Exam Content (NO LABELLING/ DIAGRAMS) Flashcards

1
Q

List the functions and classifications of bones and bone tissue

A

Bone tissue:

  1. Support: skeleton is the structural framework for the body
  2. Protections: protects many internal organs
  3. Movement: together bones and muscles produce movement
  4. Mineral homeostasis: bones store and release minerals (Ca2+, phosphate)
  5. Blood cell production: within certain bones
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2
Q

Name and list the functions of the major cellular organelles, membranes and structures.

A

Organelles-

  • Ribosomes:
  • Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER):
  • Golgi Apparatus:
  • Mitochondria:
  • Lysosomes:
  • The cytoskeleton:

Membranes (containing protein groups)-

  • Transporters:
  • Receptors:
  • Enzymes:
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3
Q

Importance of mitochondria and ATP generation within human cells?

A

Generator of the cell, play role in aging and many mitochondrial diseases

ATP generation: Transport of proteins and lipids into and out of the cell.

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4
Q

List the major tissue types of the body and list the constituents of each tissue

A
  1. Epithelial
  2. Connective
  3. Muscle
  4. Nerve
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5
Q

Describe the macroscopic and microscopic anatomy of bone

A

Macroscopic=

  1. Compact bone: hard and dense, external part of bone (cortex)
  2. Spongy bone: sponge-like framework, arranged in a pattern to resist stress and strain

Microscopic=

  1. Osteoprogenitor cell: Stem cells in periosteum and endosteum, turns into osteoblast
  2. Osteoblast: Bone-forming cells
  3. Osteocytes: Mature bone cells that maintain bone matrix
  4. Osteoclasts- Cells that break down (resorb) bone matrix
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6
Q

Describe difference between compact and spongy bone

A

Compact bone= (hard and dense)

  • Osteon is the structural unit
  • weight bearing
  • contains: lamellae, Lacunae, Canaliculi, Central canal and Perforating canals

Spongy= (sponge-like framework)

  • consists of trabeculae ‘beams or rods’ and does not contain osteons
  • redbone marrow fills spaces between the trabeculae
  • resist stress and strain
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7
Q

Describe bone development and growth

A

Embryonic development=

  • Development requires both types of ossification.
  • Ossification doesn’t begin until after 4 wks gestation, with clavicle being the first bone to begin ossification.
  • by 12 wk of age there are 275 bones!

Bone growth=

  • Interstitial growth: Increases length of long bones
  • Appositional growth: Increases thickness and remodelling of all bones
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8
Q

Explain regulation of calcium in the body

A

When blood calcium levels fall below normal there are two main hormones the body secretes:

  1. PTH (parathyroid hormone)
  2. Calcitriol
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9
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of osteoporosis, contributing factors and treatment/prevention.

A

Osteoporosis= loss of bone mass and increased porosity of the bone

Causes= age, reduced PA, Endocrine disorders, genetics, nutritional state, medications (steroids) and post menopausal.

Treatment/ Prevention=

  • Calcium, Vitamin D, and fluoride supplements
  • Hormone (esrogen) replacement therapy slows bone loss
  • Diet (increase dairy products)
  • Increase wieght-bearing exercise throughout life
  • Limit coffee, smoking and alcohol
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10
Q

Identify the anatomical position and define the main anatomical terms

A

Anatomical Position:

  • standing upright
  • facing observer, head level
  • eyes facing forward
  • feet flat on floor
  • arms at the sides
  • palms turned forward (ventral
Anatomical Terms:
Superior – Towards the head (top)
Inferior – Away from the head (bottom)
Proximal – Towards the trunk 
Distal – Away from the trunk
Posterior/dorsal – Towards the back 
Anterior/ventral – Towards the front
Medial – Towards the middle
Lateral – Away from the midline
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11
Q

Describe the body planes and axes

A

Planes

  1. Sagittal= left and right
  2. Coronal/ frontal= front and back
  3. Transverse= upper and lower

Axes

  1. Frontal/ coronal
  2. Sagittal
  3. Vertical
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12
Q

List the different types of joints and name an example for each

A

Hinge: knee, elbow, ankle and interphalangeal joints
Pivot: supination and pronation
Ball and socket: shoulder and hip joint
Condyloid: wrist, between metacarpals and phalanges (metacarpophalangeal)
Plane: thumb joint, sternoclavicular, Inner ear
Saddle: thumb, sternoclavicular joint and Inner ear

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13
Q

Describe movements

A
Flexion/extension
Adduction/abduction
Circumduction
Pronation/ supination
Planta flexion/ dorsi flexion
Inversion/ eversion 
Elevation/ depression
Protraction and retraction
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14
Q

Common joint problems

A

Joint disorders=
Arthritis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Osteoarthritis

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15
Q

Name the bones of the wrist and hand

carpal bones nonmonic

A
Carpal (8)
Metacarpal (5)
Proximal phalanges (5)
Intermediate phalanges (4)
Distal Phalanges (5)

carpal bones
Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can’t Handle
(bottom (left-right), top (left-right))

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16
Q

What are fractures and dislocations?

A
Fracture= broken bone or bone fracture occurs when a force exerted against a bone is stronger than it can structurally withstand.
Dislocation= A fall on an abducted and externally rotated arm
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17
Q

Define the key landmarks and muscle attachment sites on the bones of the pelvis, femur and tibia

A
Scapula landmarks:
3 fossa= shallow depression
3 angles= corners
3 borders= edges
2 processes= outgrowth or protuberance
2 tubercles= small projection
1 cavity= hollow

Attachment sites:
femur= Greater trochanter, Gluteal tuberosity, Linea aspera
pelvis= fovea capitis to the acetabulum of the pelvis
tibia= lateral malleolus

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18
Q

Differences between male and female pelvis

A
Female pelvis:
Adapted for childbearing
Light and thin
Shallow false pelvis
Large, circular pelvic brim
Acetabulum faces anteriorly
Pubic arch is greater than 90
Male
Male pelvis
Adapted for strength and speed
Heavy and thick
Deep false pelvis
Small, heart shaped brim
Acetabulum faces laterally
Pubic arch is less than 90°
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19
Q

Define the joints of the lower limb

A

Pelvic girdle
Thigh
Leg
Ankle and foot

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20
Q

Describe the different arches of the foot and their function

A
  1. Longitudinal arch
    lateral and medial arches
  2. Transverse arch
    formed by tarsals and bases of metatarsals
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21
Q

Curvatures of the spine

A
Cervical (7) - neck -Secondary
Thoracic (12) -thoracic cage - Primary
Lumbar (5) - lower back - Secondary
Sacrum (5 fused) - pelvis - Primary
Coccyx (4 fused)- tail bone
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22
Q

Difference between C1, C2 and the other cervical vertebrae

A
C1= No body or spinous process, anterior and posterior arches and two lateral masses
C2= Dens projects superiorly into the anterior arch of the atlas

One vertebral and two transverse, slender and often bifid (C2-6)

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23
Q

Disorders of the spine

A
  1. Scoliosis: abnormal lateral curvature of spine
  2. Kyphosis: excessive curvature of the thoracic spine posteriorly
  3. Lordosis: Excessive curvature of the lumbar spine anteriorly
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24
Q

Describe structure and components of the thoracic cage

A

componens:

  1. sternum
  2. ribs
  3. costal cartilages
  4. thoracic vertebrae

structure:
Enclose and protect the organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities
Provide support for the bones of the upper limbs
Play a role in breathing

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25
Q

List the main functions of the bones of the skull

A
  1. cranial bones (8 bones)
  2. Facial bones (14 bones)

Functions:

  • Protect the brain
  • Framework of the face
  • Cavities for the special sense organs (eyes, nose, ears, mouth)
  • Provide the main opening to the external environment (for food and air)
  • Secure the teeth (Gomphosis)
  • Anchor facial muscles to the face
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26
Q

Describe the main cranial bones of the skull, location and function

A

Parietal bones (2) - sides and roof of the cranium.
Ethmoid bone- separates the nasal cavity from the brain.
Sphenoid bone- forms part of the orbit of the eye, side of the skull, and base of the skull.
Temporal bones (2) - sides of the cranium (temples).
Occipital bone- the most inferior part of the cranium.
Frontal bone- forehead, part of the orbit, and part of the bony nose.

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27
Q

What are the 4 main sutures of the skull

A

Coronal suture—between parietal bones and frontal bone
Sagittal suture—between right and left parietal bones
Lambdoid suture—between parietal bones and occipital bone
Squamous (squamosal) sutures—between parietal and temporal bones on each side of skull

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28
Q

3 main types of muscle tissue and the main characteristics of each type

A
Skeletal: 
Attached to bones and skin
Striated 
Voluntary (i.e., conscious control)
Can be involuntary
Powerful
Primary topic of this lecture

Smooth: Attached to hair follicles in the skin
Located in hollow organs other than the heart
Not striated
Involuntary

Cardiac:
Only in the walls of the heart
Striated 
Involuntary
Auto-rhythmic because of built in pacemaker
Intercalated discs
Wave like conduction
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29
Q

What is the origin and insertion of a muscle?

A

Origin= bone that does NOT move when muscle shortens (normally proximal)

Insertion= movable bone (sometimes other muscles or tissues e.g. Glutues maximus - ITB band)

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30
Q

Difference between ligament and tendon

A

Ligament= attaches bone to bone
-short band of tough, flexible, fibrous connective tissue.

Tendon= attaches muscle to bone
-flexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous collagen tissue.

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31
Q

What are the names and function/s of muscles of hip, leg and rotator cuff?

A

Hip= gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae
-Facilitate weight beaing

Leg= adductors, hamstrings, pectineus, quadriceps and sartorius.
-help you walk, run, jump, stand on your toes and flex your feet

rotator cuff= Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, subscapularis
-stabilizing the shoulder joint, by providing the “fine tuning” movements of the head of the humerus within the glenoid fossa.

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32
Q

Origin and insertion of muscles of hip

A

Hip extensors-
Origin: sacrum and gluteal surface of ilium
Insertion: ¼ inserts into the gluteal tuberosity of the femur and ¾ inserts into the iliotibial tract/band (ITB)

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33
Q

What are the movements of the trunk

A

Flexion/extension
Lateral flexion
Twist/rotation

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34
Q

Know the names and function/s of muscles of the trunk

A

Abdominal muscles- allows trunk to twist/ flex and rotate

External Oblique
Internal Oblique
Rectus Abdominus
Transverse Abdominus

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35
Q

Know the names and function/s of muscles of the neck

A

Sternocleidomastoid: flexes the neck and rotates the head

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36
Q

Know the names and function/s of muscles of the head

A

Masseter- attach zygomatic arch, maxilla & mandible

Buccinator- assist with chewing/ facial expression

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37
Q

Know the names and function/s of muscles of the arm

A

Flexors
Biceps Brachii
Brachialis

Extensors:
Tricep brachii

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38
Q

Name the origin and insertion of muscles of the trunk

A

External oblique

  • origin= Serrations from ribs 5-12
  • insertion= Iliac crest posteriorly forms the inguinal ligament & rectus sheath

Internal oblique

  • origin= Thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest, inguinal ligament
  • insertion= 10th-12th ribs, and linea alba

Rectus Abdominis

  • origin= cartilage ribs 5-7, xiphoid process
  • insertion- Pubic symphysis and pubic bone

Transverse abdominus
origin= Rib cartilage 7-12, thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest, inguinal ligament
insertion- abdominal sheath, linea alba

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39
Q

Name the origin and insertion of muscles of the neck

A

Sternocleidomastoid

  • origin= 1) manubrium of the sternum 2) medical clavicle
  • insertion= mastoid process of the temporal bone.

Trapezius

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40
Q

Name the origin and insertion of muscles of the arm

A
  1. flexor carpi radialis
    - insertion= 2nd and 3rd metacarpals
  2. flexor carpi ulnaris
    - insertion= lateral carpal and 5th metacarpal
  3. Palmaris longus
    - Insertion: palmar aponeurosis
  4. Pronator teres
    - origin: 1) medial epicondyle of humerous 2) coranoid process of ulna
    - insertion: radius shaft
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41
Q

Describe the function of muscle tissue

A
Producing body movements
Stabilizing body positions
Maintain posture
Regulating organ volumes
bands of smooth muscle called sphincters
Movement of substances within the body
blood, lymph, urine, air, food and fluids, sperm
Producing heat
involuntary contractions of skeletal muscle (shivering)
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42
Q

Describe the 3 main types of muscle tissue and the main characteristics of each type

A

Smooth muscle tissue:

  • Attached to hair follicles in the skin
  • Located in hollow organs other than the heart
  • Not striated
  • Involuntary
Cardiac muscle tissue:
-Only in the walls of the heart
-Striated 
I-nvoluntary
-Auto-rhythmic because of built in p-acemaker
I-ntercalated discs
-Wave like conduction

Skeletal muscle tissue:

  • Attached to bones and skin
  • Striated
  • Voluntary (i.e., conscious control)
  • Can be involuntary
  • Powerful
  • Primary topic of this lecture
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43
Q

Describe skeletal muscle organisation and composition

A

-Connective tissue components of muscle
Superficial fascia is loose connective tissue & fat underlying the skin
Deep fascia = dense irregular connective tissue around muscle

-Epimysium
dense regular connective tissue surrounding entire muscle

-Perimysium
fibrous connective tissue surrounding fascicles (groups of muscle fibers)

-Endomysium
fine areolar connective tissue surrounding each muscle fiber
All these connective tissue layers extend beyond the muscle belly to form the tendon

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44
Q

What are the events involved in skeletal muscle contraction and the sliding filament theory?

A

Activation: neural stimulation at a neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

Excitation-contraction coupling:

  • Generation and propagation of an action potential (AP) along the sarcolemma (membrane surrounding the muscle fiber)
  • Final trigger: a brief rise in intracellular Ca2+ levels
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45
Q

Define the all-or-none law

A

If a stimulus is above a certain threshold, a nerve or muscle fibre will fire.

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46
Q

define what a motor unit is

A

The combination of an individual motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates

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47
Q

Describe the main components of blood

A
Plasma
1. Erythrocytes (RBC
buffy coat:
2. Leukocytes (WBC)
3. Platelets
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48
Q

What are platelets and how do they assist in blood clot formation

A

Platelets are involved in blood clotting.

Platelets are actually fragments of cells called megakaryocytes.

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49
Q

What is Erythropoiesis and EPO

A

Erythropoiesis: red blood cell production
A hemocytoblast is transformed into a proerythroblast

EPO= hormone controls (Erythropoietin)

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50
Q

Blood disorders

A

Anemia

  1. Hemorrhagic anemia
  2. Hemolytic anemia
  3. Aplastic anemia
  4. iron- deficiency anemia
  5. pernicious anemia
  6. Thalassemia
  7. sickle-cell anemia
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51
Q

difference between pulmonary and systemic circuits

A

Pulmonary circulation= circulation around the lungs
purpose: Oxygenation of blood
Removal of carbon dioxide

Systemic circulation= circulation around the body
purpose: Provide tissues with oxygen & nutrients,
Waste removal

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52
Q

identify the main components of the vascular system

A

Pulmonary and systemic circuits

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53
Q

Describe the layers of a vessel

A
  1. Tunica intima
    Endothelium lines the lumen of all vessels
    Basement membrane outside the endothelium
  2. Tunica media
    Smooth muscle and sheets of elastin
  3. Tunica externa/adventitia
    Collagen fibers and elastin, protect and reinforce
    Larger vessels contain “vasa vasorum” to nourish the external layer

intima is in the inside

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54
Q

Explain the differences between arteries, arterioles, venules and veins

A

Arteries- carry blood AWAY from the heart, high pressure

Arterioles- The smallest vessels where all three tunicas can be differentiated.

Veins - carry blood TOWARDS the heart, low pressure

Venules- formed when capillary beds unite.
Drain capillary blood and begin the return flow of blood to the heart.

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55
Q

Name the major vessels of the body

A
  1. Arteries
    Carry blood AWAY from the heart
    High pressure
  2. Veins
    Carry blood TOWARDS the heart
    Low pressure
  3. Capillaries
    Allow exchange of gasses and nutrients
    Link the arterial and venous systems
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56
Q

Describe the anatomical features of the heart

A
  • The heart is enclosed in a sac like structure called the pericardium
  • The heart walls are comprised of 3 layers
  • The heart has 4 chambers
  • Blood flow through the heart passes through valves and into chambers
  • Blood then enters circulation
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57
Q

Describe the flow of blood through the heart

A
Vena cava
Right atrium
Tricuspid valve
Right ventricle
Pulmonary valve
Pulmonary artery
Lungs
Right and left pulmonary veins
Left atrium
Bicuspid valve
Left ventricle
Aortic valve
Aortic trunk (Aorta)
Body
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58
Q

Name the vessels going to and from the heart

A
Superior vena cava 
Right pulmonary artery
Right pulmonary veins
Inferior vena cava
left pulmonary veins 
Left pulmonary artery
aorta
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59
Q

Describe the differences in the foetal circulatory system

A

Foetal system has shunts due to a different circulatory system

-Ductus arteriosus
Connects the pulmonary arteries to the aorta
Bypass the lungs
after birth: becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

-Ductus venosus
foetal blood vessel connecting the umbilical vein to the Inferior Vena Cava
Allows oxygenated blood to bypass the liver
After birth: becomes the ligamentum venosum

-Foramen ovale
shunts highly oxygenated blood from right atrium to left atrium
After birth: becomes the fossa ovalis

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60
Q

What are the two heart sounds and what causes them?

A

associated with closing of heart valves:
-First sound occurs as AV valves close and signifies beginning of systole

-Second sound occurs when SL valves close at the beginning of ventricular diastole

cause:
Heart murmurs: abnormal heart sounds most often indicative of valve problems

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61
Q

Describe the events that lead to the contraction of cardiac muscle

A

Rapid depolarization occurs when fast‐opening Na + channels in the sarcolemma open and allow an influx of Na + ions into the cardiac muscle cell.

The phase of heart relaxation is called diastole.

The phase of contraction is called systole.

??

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62
Q

anatomy of intrinsic cardiac contraction

A

Intrinsic cardiac conduction system (think “internal”)

  • A network of noncontractile (autorhythmic) cells
  • Initiate and distribute impulses to coordinate the depolarization and contraction of the heart
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63
Q

Describe, in order, the main steps in the spread of depolarisation through the heart

A
  • Ventricular cells fire and propagate action potentials randomly
  • Destroys the pumping action of the heart
  • Death within three minutes without defibrillation or manual pumping (CPR)
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64
Q

Describe the extrinsic conduction of the heart

A

(external)

  • Autonomic nervous system regulation
  • Cardioaccelatory and cardioinhibitory centers
  • Hormones
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65
Q

What conditions can be diagnosed via an ECG and what do they mean?

A

Heart attack - fast heart beat
Cardiac arrest

Irregular heart beat

not enough blood beating around the body

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66
Q

What are the four main body tissues:

A
  1. Epithelial- from surfaces & interfaces of body
  2. Connective- Support communication
  3. Muscle- movement by contraction
  4. Nerve- specialized to carry electrical signals- waves of membrane depolarization
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67
Q

Main difference between RBC and other cells in body? Why do these differences occur?

A

Unlike many other cells, RB have no nucleus and can easily change shape, helping them fit through various blood vessels.

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68
Q

Explain difference between passive and active transport

A

Passive- No energy required, relies on concentration gradient/ membrane permeability e.g. water/oxygen

Active- Requires energy, moves molecules, often against the concentration gradient. e.g. sodium-potassium pump

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69
Q

During short and endurance exercise, what energy stores are used?

A

Short exercise= Glycolysis

Endurance exercise= The Kreb cycle

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70
Q

What is the difference between osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis? what joints are mostly affected in each?

A
Osteoarthritis= Degenerative disease. Affects joints carrying weight e.g. hip, knee, spine
Rheumatoid= Autoimmune disease. Common in fingers, wrists, arms and legs
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71
Q

What is a dislocation? How are joints commonly dislocated

A

When bones are forced out of alignment of the joint

Caused by: serious falls/ playing sports

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72
Q

List the microscopic differences between compact and spongy bone tissue

A
Compact= hard & dense. Occurs on external part of bone (cortex)
Spongy= Sponge-like framework. Arranged in a pattern to resist stress and strain
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73
Q

Define anatomical position

A

A standardized method of observing imaging the body that allows precise & consistent anatomical references.

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74
Q

What microscopic events occur in osteoporosis?

A

When osteoblast activity occurs more than osteoclast

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75
Q

Explain difference between the true and false pelvis

A
True= Contains pelvic colon, rectum, bladder, some reproductive organs.
False= Supports intestines. (specifically illium & sigmoid colon) & transmits part of their eight to the anterior wall of the abdomen.
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76
Q

What is the purpose and function of the vertebral column and curvatures?

A

Vertebral column serve as a point of attachment for the ribs, pelvic girdle & muscles. Protection of the spinal cord.
Curvatures Increase the resilience & flexibility of the spine. provide flexible and dynamic support

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77
Q

How many processes characterize the vertebral arch? Name them

A

7 processes

  • vertebral foramen
  • intervertebral foramina
  • pedicles
  • lamina
  • spinous processes
  • transverse processes, articular processes.
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78
Q

What process is located inferior to the sternum? What is unique about this process.

A

The Xiphoid process

Tip of it resembles a sword
Vital attachment point for several major muscles

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79
Q

What are diastatic skull fractures? In what individuals are they most likely seen?

A

Fractures along the suture lines in the skull

Most commonly seen in new borns and older infants

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80
Q

At what age do most sutural bones complete fuse? Explain what and how the condition of craniosynostosis can arise.

A
  • fifth year of life

- When one or more of the cranial sutures ossify prematurely, leading to cranial abnormalities

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81
Q

Difference between tendon and ligament

A

Tendon= joins muscle to bone. Move the bone or structure

ligament= joins bone to bone. Hold structures together and keep them stable.

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82
Q

When extending your elbow, what is the chief muscle used? What nerve innervates this muscle?

A

Chief muscle= Tricep brachii

Innovative nerve= The radial nerve

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83
Q

What is the role of each of the gluteal muscles?

A

Act on the hip joint, mainly to facilitate abduction and extension of the thigh but some also assist in the adduction, external rotation and internal rotation of the thigh.

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84
Q

When doing calf raises, what muscles of your leg are you using?

A

Gastrocnemius

Soleus

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85
Q

What are the three types of muscle, and how can you differentiate all three?

A

Smooth:

  • attaches to hair follicles in the skin
  • located in hollow organs other than the heart
  • Not striated
  • INVOLUNTARY

Skeletal:

  • Attached to bone and skin
  • Powerful
  • Striated
  • VOLUNTARY (Conscious control)
  • can be involuntary

Cardiac:

  • Only in the walls of the heart
  • Striated
  • Auto-rhythmic because of built in pacemaker
  • intercalated discs: wave like conduction
  • INVOLUNTARY
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86
Q

Explain the main functions of blood

A
  • Formation of blood clots to prevent excess blood loss
  • transportation of oxygen and nutrients to lungs and tissues
  • fight infection
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87
Q

Identify the different components of blood and their percentages. What is haematocrit?

A
Plasma= 54%
RBC= 45%
WBC= 1%
Platelets= 1%

Haematocrit: the calculated volume percentage of red blood cells (erythrocytes) in your blood.

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88
Q

What shape are RBC’s? How does this shape aid in the function of these cells and their relationship with haemoglobin?

A

-Biconcave shape
-The biconcave shape has a huge surface area relative to volume, squeeze through capillaries.
Therefore gas transport can occur through the haemoglobin

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89
Q

What is the function of EPO? How does EPO regulate erythropoiesis?

A

EPO- a hormone formed in and secreted by the kidneys
Stimulates (RBC) production in bone marrow

-balance between RBC production and destruction depending on Hormonal controls (Erythropoietin: EPO)

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90
Q

What are the three main types of anemia? give and example for each

A

Insufficient erythrocytes
-A plastic anaemia

Low Haemoglobin
-Iron deficiency anaemia

Abnormal haemoglobin
-sickle cell

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91
Q

Explain the function of platelets. How are they involved in clot formation?

A
  • Blood clotting
  • Megakaryocytes: involved in blood clot formation. each megakaryocyte will produce 1000-3000 platelets, from fragmenting off its cytoplasm.
  • Platelets last 8-9 days in the circulating blood clot
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92
Q

What are the three layers of blood vessel, and what does each layer comprise of?

A
  1. Tunica intima
    - Endothelium lines the lumen of all vessels
    - Basement membrane outside the endothelium.
  2. Tunica media
    - Smooth muscle and sheets of elastin
  3. Tunica externa
    - Collagen fibres and elastin; protect and reinforce
    - layer vessels contain “ vasa vasorum” to nourish the externa layer.
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93
Q

List the main difference between the structure and function of arteries and veins

A

Arteries:

  • Carry blood AWAY from the heart
  • High pressure
  • Deep inside muscle
  • thicker walls

Veins:

  • Carry blood TOWARDS heart
  • Low pressure
  • Closer to surface of body
  • Thinner walls
  • valves
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94
Q

What is atherosclerosis? What factors contribute to this disease?

A

-A thickening or hardening of the arteries caused by a build up of plague in the vessel wall
Fat, cholesterol and calcium
-caused by increased fatty diets, unhealthy lifestyles and genetics.

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95
Q

What is the main function of the Golgi Body

A

Packaging materials

96
Q

What energy process/es occur in the mitochondria?

A

Electron Chain Transport and Krebs cycle

97
Q

The anatomical position is defined as….

A

Standing upright, facing observer, eyes facing forward, hands by side, feet flat on floor, palms facing anteriorly (front)

98
Q

True or False. Leukocytes make up part of the buffy coat.

A

TRUE

99
Q

Which of the following is the abnormal lateral curvature of the spine

A

Scoliosis

100
Q

What type of joint is a tooth in socket?

A

Gomphosis

101
Q

Which of the following is not a long bone?

Humerus, Malleus, clavicle, radius

A

Malleus

102
Q

Which is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?

Subscapularis, Teres minor, Pronator Teres, Supraspinatus

A

Supraspinatus

103
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Production of RBCs

104
Q

Which curvatures of the spine are primary?

A

Thoracic and sacral

105
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of anaemia?

Insufficient erythrocytes
Low haemoglobin content
Abnormal haemoglobin
High number of erythrocytes

A

High number of erythrocytes

106
Q

The tendon of which muscle runs through the intertubercular sulcus/ groove?

A

Biceps brachii

107
Q

What is an osteoclast?

A

Bone cell that breaks down and reabsorbs boney matrix

108
Q

When extending the forearm, where does the olecranon process slide into?

A

Olecranon fossa

109
Q

Circumduction=

A

Combination of flexion/extension/adduction/abduction

110
Q

What is the prime mover of extension at the elbow?

A

Triceps bachii

111
Q

What plane divides body into left and right halves?

A

Sagittal

112
Q

Which of the following statements about the nucleus is true?

Only organelle to contain DNA
Do no vary in size
Some cells have multiple
Responsible for ATP production

A

Some cells have multiple nucleus

113
Q

The arrangement of bones and muscles of the pectoral girdle is so there is a high degree of ….. but a low level of …..

A

Movement: stability

114
Q

Which forms the largest portion of the coxal bone/ os coxae

A

Ilium

115
Q

Which muscle inserts via the calcaneal tendon?

A

Gastrocnemius

116
Q

Which is the deepest of the 4 abdominal muscles

Transversus abdominis
External obliques
Internal obliques
Rectus abdominis

A

Transversus abdominis

117
Q

True or False. The female pelvis has a smaller pubic arch than a male pelvis?

A

FALSE

118
Q

What is the insertion of the rectus femoris

A

Patella via the quadriceps tendon, and tibial tuberosity via the patellae tendon

119
Q

What joint/s does the vastus lateralis cross?

A

Knee

120
Q

Which type of muscle is characterised by intercalated discs?

A

Cardiac

121
Q

True or false. Arteries, veins and capillaries all have tunica intima, tunica media and tunica externa?

A

FALSE

122
Q

Which leukocyte is involved in the adaptive immune system?

A

Lymphocytes

123
Q

What are the two circulatory pathways of blood through the body?

A

Systemic and Pulmonary

124
Q

Which of the following is not extrinsic regulation of the heart?

Hormones
ANS via cardioinhibitory and acceleratory centres in the medulla oblongata
Autorhythmic cells
Thyroxin via the thyroid gland

A

Autorhythmic cells

125
Q

Difference between prokaryotes and Eukaryotes

A

Prokaryotes= single celled
e.g. bacteria

Eukaryotes= multi cellular
e.g. plant, animal cells (more complicated)
larger, more complicated genetic machinery

126
Q

What are Erythrocytes and Leukocytes?

A

Erythrocytes are RBC

Leukocytes are WBC

127
Q

Name the two types of ossification

A

Intramembranous ossification

endochonral ossification

128
Q

What are the rotator cuff muscles?

A

Supraspinatus, subscapularis, infraspinatus, teres minor

129
Q

List the main functions of the Respiratory system

A
  1. Pulmonary ventilation (breathing)
    Inspiration: movement of air rich of O2 into the lungs through the airways
    Expiration: movement of air rich of CO2 out of the lungs
  2. External respiration
  3. Regulation of the pH of body fluids
  4. Olfactory function (nose)
  5. Sound production (larynx)
130
Q

Describe the functional anatomy of the respiratory system

A
  • Respiratory zone: site of gas exchange
    • Microscopic structures
  • Conducting zone: conduits to gas exchange sites
    • Channel for conveying air
    • Includes all other respiratory structures
  • Respiratory muscles: diaphragm and other muscles that promote ventilation
131
Q

Describe how voice production occurs

A

Respiratory System, also known as “breath support”, includes: lungs, ribcage, chest muscles, diaphragm, and windpipe.

Phonatory System, also known as the larynx or “voice box”, where sound is produced includes: larynx and, specifically, the vocal folds (also called “vocal cords”).

Resonatory System, also known as the “vocal tract”, includes: throat, nasal passages, sinuses, and mouth

132
Q

Describe how voice production occurs

A

Respiratory System, also known as “breath support”, includes: lungs, ribcage, chest muscles, diaphragm, and windpipe.

Phonatory System, also known as the larynx or “voice box”, where sound is produced includes: larynx and, specifically, the vocal folds (also called “vocal cords”).

Resonatory System, also known as the “vocal tract”, includes: throat, nasal passages, sinuses, and mouth

133
Q

Name the four layers of the trachea and what they comprise

A

Mucosa: ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells
Submucosa: connective tissue with seromucous glands
Hyaline cartilage: 16-20 incomplete rings (semi rigid support)
Adventitia: outermost layer made of connective tissue that encases the C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage

134
Q

What structures make the conducting and respiratory zones?

A

Conducting=

  • trachea
  • bronchi
  • bronchioles

Respiratory=

  • respiratory bronchioles
  • alveolar ducts
  • alveolar sacs
135
Q

Describe alveoli and the different cells that are present in alveoli

A

The alveoli are surrounded by fine elastic fibers
House alveolar macrophages that keep alveolar surfaces sterile
Two types of alveolar epithelial cells (type I and type II)

136
Q

Relate Boyle’s law to the events of respiration

A

It explains that when the volume of the lung increases during inspiration, the pressure in the lung will decrease

Boyle’s law
The pressure of a gas is defined as the force that gas exerts on the walls of its ‘container’
The pressure and volume of a gas in a closed container are inversely proportionate
Mechanical processes that depend on volume changes in the thoracic cavity
Volume changes  pressure changes
Pressure changes  gases flow to equalize pressure

137
Q

Be familiar with intraplumonary and intrapleural pressure, and the relationship between them

A

Intrapulmonary pressure – pressure within the alveoli
Intrapleural pressure – pressure within the pleural space

The difference between these two is the transpulmonary pressure

138
Q

Explain how oxygen enters blood, and subsequently binds to Hb for transport around the body

A

Most oxygen in the blood is transported bound to haemoglobin (Hb) in red blood cells.

139
Q

Explain the events occurring during inspiration and expiration

A

Inspiration: gases flow into the lungs
Expiration: gases exit the lungs

Inspiration: movement of air rich of O2 into the lungs through the airways
Expiration: movement of air rich of CO2 out of the lungs

140
Q

Understand the importance of airway resistance, alveolar surface tension and lung compliance

A

Inspiratory muscles consume energy (active process) to overcome factors that hinder air passage and normal pulmonary ventilation

ventilation is influenced by it

141
Q

Using an examples, explain how the respiratory system is affected by disease and/or toxic substances

A
  1. Fibrosis - Tuberculosis
    Infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    Large lesions leading to tissue death
    Heal by fibrosis/scarring.
    Decreased compliance.
     Lungs harder to inflate (forced inspiration)
  2. Increased Lung compliance (abnormal)
  3. Emphysema
  4. Smoking
142
Q

Describe the control of the respiratory system

A

an automatic and rhythmic act produced by networks of neurons in the hindbrain (the pons and medulla)

143
Q

Identify the main anatomical features of the heart

A

four chambers:
two upper chambers known as the left atrium and right atrium
two lower chambers called the left and right ventricles.
It is also made up of four valves: the tricuspid, pulmonary, mitral and aortic valves

144
Q

Describe the flow of blood through the heart

A
Vena cava
Right atrium
Tricuspid valve
Right ventricle
Pulmonary valve
Pulmonary artery
Lungs
Right and left pulmonary veins
Left atrium
Bicuspid valve
Left ventricle
Aortic valve
Aortic trunk (Aorta)
Body
145
Q

Understand the role and the differences between each of the heart valves

A

Atrioventricular (AV) valves*
Prevent backflow into the atria when ventricles contract
Semilunar (SL) valves^
Prevent backflow into the ventricles when ventricles relax

146
Q

What is the coronary circulation, and what main vessels are involved?

A

The functional blood supply to the heart muscle itself – coronary vessels

147
Q

Describe the differences in the foetal circulatory system

A

Ductus arteriosus
Connects the pulmonary arteries to the aorta
Bypass the lungs
after birth: becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

Ductus venosus
foetal blood vessel connecting the umbilical vein to the Inferior Vena Cava
Allows oxygenated blood to bypass the liver
After birth: becomes the ligamentum venosum

Foramen ovale
shunts highly oxygenated blood from right atrium to left atrium
After birth: becomes the fossa ovalis

148
Q

A smoker sees his doctor because he has a persistent cough and is short of breath after very little exertion. What diagnosis will the doctor make and what can the person expect if he does not quit smoking?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

If they don’t stop smoking: Coughing, breathing difficulty, mucus (sputum) production and wheezing.

149
Q

Define anatomical dead space. What is the relationship between anatomical and alveolar dead space? Which value is likely to increase during lung pathology?

A

Anatomical dead space: Conducting zones (airways) in lungs containing air but don’t undergo respiratory exchange between gas and blood.

Physiological Dead Space: Anatomical dead space plus alveolar dead space (alveoli that don’t participate in respiratory exchange)
-Inhalation increases

150
Q

The contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles begins inspiration. Explain exactly what happens, in terms of volume and pressure changes in the lungs, when these muscles contract.

A
  • The external intercostal muscles contract, pulling ribcage upwards and outwards. The diaphragm contracts, pulling downwards.
  • Lung volume INCREASES & air pressure inside DECREASES
151
Q

Difference between atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure, and intrapleural pressure. Which of these is always negative in a healthy individual during normal breathing? What happens if intrapleural pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure?

A

Atmospheric pressure is the force per unit of area exerted against a surface by the weight of the air above the surface i.e. the “weight” of the atmosphere
Intrapulmonary pressure – pressure within the alveoli
Intrapleural pressure – pressure within the pleural space (Always NEGATIVE)

intrapleural pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure, the lungs collapse

152
Q

What are the two zones of the respiratory system? What anatomical structures belong to each?

A

conducting zones (nose to bronchioles) form a path for conduction of the inhaled gases and respiratory zone (alveolar duct to alveoli) where

153
Q

list some protective mechanisms for the respiratory system

A

Nasal cavity- hairs and mucus trap small particles, viruses, bacteria, dust, and dirt to prevent entry.

154
Q

Explain the electrical conduction pathway in the heart.

A

The electrical impulse travels from the sinus node to the aventricular node (AV node). There, impulses slow down for a short period of time, then continue down the conduction pathway via the bundle of His into Ventricals.

155
Q

What is Autorhythmicity in cardiac muscle cells? What drives it?

A

Some CMC are “self-excitable” allowing for rhythmic waves of contraction to adjacent cells throughout the heart. INDEPENDANT.
WHAT DRIVES IT? when the membrane potential reaches approx. -60mV

156
Q

Try the patellar reflex on a partner. How does your reflex compare to others?

A

My patellar had a smaller reflex and went slower than partner. However similar to other people

157
Q

Which reflex arc is faster, monosynaptic or polysynaptic? Why

A

Monosynaptic is a faster reflex arc because it has only one reflex.
One single synapse
Polysynaptic has multiple

158
Q

Ralph sustained a leg injury in a bowling accident and had to use crutches. Unfortunately, he never took the time to learn how to use them properly. After two weeks of use, he noticed his fingers were becoming numb. Then he noticed his arms were getting weaker and tingling. What could his problem be?

A

Radial Nerve Neuropraxia

  • Incorrect use of crutches, radial nerve is close to bone in upper arm - therefore vulnerable to injury. (weight on shoulders)
  • problem with the nerve that travels from armpit down back of arm to hand
  • causes wrist drop, tingling, numbness ect.
159
Q

What is the normal response of the plantar reflex? What is Babinski’s sign and what does it indicate?

A

Normal response- on lateral part of side of sole of foot with fairly sharp object, produces plantar flexion of the big toe. Also flexion and adduction of other toes.
Babinski’s sign- stimulation of the lateral plantar aspect of the foot leads to extension (dorsiflexion or upward movement) of big toe (hallux).

160
Q

Distinguish between monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes and between ipsilateral and contralateral reflex responses.

A
Monosynaptic= One single chemical reflex
Polysynaptic= One or more interneurons connect afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) signals.
Ipsilateral= Structures on same side of body or brain
Contralateral= structures on opposite sides of brain
161
Q

List and describe the functions of the three cranial nerves that serve the muscles of the eye.

A

III Oculomotor - eye movement and constriction of the pupils ( narrower)
IV Trochlear- eye movement, smallest cranial nerve
VI Abducens- Motor nerve of eye movement. Abducts eyeball (lateral movement)

162
Q

If Cranial nerve is damaged, can it regenerate? Why?

A
  • If cranial nerve is completely cut. It can NOT be repaired
  • If it is stretched or bruised but nerve remains intact. It CAN recover

….

163
Q

What causes colour blindness? Why is it more prevalent in males?

A

-Eye accidents or injuries, diabetes, blocked blood vessels, lazy eye ect.

-Males are more common because its passed down the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome from their mother. Therefore more likely for the X to have a colour blind gene.
Whereas females have 2 (XX) both would need that gene.

164
Q

Name the bones of the wrist and hand . pneumonic

A

Radius = thumb Ulna= small

Carpal bones (8)
Metacarpal bones (=5) 
Proximal phalanges (5)
Intermediate phalanges (4)
Distal phalanges (5)

Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can’t Handle
bottom up, left left

165
Q

Name the bones of the upper limb

A
Humorous
Elbow
Radius 
Ulna 
Wrist
Thumb
166
Q

Name bones of lower limb

A
Femur
Patella 
Lateral condyle 
Medial condyle
Head
Tibial tuberosity
Tibia 
Fibula
Interosseous membrane 
Anterior border (CREST)
Medial Malleolus
Lateral Malleolus
Talus 
Calcaneus
167
Q

Describe the different arches of the foot and their function

A

Longitudinal arches- lateral and medial arches
Transverse arch- formed by tarsals and bases of metatarsals
Medial longitudinal arch

168
Q

List the differences between the types of vertebrae

A

Cervical vertebrae- (7) - neck SECONDARY
Thoracic vertebrae (12)- thoracic cage PRIMARY
Lumbar vertebrae (5)- lower back SECONDARY
Sacrum (5 fused)- pelvis PRIMARY
Coccyz (4 fused) - tail bone

169
Q

Differences between C1, C2 and the other cervical vertebrae

A

C1 - Superior surfaces of lateral mass articulate with the occipital condyles
C2 - Dens projects superiorly into the anterior arch of the atlas

170
Q

What are the disorders of the spine

A

Scoliosis- abnormal lateral curvature of the spine
Kyphosis- Excessive curvature of the thoracic spine posteriorly
Lordosis- Excessive curvature of the lumbar spine anteriorly

171
Q

Describe the structure and components of the thoracic cage

A
structure= 
sternum
ribs
costal cartilages
thoracic vertebrae 

Components=
PROTECT the organs in the thoracic and abdominal cavities
SUPPORT for the bones of the upper limbs
Play and role in BREATHING

172
Q

List main functions for bones of the skull

A
  1. Cranial bones (8 bones)
    - protect the brain
  2. Facial bones (14 bones)
    - framework of the face
    - cavities for special sense organs (eyes, nose, ears, mouth)
    - Provide the main opening for the external environment (for food and air)
    - secure the teeth (Gomphosis)
    - Anchor facial muscles to the face
173
Q

Describe the main cranial bones of the skull, their location and function

A

Parietal bones (2) - sides and roof of the cranium. Borders of it form joins with the other bones called sutures.
Ethmoid bone - part of base of skull. Separates the nasal cavity from the brain
Sphenoid bone - part of the orbit of the eye, side of the skull, base of skull. Houses pituitary gland.
Temporal bones (2) - sides of cranium (temples). House ear structures, form part of cheek bone, with zygomatic process.
Occipital bone - Most inferior part of cranium. Several foramina for the entry and exit of vessels and the spinal cord.
Frontal bone - forehead, part of the orbit and part of bony nose

PEST OF 6

174
Q

What are the 4 sutures of the skull?

A
  1. frontal suture
  2. Coronal suture
  3. Sagittal suture
  4. Lambdoid suture
175
Q

What are the 3 main types of muscle tissue and the main characteristics of each?

A
  1. Cardiac - INVOLUNTARY - Heart
  2. Skeletal - VOLUNTARY - Leg
  3. Smooth - INVOLUNTARY Internal Organs
176
Q

What is the origin and insertion of a muscle?

A
origin= bone that does NOT move when muscle shortens (normally proximal)
Insertion= moveable bone (sometimes other muscles or tissues) e.g. Gluteus Maximus - ITB band)
177
Q

Difference between ligament and tendon

A

ligament = bone to bone
-Ashort band of tough, flexible, fibrous connective tissue

tendon = muscle to bone
-Aflexible but inelastic cord of strong fibrous collagen tissue

178
Q

What are the movements of the trunk

A

Flexion/ extension
Lateral flexion
Twist/ Rotation

179
Q

Names and function/s of muscles of the trunk, neck, head and arm

A

Trunk muscles-

  • External obliques: twist/ flex & rotate trunk
  • Internal oblique: Opposing twisting motion to ext. obliques
  • Rectus abdominis: Flexion of trunk
  • Transverse abdominus: Assists in giving birth

Neck muscles-
Sternocleidomastoid: flexes neck, rotates head

Head muscles-
Masseter: attaches to zygomatic arch, maxilla & mandible.
Buccinator: assists with chewing and facial expression

Arm muscles-
Biceps brachii: flexes elbow, supinates arm, flexes shoulder, Brachialis: flexes elbow

Triceps brachii: extends elbow

180
Q

Name the origin and insertion of muscles of the trunk, neck, head and arm

A

-External Obliques- origin= Serrations from ribs. Insertion=Iliac crest posteriorly, anteriorly forms the inguinal ligament and rectus sheath
-Internal obliques-
Origin= Thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest, inguinal ligament
Insertion= 10th-12th ribs, and linea alba
-Transverse abdominus-
Origin= Rib cartilage 7-12, thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest,
inguinal ligament
Insertion= Abdominal sheath, linea alba
-Rectus abdominus
origin= cartilage ribs 5-7, xiphoid process
insertion= Pubic symphysis and pubic bone

-Sternocleidomastoid-
Origin= Manubrium of the sternum, medial clavicle
Insertion= Mastoid process of the temporal bone

-Bicep brachii-
origin= long head- supraglenoid tuberosity. Short head- coracoid
Insertion= Radial tuberosity on radius (anterior)
-Brachialis-
Origin= Anterior surface of humerus, distal to deltoid insertion
Inserts= Coronoid process of ulna
-Triceps brachii-
Inserts= Olecranon of ulna

181
Q

Define the functions of muscle tissue

A
Producing body movements
Stabilizing body positions
Maintain posture
Regulating organ volumes
bands of smooth muscle called sphincters
Movement of substances within the body
blood, lymph, urine, air, food and fluids, sperm
Producing heat
involuntary contractions of skeletal muscle (shivering)
182
Q

Describe the main components of blood?

A

Plasma 55% - Water, proteins, electrolytes, gases, nutrients

RBC (Erythrocytes) 45% -biconcave, lack organelles (no nucleus, no mitochondria)

-Buffy coat <1%
WBC (Leukocytes) : involved in the immune system
Platelets : involved in blood clotting

183
Q

Describe the main types of blood cells and their functions?

A
  1. Erythrocytes (RBC) - predominately in gas transport through haemoglobin.
  2. Leukocytes (WBC) - predominately in gas transport through haemoglobin. 1.
    Innate immune system = no memory
    Adaptive immune system = memory
  3. Platelets - involved in blood clotting
184
Q

What are platelets and how do they assist in blood clot formation?

A

Platelets are fragments of cells called megakaryocytes. Each megakaryocyte will produce 1000-3000 platelets, from fragmenting off its cytoplasm. Platelets last 8-9 days in the circulating blood.

185
Q

Describe the different types of anaemia?

A

1.Insufficient erythrocytes
Hemorrhagic anemia: acute or chronic loss of blood
Hemolytic anemia: erythrocytes are destroyed faster than they can be made
Aplastic anemia: body stops producing enough new erythrocytes

  1. Low haemoglobin content
    -Iron deficiency anaemia
    Inadequate intake of iron-containing foods
    Secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia

-Pernicious anaemia
Deficiency of vitamin B12 , which is essential for RBC formation
Lack of intrinsic factor needed for absorption of B12

  1. Abnormal hemoglobin
    Absent or faulty globin chain
    RBCs are thin, delicate, and deficient in hemoglobin

Sickle-cell anemia
abnormal hemoglobin (HbS)
Live 10-20 days only

186
Q

What is erythropoiesis and EPO

A

Erythropoiesis: red blood cell production
A hemocytoblast is transformed into a proerythroblast

Erythropoietin (EPO): a hormone formed in and secreted by the kidneys.
Released by the kidney in response to low oxygen levels
(hypoxia).

187
Q

What are the disorders of the blood?

A
  1. Haemophilia: group of hereditary genetic disorders that affect coagulation
  2. Malaria: parasite that enters blood and affects RBC
188
Q

Difference between pulmonary and systemic circuits

A

Pulmonary circulation= circulation around LUNGS
Oxygenation of blood, Removal of carbon dioxide

Systemic circulation= circulation around BODY
Primary purpose: Provide tissues with oxygen & nutrients,
Waste removal

189
Q

Identify the main components of the vascular system

A

Arteries- Carry blood AWAY from the heart
High pressure
Veins- Carry blood TOWARDS the heart
Low pressure
Capillaries- Allow exchange of gasses and nutrients
Link the arterial and venous systems

190
Q

Describe the layers of a vessel

A
  1. Tunica intima - Endothelium lines the lumen of all vessels
  2. Tunica media - Smooth muscle and sheets of elastin
  3. Tunica externa/adventitia - Collagen fibers and elastin, protect and reinforce
191
Q

Explain the differences between arteries, arterioles, venules and veins and identify histological differences

A

Arteries - named according to direction of blood flow (AWAY) from heart to
arterioles.

arterioles - Regulate the flow of blood into capillary networks
smaller than arteries and provide the link between the arteries and
the capillaries.

venules - Venules take blood from the capillaries to the veins

Veins - named according to direction of blood flow (TOWARDS) heart

Decrease in size down to capillaries then increase in size up to heart

192
Q

Name the major vessels of the body

A

Arteries
Veins
Capillaries

193
Q

Identify the main anatomical features of the heart

A

divided into four chambers.
two chambers on the top (atrium, plural atria)
two on the bottom (ventricles), one on each side of the heart.

Right atrium: Two large veins deliver oxygen-poor blood to your right atrium. The superior vena cava carries blood from your upper body.

194
Q

Describe the events that lead to the contraction of cardiac muscle

A

Binding of the myosin head to ( ATP ), then pulling actin filaments to the centre of the sarcomere.
the mechanical force of contraction

195
Q

Role and the differences between each of the heart valves

A

Tricuspid valve. Located between the right atrium and the right ventricle.

Pulmonary valve. Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery.

Mitral valve (bicuspid). Located between the left atrium and the left ventricle.

Aortic valve.

196
Q

Name the vessels going to and from the heart, and their function

A

Arteries carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to all of the body’s tissues. They branch several times, becoming smaller and smaller as they carry blood farther from the heart.

Capillaries. These are small, thin blood vessels that connect the arteries and the veins.

197
Q

Describe the differences in the foetal circulatory system

A

Different circulatory system
Ductus arteriosus
Connects the pulmonary arteries to the aorta
Bypass the lungs
after birth: becomes the ligamentum arteriosum

Ductus venosus
foetal blood vessel connecting the umbilical vein to the Inferior Vena Cava
Allows oxygenated blood to bypass the liver
After birth: becomes the ligamentum venosum

Foramen ovale
shunts highly oxygenated blood from right atrium to left atrium
After birth: becomes the fossa ovalis

198
Q

Name the two heart sounds, what causes them

A

First sound occurs as AV VALVES CLOSE and signifies beginning of systole

Second sound occurs when SL VALVES CLOSE at the beginning of ventricular diastole

Caused by: Closure of the heart valves
First sound occurs when the mitral and tricuspid valves close
Second when the pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves close.

199
Q

Anatomy of the intrinsic conduction system

A

Initiate and distribute impulses to coordinate the depolarization and contraction of the heart

Two main types of cells in the heart:
Autorhythmic cells
Contractile cells

200
Q

Describe the extrinsic conduction of the heart

A

Autonomic nervous system regulation
Cardioaccelatory and cardioinhibitory centers
Hormones

201
Q

Relate the main waveforms (P, QRS and T) and segments of the ECG to the flow of electrical activity through the heart

A

.The QRS complex represents depolarization of the ventricles and is followed by ventricular contraction. The T wave represents the repolarization of the ventricles and marks the beginning of ventricular relaxation.

202
Q

What conditions can be diagnosed by an ECG? and what do they mean?

A

ECG= Electrocardiogram

conditions:
arrhythmias – where the heart beats too slowly, too quickly, or irregularly.
coronary heart disease – where the heart’s blood supply is blocked or interrupted by a build-up of fatty substances.
heart attacks – where the supply of blood to the heart is suddenly blocked.

203
Q

List the main functions of the respiratory system

A
  1. Pulmonary ventilation (breathing)
    Inspiration
    Expiration
  2. External respiration – Pulmonary gas exchange: O2 and CO2 exchange between the air in the lungs and the blood
  3. Regulation of the pH of body fluids
  4. Olfactory function (nose)
  5. Sound production (larynx)
204
Q

Describe the functional anatomy of the respiratory system

A
  1. Conducting zone: conducts air into the lungs
    Other functions: Air is adjusted to body temperature, humidified and filtered
  2. Respiratory zone: site of gas exchange
    Microscopic structures: respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, alveoli
205
Q

Describe how voice production occurs

A

The vocal folds produce sound when they come together and then vibrate as air passes through them during exhalation of air from the lungs.

Respiratory System, also known as “breath support”, includes: lungs, ribcage, chest muscles, diaphragm, and windpipe.

Phonatory System, also known as the larynx or “voice box”, where sound is produced includes: larynx and, specifically, the vocal folds (also called “vocal cords”).

Resonatory System, also known as the “vocal tract”, includes: throat, nasal passages, sinuses, and mouth

206
Q

Name the four layers of the trachea and what they comprise (of the wall)

A

Mucosa: ciliated pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells

Submucosa: connective tissue with seromucous glands

Hyaline cartilage: 16-20 incomplete rings (semi rigid support)

Adventitia: outermost layer made of connective tissue that encases the C-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage

207
Q

What structures make the conducting and respiratory zones?

A
  1. Conducting zone- Macroscopic: Nose, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles
  2. Respiratory zone- Microscopic structures: respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, alveoli
208
Q

Describe alveoli and the different cells that are present in alveoli

A
  • They are where the lungs and the blood exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide during the process of breathing in and breathing out
  • The alveoli are surrounded by fine elastic fibers (change in size)

cells:
House alveolar macrophages that keep alveolar surfaces sterile

Two types of alveolar epithelial cells (type I -squamous epithelial and type II- cuboidal cells) make up alveolar walls, which fuse to capillaries to form the respiratory membrane for gaseous exchange

209
Q

Relate Boyle’s law to the events of respiration

A

According to Boyle’s law, if a given amount of gas has a constant temperature, increasing its volume decreases its pressure, and vice-versa. When you inhale, muscles increase the size of your thoracic (chest) cavity and expand your lungs.

210
Q

Define intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressure, and give the relationship between them

A

The force exerted by gasses…
Intrapulmonary pressure= pressure within the alveoli
Intrapleural pressure= pressure within the pleural space

Typically, intrapleural pressure is lower, or negative to, intra-alveolar pressure.
The transpulmonary pressure is the difference between these two

211
Q

Explain how oxygen enters blood, and subsequently binds to Hb for transport around the body.

A

Most oxygen in the blood is transported bound to haemoglobin (Hb) in red blood cells.
Heme portion of haemoglobin contains 4 iron atoms – each can bind one O2 molecule.
Reaction reverses as blood flows through the capillaries in the lungs

212
Q

Explain the events occurring during inspiration and expiration

A

-Inspiration-
1. Inspiratory muscles
contract
2. Thoracic cavity volume
increases.
3. Lungs are stretched;
intrapulmonary volume
increases.
4. Intrapulmonary pressure
drops (to –1 mm Hg).
5. Air (gases) flows into
lungs down its pressure
gradient until intrapulmonary
pressure is 0 (equal to
atmospheric pressure).

-Expiration-
Inspiratory muscles relax
Thoracic cavity volume decreases
Elastic lungs recoil and intrapulmonary volume decreases
Ppul rises (to +1 mm Hg)
Air flows out of the lungs down its pressure gradient until Ppul = 0

Note: forced expiration is an active process: it uses abdominals (external/internal obliques, transversus abdominis, rectus abdominus), internal intercostal muscles, and quadratus lumborum.

213
Q

What is the importance of airway resistance, alveolar surface tension and lung compliance?

A

They all…..
Inspiratory muscles consume energy (active process) to overcome factors that hinder air passage and normal pulmonary ventilation
caused diseases

214
Q

Using examples, explain how the respiratory system is affected by disease and/or toxic substances?

A

toxic substances =
-smoking: Increases amount of neutrophils and macrophages in lung (WBCs)
Chronic inflammation
Promotes neutrophil degranulation – destroys tissue architecture

-decreased lung compliance
1. Fibrosis - Tuberculosis
Infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Large lesions leading to tissue death

-increased lung compliance
Often secondary to obstructive lung disease.
Elastin is degraded (destruction of lung tissue)
Loss of elastic recoil.

Emphysema
Increase beyond the normal in the size of the airspaces distal to the terminal bronchiole (in the respiratory zone)

215
Q

Describe the control of the respiratory system

A

Respiratory muscles controlled by nerve impulses from the respiratory centre in the brain stem
Breathing is an automatic and rhythmic act produced by networks of neurons in the hindbrain (the pons and medulla).

  1. Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
  2. Ventral respiratory group (VRG) (inspiratory area)
216
Q

What is the basic organisation of the nervous system?

A

CNS (central nervous system)
-Brain, spinal cord

PNS (Peripheral Nervous System)
Sensory division and motor division

217
Q

Describe the divisions autonomic nervous system (ANS) and what they are involved in

A

Two functional subdivisions:
Sympathetic- Mobilizes the body during activity; is the “fight-or-flight” system

Parasympathetic- Promotes maintenance activities and conserves body energy

218
Q

List the different types of neuroglia and their main function

A

Astrocytes (CNS) - structural support
Microglia (CNS) - immune system
Ependymal cells (CNS) - protection for CNS
Oligodendrocytes (CNS) - insultation for CNS
Satellite cells (PNS) - protection for PNS
Schwann cells (PNS) - insulation for PNS

219
Q

Describe the anatomy of a neuron and how it functions to transmit signals

A

Sensory (afferent)
Transmit impulses from sensory receptors toward the CNS
Motor (efferent)
Carry impulses from the CNS to effectors
Interneurons (association neurons)
Shuttle signals between sensory and motor neurons; most are entirely within the CNS

220
Q

Explain why myelin is so important, and what happens when myelin sheaths become non-functional

A

Myelin is so important:
Segmented protein-lipoid sheath around most long or large-diameter axons
It functions to:
Protect and electrically insulate the axon
Increase speed of nerve impulse transmission

When myelin sheaths become non-functional: Shunting and short-circuiting of nerve impulses occurs. Impulse conduction slows and eventually ceases

221
Q

Describe a synapse and how it occurs

A

A junction that mediates information transfer from one neuron:
To another neuron, or
To an effector cell

  • Synapses are essentially neuronal junctions:
    1) Electrical
    2) Chemical
  • A neuron that transmits an impulse towards a synapse= pre-synaptic neuron
  • A neuron that transmits an impulse away from a synapse= post-synaptic neuron
  • The minute gap between the two neuron =synaptic cleft.
  • The transmission of a nerve impulse across a synapse is by means of a chemical called a neurotransmitter
222
Q

Name the different spinal nerves and plexi (numbers per each)

A

31 pairs of mixed spinal nerves

The four plexi:
Cervical Plexus 8
Brachial Plexus 12
Lumbar Plexus 5
Sacral Plexus 5
Coccygeal 1

???

223
Q

Briefly describe the disorders of the PNS and of the individual nerves

A

DO THE INDIVIDUAL NERVES

Pin and needles
Commonly caused by putting pressure on a specific part of the arm or leg and compressing nerves! Or their blood supply

Shingles
Viral infection
Stems from childhood chicken pox and often brought on by stress

Cold sores
Most common of all
Blisters and ulcers
On the lips, inside the mouth

Genital herpes
Viral infection, usually spread by sexual contact
About 20% of adults are likely carriers

224
Q

Describe the organisation of the Peripheral nervous system

A

Sensory division
Motor division —- Somatic NS , Autonomic NS
Autonomic NS —- Parasympathetic NS , Sympathetic NS

225
Q

What are the main types of sensory receptors and what stimuli they respond to

A
  1. Mechanoreceptors : mechanical force
  2. Thermoreceptors temperature
  3. Photoreceptors : light
  4. Chemoreceptors : Chemical
  5. Nociceptors : pain sensors
226
Q

What are the divisions and distribution of the 12 cranial nerves and pneumonic

A
I: Olfactory (sensory)
II: Optic (sensory)
III: Oculomotor (motor)
IV: Trochlear (motor)
V: Trigeminal (both)
VI: Abducens (motor)
VII: Facial (both)
VIII: Vestibulocochlear (sensory)
IX: Glossopharyngeal (both)
X: Vagus (both)
XI: Accessory (motor)
XII: Hypoglossal (motor)
I: On
II: Occasion
III: Our
IV: Trusty
V: Truck
VI: Acts
VII: Funny
VIII: Very
IX: Good
X: Vehicle
XI: Any
XII: How
I: Some
II: Say
III: Marry
IV: Money
V: But
VI: My
VII: Brother
VIII: Says
IX: Big
X: Brains
XI: Matter
XII: More
227
Q

What is the process of olfaction and which regions of the brain receive sensory input via the olfactory (I) nerve

A

Smell differentiation depends on the pattern of activation of different olfactory receptor neurons

begins when volatile molecules enter the nasal cavity and activate receptors in the olfactory epithelium (OE).

Olfactory cortex

228
Q

Describe the physiology behind vision and the how the optic nerve (II) functions in vision

A

The optic nerve is critical to your vision.
It’s an extension of your central nervous system, which includes your brain and spine.

The optic nerve transmits electrical impulses from your eyes to your brain. Your brain processes this sensory information so that you can see.

229
Q

Differentiate between special and general senses, and how they work

A

Special senses have a sense organ (vision, hearing, taste, balance and smell
General senses have no sense organs and have receptors throughout the body, but particularly in the skin

230
Q

What is the structural and physiological organisation of the CNS

A
structural=  comprised of the brain, cerebellum and spinal cord
physiological= brain and spinal cord
231
Q

Describe what contributes to protection of the brain

A
Several layers of protection for the brain:
Bone (skull)
Membranes (3 meninges layers)
Watery cushion (cerebrospinal fluid)
Blood-brain barrier
232
Q

Name the cerebral lobes of the brain, and describe their main function (motor or sensory)

A

frontal - motor
parietal - sensory
temporal - sensory
occipital - sensory

233
Q

Name the main areas located in each lobe, and their main function

A

Frontal:
Primary motor cortex- Allows conscious control of precise, skilled, voluntary movements
Pre-motor cortex- controls learned, repetitious, or patterned motor skills
Pre-frontal area- Higher order functions
Brocas area- is active as one prepares to speak

Parietal:
Somatosensory cortex- Receives sensory information from the skin, skeletal muscles, and joints
Capable of spatial discrimination- identification of body region being stimulated
Somatosensory association cortex

Temporal:
Primary auditory cortex- Interprets information from inner ear as pitch, loudness, and location
Auditory association area- Interprets information such as speech and music
Wernicke’s Area- Language comprehension

Occipital:
Primary visual cortex- Receives visual input from the retina via optic nerve
Visual association area- Uses past visual experiences to interpret stimuli

234
Q

Name the 4 functional regions of the adult brain and detail what each of them comprise of

A
  1. Cerebral hemispheres
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Brain stem
  4. Cerebellum
235
Q

Describe the functional anatomy of the spinal cord. Regions, columns, horns, roots, rami

A

helps carry electrical nerve signals throughout your body.

Regions= cervical, thoracic, Lumbar, sacral, coccygeal 
columns= white matter is divided into 3 columns 
horns= grey matter is divided into 3 horns
236
Q

List examples of diseases that affect neurons of the spinal cord

A
Poliomyelitis 
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
progressive bulbar palsy
primary lateral sclerosis
progressive muscular atrophy
237
Q

main body systems and how their main functions aid in the body’s physiological response to exercise

A

Aerobic energy system - Used in prolonged sessions of exercise
800m, 1500m and above. > than 60 sec.

Lactic energy system (Anaerobic) - Energy lasts less than 2 min
400m run, 100m swim

ATP-CP energy system (anaerobic) - (Adenosine triphosphate- Creatine phosphate)
 Short duration (10 seconds!!)
Great intensity (fast-twitch muscle fibres)
Sprint for 50m