EXAM - BIG DECK ENERGY Flashcards

1
Q

Class A Airspace

A

Class A airspace is designated where an operational need exists to exclude VFR aircraft.
All operations must be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules and are subject to ATC clearances and instructions.
ATC separation is provided to all aircraft. All aircraft operating in Class A airspace must be equipped with a transponder and automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment. Class A airspace will be designated from the base of all high-level controlled airspace, or from 700 ft. AGL, whichever is higher, up to and including FL600.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Parallels of latitude

A

Parallels of latitude are lines parallel to the equator. They represent an angular distance from the equator, measured in degrees from the centre of the Earth. The equator is 0° latitude, and all other latitudes are described as north or south of the equator. Therefore, the maximum value for latitude is 90° at either pole.

  • Lines of latitude are always the same distance. One minute of latitude = 1 nautical mile, one degree = 60 nautical miles
  • The latitude of the North Pole is 90 degrees north; South Pole is 90 degrees south.

Can/U.S. border = 49th parallel (or 49° north)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Class F Airspace

A

Class F airspace is airspace of defined dimensions within which activities must be confined because of their nature, and within which limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities.

Class F airspace may be restricted airspace, advisory airspace, military operations areas, or danger areas and can be controlled airspace, uncontrolled airspace, or a combination of both. An advisory area, for example, may have the floor in uncontrolled airspace and the ceiling in controlled airspace. The significance, in this instance, is that the weather minima would be different in the controlled and uncontrolled portions.

Unless otherwise specified, the rules for the surrounding airspace apply in areas of Class F airspace, no matter if these areas are active or inactive. Class F airspace is designated in the DAH (TP 1820) and published on the appropriate aeronautical charts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TC AIM RAC 2.8.6.4 > Restricted Airspace

A

A restricted area is airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions. Restricted airspace is designated for safety purposes when the level or type of aerial activity, the surface activity, or the protection of a ground installation requires the application of restrictions within that airspace.

No person may conduct aerial activities within active Class F restricted airspace, unless permission has been obtained from the user agency.
In some instances, the user agency may delegate the appropriate controlling agency the authority to approve access. IFR flights will not be cleared through active restricted areas, unless the pilot states that
permission has been obtained.

The user agency is the civil or military agency or organization responsible for the activity for which the Class F airspace has been provided. It has the jurisdiction to authorize access to the airspace
when it is classified restricted. The user agency must be identified for Class F restricted airspace, and where possible, it should be identified for Class F advisory airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TC AIM RAC 2.8.6.2 > Danger Area

A

A danger area is Class F airspace that may be established over international waters but within Canada’s area of responsibility for providing ATS, as agreed to with ICAO. This is an airspace of defined
dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times. ATC clearances will not be issued for nonparticipating flights to enter a danger area. Aircraft should avoid flight in danger areas unless participating in the activity taking place therein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Danger and restricted areas may see the following types of activity:

A
  • High speed military exercises
  • Intercept operations
  • Naval activity
  • Live firing
  • Fisheries patrol
  • Drug patrol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TC AIM RAC 2.8.6.3 > Advisory Airspace

A

Airspace may be classified as Class F advisory airspace if it is airspace within which an activity occurs that, for flight safety purposes, nonparticipating pilots should be aware of, such as training, parachuting, hang gliding, and military operations.

Although not specifically restricted from operating therein, all aircraft are encouraged to avoid flight in advisory airspace unless participating in the activity taking place. If necessary, pilots of non-participating
flights may enter advisory areas at their own discretion; however, extra vigilance is recommended. Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots flying through the area, are equally responsible for collision
avoidance. ATC will normally ensure that IFR aircraft in controlled airspace remain clear of Class F advisory airspace. IFR aircraft shall be provided 500 ft vertical separation from an active Class F advisory airspace, unless wake turbulence minima are applicable, in which case 1 000 ft vertical separation shall be applied.

Pilots intending to fly in Class F advisory airspace are encouraged to monitor an appropriate frequency, to broadcast their intentions when entering and leaving the area, and to communicate, as necessary, with
other users to ensure flight safety in the airspace. In a Class F advisory uncontrolled airspace area, 126.7 MHz would be an appropriate frequency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Within controlled airspace, you may have to apply separation between aircraft and the outer edge of the following airspaces:

A
  • Canadian Class F Airspace
  • Canadian Airspace Restricted by the Minister
  • American Special-Use Airspace and Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Select altitude filters that include, as a minimum, the following limits:

A
  • The altitudes normally within the jurisdiction of your sector
  • The first usable altitude in any vertically adjoining airspace under the jurisdiction of another controller, plus 200 feet beyond that altitude
  • If the boundary between vertically adjoined sectors is in RVSM airspace, 2,000 feet plus 200 feet

To comply with MATS, Martin High controllers set the lower limit of the
altitude filter to 278

Low level sectors set their high filter at 312 since 290 is in RVSM airspace

Aircraft in “handoff” mode in NARDS break through the altitude filters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Comply with:

A
  • Unit procedures (They may supplement, but not contradict, procedures in this manual.)
  • Directives
  • Information Bulletins
  • Director Approval Letters (DAL)
  • Information Circulars (AIC)
  • Memorandums
  • Agreements
  • Arrangements
  • Other items, as required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Operations Directive

A

It is an amendment to current SOM or UOM (unit operations manual). Controllers need to read them and sign, agreeing that they have done so; some amendments require a verbal briefing. They expire or are incorporated into Operations Manuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Martin Enroute Sector binder contains the following operational documents

A
  • Specialty Operations Manual (SOM)
  • Agreement between Martin ACC and Minneapolis ARTCC
  • Arrangement between Martin ACC and Sandy Control Tower
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Specialty Operations Manual (SOM)

A

This document contains procedures and operations applicable to the Martin Enroute specialty. This document is supplemental to ATC MATS.
Topics covered include spacing requirements, hand-off locations, transfer of control, and procedures with regard to traffic flow. Each of these will be covered alongside the appropriate sector.

usually there is one for each
specialty. Some units have a Unit Operations Manual (UOM) that pertains to all specialties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Danger and restricted areas may see the following types of activity:

A
  • High speed military exercises
  • Intercept operations
  • Naval activity
  • Live firing
  • Fisheries patrol
  • Drug patrol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Class F Advisory Activity Codes

A

(A) - Acrobatic
(F) - Aircraft test area
(H) - Hang gliding
(M) - Military operations
(P) - Parachuting
(S) - Soaring
(T) - Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A

“Correction alpha”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SOM - MARTIN HIGH

SCA HOTEL

Martin High to Tundra

A

A. Martin High sector is required to provide Tundra sector with 30 miles RNPC separation for aircraft
operating on SCA HOTEL track at the same altitude.
1. This separation may be increased at the discretion of the Tundra sector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SOM - MARTIN HIGH

Tundra to Martin High

A

B. Tundra Sector will provide Martin High sector vertical or ATS surveillance separation for all aircraft
operating on SCA HOTEL or GOLF tracks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SOM - MARTIN HIGH

Aircraft Landing at CJE3

A

C. Aircraft landing CJE3
1. 10-mile spacing is required between similar type aircraft.
2. Aircraft shall be descended to FL290 prior to accomplishing the handoff.
3. Aircraft shall be handed off to Mountain sector.
4. It is Mountain sector’s responsibility to coordinate with West Low if further descent will infringe on West Low’s airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SOM - MARTIN HIGH

Traffic Flow between HH Sector and WW/EE Sectors

ARRIVALS

A

a. HH shall route aircraft landing CYEZ between YAR and YBB direct BRADY or established on J515.
b. HH shall route aircraft landing CYEZ between YGS and PAKIT direct TROUT or established on J596.

D. For aircraft landing within Martin Enroute, HH shall issue descent to FL290 and handoff to the
appropriate sector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

SOM - MARTIN HIGH

Traffic Flow between HH Sector and WW/EE Sectors

Arrival Information

A

C. For aircraft landing CYEZ, HH will issue the appropriate arrival information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Forward the following to an IFR unit or sector:

A
  • Revisions to previously passed data
  • Control estimate time revisions of 3 minutes or more
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(2) Subject to subsection (3), the pilot in command of an aircraft shall ensure that the aircraft is operated at a cruising altitude or cruising flight level appropriate to the track, as set out in the table to this section, unless

A

the pilot in command is assigned another altitude or flight level by an air traffic control unit and the aircraft is operated in level cruising flight
(a) at more than 3,000 feet AGL, in VFR flight; or
(b) in IFR flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

1) The appropriate cruising altitude or cruising flight level for an aircraft in level cruising flight is determined in accordance with:

A

(a) the magnetic track, in the Southern Domestic Airspace; and
(b) the true track, in the Northern Domestic Airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Eastbound Track
Westbound Track

A

000-179
180-359

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Non Automated Estimate Passing

Where there is a functioning data link between sectors, but no CAATS data link, what information MUST we pass when passing a verbal estimate

A

Aircraft Identification
Estimate or Actual Time for the Fix
Altitude

In this case the next controller would have flight plan information about the aircraft, but would NOT have an estimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Non Automated Estimate Passing

If there is no data link between units whatsoever, all data must be manually passed. This is the list of that data that needs to be passed

_____________ before an IFR or CVFR aircraft is estimated to enter an adjacent IFR unit’s area….

A

15 minutes or more before an IFR or CVFR aircraft is estimated to enter an adjacent IFR unit’s area, forward the flight data and control information indicated in Flight Data and Control Information

Pin: This time requirement may be increased or decreased by an agreement or arrangement
Pin: This may be accomplished electronically

  • Aircraft identification
  • Aircraft type
  • Speed
  • SSR Code Assignment
  • Point of departure
  • Remaining portion of the flight route
  • Destination
  • Estimated time and altitude over the last fix within the control area or other point agreed to by the concerned units
  • Altitude of entry into the adjacent unit’s area
  • Estimated time of arrival
  • Clearance information
  • The fact that an aircraft is a diversion
  • Altitude requested
  • Other information, as appropriate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Communication and Coordination > Flight Data Coordination > IFR Unit to IFR Unit

Where units are connected by a functioning data transfer link…..

A

Where units are connected by a functioning data transfer link, aircraft type, speed, SSR code assignment, point of departure, remaining portion of the flight route, and destination do not require confirmation by controllers passing and receiving estimates. If amendments to this data have been made and are not included in the original flight plan message, controller confirmation is required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Except when using _____________, when passing or receiving data for an IFR or CVFR flight, do the following:

Receiving Controller Action

A

Electronic means

*Aircraft Identification - Read back
*Estimate or actual time for the fix - Read back, if received EXCEPTION: If a HANDOFF will follow for this aircraft between these units, time does not need to be readback
*Altitude information - read back, if received

Includes estimates, position reports, and revisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Where a functioning CAATS data link provides control estimates, coordinate the following data verbally:

(This is information that you must coordinate verbally with the next sector, regardless of automation. This is different from verbal communication required at handoff)

A
  • Loss of RVSM certification due to an equipment failure in flight
  • Status of a non–RVSM aircraft authorized to operate in RVSM airspace
  • Identification of an altitude as wrong way
  • Identification of block altitudes
  • Identification of altitude readouts that are invalid or not validated
  • Identification of cruise climb altitudes
  • Automatic altitude reporting turned off
  • Aircraft transponder unserviceable, malfunctioning, set to standby, or turned off
  • The separation minima being applied in procedural airspace if less than 10 minutes longitudinal
  • Aircraft operating within an altitude reservation or engaged in an aerial survey mapping flight, or test flight
  • Aircraft engaged in a formation flight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During a handoff, coordinate with the RECEIVING controller as indicated in the following table

List

A
  • “CST” displayed in the data tag
  • Invalidated altitude readout
  • Aircraft’s last assigned altitude is a wrong-way/block altitude
  • Non-RVSM aircraft in RVSM airspace
  • Aircraft has been assigned a cruise climb
  • Altitude differs from that specified in a unit directive, an agreement, or an arrangement
  • other pertinent information is available

Note: When this information has been passed electronically, verbal communication is also required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

(List)

A
  • Transferred or Coordinated Identification
  • Appropriate PPS Changes
  • Aircraft ID in ADS‑B Data Tag
  • Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Transferred or Coordinated Identification

A

you may consider the aircraft identified when identification is transferred by handoff or coordinated by point out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Appropriate PPS Changes

A

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe an appropriate change in the PPS in any of the following situations:

  • After the pilot is instructed to operate the aircraft’s transponder Ident feature
    “SQUAWK IDENT”
    “SQUAWK (code) AND IDENT”
    “TRANSMIT ADS-B IDENT”
  • After the pilot is instructed to change to a transponder code that results in linkage, or that subsequently displays the data tag
  • After the pilot is instructed to change the transponder to “standby” In this situation, the PPS disappears or changes to a PSR symbol. When the pilot is requested to return the transponder to normal operation, the PPS reappears or changes to an SSR symbol. Take enough time to determine that the change is a result of the pilot’s action.
    “SQUAWK STANDBY”
    “SQUAWK (code)”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

(LIST)

A
  • The aircraft’s position is:
  • The aircraft’s position over a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot, and the following apply:
  • The aircraft’s position relative to a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot in the form of a DME or GPS report, and the following apply:
  • The aircraft carries out a specified identifying turn of at least 30°, and the following apply:
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft’s position is:

A

◦ Within one mile of the departure end of the take‑off runway
◦ Consistent with the time of takeoff and the route of flight or assigned heading of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft’s position over a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot, and the following apply:

A

◦ The aircraft’s track is consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft.
◦ The position of the fix or the OMNI and DME NAVAID is accurately indicated on the situation display.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft carries out a specified identifying turn of at least 30°, and the following apply:

A

◦ Except in the case of a lost aircraft, a position report received directly from the aircraft indicates that the aircraft is within ATS surveillance coverage of the area being displayed.
◦ Only one aircraft is observed to have carried out the specified turn.
◦ The track is observed to be consistent with the heading or track of the aircraft both before and after completion of the turn.

41
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft’s position relative to a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot in the form of a DME or GPS report, and the following apply:

A

◦ The aircraft’s track is consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft.
◦ The position of the fix or the OMNI and DME NAVAID is accurately indicated on the situation display.

42
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft ID in ADS‑B Data Tag

A

you may consider the aircraft identified when the aircraft identification element in an ADS‑B data tag is recognized and is consistent with the aircraft’s expected position.

43
Q

You may use the data tag ACID in adjacent airspace where ATS surveillance service is normally provided to identify an aircraft if any of the following apply:

A
  • The aircraft is observed approaching a fix or an airport, and the time, position, and aircraft track are consistent with a control estimate.
  • You have been informed of the secure arrival or departure sequence.
  • You previously identified the aircraft and it has since been handed off to another sector or unit.
44
Q

If unable to do an automated handoff, transfer identification using one of the following methods:

A
  • Inform the receiving sector or unit of:
    ◦ The position of the PPS relative to a point common to both situation displays or to a previously transferred aircraft that is identified
    ◦ The aircraft identification or ADS-B Flight ID or, if unlinked, the SSR code
    ◦ Other control information, if required

“HANDOFF (aircraft position) (aircraft id / flight id / SSR code ) [ control information ]”

  • Provide a secure sequence of arriving aircraft as specified in an arrangement.
    ◦ When transferring to an FSS, the predetermined sequence is in relation to a fix as specified in the arrangement.
    ◦ When transferring to a tower, the predetermined sequence is in relation to a control transfer point within the control zone.
  • Physically point to the PPS on the situation display of the receiving controller.
45
Q

POINT-OUT / POINT OUT

A

An action taken by a controller to transfer the identification of an aircraft with another controller, when control and radio communication will not be transferred

46
Q

Use a point out to obtain approval from another controller before permitting an identified aircraft to…..

A

Use a point out to obtain approval from another controller before permitting an identified aircraft to enter or infringe on that controller’s airspace when control and radio communication will not be transferred and either of the following situations applies:
* An aircraft will or may enter airspace that is under the jurisdiction of another controller.
* An aircraft will operate in the protected buffer zone dividing sector/unit boundaries

47
Q

MATS ACC > Separation > ATS Surveillance Separation > ATS
Surveillance Separation From an ATS Surveillance Boundary

Unless you coordinate separation with the controller concerned, separate….

A

Unless you coordinate separation with the controller concerned, separate an ATS surveillance-controlled aircraft from the boundary of adjoining ATS surveillance airspace. If an adjacent sector applies a larger ATS surveillance minimum than your sector, apply additional separation from the sector boundary to ensure that aircraft are separated by at least the ATS surveillance separation minimum applied in that sector.[1][2]

If both adjoining sectors apply the 3‑mile separation standard, maintain a 1.5‑mile separation minimum from the common sector boundary.

If either adjoining sector applies a 5‑mile separation standard, maintain a 2.5‑mile separation minimum from the common sector boundary

If either adjoining sector applies a 10-mile separation standard, maintain a 5-mile separation minimum from the common sector boundary.

48
Q

Apply vertical separation to IFR and CVFR aircraft by assigning different altitudes.

Minima if Either Aircraft is a Non‑RVSM Aircraft

A

If either aircraft is a non‑RVSM aircraft, apply one of the following minima:
* 1000 feet when either aircraft is below FL290
* 2000 feet when both of the following conditions are met:
◦ Both aircraft are at or above FL290
◦ Either aircraft is at or below FL590
* 5000 feet when both aircraft are above FL590

49
Q

Apply vertical separation to IFR and CVFR aircraft by assigning different altitudes.

Minima if Both Aircraft are RVSM Aircraft

A

If both aircraft are RVSM aircraft, apply one of the following minima:
* 1000 feet when both aircraft are at or below FL410
* 2000 feet when both following conditions are met:
◦ Either aircraft is above FL410
◦ Either aircraft is at or below FL590
* 5000 feet when both aircraft are above FL590

50
Q

RVSM

A

MATS:
REDUCED VERTICAL SEPARATION MINIMUM (RVSM) - The application of 1000 ft vertical separation between RVSM aircraft in RVSM airspace.

DAH:
All airspace within the CDA extending from FL290 up to and including FL410.

51
Q

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Enroute Operations > Altitude > Altitude Instructions > RVSM

Apply RVSM criteria and procedures to only…

A

Apply RVSM criteria and procedures to only RVSM aircraft operating within RVSM airspace. Do not provide RVSM criteria to a formation of aircraft

52
Q

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Enroute Operations > Altitude > Altitude Instructions > RVSM

If you suspect an aircraft is not approved to operate in RVSM airspace…

A

If you suspect an aircraft is not approved to operate in RVSM airspace, ask the pilot to confirm RVSM approval status.

“CONFIRM RVSM APPROVED [ UNABLE ISSUE CLEARANCE INTO RVSM AIRSPACE, ( MAINTAIN / DESCENT TO / CLIMB TO ) ( altitude) ]

53
Q

During a handoff, coordinate with the receiving controller as indicated in Handoff Coordination.

Non-RVSM aircraft in RVSM airspace

A

When this information has been passed electronically, verbal coordination is also required

Inform the receiving sector or unit or the aircraft’s RVSM status

“NEGATIVE RVSM”

54
Q

Do not clear a non-RVSM aircraft to enter RVSM airspace unless the aircraft is any of the following:

A
  • A state aircraft
  • On an initial delivery flight
  • An aircraft that was formerly RVSM-certified but has experienced an equipment failure and is being flown to a maintenance facility for repair/re-certification
  • A mercy or humanitarian flight (flights requesting medical priority are considered to be mercy or humanitarian)
  • A photographic survey aircraft
  • Conducting a flight check of a NAVAID
  • Conducting a monitoring/certification or developmental flight
55
Q

Provided a non-RVSM aircraft will be separated from other aircraft by the applicable _________________ separation minimum,[18] you may do either of the following:

A

Provided a non-RVSM aircraft will be separated from other aircraft by the applicable vertical, lateral, or longitudinal separation minimum,[18] you may do either of the following:

  • Clear the aircraft to climb or descend through RVSM airspace.[19]
  • Level-off the aircraft in RVSM airspace for traffic management
56
Q

TC AIM RAC 11.7.6 > Operation of Non- Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (Non-RVSM) Aircraft in RVSM Airspace > (f) > PHRASEOLOGY

Pilots of non-RVSM flights should include the phraseology…

A

Pilots of non-RVSM flights should include the phraseology “negative RVSM” in all initial calls on ATC frequencies, requests for flight level changes, readbacks of flight level clearances within RVSM airspace and readbacks of climb or descent clearances through RVSM airspace.

57
Q

Accept a control transfer time as follows:

A

( aircraft ID ) MY CONTROL [ NOW / AT ( time / location ) / OVER ( fix ) ]

58
Q

Initiate control transfer or approve a request for control

A

( aircraft id ) YOUR CONTROL [ NOW / AT ( time / location) / OVER ( fix ) ] [conditions] [info about next arrival]

For example:
YOUR CONTROL AT THE BOUNDARY.
YOUR CONTROL AT HUMBOLDT.
YOUR CONTROL AT FLIGHT LEVEL THREE-FIVE-ZERO.
YOUR CONTROL AT ONE-FIVE-ZERO-ZERO.

The expression YOUR CONTROL ON CONTACT is not acceptable phraseology, as it does not specify a fix, location, altitude, or time

59
Q

Eastbound Low Level IFR Altitudes

A

1000
3000
5000
7000
9000
11000
13000
15000
17000

60
Q

Westbound Low Level IFR altitudes

A

2000
4000
6000
8000
10000
12000
14000
16000

61
Q

Eastbound High level Altitudes

A

190
210
230
250
270
290
310
330
350
370
390
410
450
490
530
570

62
Q

Westbound High level Altitudes

A

180
200
220
240
260
280
300
320
340
360
380
400
430
470
510
550
590

63
Q

VFR Eastbound Altitudes

A

3500
5500
7500
9500
11500

64
Q

VFR Westbound Altitudes

A

4500
6500
8500
10500
12500

65
Q

If a pilot requests a flight plan change:

A
  • Approve the change and include the exact nature of the change in the clearance.
  • If you are unable to approve the change, provide the following to the pilot:
    ◦ The reason for non-approval
    ◦ If appropriate, a suggested alternative
66
Q

Operators are permitted to file a flight plan to conduct the climb/descent through RVSM airspace only if…..

A

Operators are permitted to file a flight plan to conduct the climb/descent through RVSM airspace only if the aircraft is capable of a continuous climb/descent through RVSM airspace at a normal rate and does not need to level off at an intermediate altitude for operational considerations

67
Q

You may amend the route provided in a previous clearance by doing one of the following:

A
  • State the route amendment and, if applicable, that the rest of the route is unchanged.
  • Issue the entire route.

RECLEARED TO CYEG VIA YGS DIRECT YAR REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED.

68
Q

Identify and correct any errors made during…

A

Identify and correct any errors made during delivery of a clearance or instruction. If there is any possibility of misunderstanding, cancel and restate the clearance in full.

69
Q

Top of descent best practice

A

3 times the altitude in thousands of feet equals the distance back from the airport at which descent should commence.

70
Q

Top of descent Handoff

A

Perform the handoff when the aircraft is approaching FL310 (SOM requires 2000 feet). (Transfer radio comms when clear of traffic)

71
Q

You may assign an altitude inappropriate to the direction of flight in the following situations:

Complete List

will be on exam

A
  • The following conditions apply:
    ◦ No alternate separation minima can be applied.
    ◦ The altitude has been approved by affected sectors/units.
    ◦ The aircraft will be cleared to an appropriate altitude as soon as the conditions permit.
  • The airspace is structured for one-way traffic flow
  • An aircraft is doing any of the following:
    ◦ Holding
    ◦ Arriving
    ◦ Departing
    ◦ Conducting a flight check of a NAVAID
    ◦ Operating within an altitude reservation
    ◦ Engaged in an aerial survey, mapping flight, or test flight
    ◦ Operating on a polar route
    ◦ Transitioning to or from oceanic airspace within 200 miles along the aircraft track from the oceanic entry or exit point
  • A pilot requests the altitude because of icing, turbulence, or fuel considerations and the following apply:
    ◦ The pilot informs you of the time or location that the aircraft can be cleared to an appropriate altitude
    ◦ The altitude has been approved by affected sectors/units
72
Q

Mental Math Overtakes
10 kt =
20 kt =
…..
60 kt =

A

10 kt = 1 NM/6 minutes (or 1/6 of a mile per minute)
20 kt = 2 NM/6 minutes (or 1/3 of a mile per minute)
30 kt = 3 NM/6 minutes (or 1/2 of a mile per minute)
40 kt = 4 NM/6 minutes (or 2/3 of a mile per minute)
60 kt = 6 NM/6 minutes (or 1 mile per minute)

73
Q

8.2.1 Mach Number

A

Clearances to turbojet aircraft equipped with a Machmeter may include an appropriate Mach number. If the Mach number cannot be adhered to, ATC is to be so informed when the clearance is issued. Once accepted, the Mach number shall be adhered to within .01 Mach, unless ATC approval is obtained to make a change. If an immediate temporary change in Mach number is necessary (e.g. because of turbulence), ATC must be notified as soon as possible. When a Mach number is included in a clearance, the flight concerned should transmit its current Mach number with each position report.

74
Q

8.2.2 True Airspeed (TAS)

A

ATC is to be notified as soon as practicable of an intended change to the TAS at the cruising altitude or flight level, where the change intended is five percent or more of the TAS specified in the IFR flight plan or flight itinerary.

75
Q

TC AIM RAC 11.1 > Adherence to Mach Number

A

Within CDA, aircraft shall adhere to the Mach number assigned by ATC, to within 0.01 Mach, unless approval is obtained from ATC to make a change or until the pilot receives the initial descent clearance approaching destination. If it is necessary to make an immediate temporary change in the Mach number (e.g. because of turbulence), ATC shall be notified as soon as possible that such a change has been made. If it is not possible to maintain the last assigned Mach number during en route climbs and descents because of aircraft performance, pilots shall advise ATC at the time of the climb/descent request.

76
Q
A
77
Q

Changes to Route/Altitude

A

Flight plan information will be forwarded to adjacent sectors via electronic methods. Changes to route and/or altitude are permitted until an aircraft is within 30 miles of the receiving sector’s boundary with the exception noted in article 206 ( North West Procedural Corner)

78
Q

In the ACC environment, profiling begins as soon as….

A

In the ACC environment, profiling begins as soon as the aircraft state changes to airborne at which time the aircraft becomes a concern for the IFR controller.

78
Q

What to consider if going direct to a fix with an aircraft:

A
  • Potential traffic on or off your situation display
  • Need for prior coordination for a sector
  • Whether CYR496 is active (or Class F Airspace in general)
  • Capability of the aircraft to fly direct to the point to be cleared
  • Potential benefit to the controller and/or the aircraft.

Other points (Mine)
Will it put them through weather
ATFM restrictions
Uncontrolled Airspace
Minimum IFR Altitudes
ATS Surveillance Coverage
Radio Coverage

78
Q

The flight profile is based on:

A
  • filed flight planned altitude
  • true air speed
  • route
  • wind information (from Atmospheric Environment Services AES)
  • the manufacturer’s aircraft performance model

This list may also include
• Weather from AES (Atmospheric Environment Services)
• Temperature at various altitudes along the route of flight (updated every six hours)
• Sectorization

79
Q

Issue a route description using any of the following elements.
(Direct)

A
80
Q

Advantages to going direct with an aircraft

A
  • Avoid known weather situations
  • Reduced fuel burn due to shorter distance flown
  • Take advantage of aircraft navigational capability
  • Conflict resolution (other aircraft or reserved airspace such as CYR496)
  • Providing better service
81
Q

The RNPC longitudinal standards are:

A
  • Same track 10 minutes, and
  • Same track 30 NM.
82
Q

Separate aircraft longitudinally:

A
  • By a minimum expressed in time or distance
  • So that the spacing between the estimated positions of the aircraft is never less than a prescribed minimum

Example
If a slower leading aircraft is estimated at a fix 10 minutes ahead of a faster trailing aircraft, establish vertical separation before or at the time the leading aircraft is estimated at the fix.

83
Q

Establish time-based longitudinal separation using one of the following methods:

A
  • By clearing an aircraft to depart at a specified time
  • By clearing an aircraft to cross a specified fix at a specified time
    CROSS (reporting point) AT (time) [OR LATER / OR BEFORE]
  • By clearing an aircraft to hold at a fix until a specified time
  • By clearing an aircraft to reverse heading
  • On the basis of position reports, provided that one of the following applies:
    ◦ Both aircraft have reported over the same reporting point.
    ◦ The trailing aircraft has confirmed not yet reaching the reporting point used by the leading aircraft.
84
Q

When applying time-based longitudinal separation,

A

When applying time-based longitudinal separation, separate RNPC-certified aircraft on same or crossing tracks by a minimum of 10 minutes.

85
Q

When applying distance-based longitudinal separation, separate RNPC-certified aircraft on the same track or crossing tracks by a minimum of ________, and:

A

When applying distance-based longitudinal separation, separate RNPC-certified aircraft on the same track or crossing tracks by a minimum of 30 miles, and:

  • Maintain direct communication using VHF/UHF voice.
  • Using RNAV or ATS surveillance from a common point, determine distance and ensure that the required separation is maintained or increased.
86
Q

Longitudinal Separation

Determining Distance

A

Distance can be determined by requesting RNAV position reports or by using SiT distance measuring tools. Aircraft using RNAV can report a position at any point along their track.
REPORT DISTANCE / SAY MILES TO / FROM (common point)

When applying DME separation, advise RNPC-certified aircraft to use DME distance
… USE DME DISTANCES …

87
Q

You may terminate vectoring of an aircraft, provided any of the following apply to the aircraft:

A
  • It is cleared for an approach.
  • It is cleared to hold.
  • It is established on a cleared route without requiring navigation assistance
    Note: An aircraft that is on a track that will intercept “ON COURSE” within a reasonable distancce is considered to be established on th cleared route
88
Q

Unless applying target resolution, apply ATS surveillance separation between

A

Unless applying target resolution, apply ATS surveillance separation between the centres of PPSs as indicated in ATS Surveillance Separation Conditions

Do not permit PPS’s to touch

ATS Surveillance Separation Conditions
ATS surveillance source does not include DND-NWS: 5 miles

89
Q

ATS SURVEILLANCE ADVISORY

A

Advice and information based on ATS surveillance observations.

90
Q

ATS SURVEILLANCE CONTROL SERVICE

A

An air traffic control service provided with information derived from ATS surveillance equipment sources.

91
Q

ATS SURVEILLANCE MONITORING

A

The use of ATS surveillance for providing aircraft with information and advice relative to significant deviations from their normal flight path.

92
Q

ATS SURVEILLANCE SEPARATION

A

Spacing of aircraft in accordance with established minima, based on information derived from ATS surveillance.

93
Q

Navigation Assistance

A

Unless specifically prohibited, use ATS surveillance to provide navigation assistance if a pilot requests it.

Navigation Assistance may be in the form of position information, vectors or track and ground speed checks

94
Q

You may apply ATS surveillance control procedures, provided:

A
  • The aircraft is identified.
  • The aircraft is in controlled airspace, except as described in Vectoring into Class G Airspace.
  • You are in direct communication with the pilot, unless:
    ◦ The aircraft has been cleared for an approach.
    ◦ You have transferred communication to the tower.
  • You are satisfied that the displayed ATS surveillance information is adequate.
95
Q

Vectoring into class G Airspace

A

You may vector an aircraft into class G airspace if you inform the pilot and obtain the pilot’s approval

96
Q

MATS ACC > ATS Surveillance > ATS Surveillance Equipment > Situation Display

Display and Monitor:

A
  • Unlinked targets[1]
  • CJSs
  • Coast list in a full format showing all pertinent information (to enable prompt detection of newly de-linked aircraft)
  • Altitude readouts (mode C)[2]
  • Current weather data and history, as necessary, for the provision of severe weather information[3]
  • VMI
  • Appropriate geographic map
  • Other features of the system may be used at your discretion.

1 Unlinked targets are displayed to ensure that you will have a target if de-linkage occurs or to display aircraft for which no flight plan has been entered into Fusion.

97
Q

Similar Call Signs

*on exams for sure

If communicating with two or more aircraft that are using the same…

A

If communicating with two or more aircraft that are using the same flight number or similar-sounding call signs, advise each of the aircraft concerned of the other’s presence.

“WJA123 be advised JZA123 also on this frequency”

If further clarification is required, do one of the following:

  • For emphasis restate the telephony designator of the aircraft after the flight number (JAZZ813JAZZ)
  • Add the type of aircraft to the callsign (Navajo bravo Zulu alpha)
  • Instruct one of the pilots to use the aircraft’s registration
  • Instruct one of the pilots to use the telephony designator followed by at least the last two characters of the aircrafts registration (jazz November delta)

Coordination with an adjacent unit or sector may be necessary when both aircraft are transferred to the same frequency