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IMMUNOSERO > EXAM BY DOC GAGARIN > Flashcards

EXAM BY DOC GAGARIN Flashcards

1
Q

In 1975, Köhler, Milstein, and Jerne discovered how to fuse lymphocytes to produce a cell line that was both immortal and a producer of specific antibodies. These scientists were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology and Medicine in 1984 for developing this hybridoma (cell hybrid) from different lines of
cultured myeloma cells (plasma cells derived from malignant tumor strains). To induce the fusion of cells, they used a virus that characteristically causes cell fusion. This virus is:

A. Sendai Virus
B. Bourbon Virus
C. Isavirus
D. H3N2 Virus
E. H1N1 Virus

A

Sendai Virus

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2
Q

In 1901, Karl Landsteiner discovered ABO blood group system. He wrote a book which was published in 1917, detailing the results of an exhaustive study of haptens that has contributed greatly to our knowledge of Ag-Ab reactions. What was the title of the book that he wrote?

A. The Specificity of Serologic Reactions
B. The Sensitivity of Serologic Reactions
C. The Specificity of Immunologic and Serologic Reactions
D. The Sensitivity of immunologic and Serologic Reactions
E. The Specificity and Sensitivity of Immunologic and Serologic Reactions

A

The Specificity of Serologic Reactions

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3
Q

Cytokines are polypeptide products of activated cells that control a variety of cellular responses and thereby regulate the immune response. The first cytokine activity to be described was:

A. MIF
B. IL
C. IFN
D. CR1
E. CFU

A

MIF

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3
Q

They are connective tissue cells of mesenchymal origin. They are widely distributed throughout the body,
with a small round nucleus and more granules. They have a long life span of between 9 and 18 months. The enzyme content of the granules contain ACP, ALP, and Protease.

A. Mast Cells
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophage
E. Dendritic Cells

A

Mast Cells

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4
Q

A cell expressing CD3+, CD25+, and FoxP3+ is a

A. (γδ) T cell
B. Helper T cell
C. Cytotoxic T cell
D. Regulatory T cell
E. Natural killer T cell

A

Regulatory T cell

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5
Q

A CD31 cell that is CD1 restricted to glycolipids is a

A. (γδ) T cell
B. Helper T cell
C. Cytotoxic T cell
D. Regulatory T cell
E. Natural killer T cell

A

Natural killer T cell

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6
Q

Not an end cell
1. Monocyte
2. Macrophage
3. B cell
4. T cell
5. Band cell
6. Ferrata Cell

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3, and 5
D. 6 only
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

A

1, 3, and 5

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7
Q

Which of the following cells expresses IgM and IgD on the cell surface?

A. Pro-B Cell
B. Pre-B Cell
C. Immature B Cell
D. Naïve Mature B Cell
E. Plasma Cell

A

Naïve Mature B Cell

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8
Q

A cell directed by IL-4 to promote tissue repair, angiogenesis, and tumor growth is a:

A. M1 macrophage
B. M2 macrophage
C. Kupffer cell
D. Foam cell
E. Giant cell

A

M2 macrophage

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9
Q

A cell derived from monocytes that attach to the arterial intima and accumulate lipids is a:

A. M1 macrophage
B. M2 macrophage
C. Kupffer cell
D. Foam cell
E. Giant cell

A

Foam cell

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10
Q

Which of the following describes a giant cell?

A. A syncytial cell found within granuloma
B. A cell performing somatic hypermutation
C. A cell found in the circulation that secretes INFα and INFβ
D. A cell directed by IFNγ to promote ROS production and cytolysis
E. A cell that secretes large quantities of antibody but does not express surface immunoglobulin

A

A syncytial cell found within granuloma

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11
Q

Which of the following cytokines has a major role in asthma?

A. INF-y
B. IL-4
C. IL-10
D. IL-17

A

IL-17

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12
Q

Which of the following describes an immature myeloid-derived dendritic cell?

A. A cell producing cytotoxic compounds following Th1 cell activation
B. A cell expressing cell surface MHC Class II, CD80/88 and secretes IL-12
C. A cell captured by endocytosis using transmembrane immunoglobulin
D. A cell with a majority of MHC Class II located within intracellular compartments
E. An epithelial-derived cell expressing cell surface C3-antigen

A

A cell with a majority of MHC Class II located within intracellular compartments

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13
Q

Which of the following is associated with defective killing by phagocytes?

A. Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
B. Chronic Granulomatous Disease
C. Alder-Reilly Anomaly
D. SCID
E. Digeorge Syndrome

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

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14
Q

It is an Acute Phase Reactant, originally thought to be an antibody to the c-polysaccharide of
pneumococci. It consists of five identical subunits held together by non-covalent bonds. Binding with
foreign particles is calcium-dependent and non-specific, and the main substrate is phosphocholine, a
common constituent of microbial enzymes. It can be thought of as a primitive, nonspecific form of antibody molecule that is able to act as a defense against microorganisms or foreign cells until specific antibodies can be produced

A. CRP
B. Serum Amyloid A
C. MBP
D. AAT
E. Complement

A

CRP

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15
Q

Actions of Anaphylatoxin except:

A. Increased Vascular permeability
B. Contraction of smooth muscle
C. Release of histamine from basophils and mast cells
D. Coating of foreign cell to neutralize the charge

A

Coating of foreign cell to neutralize the charge

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16
Q

Mixed lymphocyte culture assay (MLC) is a special type of lymphocyte stimulation assay based on the
ability of histoincompatible lymphocytes from one individual to stimulate the lymphocytes of another individual (mixed lymphocyte reaction). The major determinant of the MLC phenomenon is found in what HLA locus?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. R

A

D

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17
Q

Cell death (cytotoxicity) is the endpoint commonly used in functional assays of the cellular immune system. In these assays, cell cytotoxicity may occur as the result of complement activity (complementmediated cytotoxicity) or may be due to the direct effect of one cell on another (cell-mediated cytotoxicity). Conventionally, target cell lysis is determined by the release of a substance such as
51chromium (51Cr) from the target cell upon death, or by the incorporation of a vital dye such as eosin or trypan blue. Based on this explained principle or mechanism, you expect that the device or instrument
to be used in the analysis is

A. Scintillation Counter
B. Flow Cytometer
C. Electron Microscope or Ultrathin Microscope
D. Spectrophotometer
E. None of these

A

Scintillation Counter

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18
Q

MICROLYMPHOCYTOTOXICITY ASSAY: The dye exclusion lymphocytotoxicity assay is the standard technique for the detection of an antibody–antigen interaction on a cell surface. The lymphocytotoxicity assay was introduced by Terasaki and McClelland in 1964. Viable cells (usually lymphocytes) are incubated with
serum-containing antisera. If a cell surface antigen is present that is recognized by antibodies in the
sera, an antigen–antibody complex will form on the surface. These complexes are detected by the
sequential addition of rabbit complement and a vital dye, such as eosin, to the reaction mixture. The
occurrence of complement fixation on the cell membrane leads to activation of the terminal complement
components, and eventually to cell lysis and death. Dead cells are detected and counted after
differential uptake of the eosin dye and fixation with formalin. Antibody-bound lymphocytes will die, take up the eosin dye, and give a positive reaction; unbound lymphocytes will remain viable, exclude the eosin dye, and give a negative reaction (dye exclusion). Based on this explained principle or mechanism, you expect that the device or instrument to be used is a microscope but what type of such?

A. Polarizing Microscope
B. Bright-Field Microscope
C. Interference Microscope
D. Phase-Contrast Microscope
E. Dark-Field Microscope

A

Phase-Contrast Microscope

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19
Q

Most of the IgD present is found on the surface of immunocompetent but unstimulated B lymphocytes. It is the second type of immunoglobulin to appear (IgM being the first), and it may play a role in B-cell
activation, regulation of B-cell maturation and differentiation and prolonging its life span in the
periphery. IgD was not discovered until 1965, when it was found in a patient with

A. Multiple Myeloma
B. Waldenstroms Macroglubulinemia
C. Multiple Sclerosis
D. Guillaine-Barre Syndrome
E. Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Multiple Myeloma

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20
Q

Which of the following describe/s the bonding of antigen to antibody?
1. Hydrophobic bond
2. Hydrogen bond
3. Van der waals forces
4. Electrostatic forces
5. Non-Covalent bond
6. Ionic Bond

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
D. 6 only
E. 1 and 3

A

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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21
Q

Marker for Bladder Cancer:

A. CFHrp
B. NSE
C. MAGE
D. HE4
E. NRLU-10

A

CFHrp

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22
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome or Congenital Thymic Hypoplasia is characterized by a faulty development of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches during embryogenesis. There is also an Aplasia or hypoplasia of thymus and
parathyroid glands. Abnormally high CD4+/CD8+ ratio is present because of a decrease in CD8+ cells. The cause of this congenital anomaly is:

A. Deletion on Chromosome 22
B. Duplication of Chromosome 22
C. Inversion of Chromosome 22
D. Robertsonian Translocation
E. Chromosomal Insertion

A

Deletion on Chromosome 22

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. An antigen can interact specifically with the immune system but requires other stimuli in order to initiate an immune response.
B. An antigen is any molecule or group of molecules, which can induce an immune response.
C. All antigens are immunogens but not all immunogens are antigens.
D. An immunogen can interact specifically with the immune system but cannot itself stimulate an immune
response.
E. An immunogen is any molecule or group of molecules, which can react only with antigen-specific
receptors on T cells and B cells.

A

An antigen can interact specifically with the immune system but requires other stimuli in order to initiate an immune response.

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT typically characteristic of an antigen?

A. An antigen may be protein, lipid, carbohydrate or any combination of these.
B. An antigen may be simple or complex, with many different antigenic determinants.
C. A complex antigen will elicit antibodies to all the different antigenic determinants it expresses. Thus the same antigen introduced into two different individuals will elicit an identical range of antibodies.
D. Antigenic determinants comprise a small number of amino acids or sugar residues.
E. An antigen may be soluble or particulate.

A

A complex antigen will elicit antibodies to all the different antigenic determinants it expresses. Thus the same antigen introduced into two different individuals will elicit an identical range of antibodies.

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25
Q

One of the important applications of HLA typing is paternity testing. The former is used along with the
determination of what RBC antigens?
1. ABO
2. Rh
3. MNS
4. Kell
5. Kidd
6. Duffy

A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2,3, 4 and 5
E. 1, 2, 3, 4,5, and 6

A

1, 2, 3, 4,5, and 6

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26
Q

HLA-B5 is mostly associated with:

A. Reiter’s Syndrome
B. Behcet’s Disease
C. Psoriasis Vulgaris
D. Kaposis Sarcoma
E. Gold-Induced Nephropathy

A

Behcet’s Disease

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27
Q

Eleven different organs or human body parts can be transplanted—blood vessels, bone, bone marrow or stem, cornea, heart, kidneys, liver, lung, middle ear, pancreas, and skin. Successful organ transplants have increased since the advent of the immunosuppressive drug cyclosporine (cyclosporin A). In corneal transplant, Graft rejection is minimal because of

A. Avascularity
B. Low concentration of class I transplantation antigens
C. Absence of class II antigens.
D. All of these
E. None of these

A

All of these

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28
Q

There is an intermediate risk for graft rejection among the following except:

A. Recipients of autologous or allogeneic bone marrow grafts
B. Infants receiving intrauterine transfusions, followed by exchange transfusions
C. Patients receiving total-body radiation
D. Individuals under immunosuppressive therapy

A

Recipients of autologous or allogeneic bone marrow grafts

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29
Q

DRUG-INDUCED HEMOLYSIS: Coating of RBCs demonstrated by a positive direct anti–human globulin test (DAT) result may be drug induced and accompanied by hemolysis. The reactivity has been described as being
caused by four basic mechanisms: (1) drug adsorption; (2) immune complexing; (3) membrane modification; and (4) autoantibody formation. Penicillin is a representative example of an agent that displays drug
adsorption. In this type of mechanism, the drug strongly binds to any protein, including RBC membrane proteins. This binding produces a drug-RBC-hapten complex that can stimulate antibody formation. The antibody is specific for this complex and no reactions will take place unless the drug is adsorbed on
erythrocytes. Massive doses of IV penicillin are needed to coat the erythrocytes sufficiently for
antibody attachment to occur. Penicillin in this case causes what type of hypersensitivity reaction? It’s one thing to have a dream. It’s another to go after it. Page 4

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V

A

Type II

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30
Q

Wheal-Flare reaction is also known as:

A. Prausnitz-Kustner Reaction
B. Jenner-Bordet Reaction
C. Tonegawa Reaction
D. Pfeiffer’s Reaction

A

Prausnitz-Kustner Reaction

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31
Q

It is an adhesion molecule mediating homing to peripheral lymphoid organs.

A. CD 25
B. CD 34
C. CD 44
D. CD 45R

A

CD 44

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32
Q

This is a product of genetic mutations in the Central regulators of the growth in normal cells that code for proteins involved in growth and repair processes in the body. Its activation causes overexpression of growth promoting proteins, resulting in hypercellular proliferation and tumorigenesis.

A. Proto-oncogene
B. Oncogene
C. Oncofetal Antigen
D. Tumor

A

Oncogene

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33
Q

These antibodies are the most specific for SLE and the antibodies are associated with active/severe disease. Although they are found in only 40-70% of patients, the presence of these antibodies is
considered diagnostic for SLE; the antibodies typically produce a peripheral or a homogenous staining pattern in FANA/IIF.

A. Anti-dsDNA
B. Anti-Sm
C. Anti-RNP
D. Anti-DNP
E. Anti-Nucleolar

A

Anti-dsDNA

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34
Q

In an antibody titration, a 0.2mL aliquot of a patient’s serum sample was added to 0.8mL of saline, and this mixture was placed into tube #1. A 0.5mL sample was removed from tube 1 and placed into tube 2,
containing 0.5mL of saline. This procedure was repeated through tube #10. The dilutions were assayed for antibody to S. pyogenes. How should the antibody titer be reported if the last positive reaction was observed in tube #10?

A. 640
B. 2 560
C. 5 120
D. 10 240
E. 1 280

A

2 560

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35
Q

What has happened in a titer if tubes 5-7 show a stronger reaction than tubes 1-4?

A. Postzone phenomenon
B. Prozone phenomenon
C. Equivalence reaction
D. Technical difficulty

A

Prozone phenomeno

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36
Q

When a precipitation reaction is converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the antigen particles, the test is then referred to as

A. Direct agglutination
B. Optimal agglutination
C. Passive agglutination
D. Prozone reaction

A

Passive agglutination

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37
Q

An electrophoretically abnormal protein displaced from the normal position may be recognized by

A. Precipitin band of moderate curvature
B. Lines of fusion
C. Precipitin band markedly curved
D. “Gull wing” formation

A

“Gull wing” formation

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38
Q

Advantage of counter IE

A. Precipitin lines not sharp
B. Precipitation does not occur at the intermediate point
C. Precipitin lines visible within 30 minutes
D. None of these

A

Precipitin lines visible within 30 minutes

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39
Q

A laboratory test is evaluating an ELISA for detecting an anti-CCP, which is a more specific marker for
RA. The laboratory includes serum from healthy volunteers and patients with other connective tissue diseases in the evaluation. These specimens determine which factor of the assay?

A. A negative result in the absence of the disease
B. A positive result in the presence of the disease
C. Ability of the assay to repeatedly yield the same results on a single specimen
D. Bias result
E. Closeness of the result to the true value

A

A negative result in the absence of the disease

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40
Q

A patient with Huntington Disease present rigidity, seizures and chorea. You are a staff in the hospital and the latter has a laboratory equipped to perform RFLP analyses. Which of the following techniques is required to carry out RFLP analysis?

A. Southern Blot
B. Northern Blot
C. Western Blot
D. X-ray crystallography
E. Mass spectrometry

A

Southern Blot

41
Q

Which is the best technique to separate oxygenated normal hemoglobin A (HbA) from oxygenated sickle
cell hemoglobin (HbS), assuming no protein aggregation?

A. Native gel electrophoresis
B. SDS-PAGE
C. Gel filtration
It’s one thing to have a dream. It’s another to go after it. Page 5
D. Affinity chromatography with a C-terminal antibody
E. Ultracentrifugation

A

Native gel electrophoresis

42
Q

A patient has come in for an HIV test. This test is run in two phases. The first test is an ELISA as a
screen, and if two positive test results occur by ELISA, the second test will be run. The second test
is a confirmatory Western blot. What do the ELISA and Western blots measure in their respective assays
for HIV?

A. The ELISA is measuring the presence of HIV antigen in the sera, whereas the Western blot is measuring
the presence of antibodies to HIV proteins in the sera.
B. The ELISA is measuring the presence of antibodies to HIV proteins in the sera only, whereas the
Western blot is measuring the presence of HIV antigens in the sera.
C. The ELISA is measuring the presence of HIV antigen in the sera, whereas the Western blot is measuring
the presence of HIV antigen in the sera as well.
D. The ELISA is measuring the presence of antibodies to HIV proteins in the sera only, whereas the
Western blot is also measuring the presence of antibodies to HIV proteins in the sera.
E. The ELISA measures the presence of antibodies directed against human leukocyte antigen (HLA) molecules to HIV, whereas the Western blot measures levels of free, circulating virus in the sera of the patient.

A

The ELISA is measuring the presence of antibodies to HIV proteins in the sera only, whereas the
Western blot is also measuring the presence of antibodies to HIV proteins in the sera.

43
Q

Third generation tests for the detection of HBsAg except:

A. RIA
B. ELISA
C. Reverse Passive Agglutination Test
D. Rheophoresis

A

Rheophoresis

44
Q

A PCR assay needs to be developed to determine the HIV status of a newborn in the pediatric intensive care unit whose mother is HIV positive. Which set of primers should be used for the assay?

A. The primers should consist of antiparallel complements of two parts of a noninfected human genome.
B. The primers should be designed so that, after annealing with potential infective DNA, the 5’ end of
primer 1 would ‘‘face’’ the 3’ end of primer 2.
C. The primers should be synthesized so that, after annealing with potential infective DNA, the 50 end
of both primers ‘‘face’’ each other.
D. The primers should be designed to be synthesized with dideoxynucleotides to allow sequencing of the mutation.
E. The primers should be designed with identical sequences to those in the HIV genome and must bind to DNA in a complementary, antiparallel manner

A

The primers should be designed with identical sequences to those in the HIV genome and must bind to DNA in a complementary, antiparallel manner

45
Q

When performing EMIT, how is the ligand in the patient’s serum detected?

A. Agglutinates by binding to antibody-coated latex beads
B. Binds to enzyme-labeled antibody
C. Forms antigen-antibody complex and precipitates
D. Competes with enzyme-labeled antigen for binding to a specific antibody

A

Competes with enzyme-labeled antigen for binding to a specific antibody

46
Q

Paloma is a prostitute working in Cardo’s Taverna, an infamous night club in Angeles City, Pampanga. Recently, she has undergone a serologic exam for syphilis and the results of her tests were as follows:
RPR: Reactive
VDRL: Reactive
HATTS: Nonreactive
What is the most likely interpretation of her syphilis serologic result?

A. Neurosyphilis
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Successful treatment of syphilis
D. Suspected HIV

A

Suspected HIV

47
Q

In monitoring an HIV-infected patient, which parameter may be expected to be the most sensitive indicator of the effectiveness of antiretroviral treatment?

A. HIV Antibody titer B. CD4 count
C. Viral load
D. ELISA

A

Viral load

48
Q

Which of the following is not true?

A. Most blood group alleles are codominant and express a corresponding antigen.
B. When paired chromosomes carry the same silent allele, a null phenotype results.
C. Serologic tests determine only RBC phenotype, not genotype
D. Numeric terminology was originally introduced for the Kell and Rh systems and was subsequently
applied to other systems.
E. None of these

A

None of these

49
Q

The discoveries of Th1 and Th2 model of T-helper cell function and the identification of toll-like receptors are credited to

A. Mosmann
B. Frazer
C. Reed
D. Kitasata

A

Mosmann

50
Q

Which of the following proteins respond to viral infection by blocking the replication of virus in other
cells?

A. Interferon
B. Interleukin
C. TNF
D. TGF

A

Interferon

51
Q

The interleukins are unrelated cytokines that must satisfy which of the following criteria?

A. They must have had their genes cloned
B. A + They must be inducible in erythrocytes
C. A + B + Their biological activities in inflammatory processes must not be catalogued
D. A + B + C + They must act solely on cells of the immune system

A

They must have had their genes cloned

52
Q

The chemokine receptors CXCR4 and CCR5 are utilized by HIV as co-receptors for infection of CD4+ cells and macrophages. These receptors belong to what chemokine?

A. RANTES
B. RANTES, SDF-1
C. RANTES, SDF-1, MIP-1α
D. RANTES, SDF-1, MIP-1α, Eotaxin

A

RANTES, SDF-1, MIP-1α

53
Q

Which of the following acute-phase reactants is the most widely monitored and is the best indicator of
acute inflammation due to its rapid rise and decline?

A. CRP
B. Amyloid
C. AAT
D. MBP
E. None of these

A

CRP

54
Q

CRP threshold for high cardiovascular risk

A. 2mg/L
B.2.5mg/L
C. 3mg/L
D. 3.5mg/L

A

3mg/L

55
Q

HYBRIDOMA PRODUCTION: A mouse is immunized with a certain antigen, and after a time, spleen cells are
combined with myeloma cells in the presence of Polyethylene glycol (PEG), a surfactant. The PEG brings
about fusion of plasma cells with myeloma cells or two spleen cells. After fusion, cells are placed in culture using a selective medium containing

A. Aminopterin
B. Aminopterin, Thymidine
C. Aminopterin, Thymidine, Hypoxanthine
D. Aminopterin, Thymidine, Hypoxantine, Phosphoribosin

A

Aminopterin, Thymidine, Hypoxanthine

56
Q

Bonding of antigen to antibody consists of:

A. Hydrogen bonding B. Van der Waals forces
C. Electrostatic forces
D. Noncovalent bonding
E. Covalent bonding

A

Noncovalent bonding

57
Q

What type of cells would be found in a primary follicle?

a. Memory cells
b. Plasma cells
c. Unstimulated B cells
d. Memory cells

A

Unstimulated B cells

58
Q

True for NK cells

A. They rely on memory for an antigen recognition
B. They share antigens with b cells
C. They recognize a lack of MHC proteins
D. They are found mainly in lymph nodes

A

They recognize a lack of MHC proteins

59
Q

Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made?

A. Thymus
B. Spleen
C. Bone marrow
D. Lymph nodes

A

Bone marrow

60
Q

In the thymus, positive selection of immature T cells is based upon recognition of which of the following?

A. Self-antigens
B. Stress proteins
C. MHC antigens
D. Mu chains

A

MHC antigens

61
Q

Which receptor on T cells is responsible for resetting with Sheep red blood cells?

a. CD8
b. CD4
c. CD2
d. CD3

A

CD2

62
Q

When does genetic rearrangement for coding of light chains take place?

A. Before the pre-b cells stage
B. Not until the cell becomes a mature b cell
C. As the cell becomes a mature b cell
D. When the b cell becomes a plasma cell

A

As the cell becomes a mature b cell

63
Q

Where does the major portion of antibody production occur?

a. Peripheral blood
b. bone marrow
c. Lymph nodes
d. Thymus

A

Lymph nodes

64
Q

Which of the following best describes the TCR for antigen?

A. It consists of IgM and IgD molecules
B. It is the same for all T cells
C. Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen
D. It is present in the double-negative stag

A

Alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen

65
Q

What is measured in CH50 assay?

A. RBC quantity needed to agglutinate 50% of antibody
B. Complement needed to lyse 50% of patient red cells
C. Complement needed to lyse 50% of red cells coated with hemolysin
D. Antibody and complement needed to sensitize 50% of red blood cells

A

Complement needed to lyse 50% of red cells coated with hemolysin

66
Q

What type of disorders would show a decrease in C3, C4, and CH50?

A. Autoimmune disorders like RA, Goodpasture’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s disease
B. Immunodeficiency disorders such as common variable immunodeficiency
C. Tumors
D. Bacterial, Viral, Fungal, or Parasitic infections

A

Autoimmune disorders like RA, Goodpasture’s syndrome and Hashimoto’s disease

67
Q

Hydrogen peroxide test is used to diagnose which phagocytic disorder?

a. CGD
b. PNH
c. HANE
d. Lupus-like syndrome

A

CGD

68
Q

What is the indicator system used in the complement fixation test?

A. Sensitized sheep red cells
B. Guinea pig complement
C. Patient antibodies
D. Known reagent antigen

A

Sensitized sheep red cells

69
Q

The isotype of an immunoglobulin antibody

A. Is defined by the heavy chain
B. Is defined as different alleles of the same antibody type (e.g., IgG)
C. Is constant for all immunoglobulins of an individual
D. Is the variation within the variable region

A

Is defined by the heavy chain

70
Q

The alternative complement pathway

A. Can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides
B. Uses C5b as a C3 convertase
C. Bypasses steps C3 through C5
D. Is activated by properdin

A

Can be activated by bacterial capsule polysaccharides

71
Q

A cut on person’s finger becomes contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus. The first response by the
immune system consists of activity of

A. B cells
B. Monocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. T cells

A

Neutrophils

72
Q

Characteristics of T cells include
I. Synthesize antibody
II. Mature in thymus
III. Able to bind unprocessed antigen
IV. Primarily protect against extracellular parasites

a. II
b. II, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II, III, IV

A

II

73
Q

Interaction between B and T helper cells involves

A. MHC II molecule on B cell binding to MHC I molecule on the T cell
B. MHC II molecule on B cell binding to CD3 on the T cell
C. Foreign antigen on B cell binding to CD3 on the T cell
D. CD3 molecule on B cell binding to T cell receptor

A

Foreign antigen on B cell binding to CD3 on the T cell

74
Q

Which of the following statements applies to the Fc fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule?

A. It consists of the entire Heavy chain
B. It contains the variable region of the heavy chain
C. It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells
D. It contains the antigen binding sites of the molecule

A

It is the region of the molecule that binds to receptors on various white blood cells

75
Q

IgM antibodies react well in complement fixation tests. Because of this, complement fixation tests for antibodies should

A. Be positive early in the course of the disease
B. Be useful in identifying antibodies responsible for a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
C. Be useful in identifying antibodies responsible for anaphylactic reactions
D. Detect transplacental antibodies

A

Be positive early in the course of the disease

76
Q

The activity of NK cells

A. Does not require previous immunologic insult
B. Involves phagocytosis and killing of bacteria
C. Requires interaction with cytotoxic T cells
D. Requires interaction with B cells

A

Does not require previous immunologic insult

77
Q

The VDRL test for syphilis is classified as a (an)

A. Agglutination reaction
B. Flocculation reaction
C. Hemagglutination reaction
D. Precipitation reaction

A

Flocculation reaction

78
Q

The type of immunity that follows the injection of an immunogen is termed

A. Artificial active
B. Natural active
C. Artificial passive
D. Innate

A

Artificial active

79
Q

Complement activation seldom involves only one pathway. Uptake of immune response complexes in the spleen appears to be complement dependent.

A. First statement is correct, second is incorrect
B. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
C. Both statements are correct
D. Both statements are incorrect

A

Both statements are correct

80
Q

The alpha and beta polypeptide chains of C5 are linked by

A. Covalent bond
B. Disulfide bond
C. Vander Waals Forces
D. H-bond
E. Non-Covalent bond

A

Disulfide bond

81
Q

C9 possesses how many polypeptide chain?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

1

82
Q

C5b678 is capable of lysing
I. Red cells
II. Neutrophils
III. Lymphocytes
IV. Monocytes

a. I
b. II, III, IV
c. III, IV
d. IV

A

I

83
Q

Which of the following plays an important role as a defense mechanism in infancy during the interval between the loss of maternal antibody and the acquisition of a full-fledge antibody response to
pathogens?

A. Serum amyloid A
B. CRP
C. MBL
D. C3 convertase
E. C5b6789

A

MBL

84
Q

Depressed complement levels may be due to

A. Genetic deficiencies
B. Genetic deficiencies, Liver disease
C. Genetic deficiencies, Liver Disease, Autoimmune disease
D. Genetic deficiencies, Liver disease, Autoimmune disease, Hemolytic anemias

A

Genetic deficiencies, Liver disease, Autoimmune disease, Hemolytic anemias

85
Q

Elevated levels of complement are found in

A. Acute inflammatory conditions
B. A + Leukemia
C. B + Hodgkin’s disease
D. C + Behcet’s disease

A

C + Behcet’s disease

86
Q

Enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins is called

A. Opsonization
B. Agglutination
C. Solubilization
D. Chemotaxis

A

Opsonization

87
Q

Most significant agent fromed in the phagolysosome to kill microorganisms

A. Proteolytic enzymes
B. Hydroxyl radicals
It’s one thing to have a dream. It’s another to go after it. Page 8
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Superoxides

A

Hydrogen peroxide

88
Q

The action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways?

A. CRP acts before the antibody appears
B. The antibody triggers the complement cascade
C. Binding of antibody is calcium-dependent
D. Only CRP acts as an opsonin

A

CRP acts before the antibody appears

89
Q

Cell-Mediated Immune Response:
1. Contact Sensitivity 2. For Intracellular Organisms
3. Extracellular Antigens
4. Delayed Hypersensitivity

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,4
D. 1,3,4

A

1,2,4

90
Q

Which of these statements is correct:
1. An immunogen is a macromolecule capable of eliciting the formation of Immunoglobulin or sensitized cells that have been induced.
2. An antigen is a substance that reacts with an antibody or sensitized cells but may or may not be
able to elicit an immune response in the 1st place.
3. All Immunogens are Antigens.
4. All Antigens are Immunogens

A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4

A

1,2,3

91
Q

Which of these traits of Immunogens is/are true:
1. The greater the molecular weight the more potent the molecule is as an Immunogen.
2. Proteins are good Immunogens because they are made up of a variety of units known as
monosaccharides.
3. Carbohydrates are more immunogenic than proteins bec. The units of sugars are more limited.
4. The immune response is normally not able to distinguish between self and nonself.

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 only

A

1 only

92
Q

Which of these 4 major subclasses of IgG have shorter hinge segments

  1. IgG1
  2. IgG2
  3. IgG3
  4. IgG4

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4
D. 3 and 4

A

2 and 4

93
Q

Plasma cells that produce IgE are located primarily in the:
1. Kidneys
2. Lungs
3. Skin
4. Intestines

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 1

A

2 and 3

94
Q

Destruction of the myelin sheath of axon caused by the presence of antibody is characteristic of
which disease?

A. Multiple Sclerosis B. Myasthenia gravis C. Grave’s disease
D. Goodpasture’s disease

A

Multiple Sclerosis

95
Q

SLE can be distinguished from RA on the basis of which of the following?

A. Joint pain
B. Presence of antinuclear antibodies
C. Immune complex formation with activation of
complement
D. Deposition of Immune Complexes in the kidneys

A

Deposition of Immune Complexes in the kidneys

96
Q

Most widely used method for Antinuclear Antibody

A. RIA
B. EIA
C. Immunofluorescence D. Immunoenzyme

A

Immunofluorescence

97
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis with Lung involvement

A. Felty’s Syndrome B. Caplan’s Syndrome
C. Polyarticular
D. Pauriarticul

A

Felty’s Syndrome

98
Q

LE cells are:

A. Lymphocytes engulfing another Lymphocytes
B. Normal lymphocytes engulfed by neutrophils
C. Damaged Lymphocytes engulfing Neutrophils
D. Damaged Lymphocytes engulfed by Neutrophils

A

Damaged Lymphocytes engulfed by Neutrophils

99
Q

Felty’s Syndrome
1. RA
2. Leukocytosis
3. Splenomegaly
4. Leukopenia

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 1 only
D. 1,4

A

1,3,4

IMMUNOSERO (12 decks)

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