric.
    • T12, L1.
  • Iliofemoral.
    • L1.
  • Genitofemoral.
    • L1,2.
  • Lateral femoral cutaneous.
    • L2,3.
  • Obturator.
    • L2,3,4.
  • Femoral.
    • L2,3,4.
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13
Q

Obturator and femoral nerve are the two most important nerves coming off the lumbar plexus.

What areas do they innervate ie what muscles, and what are the common actions of these muscles?

A
  • Obturator = medial compartment of the thigh → hip adduction.
    • Adductors.
      • Longus, brevis, magnus.
    • Pectineus.
      • Sometimes.
    • Gracilis.
    • Obturator externus.
  • Femoral = anterior compartment of the thigh → knee extension and hip flexion.
    • Quadriceps femoris.
      • Vastus lateralis.
      • Vastus intermedius.
      • Rectus femoris.
      • Vastus medialis.
    • Iliopsoas.
    • Pectineus.
    • Sartorius.
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14
Q

Which cranial nerves attach to the:

  • Cerebrum.
  • Midbrain.
  • Pons.
  • Medulla oblongata.
A
  • Cerebrum.
    • Olfactory. (I)
    • Optic. (II)
  • Midbrain.
    • Oculomotor. (III)
    • Trochlear. (IV)
  • Pons.
    • Trigeminal. (V)
    • Abducens. (VI)
    • Facial. (VII)
    • Vestibulocochlear. (VII)
  • Medulla oblongata.
    • Glossopharyngeal. (IX)
    • Vagus. (X)
    • Accessory. (XI)
    • Hypoglossal. (XII).
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15
Q

What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve?

A
  • V1 = ophthalmic.
  • V2 = maxillary.
  • V3 = mandibular.
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16
Q
  • What are three major branches of the ophthalmic nerve?
A
  • Nasociliary.
    • Anterior ethmoidal nerve.
      • External nasal nerve.
    • Infratrochlear nerve.
  • Frontal.
    • Supratrochlear nerve.
    • Supraorbital nerve.
  • Lacrimal.
17
Q

What are three nerve branches of the maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve?

A
  • Zygomatic.
    • Zygomaticotemporal.
    • Zygomaticofacial.
  • Infraorbital.
18
Q

What are three sensory branches of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve?

A
  • Auricotemporal.
  • Buccal.
  • Mental.
    • Comes from the inferior alveolar nerve.
19
Q

List six ascending tracts.

A
  • Spinocerebellar tract.
    • Anterior spinocerebellar tract.
    • Posterior spinocerebellar tract.
  • Spinothalamic tract (Anterolateral tract).
    • Anterior spinothalamic tract. (crude touch and pressure)
    • Lateral spinothalamic tract. (pain and temperature)
  • DCML (proprioception, fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination).
    • Fasciculus gracilis. (middle thorax and lower limbs)
    • Fasciculus cuneatus. (upper limbs)
20
Q

At what level do the following paths decussate?

  • DCML.
  • Spinothalamic tract.
  • Corticospinal tract.
A
  • DCML.
    • Brainstem.
  • Spinothalamic tract.
    • Spinal cord.
  • Corticospinal tract.
    • Brainstem.
21
Q

List the EIGHT descending tracts?

A
  • Corticospinal tract.
    • Anterior corticospinal tract.
    • Lateral corticospinal tract.
  • Reticulospinal tract.
    • Anterior reticulospinal tract.
    • Lateral reticulospinal tract.
  • Rubrospinal tract.
  • Olivospinal tract.
  • Tectospinal tract.
  • Vestibulospinal tract.
22
Q

What are the four most superior (right view) (L→R) regions of the cortex?

A
  • Premotor cortex.
  • Primary motor cortex.
  • Primary somatosensory cortex.
  • Somatosensory association cortex.
23
Q

What are Wernicke’s and Broca’s area associated with?

A
  • Wernicke’s
    • Interpretation, comprehension.
    • Integration of auditory/visual/somatic association areas.
    • Formulation of words and thoughts.
  • Broca’s = motor coordination of speech.

WERNICKE’S = PRE-SPEAKING.

BROCA’S = SPEAKING.

24
Q

Where the adductors originate and insert?

A
  • Origin: Ischium and pubis.
  • Insertion: Linea aspera.
    • Medial posterior femur.
25
Q
  • What muscles are in the lateral leg?
  • What nerve innervates them.
A
  • Peroneus longus.
  • Peroneus brevis.
  • Superficial peroneal nerve.
    *
26
Q

Densitometry is used for the diagnosis of…?

A

Osteoporosis.

27
Q
  • Osteoporosis is associated with an imbalance between bone ____ and bone _____.
  • This leads to a decrease in bone ____ _____.
A
  • Bone resorption > bone formation → osteoclasts working faster than the osteoblasts.
  • This leads to a decrease in bone mass density.
28
Q

Elevated alkaline phosphatase can be found in which FIVE bone related disorders?

A
  • Osteoporosis.
  • Osteopenia.
  • Osteomalacia.
  • Rickets.
  • Paget’s disease.
29
Q

Why is bone soft in osteomalacia?

A

Inadequate deposition of calcium phosphate in the bone matrix.

30
Q

What is the unmineralised, organic component of bone matrix called?

A

Osteoid.