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Microbiology > Exam Block 2 > Flashcards

Exam Block 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name some characteristics of gram-negative bacteria.

A
  • thin peptidoglycan cell wall
  • lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on extracellular surface
  • inner & outer membranes
  • periplasmic space between membranes
  • stains pink after gram stain & safranin counterstain
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2
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name some characteristics of gram-positive bacteria.

A
  • thick peptidolglycan cell wall
  • teicohic & lipteichoic acid on extracellular surface
  • one membrane
  • stains purple after gram stain
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3
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name some characteristics of acid-fast bacteria.

A
  • waxy coating on cell wall
  • do not stain with gram stain
  • stain red with acid-fast stain
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4
Q

Identify some characteristics of bacterial DNA.

A
  • haploid (have a single set of unpaired chromosomes)
  • genetic material is located within a nucleoid (no formal nucleus)
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5
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Name the big four classes of bacteria.

A
  1. Gram-positive cocci
  2. Gram-positive rods
  3. Gram-negative cocci
  4. Gram-negative rods
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6
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

What does staphylo mean?

A

clusters

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7
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

What does strepto mean?

A

chains

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8
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Describe the structure of peptidoglycan.

A
  • alternating N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) and N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) molecules
  • NAM molecules cross-link to give bacteria shape
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9
Q

L9 LO: Describe how gram & acid-fast bacteria differ.

Describe the structure of lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

A
  • lipid A (endotoxin) - contains fatty acid tails and anchors LPS to outer membrane, elicits fever in the host
  • core polysaccharide - contains short sugars
  • o-antigen - carbohydrate chains that exclude hydrophobic compounds
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10
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define bacterial growth.

A

an increase in the number of bacterial cells

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11
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define binary fission.

A

an asexual form of replication that separates the bacterial cell body into two new parts

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12
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define generation time.

A

the time it takes for a bacterial population to double

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13
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define quorum sensing.

A

a form of bacterial communication that arises when cell density is too high in a particular area
* serves to avoid overproliferation

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14
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

Define pathogenicity islands.

A

distinct regions of bacterial chromosome responsible for virulence factors

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15
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

What feature of bacteria is missing in non-virulent strains?

A

pathogenicity islands

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16
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What are siderophores?

A

chelators produced by some bacteria to steal iron from the host

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17
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What things are required for bacterial growth?

A
  • carbon
  • nitrogen
  • energy
  • water
  • ions (vary, Fe is important)
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18
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What oxygen requirement do obligate anaerobes have for growth?

A

cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

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19
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What oxygen requirement do obligate aerobes have for growth?

A

can only grow in the presence of oxygen

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20
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What oxygen requirement do facultative anaerobes have for growth?

A

can grow with or without oxygen

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21
Q

L9 LO: List growth requirements.

What growth requirement do obligate intracellular parasites have?

A

can only grow within living cells
* rely on ATP from the host to grow

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22
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

What features of binary fission make it unique?

A
  • asexual - one parental chromosome
  • semiconservative - each new chromosome comprises one strand of DNA from the parental chromosome and one complementary daughter strand
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23
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define origin of replication (OriC).

A

location on bacterial chromosome where replication initiator proteins bind

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24
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define terminus of replication.

A

location on bacterial chromosome where replication terminates
* typically directly across from OriC

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25
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define replication “bubble”.

A

the space located between bacterial chromosome strands as they replicate

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26
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

How does DNA helicase function in bacterial replication?

A

separates the DNA into individual strands

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27
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

What is the function of the replisome in bacterial replication?

A

contains several enzymes that create a replication fork to duplicate the leading & lagging strands at the same time (increases efficiency)

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28
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

What are the five steps of binary fission?

A
  1. Replication initiator proteins bind OriC.
  2. DNA helicase opens OriC & creates two replication forks.
  3. DNA is replicated & daughter strands are created by the replisome.
  4. Elongation
  5. Cleavage furrow develops & cytokinesis

Result: daughter cells

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29
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

What are the four phases of bacterial growth?

A
  1. Lag phase
  2. Logarithmic phase
  3. Stationary phase
  4. Death phase
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30
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

What type of growth occurs during the lag phase?

A
  • bacterial cells are engaging in metabolic activity but are NOT replicating
  • bacteria are acclimating to the growth conditions present in the host
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31
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

What type of growth occurs during the logarithmic phase?

A
  • rapid (exponential) cell division
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32
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

What type of growth occurs during the stationary phase?

A
  • cell proliferation & death are in balance, overall growth plateaus
  • starts to occur when nutrients are running low and/or toxin levels are elevated
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33
Q

L9 LO: Identify bacterial growth phases & what occurs at each phase.

What type of growth occurs during the death phase?

A
  • overall number of bacteria is declining
  • as a result of host’s immune system or antibiotic effects
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34
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Define horizontal gene transfer.

A

transfer of genetic material from one organism to another (not offspring)

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35
Q

L9 LO: Define binary fission & how it differs from horizontal transfer.

Why is horizontal gene transfer important?

A

allows bacteria to respond & adapt to their environment to increase their chances of survival

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36
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What are the three types of horizontal gene transfer?

A
  1. Conjugation
  2. Transduction
  3. Transformation
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37
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

Define bacterial conjugation.

A

unidirectional transfer of plasmid DNA

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38
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What two types of bacteria are involved in conjugation?

A
  1. Donor cell - has fertility factor (F) plasmid
  2. Recipient cell - does not have fertility factor (F) plasmid
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39
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What are the four steps of bacterial conjugation?

A
  1. F+ bacteria extends sex pilus and attaches to F- bacteria.
  2. One strand of plasmid DNA unwraps & enters F- bacteria.
  3. Each bacteria contains one strand of original plasmid DNA.
  4. Each bacteria synthesizes a complementary strand of DNA, both bacteria are now F+.
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40
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What are the two specialized types of conjugation discussed?

A
  1. high frequency recombination (Hfr) - when plasmid is integrated into bacterial DNA, it also takes some of the donor DNA
  2. resistance plasmids - genes that confer antibiotic resistance are inserted into F plasmid and transfered into F- bacteria
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41
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

Define bacterial transduction.

A

transfer of bacterial DNA between cells by bacteriophages

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42
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What is a bacteriophage?

A

a virus specifically designed to infect bacteria

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43
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What are the five steps of bacterial transduction?

A
  1. A bacteriophage injects its DNA into bacterial cell.
  2. The phage replicates and bacterial DNA is fragmented.
  3. Phage replicates & assembles, phages incorporate some bacterial DNA fragments.
  4. Bacterial cells lyse and release phages.
  5. Phages (now containing bacterial DNA) can inject this DNA into a new recipient.
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44
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

Define recombinant DNA.

A

DNA formed when donor DNA combines with recipient DNA

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45
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

Define bacterial transformation.

A

process of bacteria taking up foreign DNA and incorporating it into its genome

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46
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What are the three steps of bacterial transformation.

A
  1. Donor cell lyses, releasing its DNA fragments.
  2. Fragments can enters recipients (through receptors or through endocytosis).
  3. Fragments become integrated into recipient DNA.
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47
Q

L9 LO: Compare & contrast the three types of horizontal DNA transfer.

What is transfection?

A

artificial injection of foreign DNA into a eukaryotic cell nucleus
* useful for studying gene expression or inhibition

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48
Q

Also A Scientist

Which scientist:
* works in Dr. Garry’s lab at Tulane SOM
* was a PhD candidate in Biomedical Sciences (now PhD)
* is a member of Zeta Phi Beta Sorority

A

Dr. Antoinette Bell-Kareem

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49
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What is the mechanism of action for penicillins?

A
  • β-lactam antibiotics
  • Bind penicillin-binding proteins via β-lactam ring
  • Blocks cross-linking of NAM molecules of peptidoglycan in cell walls
  • Causes osmotic imbalance and bacterial death
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50
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What makes a drug bacteriocidal?

A

cause bacterial death

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51
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What makes a drug bacteriostatic?

A

slows bacterial growth

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52
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are adverse effects associated with penicillins?

A
  • hypersensitivity / allergic reaction
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53
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What is the mechanism of action for cephalosporins?

A
  • β-lactam antibiotics
  • Bind penicillin-binding proteins via β-lactam ring
  • Blocks cross-linking of NAM molecules of peptidoglycan in cell walls
  • Causes osmotic imbalance and bacterial death
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54
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are adverse effects associated with cephalosporins?

A
  • hypersensitivity / allergic reaction - can be a cross-over penicillin allergy
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55
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are examples of 1st generation cephalosporins?

A
  • cefazolin
  • cephalexin
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56
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are 1st & 2nd generation cephalosporins used to treat?

A

gram-positive bacterial infections

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57
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are examples of 2nd generation cehphalosporins?

A
  • cefaclor
  • cefotetan
  • cefoxitin
  • cefuroxime
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58
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are 3rd & 4th generation cephalosporins used to treat?

A

gram-negative bacterial infections

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59
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are examples of 3rd generation cephalosporins?

A
  • cefiximine
  • cefotaxime
  • ceftazidime
  • ceftriaxone

IN CLASS CLINICAL CASE –> MENINGITIS (N. MENINGITIDIS)

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60
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are examples of 4th generation cephalosporins?

A
  • cefepime
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61
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A
  • binds the 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome
  • inhibits protein synthesis
  • bacteriocidal
  • requires O2 for uptake
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62
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What adverse effects are associated with aminoglycosides?

A
  • nephrotoxic - damages kidneys
  • ototoxic - damages ears
  • teratogenic - damages unborn fetuses
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63
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are examples of aminoglycosides?

A
  • gentamycin
  • neomycin
  • amikacin
  • tobramycin
  • streptomycin
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64
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What is the mechanism of action for tetracyclines?

A
  • bind the 30s subunit of bacterial ribosomes
  • inhibit protein synthesis
  • bacteriostatic
  • cannot take with divalent cations because they inhibit absorption in the gut
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65
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are adverse effects are associated with tetracyclines?

A
  • discoloration of teeth
  • inhibition of bone growth in children
  • photosensitivity
  • teratogenic
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66
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What are the three characteristic stages of Lyme Disease?

A
  1. early localized Lyme disease (erythema chronicum migrans)
  2. early disseminated Lyme disease (migratory arthralgia, Bell’s palsy, myocarditis)
  3. late Lyme disease (chronic arthritis, progressive encephalomyelitis)
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67
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?

A
  • binds 50s subunit of baceterial ribosome
  • bacteriostatic
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68
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What adverse effects are associated with macrolides?

A
  • Arrythmia - prolonged QT interval
  • Rash
  • GI upset
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69
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What complication arises with prolonged QT intervals?

A
  • Torsade de Pointes - arrythmia not compatible with life
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70
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What is the mechanism of action of fluoroquinolones?

A
  • inhibit prokaryotic topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV
  • impairs DNA synthesis
  • bacteriocidal
71
Q

L10 LO: Describe the six classes of antibiotics.

What adverse effects are associated with fluoroquinolones?

A
  • tendonitis or tendon rupture (especially in pregnant women, children, and the elderly)
  • Arrythmia - prolonged QT interval
72
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

What mechanisms of resistance exist for penicillins?

A
  • β-lactamases cleave β-lactam rings
  • mutations occur in penicillin-binding proteins
73
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

How have researchers attempted to combat penicillin resistance?

A
  • β-lactamase inhibitors exist to “counter the counter”

i.e. Clavulanic acid (Augmentin)

74
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

What mechanisms of resistance exist for cephalosporins?

A
  • β-lactamases cleave β-lactam rings
75
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

How have researchers attempted to combat resistance to cephalosporins?

A
  • β-lactamase inhibitors exist to “counter the counter”

i.e Clavulanic acid (Augmentin)

76
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

What mechanisms of resistance exist for aminoglycosides?

A
  • bacterial transferases inactivate the drugs
77
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

What mechanisms of resistance exist for tetracyclines?

A
  • transport pumps decrease uptake and/or increase efflux of drug out of cells
78
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

What mechanisms of resistance exist for macrolides?

A
  • 50s subunit of bacterial ribosome can be altered to prevent drug binding
79
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

What mechanisms of resistance exist for fluoroquinolones?

A
  • topoisomerase genes can be mutated to alter the drug-protein interaction
  • pumps can efflux drug out of cells
80
Q

L10 LO: Describe the MOR for each class of antibiotics.

What general mechanisms of resistance do bacteria adopt?

A
  • gene resistance encoding plasmids
  • conjugation
  • transformation
81
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function biofilm?

A
  • adheres bacterial colonies to the host
  • protects from immune cells & antibiotics
82
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of a capsule?

A

to inhibit phagocytosis

83
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of liptoteichoic acid and peptidoglycan?

A
  • has endotoxin-like effects
  • triggers macrophages to release pro-inflammatory cytokines
  • helps with adhesion by binding fibronectin
84
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of cell wall protein A?

A
  • binds antibodies to block complement activation
  • inhibits phagocytosis
85
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of cytotoxins?

A

to lyse red & white blood cells

86
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What 5 cytotoxins are found in staphylococus?

A
  • alpha
  • beta
  • delta
  • gamma
  • Panton-Valentine leukocidin
87
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of coagulase?

A
  • converts fibrinogen to fibrin
  • promotes clot formation
88
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of fibrinolysin/staphylokinase?

A
  • dissolves fibrin clots
  • potentially allowing spread to new niches in host
89
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of hyaluronidase?

A

degrades hyaluronic acids

90
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of lipase?

A
  • inhibits host immune cells
  • inactivate bactericidal lipids
  • promote biofilm formation
91
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of nuclease?

A
  • hydrolyze DNA
  • aid in bacterial evasion of NETs
92
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What are superantigens?

A

type of antigen that results in excessive activation of immune system that causes significant damage to host

93
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of exfoliative toxins (A&B)?

A

proteases that destroy the granular layer of the epidermis

94
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of enterotoxins?

A
  • stimulate T-cell & macrophage release of cytokines
  • trigger mast cell degranualtion
  • causes peristalsis & vomiting
95
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of toxic shock syndrome toxin I (TSST)?

A
  • stimulates T-cell proliferation & release of cytokines
  • causes blood vessel leakage
96
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of F proteins?

A
  • bind fibronectin - increases adhesion to host ECM
  • facilitates epithelial cell invasion - migration to deeper tissues
97
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of M protein?

A
  • blocks complement activation and phagocytosis
  • facilitate epithelial cell invasion - migration to deeper tissues
98
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of M-like surface proteins?

A
  • binds fibronectin in the ECM
  • binds antibodies
  • blocks phagocytosis
99
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of surface C5a peptidase?

A

inactivates C5a part of complement system

100
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins?

A

stimulates T-cell & macrophage release of cytokines

101
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of streptolysins S & O?

A

lyse blood cells

102
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of streptokinases A & B?

A

enzymes that break up blood clots to promote bacterial spread

103
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of DNases?

A
  • decrease pus viscosity to promote bacterial spread
  • aids in evasion of NETs
104
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of IgA protease?

A

degrades IgA to allow bacteria to reach mucous membranes of respiratory & GI tract

105
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of pneumonlysin?

A

lyses phagocytic cells & respiratory epithelium

106
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

How does hydrogen peroxide function as a virulence factor?

A

damages host tissues

107
Q

L11 LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of phosphorylcholine?

S. pneumoniae virulence factor

A

facilitates entry into host cells to evade detection

108
Q

ALSO A SCIENTIST

Which scientist:
* created groupings for beta-hemolytic streptococci that was based on carbohydrate composition of cell walls
* first female president of the American Association of Immunologists
* “the Scotland Yard or streptococcal mysteries”

A

Dr. Rebecca Lancefield

109
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is lipooligosaccharide (LOS)?

A

endotoxin with toxic lipid A region

110
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What are pili?

A
  • assist with attachment to host cells
  • faciliate a twitching motility to escape
111
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is IgA protease?

A

degrades IgA to allow bacteria to reach mucous membranes of respiratory & GI tract

112
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of opacity proteins (Opa)?

A

bind epithelial & phagocytic cells

CELLS WILL APPEAR OPAQUE IF THEY HAVE OPA

113
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of porin proteins (Por)?

A
  • creates pore to allow nutrient & waste movement
  • allows bacteria to live intracellularly
114
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of Factor H binding protein (FHBP)?

Neisseria virulence factor

A

to inhibit the complement pathway

115
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of β-lactamase?

A

to confer penicillin resistance

116
Q

Also A Scientist

Which scientist:
* one of the first two African-American women to earn a DVM
* granddaughter of slaves
* father opened medical laboratory techniques courses to women
* co-developed Mueller-Hinton again used to isolate Neisseria bacteria

A

Jane Hinton

117
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of B subunit exotoxins?

A

protective antigen that binds to host cells

118
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of A subunit exotoxins?

A

combine with B subunit to form active toxin

119
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of edema factor (EF)?

A

increases intracellular cAMP and causes swelling

120
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of lethal factor (LF)?

A

protease that activates MAPK and causes cell death

121
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of heat-stable enterotoxin?

A

ensures that reheating does not kill bacteria

122
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of heat-labile enterotoxin?

A

increases epithelial cAMP but is vulnerable to heating

123
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the functoin of diptheria toxin?

A

kills host cells by inhibiting protein synthesis

124
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of the A subunit of diptheria toxin?

A

inactivates host cell protein synthesis

125
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of the binding region of the B subunit of diptheria toxin?

A

binds to receptors on membranes of host cells

126
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of the translocation region of the B subunit of diptheria toxin?

A

faciliatates movement of toxin into cell

127
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of internalin A?

A

finds receptors on host enterocytes

128
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of internalin B?

A

finds receptors on host endothelial cells, fibroblasts and enterocytes

129
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of listeriolysin O?

A

helps pathogen escape from vacuoles and supports microbial evasion of the phagolyosome

130
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of actin assembly-inducing protein (ActA)?

A

facilitates intra- and intercellular movement via “comet tails”

131
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of toxin A?

A
  • attracts neutrophils which release cytokines
  • increases intestinal wall permeability
132
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of toxin B?

A

destroys cytoskeletal integrity

133
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of tetanospasmin?

A

heat-labile neurotoxin that blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters

134
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of tetanolysin?

A

oxygen-labile hemolysin that promotes tissue necrosis

135
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of botulinum exotoxins A-G?

A

“miracle poison” that blocks acetylcholine release at peripheral motor junctions

136
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of alpha toxins?

A

causes hemolysis, vascular leakage, liver toxicity and cardiac dysfunction

137
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of food poisoning enterotoxins?

A

alter intestinal membrane permeability and cause fluid loss

138
Q

Also A Scientist

Which scientist:
* isolated a strain of diptheria bacillus that was used to create an antitoxin
* published “Pathogenic Micro-organism Including Bacteria and Protozoa: A Practical Manual for Students” and “Physcians and Health Officers Who’s Who Among the Microbes”

A

Anna Wessels Williams, MD

139
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of E. coli endotoxin?

A

heat-stable LPS

140
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of T3SS inject effectors?

A

inject virulence effector proteins into host cells

141
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of hemolysin A?

A

destroys red blood cells

142
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of Dr fimbriae?

A

fimbriae that attach to urothelium

143
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of OmpA?

A

to attach to brain microvascular endothelial cells

144
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of invasion of brain endothelial cells (Ibe)?

A

facilitate invasion of the blood-brain barrier

145
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of cytotoxic necrotizing factor I (CNFI)?

A

facilitate invasion of the blood-brain barrier

146
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of salmonella-secreted invasion proteins?

A

facilitate entry into hosts

147
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of actin tails?

A

facilitate migration into adjacent cells

148
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of shiga exotoxin?

A

impairs protein synthesis of host

149
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of urease?

A

converts urea to ammonia & bicarbonate to neutralize gastric acids

150
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of mucinase?

A

allows bacteria to migrate through vicous fluid of GI tract

151
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of superoxide dismutase?

A

detoxify reactive oxygen species

152
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of vacuolating cytotoxin A?

A
  • promotes pore formation
  • disrupts cell signaling
  • induces apoptosis and necrosis of host cells
153
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of cytotoxin-associated gene A product?

A
  • promotes proliferation and morphological changes in host tissues
  • induces T-cell apoptosis
154
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of type 4 secretion systems (T4SS)?

A

inject the cagA effector protein into host cells

155
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of cytolethal distending toxin?

A

induces cell death and IL-8 secretion

156
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of cholera toxin?

A
  • causes damage to small intestine epithelial cells
  • increases cAMP leading to fluid loss
157
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of accessory cholera enterotoxin (ACE)?

A

water & ion secretion

158
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of zonula occludens toxin (ZOT)?

A
  • disassembles epithelial tight junctions
  • increases intestinal permeability
159
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of neuraminadase?

A

increases availability of binding sites for cholera toxin

160
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of thermostable direct hemolysin (tdh)?

A

increases intestinal fluid secretion

161
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of TDH-related hemolysis (trh)?

A

increase intestinal fluid secretion

162
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of carbapenemase?

A

inhibit carbapenam function

163
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of pyoverdine?

A
  • regulates secretion of exotoxin A
  • acts as a siderophore
  • turns green when grown in culture
164
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of pyocyanin?

A
  • increases cellular levels of cytotoxic superoxide & hydrogen peroxide
  • damages mucosal cells
  • turns blue when grown in culture
165
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of exoenzymes S & T?

A
  • disrupt host cell actin cytoskeletons
  • promote cell death
166
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of exoenzyme U?

A

cytotoxic to epithelial cells & macrophages

167
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of exoenzyme Y?

A

causes edema

168
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of elastases?

A

degrade elastin

169
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of dermonecrotic toxin?

A

forms necrotic lesions

170
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of tracheal cytotoxin?

A

destroy ciliated cells of respiratory tract

171
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is the function of pertussis toxin?

A

suppresses immune response

172
Q

Also A Scientist

Which scientists:
* researched pertussis and tested their vaccine on themselves
* created first vaccine against disease in America
* discovered sheep’s blood as the key process to culture incubation

A
  • Pearl Kendrick, PhD
  • Grace Elderling, PhD
  • Loney Gordon
173
Q

LO: Describe common virulence factors & what they do.

What is. thefunction of variable membrane proteins?

A
  • adaptation to new environments
  • antigenic variation

Microbiology (4 decks)

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