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Microbiology > Exam Block 3 > Flashcards

Exam Block 3 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

L18

What functions do viruses serve?

A
  • help with ecosystems, fungi, plants
  • bacteriophages keep bacteria from taking over
  • some oncolytic properties
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2
Q

L18

Why are viruses not considered living things?

A

they cannot independently reproduce

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3
Q

L18

What three things compose a nucleocapsid/naked capsid virus?

A
  • DNA or RNA
  • structural proteins
  • enzymes & nucleic acid binding proteins
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4
Q

L18

What four things compose an enveloped virus?

A
  • DNA or RNA
  • structural proteins
  • enzymes & nucleic acid binding proteins
  • glycoproteins & a membrane
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5
Q

L18

What is the structure of an icosahedral capsid?

A

20 triangular faces and 12 vertices

soccer ball shape

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6
Q

L18

What is the structure of a helical capsid?

A

spherical core tight with specific capsid proteins

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7
Q

L19

Which viruses are resistant to acids, changes in temperature, proteases, detergents, and drying?

A

nonenveloped

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8
Q

L18

Which viruses are susceptible to acids, changes in temperatures, proteases, detergents, and drying?

A

enveloped

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9
Q

L18

Which viruses must remain wet?

A

enveloped

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10
Q

L18

What are the four ways that viruses are classified?

A
  1. structure
  2. replication
  3. location (in body)
  4. location (place of discovery)
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11
Q

L18

In what type of viruses are glycoproteins found?

A

mostly enveloped

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12
Q

L18

What is the function of surface glycoproteins / spike proteins on enveloped viruses?

A

elicit protective immunity in the host

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13
Q

L18

What are Virus Associated Pyramids/Proteins (VAPs)?

A

glycoproteins that are capable of binding to structures on target cells

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14
Q

L18

What are hemagglutinins (HAs)?

A

VAPs that bind to erythrocytes

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15
Q

L19

What are the four main routes of encounter/entry for viruses?

A
  • respiratory
  • gastrointestinal
  • transcutaneous
  • sexual
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16
Q

L19

How would a viral infection be endogenous?

A

reactivation of latent infection that was acquired exogenously

flare-up

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17
Q

L19

What is vertical spread?

A

fetal infection in utero

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18
Q

L19

What is horizontal spread?

A

between members of susceptible host population

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19
Q

L19

What is neural spread?

A

spread through nerves

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20
Q

L19

What is hematogenous spread?

A

spread through blood

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21
Q

L19

Define viremia.

A

high titer in bloodstream

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22
Q

L19

Define incubation period.

A

period between exposure to an infection and the appearance of first symptoms

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23
Q

L19

What are the two intrinsinic protective mechanisms against viral damage?

A
  • apoptosis
  • autophagy
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24
Q

L19

What is autophagy?

A

cellular stress response of viral sequestration & degredation in autophagosomes

“self-eating”

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25
Q

L19

What are the four extrinsic protective mechanisms against viral damage?

A
  • barriers
  • innate immune responses
  • cell-mediated immunity
  • adaptive immune responses
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26
Q

L19

What are the two types of innate immune responses?

A
  • toll like receptors
  • interferon
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27
Q

L19

Define toll like receptors.

A

pattern recognition receptors that identify conserved patterns in pathogens

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28
Q

L19

Define interferons.

A

cytokines that inhibit viral replication by inducing the expression of cellular proteins that inhibit the protein synthesis machinery

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29
Q

L19

What are the two types of adaptive immune responses?

A
  • neutralizing antibodies
  • antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
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30
Q

L19

Define neutralizing antibody.

A

antibodies that destroy the infectivity of viruses

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31
Q

L19

Define antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

A

antibodies that lyse infected cells

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32
Q

L19

Define rapid antibody testing.

A

specific antigens are used to capture antibodies from a patient’s sample

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33
Q

L19

Define rapid antigen testing.

A

specific antibodies are used to capture antigens from a patient’s sample

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34
Q

L19

Define enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

A

allows quantification of antibody OR antigen in solution

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35
Q

L19

Define viral culture.

A

samples of a virus are placed in different cell cultures and tested for its ability to infect

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36
Q

L19

Define serology.

A

diagnostic examination of blood serum to identify immune responses to pathogens

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37
Q

L19

Define PCR testing.

A

identification of viral DNA or RNA in a sample

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38
Q

L19

Define acute infection.

A

virus undergoes multiple rounds of replication, results in death of host cells OR successful control of virus

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39
Q

L19

Define chronic infection.

A

virus particles continue to shed after acute illness sometimes without host death, host does not successful control virus

40
Q

L19

What type of viruses typically cause chronic infection?

A

RNA viruses

41
Q

L19

Define latent infection.

A

does not result in production of progeny viruses, host may or may not have controlled virus depending on stage

42
Q

L19

What type of viruses typically cause latent infections?

A

DNA viruses or retroviruses

43
Q

L19

Define virucidal agent.

A

one that kills viruses

44
Q

L19

Which 10 viruses are treatable with antiviral drugs?

A
  • HSV
  • VZV
  • cytomegalovirus
  • HIV
  • influenza A&B
  • RSV
  • hepatitis B&C
  • adenovirus
  • papillomavirus
  • SARS-CoV-2
45
Q

L19

What occurs in the early phase of viral replication?

A

virus recognizes appropriate cells, attaches, penetrates and is taken up by that cells where it releases its genome into the cytoplasm & is delivered to the nucleus (if needed)

46
Q

L19

What occurs in the late phase of viral replication?

A

genome replication in the desired location, viral macromolar synthesis, viral assembly & release

47
Q

L19

Define eclipse period of viral replication.

A

time of synthesizing virus proteins & nucleic acids inside host cell & ends with appearance of new virions after assembly

48
Q

L19

Define latent period of viral replication.

A

time between injection of viral genome into host cell & host cell lysis

includes eclipse period

49
Q

L19

How can antiviral drugs that target replication be sure to avoid damaging replicating host cells?

A

target the differences between the two replication cycles

50
Q

L19

Are antiviral drugs virucidal or virustatic?

A

virustatic

51
Q

L19

What are the nine steps of viral replication?

A
  1. Recognition of target cell
  2. Attachment
  3. Penetration
  4. Uncoating
  5. Transcription
  6. Protein Synthesis
  7. Replication
  8. Assembly
  9. Lysis & Release OR Budding & Release
52
Q

L19

Define host range.

A

viruses that bind specific cell types may be restricted to certain species

i.e. human, mouse, pangolin, bat

53
Q

L19

Define tissue tropism.

A

virus binding to specific receptors

54
Q

L19

How do enveloped viruses attach to host cells?

A

using surface VAPs

55
Q

L19

How do naked viruses attach to host cells?

A

surface-exposed capsid regions

56
Q

L19

What is the MOA for neutralizing antibodies?

A

bind & neutralize VAPs

57
Q

L19

What is the MOA for antibody receptor antagonists?

A

blocks/dampens biological response by binding to & blocking a receptor

58
Q

L19

What is the MOA for peptide analogues?

A

block host attachment proteins

59
Q

L19

What is the MOA for heparin sulfate & dextran?

A

interfere with viral binding on host cells for HIV and HSV

60
Q

L20

How are naked viruses (NOT picorna, papilloma & polyoma) internalized?

A

endocytosis

61
Q

L20

How are picorna, papilloma & polyoma viruses internalized?

A

viropexis

62
Q

L20

Define viropexus.

A

viruses attach to host cell and are “phagocytized”

63
Q

L20

How are enveloped viruses internalized?

A

fusion with host membrane and nucleocapsid release into cell

64
Q

L20

Which viral genomes must be delivered to the nucleus?

A

DNA genomes

EXCEPT POXVIRUSES

65
Q

L20

What is the MOA for enfuvirtide?

A

blocks HIV fusion proteins

66
Q

L20

What is the MOA for docosanol?

A

blocks HSV envelope fusion with cell membrane

67
Q

L20

What is the MOA for amantadine & rimantidine?

A

inhibits influenza A uncoating by neutralizing vesicle pH

68
Q

L20

What is the MOA for tromantadine?

A

prevents HSV penetration

69
Q

L20

What is the MOA for arildone?

A

prevents uncoating of picornaviruses by fitting into the cleft in a receptor-binding domain of the capsid to prevent disassembly of the capsid

70
Q

L20

What makes a viral genome an “infectious nucleic acid”?

A

able to initiate replication immediately upon entry into host cell

71
Q

L20

Which viruses have “infectious nucleic acid” genomes?

A
  • DNA viruses (except poxvirus)
  • positive-sense RNA viruses
72
Q

L20

Which type of genetic material is NOT transient or labile?

A

DNA

73
Q

L20

Which viral genome tends to cause latent infection?

A

DNA viruses

74
Q

L20

What is the structure of nucleoside analogues?

A

sugar & base only

75
Q

L20

What is the structure of nucleotide analogues?

A

sugar, base & phosphate

76
Q

L20

What is the MOA for nucleoside analogues?

A

mimicking their physiological counterparts to block cellular division or viral replication by prevent chain elongation OR altering base pair recognition

77
Q

L20

How do nucleoside analogues prevent chain elongation?

A

absence of 3’-hydroxyl on the sugar

78
Q

L20

How do nucleoside analogues alter recognition and base pairing?

A

base modifiication & induction of inactiviting mutations

79
Q

L20

What is required for nucleoside analogues to be functional?

A

phosphorylation to the triphosphate form by viral or cellular enzymes

80
Q

L20

What is the MOA for non-nucleoside polymerase inhibitors?

A

inhibit DNA or RNA polymerases by acting as analogues

81
Q

L20

Which genetic material is transient and labile?

A

RNA

82
Q

L20

Define positive-sense RNA strand.

A

viral genomes act as mRNA for protein synthesis, translation can begin immediately

83
Q

L20

Define negative-sense RNA strand.

A

viral genomes act as a template for synthesis of positive-sense strand, do not immediately begin translation

84
Q

L20

What is required for all negative-sense RNA viruses?

A

encode for RNA-dependent RNA polymerases

85
Q

L20

What is the MOA for interferons?

A

prevent transcription & protein synthesis by blocking machinery

86
Q

L20

What is the MOA for a pegylated interferon?

A

interferon with polyethylene glycol attached to increase potency

87
Q

L20

What is the MOA for antisense oligonucleotides?

A

small pieces of DNA or RNA bind to specific molecules of RNA to block its ability to make proteins

88
Q

L20

What are methods of posttranslational modification?

A
  • phosphorylation
  • glycosylation
  • acylation
  • sulfation
89
Q

L20

What are matrix proteins (M proteins)?

A

lines inside of envelope and facilitate assembly of nucleocapsid into virion in enveloped viruses

90
Q

L20

How are naked viruses released from host cells?

A

through lysis

91
Q

L20

How are enveloped viruses released from host cells?

A

through budding

92
Q

L20

What is the MOA for protease inhibitiors?

A

fit into active site of enzymes and inhibit protease activity that allows for virus release

93
Q

L20

What is the MOA for neuraminidase?

A

enzyme inhibitor of neuraminidase

94
Q

L20

What is the MOA for ribavirin?

A

to promote hypermutation by acting as a guanosine analog thereby inhibit viral replication

95
Q

L20

What is the MOA for thymidine kinase?

A

adds first phosphate to acyclovir

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Microbiology (4 decks)

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