Exam 7 Wrong ?s

Question 1

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding tipping and group size?

• 1. Amount of a tip is negatively correlated with group size.
• 2. Percent tip is positively correlated with group size.
• 3. Percent tip is negatively correlated with group size.
• 4. There is a curvilinear relationship between amount of tip and group size.

Answer 1

3. Percent tip is negatively correlated with group size. (correct answer)

Feedback: Despite some conflicting research, it appears that the larger the group of diners is, the smaller the percentage of tip will be (ruling out Response 2). In other words, a group of three will leave a larger percentage of the bill as a tip than will a group of fifteen. Because the actual amount of the tip goes up as the bill goes up, there is usually a straight positive correlation between the number of diners and the actual tip (ruling out Responses 1 and 4). In other words, a group of fifteen will almost always leave a larger tip than a group of three (even though this tip may actually be a smaller percentage of the overall bill).

Question 2

Among the groups below, admission rates for psychiatric hospitalizations are the highest for…?

A. never married men

B. married men

C. Divorced men

D. Widowers

Answer 2

A. never married men

never married men have the highest rate of psychiatric hospitalization for both men and women. Other factors to consider include age (highest proportion btwn 5-44) and race (whites representing the largest number).

Question 3

10. Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding cognitive impairments from cancer treatment?

• 1. Cognitive impairments result from radiation involving the central nervous system only.
• 2. Cognitive impairments result from chemotherapy.
• 3. Cognitive impairments result from chemotherapy as well as radiation involving the central nervous system.
• 4. Cognitive impairments do not typically result from either chemotherapy or radiation to the central nervous system.

Answer 3

• 3. Cognitive impairments result from chemotherapy as well as radiation involving the central nervous system. (correct answer)

Feedback: There is ample research to demonstrate that both chemotherapy and radiation to the central nervous system can result in cognitive impairments. Immunotherapy, such as interferon and interleukin, also cause cognitive deficits in a staggering 50% of all patients treated. Along with the many medical interventions for these cognitive impairments, psychosocial interventions are used, including cognitive rehabilitation and cognitive-behavioral therapy.

Question 4

54. Preadolescent sibling relationships are characterized by:

• 1. competitiveness/hostility.
• 2. aggressiveness/passivity.
• 3. loyalty/friendship.
• 4. conflict/friendship.

Answer 4

John and Jeffrey have conflict and are friends.

Feedback: Research into sibling relationships in preadolescence indicates that these relationships are characterized by periods of both conflict and friendship (Response 4). Conflict is theorized to be the result of less emotional inhibition with one’s sibling, which leads to more overt presentations of hostility. However, sibling preadolescent relationships also include periods of calm and friendship, which tend to occur in the presence of other family members while engaging in shared activities.

Question 5

Tremors are a significant side effect of which of the following medications?

• 1. Elavil.
• 2. Lithium.
• 3. Prozac.
• 4. Paxil.

Answer 5

2. Lithium. (correct answer)

Feedback: The typical side effects of Lithium, which is a common treatment for Bipolar Disorder, include gastric distress, weight gain, tremor, fatigue, and mild cognitive impairment. Severe tremor, or an extreme form of any of these typical side effects, can indicate lithium toxicity, a condition which can be fatal and which requires immediate medical attention. Elavil (Response 1) is the brand name for the tricyclic antidepressant amitryptyline. Its most common side effects include anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention), sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain. Prozac (Response 3) and Paxil (Response 4) are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). These antidepressants typically have side effects that include agitation, insomnia, and decreased libido.

Question 6

48. According to the American Psychological Association’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), test data such as raw and scaled scores, may be released:

• 1. to whomever the patient requests, with an appropriate release.
• 2. to the patient only, if the patient insists.
• 3. to professionals qualified to understand the data.
• 4. only when there is court order that overrides the ethical standard not to release raw data.

Answer 6

Feedback: According to the 2002 APA Ethics Code, test data should be released to the client, or to anyone designated by the client on an appropriate release (ruling out Response 2). The psychologist may refuse to release the data only if he or she believes that doing so would cause “substantial harm, or the misuse or misinterpretation of test data.” There has never been an absolute prohibition against the release of raw data (Response 4). The current provision is a substantial change from the previous ethics code. According to 1992 Ethics Code, raw data could only be released to professionals qualified to understand the data (Response 3) or to the patient when the patient insisted (Response 2).

Question 7

A patient tells you that she has abruptly stopped using her drug of abuse. You should be most concerned about possibly fatal complications if she has just stopped using:

• 1. heroin.
• 2. crack.
• 3. Valium.
• 4. Dexedrine.

Answer 7

• 3. Valium. (correct answer)

Feedback: Withdrawal from a benzodiazepine (e.g., Valium) is very serious and can sometimes be fatal if it is done abruptly. Withdrawal from both benzodiazepines and alcohol can involve dangerous seizures. Although withdrawal from heroin (Response 1) is very unpleasant, typically involving flu-like symptoms, it is rarely fatal. Similarly, the sensation of crashing during withdrawal from crack (Response 2) is rarely fatal. Dexedrine (Response 4) is a stimulant and is not known for a particularly dangerous withdrawal syndrome.

Question 8

A behavior can be learned but will only be exhibited at a later time when the behavior is reinforced. This premise underlies:

• 1. Kohler’s insight learning.
• 2. Thorndike’s law of effect.
• 3. Tolman’s latent learning.
• 4. Occam’s Razor (the principle of parsimony).

Answer 8

3. Tolman’s latent learning. (correct answer)

Feedback: If you recognized that “latent” means potential or dormant, you might have been able to guess that Response 3 was correct. Tolman determined that rats developed “cognitive maps” of the mazes, thereby learning how to successfully run them, even though they would only demonstrate this learning when reinforcement was offered. Kohler’s insight learning (Response 1) underlies Gestalt Psychology and was developed through experimentation with chimpanzees. According to Kohler, insight can be acquired suddenly in an “aha” experience and involves a change in the cognitive organization of the environment. The principle of parsimony (Response 4), also known as Occam’s Razor, was developed by William of Ockham in the 14th century. According to this principle, the best explanation for a phenomenon is the one that is simplest and requires the fewest assumptions.

Question 9

25. Which of the following designs is least likely to be threatened by history?

• 1. AB.
• 2. ABAB.
• 3. Time series.
• 4. One group pre-post.

Answer 9

Feedback: History is defined as a coincidentally occurring event that is not part of treatment, which influences outcome. The threat of history is best taken care of by an ABAB design in which the person is first measured over time during a baseline phase (A), then treatment is implemented and the person is once again measured repeatedly during the intervention (B). Treatment is then removed, and the person is measured at baseline again (A). Finally, treatment is implemented once again and the person is measured repeatedly (B).

Since measurements of treatment effect are obtained at two different times, this design controls for the possibility that some of the treatment effect was confounded by a historical event.

In the other three designs, treatment is only implemented at one point in time and there is no control group. One would not be able to tease out whether changes were caused by treatment or some coincidentally occurring event. For example, in an AB design (Response 1), baseline (A) is followed by treatment (B). Similarly, in a one group pre-posttest design (Response 4), the same group of people is assessed once before and once after treatment. A time series (Response 3) usually involves a group that is measured at several points before and after treatment, however, treatment only occurs once. It therefore remains unclear if the observed effects are due to treatment or history. Note that “time series” is often used to refer in a more general (and confusing) way to any single-subject design, including AB and ABAB.

Question 10

Research on leadership has found that:

• 1. males are more democratic.
• 2. males and females are about equally democratic.
• 3. females are more participative.
• 4. male are less directive.

Answer 10

3. females are more participative. (correct answer)

Feedback: Leadership styles have been studied in dichotomies of autocratic vs. democratic as well as participative vs. directive. An autocratic leadership style corresponds to a directive style where employees are discouraged from participating in decision making. In contrast, the democratic/participative style involves employees in decision making. Research has shown that females tend to use a more democratic/participative style of leadership than men (Response 3).

Question 11

For children of divorces parents, increased frequency of contact with the noncustodial father:

A. is consistently associated with more behavior problems and lower academic achievement.

B. is consistently associated with fewer behavior problems and better academic achievement.

C. is associated with fewer behavior problems and better academic achievement only when the father is supportive and authoritative.

D. is unrelated to severity of behavior problems or level of academic achievement regardless of the father’s supportiveness and parenting style.

Answer 11

The long-term impact of contact with the noncustodial father on child outcomes was investigated.

A. incorrect

B. Incorrect

C. CORRECT- Hetherington found that frequency of contact witht eh noncustodial father itself was not predictive of child outcomes. However, a greater frequecy of contact was associated with better outcomes- especially for boys- when the father was supportive, authoritative in terms of parenting style, and did not frequently engage in open conflict with his ex-spouse in front of the child.

Question 12

74. Tremors are a significant side effect of which of the following medications?

• 1. Elavil.
• 2. Lithium.
• 3. Prozac.
• 4. Paxil.

Answer 12

2. Lithium. (correct answer)

Feedback: The typical side effects of Lithium, which is a common treatment for Bipolar Disorder, include gastric distress, weight gain, tremor, fatigue, and mild cognitive impairment. Severe tremor, or an extreme form of any of these typical side effects, can indicate lithium toxicity, a condition which can be fatal and which requires immediate medical attention. Elavil (Response 1) is the brand name for the tricyclic antidepressant amitryptyline. Its most common side effects include anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention), sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and weight gain. Prozac (Response 3) and Paxil (Response 4) are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). These antidepressants typically have side effects that include agitation, insomnia, and decreased libido.

Question 13

Night terrors typically remit:

1. in early childhood.
2. in middle childhood.
3. in adolescence.
4. in adulthood.

Answer 13

3. in adolescence. (correct answer)

Night terrors typically occur in children aged 3 -12 years. The peak age of onset is 3 1⁄2 (Response 1). An estimated 1% - 6% of children experience night terrors. Boys and girls, as well as children of different races, are equally affected. Night terrors usually remit in adolescence (Response 3).

Question 14

67. You are a psychologist who has been licensed for 10 years, and are employed in a hospital setting. The hospital’s associate director has just received his doctoral degree in psychology, and requests that you provide him with supervision for some of his post-doctoral hours required for licensure. You should:

• 1. consent to supervise him if he has no involvement with or responsibility for evaluating your performance.
• 2. consent to supervise him if he has no involvement with or responsibility for evaluating your performance, and you do not interact with him in any other capacity.
• 3. refuse to supervise him because this arrangement would conflict with organizational structure and hierarchy.
• 4. refuse to supervise him because of the inherent conflict and potential problems that could arise.

Answer 14

Feedback: According to the Ethics Code a psychologist should refrain from entering into a professional relationship (e.g., providing supervision) if the relationship might impair the psychologist’s objectivity, or harm or exploit the other party. Additionally, a psychologist should not take on professional obligations when the pre-existing relationship would create a risk of harm. Based on these provisions, it is clear that the psychologist should refuse the associate director’s request, regardless of whether the associate director evaluates the psychologist’s performance or interacts with the psychologist in any other capacity (Responses 1 & 2). Potential conflict with the organization’s structure and hierarchy should not be the guiding factor in this decision (Response 3).

Question 15

According to social learning theory, children watching aggression on television are more likely to become aggressive:

• 1. if the perpetrator of violence (actor) is punished.
• 2. if the perpetrator of violence (actor) is not punished.
• 3. if the violence is perpetrated between two actors.
• 4. if the violence occurs in cartoons.

Answer 15

2. if the perpetrator of violence (actor) is not punished. (correct answer)

Feedback: According to Albert Bandura, the risk of violence from watching television is aggravated when actors are not punished for their behavior. When bad guys are punished for being violent, the punishment reinforces society’s sanctions against violence. However, when heroes use aggression toward criminals and are rewarded, that glorifies violence. Research also indicates that children find violence more disturbing when it is in “real” shows as opposed to cartoons (ruling out Response 4).

Question 16

When using_____ as a memory aid, a phrase or rhyme is constructed from the first letter of each word in the list of words that is to be recalled.

A. the chuncking strategy

B. the keyword method

C. an acronym

D. an acrostic

Answer 16

For the exam, you want to be familiar with the four memory devices listen in the answers.

A. Incorrect- chuncking is grouping related items of information.

B. Incorrect- the keyword method is an imagery mnemonic that is useful for paired associated tasks in which two words must be linked. It involves creating an image for each word and visually joining the two images.

C. Incorrect- an acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list.

D. CORRECT- an acrostic is made up of words beginning with the first letter of each word of phrase that is the be rememebers. For example, the acrostic “my very educated mother just sent us nachos” is used to memorize the names of the eight planets.

Question 17

75. If using a selection test results in 40% of the African American applicants being hired and 45% of the white applicants being hired, you can conclude:

• 1. adverse impact has occurred.
• 2. adverse impact has occurred and the test has differential validity.
• 3. the test is unfair.
• 4. the test may or may not have differential validity.

Answer 17

Feedback: Adverse impact has occurred when the percentage of minorities hired is less than 4/5ths of the percentage of non-minorities hired. The easiest way to calculate this is to multiply the hiring rate for non-minorities by .8. In this case, the percentage of the non-minorities hired is 45%. The 45% is multiplied by .8, and results in 36%. Adverse impact has not occurred since the selection of African American applicants is 40%, which exceeds the minimum requirement of 36%. Responses 1 and 2 are therefore ruled out. We do not have information about unfairness, which occurs when predictor scores (tests) are different, but criterion scores (performance outcome) are similar. Thus Response 3 is eliminated. We also have no information on differential validity, which is defined as different criterion-related validity coefficients for different ethnic groups. Only Response 4 is correct.

Question 18

Raven’s Progressive Matrices is thought to be one of the best tests of:

• 1. Spearman’s “g” factor.
• 2. crystallized intelligence.
• 3. visuo-spatial abilities.
• 4. non-verbal memory.

Answer 18

Feedback: Raven’s Progressive Matrices consists of a series of abstract patterns with one piece missing. The test requires the person to pick out the missing piece using a multiple choice format.

Raven’s Progressive Matrices is thought to be one of the best non-verbal tests of intelligence. Spearman argued that intelligence is based on one factor, general intelligence, or “g,” and proposed that intelligence tests should measure intelligence without becoming clouded by specific abilities. Raven’s Progressive Matrices accomplishes this task.

Crystallized intelligence refers to knowledge gained through experience (e.g., fund of knowledge), and as Raven’s Progressive Matrices is a novel task, it does not measure crystallized intelligence (Response 2).

Raven’s Progressive Matrices does involve some visuo-spatial skills, however, this is not what it is best known for (Response 3).

Raven’s Progressive Matrices does not measure memory functioning at all (Response 4)

Question 19

Which of the following would probably be LEAST useful when a therapist is workin with an Asian or Asian American client?

A. identifying therapy goals during the initial session.

B. establishing an egalitatian relationship with the client early in therapy.

C. making use of “relationship questions” that elicit information about the client’s interactions with others.

D. asking the client to try to identify exceptions to the presenting problem.

Answer 19

It is “dangerous” to make generalizations about the best treatment approach for any group of clients, but the licensing exam may include a question that requires you to do so.

A. incorrect- a direct approach that focuses on specific goals is considered useful for Asian Amerian clients.

B. CORRECT- An egalitarian relationship is usually contraindicated because of “the Asian norms of deference to authority of modesty in the presence of superiors”

C. Incorrect

D. Incorrect

Question 20

What is the best treatment for elderly patients with paranoia?

• 1. Neuroleptics.
• 2. Social skills training.
• 3. Family therapy.
• 4. Reality therapy.

Answer 20

1. Neuroleptics. (correct answer)

Feedback: The literature suggests that neuroleptics (antipsychotics) along with managing the environment are the most useful interventions when paranoia occurs in the elderly.

Question 21

You are working in a correctional facility and are asked to evaluate a prisoner to determine his eligibility for parole. In this situation, you should:

A. conduct the evaluation as requested since it is part of your job.

B. conduct the evaluation only if you believe it will serve a useful dispositional function.

C. conduct the evaluation after reminding the prisoner that anything he says can be shared with prison authorities.

D. refuse to conduct the evaluation unless it has been court ordered.

Answer 21

B. conduct the evaluation only if you believe it will serve a useful dispositional function.

psych assessments of offenders should be performed only when the psychologist has a reasonable expectation that such assessments will serve as useful therapeutic or dispositional function.

Question 22

When working with NA clts an effective intervention would involve coordination with traditional healers(if appropriate), incorporating memebers of extended family and:

insight-oriented approach

reality therapy or solution-focused approach

combination of client-centered and beh approaches

combination of Adlerian and rational-emotiove approaches.

Answer 22

combination of client-centered and beh approaches

Optimal approach depends on several factors including the clt’s level of acculturation.

Question 23

The age of onset of separation anxiety varies from child to child but is ussually between six and eight months of age. It then peaks in intesity at about_____months and thereafter declines.

A. 10 to 14

B. 14 to 18

C. 18 to 24

D. 24 to 28

Answer 23

The age at which developmental milestones are reached vary considerably from child to child, so it is difficulty to make generalizations. Most (but, unfortunately, not all) authorities list it as beginning at about 6 to 8 months of age.

B. CORRECT. 14 to 18 months. The intesity of separation anxiety continues to increase during the first half of the second year and subsequently declines.

Question 24

As originally described by Wolde (1958), reciprocal inhibition involved replaing:

A. an automatic response with an intentional response.

B. a dysfunctional thought with a more functional one.

C. an anxiety response with a relaxation response.

D. an external attribution with an internal attribution.

Answer 24

C. Correct- an anxiety response with a relaxation response.

Reciprocal inhibition=counterconditioning

used it to reduce anxiety. Pairing in imagination anxiety-arousing events with relaxation- incompatible with anxiety.

Reciprocal inhibition involves using classical conditioning to replace and undesirable response with an incompatible response.

Question 25

A practicioner of nonsexist therapy:

A. interprets a client’s behaviro in terms of social, political, and cultural forces.

B. stresses the egalitarian nature of the therapeutic relationship.

C. view gender as a key determinant of behavior.

D. uses non-biased techniques descigned to promote personal growth.

Answer 25

Nonsexist therapy and feminist therapy share several charcteristics. For the exam, you want to be familiar with their major similarities and differences.

A. Incorrect- this is a characteristic of feminist therapy but not nonsexist therapy.

B. Incorrect- a nonsexist therapist may or may not emphasize an egalitarian relationship dependingon his/her theoretical orientation. Therefore, this is not the best answer.

C. Incorrect- for nonsexist therapists, gender is only one of many personal characteristics that affect beahvior and are relvant to counseling.

D. CORRECT- Of the answers given, this is the best one. As its name implies, nonsexist therapy involves using nonsexist (unbiased) techniques. In addition, its focus is on personal growth.

Question 26

What would be the likely outcome of successfully negotiating Erikson’s stage that corresponds to late adulthood?

• 1. A concern for others.
• 2. The capacity to form loving relationships.
• 3. A sense of wisdom.
• 4. A sense of competence.

Answer 26

3. A sense of wisdom. (correct answer)

Feedback: A sense of wisdom is the favorable outcome for the stage of integrity versus despair (late adulthood). Middle adulthood corresponds to Erikson’s stage of generativity versus stagnation, and a desirable outcome for this stage would be the capacity to care for others and to give to future generations (Response 1). The capacity to form intimate relationships (Response 2) describes the successful outcome for the stage of intimacy versus isolation (early adulthood). Competence (Response 4) occurs when the stage of industry versus inferiority (ages 6 - 12) is successfully negotiated.

Question 27

110. The feature of speech that would normally be remembered best by a listener is:

•

1. semantic. (correct answer)

•

2. syntactic.

•

3. phonemic.

•

4. acoustic.

Answer 27

Feedback: Semantic refers to meaning. What we usually remember most is the meaning of what someone has told us. Syntactic (Response 2) refers to grammatical order. Phonemes (Response 3) are the smallest units of sound in a language. Acoustic (Response 4) refers to sound. Acoustic qualities would include pitch, tone, and volume.

Question 28

A teacher rewards high school students for reading a specified number of books within a designated time period. Students tend to read the designated amount, but no more, and then report their enjoyment of reading has diminished. This can best be explained by:

• 1. behavioral contrast.
• 2. overjustification.
• 3. satiation.
• 4. the Premack Principle.

Answer 28

2. overjustification. (correct answer)

Feedback: Overjustification occurs when people are reinforced for behaviors they would normally do without reinforcement (e.g., read books); when the reinforcement is taken away, there is frequently a decrease in the behavior. The theory posits that people look to their environment to explain their behavior: when they are reinforced, they attribute their behavior to the reinforcement rather than to intrinsic motivation. Note that the question does not flesh out the full phenomenon of overjustification (i.e., the reinforcement isn’t taken away) but it is the concept that most clearly applies. Behavioral contrast (Response 1) occurs when there are two behaviors being reinforced and reinforcement for one behavior is discontinued; typically the unreinforced behavior diminishes and the reinforced behavior increases in frequency. Satiation (Response 3) occurs when a reinforcer is used so much it loses its reinforcing quality (e.g., kids get sick of earning M & M’s). According to the Premack Principle (Response 4), a frequently performed behavior is used to reinforce an infrequently performed target behavior. For example, a teenager’s listening to music (frequent behavior) is made contingent on cleaning his bedroom (an exceedingly rare behavior). The Premack Principle is particularly useful when it is difficult to find an appropriate reinforcer. All of these concepts come from the domain of operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning.

Question 29

Humans exhibit sexual dimorphism:

• 1. to a greater degree than many other species.
• 2. to a lesser degree than many other species.
• 3. to a lesser degree than most mammals, but to a larger degree than other animals (i.e., reptiles and birds).
• 4. in the body, but not in the brain.

Answer 29

2. to a lesser degree than many other species. (correct answer)

Feedback: Sexual dimorphism refers to the systematic differences between individuals of different sex in the same species. In humans, sex differences are thought to result from an interaction between environmental and biological factors; the contribution of each factor is still under debate. The organizational/activational hypothesis proposes that hormones guide behavioral sex differences in two ways: 1) early in life, males and females are differentially exposed to hormones that organize the nervous system, and 2) differential exposure to sex steroids later in life (e.g., at puberty) activates the neural circuitry that had previously been organized. Overall, humans exhibit less sexual dimorphism than many other species (ruling out Responses 1 and 3). A hot area of research and controversy, sexual dimorphism is definitely present in the human brain, although details are still being worked out (Response 4).

Question 30

Tiedeman and O’Hara (1963) theory of career development was most influenced by the work of:

A. Erikson

B. Bandura

C. Baumrind

D. Maslow

Answer 30

Knowing that Tiedman and O’Hara emphasize the role of the ego in career development would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

A. CORRECT- Tiedman and O’Hara theory is classified as a congitive-developmental theory that is consistent with the work of Erikson, Bruner, Piaget, and Allport. It views career developement as being an aspect of ego identity development and as a process that continues throughout the lifespan.

Question 31

66. For each A score, the variability of B scores is equal to the total variability of B scores. You can conclude that:

• 1. an error has been made; this is quite unlikely to occur.
• 2. there is a moderate positive correlation between A and B.
• 3. there is a moderate negative correlation between A and B.
• 4. there is no correlation between A and B.

Answer 31

Feedback: In this correlation, for any A value, you end up with all possible B values (i.e., total variability of B scores). The graph would look like one giant scatterplot, with dots all over the place. Knowing A tells you nothing about what B could be, since B could be anything. In other words, there is no ability whatsoever to use A to predict B. Thus, the correlation is 0.0. If A and B were correlated, the graph would show dots clustered close to a regression line. The values of B would be limited by the value of A, and it would be possible to predict B if A were known.

Question 32

In ten trials in which no auditory stimulus is presented, a subject reports hearing something on one of the trials. This can best be described as:

• 1. 10% false alarms, 90% hits.
• 2. 10% misses, 90% correct rejections.
• 3. 10% false alarms, 90% correct rejections.
• 4. 10% misses, 90% hits.

Answer 32

3. 10% false alarms, 90% correct rejections. (correct answer)

Feedback: Answering this question becomes much easier when we translate it into familiar terms. “False alarm” means false positive (e.g., it’s a false alarm if you think someone has HIV but he doesn’t); “hit” means true positive; “miss” means false negative (e.g., it’s a miss if you think someone is HIV- when she’s actually HIV+); and “correct rejection” means true negative. In this example, the subject has had nine true negatives and one false positive, or 90% correct rejections and 10% false alarms.

Question 33

A child who has suffered from chronic otitis media would most likely show a depressed score on which subtest of the WISC-IV?

• 1. Arithmetic.
• 2. Digit span.
• 3. Vocabulary.
• 4. Matrix reasoning.

Answer 33

• 3. Vocabulary. (correct answer)

Feedback: Children with chronic middle ear infections (chronic otitis media) often demonstrate long-term deficits in language capacities, such as vocabulary. In fact, the entire verbal comprehension factor will often be depressed on the WISC-IV (this factor includes similarities, vocabulary, comprehension, and the optional tests of information and word reasoning). Arithmetic (Response 1) and digit span (Response 2) load on the working memory factors, and are more likely to be affected by acute hearing infections rather than chronic ones. Matrix reasoning (Response 4) loads on the perceptual reasoning factor and would be comparatively unimpaired by ear infections. One way to approach this question is to recognize that arithmetic and digit span tap similar abilities (e.g., auditory processing, attention, concentration) and therefore it is somewhat unlikely that one would be influenced by ear infections without the other being similarly influenced.

Question 34

39. In comparison with other major mental disorders, Bipolar Disorder:

• 1. has been more consistently linked to genetic factors. (correct answer)
• 2. is more often precipitated by stressful live events.
• 3. is not as easily treated by medication.
• 4. has lower rates of comorbid substance abuse.

Answer 34

• 1. has been more consistently linked to genetic factors. (correct answer)

Feedback: Of all mental disorders, Bipolar Disorder has been most consistently linked to genetic factors (e.g., 65% - 80% concordance for monozygotic twins). Response 2 is partially true: stress has been linked to the onset of the first and second manic episodes, although not to subsequent episodes. In addition, Bipolar Disorder could not be said to be more stress-related than other disorders. Responses 3 & 4 are untrue of Bipolar Disorder.

Question 35

If a test is made more difficult, this will have the effect of:

1. decreasing the true positives and decreasing the true negatives.
2. decreasing the false positives and increasing the true negatives.
3. increasing the true positives and decreasing false negatives.
4. increasing the false positives and increasing the false negatives.

Answer 35

2. decreasing the false positives and increasing the true negatives. (correct answer)

In order to answer this question, you need to know that making the test more difficult would have the same effect as raising the cutoff on the predictor test. When the predictor cutoff is raised, both the number of false positives and the number of true positives are decreased. The number of true negatives and the number of false negatives are increased.

Question 36

Your expertise is sought to help address theme-interference problems. You would most likely provide:

1. client-centered case consultation.
2. consultee-centered case consultation. (correct answer)
3. consultee-centered administrative consultation.
4. program-centered administrative consultation.

Answer 36

Feedback: In providing consultation, theme-interference problems are problems that the supervisee (or consultee) is experiencing, that can affect patients’ progress. Thus, the type of consultation needed in this instance is consultee-centered case consultation.

Question 37

According to the American Psychological Association’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002), what should a psychologist do when ethical guidelines conflict with the law?

• 1. Adhere to the higher standard set forth by the Ethics Code.
• 2. Make known his or her commitment to the Ethics Code and then comply with the law.
• 3. Make known his or her commitment to the Ethics Code and attempt to resolve the conflict responsibly.
• 4. Comply with the law.

Answer 37

3. Make known his or her commitment to the Ethics Code and attempt to resolve the conflict responsibly. (correct answer)

The Ethics Code specifically states that when ethics and law conflict, psychologists should make “known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict.” On the one hand, psychologists are not required to simply adhere to the Ethics Code (Response 1) and perhaps risk jail as a result. On the other hand, psychologists are not allowed to blithely comply with the law (Response 4) without any regard for the Ethics Code. Additionally, it is not sufficient to make a token statement of commitment to the Ethics Code and then comply with the law (Response 2); a genuine effort at resolution must be made. If this effort fails, the 2002 Ethics Code explicitly permits a psychologist to then comply with the law.

Question 38

Research comparing the use of MH services by heterosexual adults and gay/lesbian adults has generally found that:

A. gay men are more likely than hetero men to use MH services, but lesbians are less likely than hetero women to do so.

B. lesbian are more likely than hetero women to use MH services, but gay men are less likely than hetero men to do so.

C. gay men and lesbian are more likely than their hetero counterparts to use MH services.

D. gay men and lesbian are less likley than their hetero counterparts to use MH services.

Answer 38

C. gay men and lesbian are more likely than their hetero counterparts to use MH services.

Question 39

75. Some children as young as six months old enjoy the game of hide and seek, while newborns do not. This can be attributed to the development of:

• 1. assimilation.
• 2. accommodation.
• 3. object constancy.
• 4. object permanence.

Answer 39

• 4. object permanence. (correct answer)

Feedback: With the development of object permanence, the child understands that objects or people continue to exist even when the child cannot see them. With this knowledge, the child can play hide and seek, or look for something or someone who cannot be seen. Assimilation (Response 1) is the process of taking in a new experience through the person’s already established mental structure. Accommodation (Response 2) involves adjusting to reality demands by reorganizing or modifying the existing cognitive structure or scheme. Object constancy (Response 3), a term associated with Margaret Mahler, refers not only to the ability to maintain the image of the mother when she is absent (object permanence), but also to the ability to unify the good and bad aspects of the mother into a whole representation.

Question 40

68. A child was classically conditioned to be afraid of a white rat. The child now seems to be fearful of white rabbits as well. This is an example of:

• 1. response generalization.
• 2. mediated generalization.
• 3. avoidance behavior.
• 4. Skinnerian conditioning.

Answer 40

Mediated generalization=stimulus generalization

Feedback: Mediated generalization is another name for stimulus generalization. In this example, the white rat is a conditioned stimulus. The child has generalized the response of fear to other similar stimuli such as white rabbits. What has changed? Was it the stimulus or response? The response of fear has remained the same, but there has been generalization from the stimulus that elicits fear. Thus, the phenomenon occurring here is stimulus generalization. Keep in mind that many phobias (e.g., agoraphobia) involve stimulus generalization.

Response generalization (Response 1) actually falls into the domain of operant conditioning. Response generalization involves the person or animal displaying responses similar to those that have been reinforced. For example, a dog is reinforced by his owner when he rolls on his back in a rather cute way. The dog then displays other ‘cute’ behavior in an attempt to get more reinforcement.

Avoidance behavior (Response 3) is an operant conditioning paradigm in which a person learns that emitting certain behavior can prevent negative consequences from occurring. For example, you pay your bills on time to avoid paying late fees and penalties.

Skinnerian conditioning (Response 4), or operant conditioning, is not relevant here because we are not looking at the contingencies of the behavior (i.e., reward and punishment).

Question 41

A psychologist is asked to go into an assisted living community and redesign it to enhance interaction among residents. This is an example of:

• 1. primary prevention.
• 2. secondary prevention.
• 3. tertiary prevention.
• 4. preventative intervention.

Answer 41

Tertiary prevention

Feedback: According to principles of community psychology, prevention can be classified into three levels. Primary prevention (Response 1) is aimed at preventing the onset of a disease or disorder, thereby reducing its incidence (e.g., vaccinations). Secondary prevention (Response 2) focuses on early identification and prompt treatment of an illness or disorder that already exists, with the goal of improving or curing the illness/disorder (e.g., mammograms). Finally, tertiary prevention (Response 3, the correct answer) focuses on reducing the residual effects or optimizing functioning of patients with a chronic condition or disorder (e.g., AA, day treatment centers). In this scenario, the goal is to optimize functioning by reducing the isolation of the residents in the assisted living community.

Question 42

A student studies for an exam for 18 hours. She then decides to sleep in the hours remaining before the exam to make sure that the material remains fresh in her mind. She is trying to reduce the effects of:

• 1. proactive interference.
• 2. retroactive interference.
• 3. retrograde amnesia.
• 4. anterograde amnesia.

Answer 42

• 2. retroactive interference. (correct answer)

Feedback: Retroactive inhibition (or interference) occurs when newly learned information interferes with the recall of previously learned information. Here, the student is minimizing the impact of retroactive inhibition by going to sleep, which keeps her from being exposed to new information. Proactive interference (Response 1) occurs when previously learned material interferes with recall of newly learned material. Retrograde amnesia (Response 3) refers to amnesia for memories of events prior to a trauma or accident. Anterograde amnesia (Response 4) refers to amnesia for memories after a trauma or accident.

Question 43

101. After conducting a two-way ANOVA, you determine significant differences have been found. You are most likely to conclude:
102. there are main effects and there may or may not be interaction effects.
103. there are interaction effects and there may or may not be main effects.
104. there can be any combination of main effects and interactions.
105. there are probably neither main effects nor interaction effects because the results may be due to chance.

Answer 43

Feedback: When you conduct a two-way ANOVA, you calculate three F ratios, and therefore there are three possibilities for significance. There are two possible main effects (for Variable A and Variable B), and a possible interaction effect. The important point is that when you get significance in a two-way ANOVA, it can be any combination of main effects and interactions. For example, it’s possible that there would be only one main effect. It’s equally possible that there would be a significant interaction effect and no main effects, or even that there would be two significant main effects and a significant interaction. Note that one of the advantages of a two-way ANOVA over two separate one-way ANOVAs is the possibility of detecting the interaction effect.

Question 44

Precocious puberty, or the development of secondary sex characteristics prior to age 8 (girls) or 8.5 (boys), as been linked to premature awakening of the:

A. hypothalamic-pituitary axis

B. hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis

C. hippocampal-anterior thalamic axis

D. mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis

Answer 44

A. hypothalamic-pituitary axis (aka hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis- which is invovled in sexual masturbation).

Hypothalamus is involved in the release of the sex hormones and adrenal glands are involved with stress but not sex hormones.

Question 45

Taking_____ to treat the symptoms of the flu, chickenpox, or other viral illness can produce Reyes syndrome.

A. Ibuprofen

B. Asprin

C. an antihistamine

D. an antibiotic

Answer 45

Reyes syndrome is a rare disorder that is most common in children and adolescents, usually affects the brain and liver and can be fetal

B. Asprin

Question 46

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding ethics in psychological research?

• 1. Written consent must always be secured.
• 2. Verbal consent is adequate in most research situations.
• 3. A signature does not guarantee informed consent.
• 4. Any research that may be harmful to subjects should be avoided.

Answer 46

• 2. Verbal consent is adequate in most research situations. (your response)

Feedback: A signature on an informed consent form is the most typical way of acquiring informed consent and is far preferable to verbal consent. However, not only are there situations in which written informed consent is not obtained (e.g., when using unobtrusive measures), a signature in and of itself does not satisfy the requirement of informed consent. We need only consult our own experience: how many times have we signed something that states, “I have read and understood…” when we have done neither? Even the most benign forms of research, such as surveys about marital relationships, can involve some potential harm, making Response 4 impractical.

Question 47

The principal of a school issues a regulation that punishment may no longer be used as a means of discipline. Whenever her class becomes noisy, the first-grade teacher turns off the lights and the children become less noisy. Has the teacher violated the regulation?

• 1. Yes, because the children stop making noise when the lights are turned off.
• 2. No, because turning off the lights acts as a negative reinforcer.
• 3. Possibly, depending on whether the frequency of noisy behavior decreases over time.
• 4. No, because turning off the lights is not aversive.

Answer 47

1. Yes, because the children stop making noise when the lights are turned off. (correct answer)

Feedback: This question is actually very easy once you master the idea that punishment is always present when a behavior decreases. In this example, the teacher is using negative punishment. When the unwanted target behavior occurs (noise), she turns off or removes the light (negative), and the undesirable target behavior decreases (punishment). In considering whether or not an intervention is punishment, the extent to which the intervention is aversive is irrelevant (Response 4).

Question 48

. Of the following, which would probably be most effective for treating a specific phobia?

• 1. Symbolic modeling.
• 2. In vivo modeling.
• 3. Positive reinforcement.
• 4. Covert sensitization.

Answer 48

2. In vivo modeling. (correct answer)

Feedback: The treatment of choice for specific phobias is flooding, however, flooding was not an available choice. Of the responses given, in vivo (live) modeling would be most effective for treating a specific phobia. In vivo modeling entails having the person observe a live model engaging in graduated interactions with the feared object. Thus, the person is not only exposed to the feared object, but also observes adaptive ways of overcoming the fear. Symbolic modeling or filmed modeling (Response 1) involves observing a film in which a model enjoys progressively more intimate interaction with a feared object or setting. Treatment approaches based on operant conditioning (e.g., positive reinforcement) (Response 3) are not used for specific phobias. Covert sensitization (Response 4) is aversive conditioning conducted in imagination, and is used exclusively in an attempt to eliminate deviant or problematic behaviors like drinking or cigarette smoking. It is not used as a treatment for phobias.

Question 49

A psychologist working at an alcohol rehabilitation clinic is conducting a study to determine if tx length is related to relapse. She adds four weeks to the standard 12-week program and randomly assigns one-half of the current clinic clients to the extended 16-week tx and the other half to the standard 12-week tx. Relapse is measured as the number of times an individual drinks during the 3 months following the end of his or her tx program. The appropriate correlation coefficient for the data collected in this study is:

A. Pearson r

B. tetrachoric

C. point biseral

D. Spearman rho

Answer 49

There is one continuous variable (relapse rate) and one dichotomous variable (tx length- 12 wks or 16 weeks).

A. Incorrect- this wld be correct if tx length was also continuous variable

B. Incorrect- the tetrachoric coefficient is used when both variables are continuous but have been artificially dichotomized.

C. CORRECT- the point biserial coefficient is used when one variable is continuous and the other is a true dichotomy. In this casae, tx length is a true dichotomy because participants receive either a 12-wk or 16-wk program.

D. incorrect- the spearman rho (rank-ordered) correlation coefficient is used when data on both variables are ranks.

Question 50

88. Night terrors typically remit:

• 1. in early childhood.
• 2. in middle childhood.
• 3. in adolescence.
• 4. in adulthood.

Answer 50

in adolescence. (correct answer)

Feedback: Night terrors typically occur in children aged 3 -12 years. The peak age of onset is 31⁄2 (Response 1). An estimated 1% - 6% of children experience night terrors. Boys and girls, as well as children of different races, are equally affected. Night terrors usually remit in adolescence (Response 3).

Question 51

78. A widely held belief among both men and women is that attractive looking people are intelligent. This belief most likely results from:

• 1. a halo effect.
• 2. the Barnum effect.
• 3. a self-fulfilling prophecy.
• 4. the theory of androgyny.

Answer 51

1. a halo effect. (correct answer)

Feedback: The halo effect occurs when a rater’s opinion of a subject on one characteristic is affected by the quality of the subject on a different characteristic. In this example, people are assumed to be more intelligent just because they are attractive. Another example is a teacher giving a neatly written essay a higher grade for content than a messy essay. The Barnum effect (Response 2) refers to people’s tendency to agree that vague descriptions apply to them (e.g., newspaper horoscopes). The self-fulfilling prophecy or Rosenthal effect (Response 3) refers to the tendency of experimenters to inject their bias into the experiment so that it comes out fulfilling their hypotheses (e.g., unwittingly hinting to subjects how they should respond). The theory of androgyny (Response 4) refers to the belief that androgyny (the blending of typically male and female characteristics) represents a more adaptive and advanced form of personality development.

Question 52

The standard error of the estimate has:

• 1. a direct relationship with the SD of the predictor and an indirect relationship with validity.
• 2. an indirect relationship with the SD of the predictor and a direct relationship with validity.
• 3. a direct relationship with the SD of the criterion and an indirect relationship with validity.
• 4. an indirect relationship with the SD of the criterion and a direct relationship with validity.

Answer 52

Feedback: The standard error of estimate is affected by two variables, the standard deviation of the criterion and criterion-related validity. Intuitively, when validity is high, there should be little error in prediction, and when validity is low, there should be a lot of error in prediction. This is an indirect relationship. The standard error of estimate has a direct relationship with the standard deviation, in that the larger the SD, the larger the error, while conversely, the smaller the SD, the smaller the error.

Question 53

21. The halo effect can be controlled by all of the following except:

• 1. training the raters.
• 2. utilizing forced choice.
• 3. utilizing relative methods.
• 4. utilizing BARS.

Answer 53

Feedback: The halo effect is the tendency to be influenced by only one attribute when giving an overall rating of an individual. Halo effects can be positive, such as giving a positive overall rating because an individual is attractive, or negative, such as giving a negative overall rating because the individual dresses poorly.

The following methods can help control for the halo effect: training the raters (Response 1), a forced response format in which the rater is forced to choose between two equally desirable or undesirable attributes (Response 2), and objective rating methods such as BARS, the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (Response 4). Relative methods (Response 3), which involve comparing employees with one another, do not control for halo effects.

Question 54

In the context of item response theory, item difficulty is defined.

A. by the number of examinees in the tryout sample who answered the item correctly.

B. by the ablility of the item to disciriinate between examinees who fail or succeed on an external criterion.

C. by the probability that an examinee with a given level of the ability measured by the test will answe the item correctly.

D. by the probability that an examinee will pass the item given his/her predicted score on the test.

Answer 54

C. by the probability that an examinee with a given level of the ability measured by the test will answe the item correctly.

An item is diffcult when only examinees with very high levels of the attribute measured by the test can be expected to answer the item correclty at a high probability.

Question 55

39. In an attempt to minimize discrimination against disadvantaged persons, employment testing has frequently included:

• 1. multiple-aptitude batteries.
• 2. work sample tests.
• 3. biodata.
• 4. norm-referenced testing.

Answer 55

Feedback: To minimize discrimination, employment testing has moved from standardized tests in the direction of work sample tests. Work sample tests are excellent and fair predictors of work performance. Testing in general, such as multiple aptitude batteries (Response 1) and norm-referenced testing (Response 4), tend to unfairly discriminate against disadvantaged individuals. Although biodata (Response 3) are generally good predictors of performance, work samples are even better.

Question 56

You have been seeing a couple in therapy for six months. The wife calls you and says she wants to start seeing you for individual sessions also. You should:

A. Bring up this possiblity in the next couples session.

B. tell her you cannot see her indv. until coulples therapy is over.

C. Refere her to another therapist for indiv. therapy.

D. make an appointment wiht her to determine if her problem warrants indiv. therapy.

Answer 56

A. Bring up this possiblity in the next couples session.

Question 57

It is not about___ years of age that most children express more favorable attitudes toward members of their own ethnic or racial group than toward members of other groups.

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

Answer 57

Early studies on in-group preferences found that children typically demonstrates preferences for members of their own ethnic/racial group and gender by about age 4 and 5, respectively.

A. CORRECT. By age 4 years of age, children typically express more favorable attitudes toward members of their own ethnic group than members of other ethnic groups.

Question 59

In order to extinguish a classically conditioned response, one should omit the:

• 1. conditioned stimulus.
• 2. unconditioned stimulus.
• 3. conditioned response.
• 4. unconditioned response.

Answer 59

Feedback: Classically conditioned responses are based on pairing initially neutral stimuli with unconditioned stimuli, until the neutral stimulus eventually elicits a conditioned response. To extinguish this conditioned response, one would simply continue to present the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus until the pairing is slowly erased.

Question 60

A mental health facility establishes a new policy that prohibits the use of all forms of positive punishment to control the behavior of its inpatients. Which of the following techniques would be unacceptable under this policy?

A. verbal reprimands (e.g., yelling stop after an undesirable behavior).

B. response cost( e.g., removing TV priveleges after an undesirable behavior)

C. Premack principle (e.g., making TV privileges contingent on the performance of a desirable behavior)

D. time out (e.g., placing the individual in an empty room for ten min after an undersirable behavior).

Answer 60

A. CORRECT: verbal reprimands (e.g., yelling stop after an undesirable behavior). they involve applying a stimulus after a behavior in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.

Positive punishment involves applying a stimulus following a behavior to decreased the frequency of that behavior.

Time-out is a type of neg punishment

Question 61

Obtaining research participants for a study on the sexual practices of single young adults from computer dating servces, “single clubs” and activities for singles sponsored by a variety of organizations would increase:

A. statistical power

B. statistical significance

C. Internal validity

D. External validity

Answer 61

D. External validity

Researcher is obtaining participants from a variety of “natural” settings.

External validity refers to the generalizability of research results. When participants are selected from natural settings (e.g., settings where singles are likely to go to meet other singles) this will increase the generalizability of the results.

Question 62

1. A culturally encapsulated therapist:

• 1. is mindful and sensitive to race/culture.
• 2. disregards race/culture.
• 3. generalizes based on race/culture.
• 4. typically treats patients who share the same cultural background with the therapist.

Answer 62

Feedback: A culturally encapsulated therapist is someone who tends to make inappropriate generalizations about a particular group of clients based on race or culture (Response 3). More specifically, the therapist makes narrow assumptions about reality, is insensitive to cultural variations among individuals, disregards evidence disconfirming the superiority of the dominant culture, resorts to technique-oriented strategies and short-term solutions, and judges others according to the encapsulated therapist’s self-reference criteria. This is contrasted with culturally competent therapists (Response 1), who are aware of their own cultural values as well as the culture of their patients, and work to acquire the skills and knowledge to provide appropriate and effective treatment.

Question 63

117. A behavior is reinforced on average every third time it occurs. The schedule of reinforcement being used is:
118. fixed interval.
119. variable interval.
120. fixed ratio.
121. variable ratio. (correct answer)

Answer 63

Feedback: This is a difficult question that requires careful reading. In a variable ratio schedule, behavior is reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses. Slot machines are an example of a variable ratio schedule. The key words ‘on average’ should tip you off that it is a variable schedule, because the number of responses that are required for reinforcement keep changing. In a fixed ratio schedule (Response 3), reinforcement would come after exactly the same number of responses each time, and there would be no need for an ‘average.’ What’s also tricky is that the word ‘time’ is used. Some people will assume that this is an interval schedule, since interval schedules are based on elapsed time. However, the use of ‘time’ here implies the number of times the behavior is emitted (ratio), and not elapsed time (interval).

Question 64

The key feature that distinguishes the worries of Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) from normal worries is that:

• 1. GAD worries are illogical.
• 2. GAD worries are ego-dystonic.
• 3. GAD worries are difficult to control.
• 4. GAD worries are associated with low self-esteem.

Answer 64

3. GAD worries are difficult to control. (correct answer)

Feedback: If you were not familiar with the diagnostic criteria of GAD, you may have been able to reason this question through using your personal experience. Normal worries are frequently illogical (Response 1), ego-dystonic or uncomfortable (Response 2), and at times associated with low self-esteem (Response 4). According to the DSM-IV-TR, in order to be diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), an individual must find the worry difficult to control (Response 3); in other words, the worry is not manageable and consequently interferes with functioning.

Question 65

The period of attachment during the first year of life most resembles:

• 1. imprinting.
• 2. a sensitive period.
• 3. a critical period.
• 4. a zone of proximal development.

Answer 65

• 2. a sensitive period. (correct answer)

Feedback: In a sensitive period of development, certain things must occur for development to proceed normally, yet if they don’t occur, future events may nevertheless be able to compensate. In a critical period of development, certain things must occur for development to proceed normally, and if they don’t, the individual will not be able to compensate in the future. It appears that emotional and social development (including attachment) have sensitive periods but not critical periods. In contrast, physical development does have critical periods (Response 3). For example, in the embryonic state of prenatal development, teratogenic agents have their greatest effect. According to Conrad Lorenz’s research on imprinting (Response 1), certain stimuli elicit innate behavior patterns during a critical period of an animal’s development. For example, Lorenz found that ducklings who imprinted on him between 12 and 17 hours after birth continued to follow him even when other ducks later became available as models. Imprinting has not been shown to occur in humans. The zone of proximal development (Response 4) is described in Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development, and is not relevant here.

Question 66

The Folstein Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is most commonly administered to:

• 1. children.
• 2. older adults.
• 3 people with mental retardation.
• 4. people with suspected psychosis.

Answer 66

2. older adults. (correct answer)

Feedback: The Folstein Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE), introduced in 1975, is a brief examination of cognitive functioning for older adults. Results are scored out of 30 possible . Scores can be used to detect a decline in cognitive functioning, to follow the course of a patient’s illness, or to monitor response to treatment. While it can be administered to children (Response 1), the assessment of children is not its most common use. People with mental retardation (Response 3) are generally evaluated with an IQ test, such as the Stanford-Binet, along with a test of adaptive functioning, such as the Vineland. Although a mental status examination can help to assess for psychotic processes (Response 4), the MMSE does not. It exclusively assesses cognitive functioning.

Question 67

Which of the following is not an emperically supported treatment for primary insomnia?

A. stimulus control therapy

B. sleep restriction

C. Cognitive therapy

D. habit reversal training

Answer 67

A number of non-pharmacological treatments have been identified as emperically validated treatments for primary insomnia.

A. Incorrect- this has been commonly used tx for insomnia.

B. Incorrect- sleep restriction has been found to be effective.

C. Incorrect- cog. therapy for insomnia involves identifying and replacing dysfunctional thoughts and and attitudes that underlie the person’s sleep problems.

D. CORRECT- habit reversal training is used to eliminate habits and other undesirable repetitive beh. including tics, trichotillomania and stuttering.

Question 68

23. You have been treating a couple in therapy for the past two years. The couple has recently decided to divorce. According to research in this area, what is the most likely outcome?

• 1. The woman will adapt better to the divorce than the man.
• 2. The man will adapt better to the divorce than the woman.
• 3. Both the man and the woman will adapt poorly.
• 4. Both the man and the woman will adapt well.

Answer 68

Feedback: The studies on the effects of divorce have shown that women find divorce less emotionally problematic than men. For example, suicide rates are up to six times higher in men who are separated or divorced compared with men who are in a relationship.

Question 69

20. The part of the brain responsible for consolidation of long-term memory is:

• 1. the medulla.
• 2. the hypothalamus.
• 3. the hippocampus.
• 4. the cerebellum.

Answer 69

Feedback: The hippocampus, within the temporal lobes, is involved in the consolidation of long-term memory. Response 1, the medulla, is a part of the brainstem, and is involved in basic functions including respiration, cardiovascular activity, sleep, and consciousness. Response 2, the hypothalamus (along with the pituitary), constitutes the master endocrine gland, involved in temperature regulation, the sleep-wake cycle, general arousal, and movement. Response 4, the cerebellum, is involved in movement and balance.

Question 70

33. Partial complex seizures typically originate in:

• 1. the frontal lobes.
• 2. the brain stem.
• 3. the temporal lobes.
• 4. the limbic system.

Answer 70

Seizures more commonly happen in the temporal lobes.

Feedback: The temporal lobes are most commonly the originating site of complex partial seizures. Keep in mind, though, that such seizures can originate in any cortical region. Complex partial seizures are frequently preceded by an aura, and usually include purposeless behavior, lip smacking, unintelligible speech, and impaired consciousness. The frontal lobes (Response 1) are critical to personality, emotionality, inhibition, planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions. The brain stem (Response 2) includes the pons, medulla, and reticular activating system (RAS). The limbic system (Response 4) is an interconnected group of organs and structures (e.g., amygdala, hippocampus) involved in memory and emotion.

Question 71

18. A psychologist works in a small town, where she is the only psychologist. Her ex-boyfriend requests treatment from her, for a recently developed Specific Phobia. She has not been intimate with him for over ten years. If she consents to treat him, she:

• 1. is acting ethically.
• 2. is acting unethically.
• 3. may be acting unethically, depending on the circumstances.
• 4. this issue is not covered in the ethical principles.

Answer 71

Feedback: The Ethics Code clearly states that psychologists never accept former sexual partners as therapy patients.

Question 72

26. Which of the following is generally considered to be the best treatment for agoraphobia?

• 1. Flooding.
• 2. Systematic desensitization.
• 3. Implosive therapy.
• 4. Classical extinction.

Answer 72

1. Flooding. (correct answer)

Feedback: Flooding involves exposure to a feared stimulus (in vivo or in imagination) with response prevention. Research suggests it is the best treatment for generalized phobias such as agoraphobia. Based on classical conditioning theory, flooding is an example of classical extinction. The conditioned stimulus (the feared object or situation) is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus, until the conditioned response (anxiety) is eventually extinguished. Although classical extinction (Response 4) is a viable response, flooding is more specific. Implosive therapy (Response 3) is also based on classical extinction but is always done in imagination and includes the exploration of psychosexual themes. Systematic desensitization (Response 2) is based on counterconditioning.

Question 73

115. In regard to testimonials, the APA Ethics Code stipulates that:
116. testimonials may neither be solicited nor used.

•

2. testimonials may be used, but not solicited.

•

3. testimonials may be used and solicited as long as they are not solicited from current patients or those vulnerable to undue influence. (correct answer)

•

4. testimonials may not be solicited, however they may be used as long as they are not from current patients or those vulnerable to undue influence.

Answer 73

Feedback: The APA Ethics Code states that it is permissible to solicit and use testimonials as long as they are not solicited from current patients or those vulnerable to undue influence (e.g., a former patient with dependent personality disorder).

Question 74

72. A therapist asks the members of a psychotherapy group to refrain from asking questions of others and to speak only about themselves. The group members comply with this request. This scenario is an example of:

• 1. a group norm.
• 2. a group task.
• 3. a group expectation.
• 4. social facilitation.

Answer 74

Feedback: A group norm is a standard of behavior that group members follow. It can be formally initiated by a leader or it can informally emerge from the members’ behavior. A group task (Response 2) is a specific assignment given to a group. Some types of group tasks include conjunctive, disjunctive, and additive. Group expectation (Response 3) is an informally used term that means just what it sounds like, either the expectations that a group has or the expectations that others have for the group. Social facilitation (Response 4) refers to the tendency to perform better on simple, over-learned tasks when one is in the presence of others.

Question 75

95. Which ethnic group in the United States has the highest prevalence rate of hypertension?

• 1. Native Americans
• 2. Asian Americans
• 3. African Americans
• 4. Hispanic Americans

Answer 75

3. African Americans (correct answer)

Feedback: Compared with Caucasians and every other ethnic group in the United States, hypertension in African Americans is not only more prevalent but also starts at a younger age, is more severe, and causes much more target organ damage.

Question 76

In Brown vs. Board of Education (1954) the Supreme Court ruled that racial segregation of children in public schools was a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment. Testimony was presented based on innovative psychological tests using dolls to identify harm inflicted on the plaintiff children due to segregation. Who conducted these tests?

• 1. Thurgood Marshall.
• 2. John Davis.
• 3. Kenneth Clark.
• 4. Linda Brown.

Answer 76

Feedback: In Brown vs. Board of Education, the NAACP took up the case on behalf of Linda Brown (Response 4), a black girl attending fifth grade in the public schools in Topeka, Kansas, who was denied admission into a white elementary school.

Thurgood Marshall was the NAACP counsel (Response 1), and John Davis (Response 2) argued on behalf of the defendant school officials. It was Professor Kenneth Clark of the City College of New York who created and performed innovative psychological tests using dolls.

Question 77

Kochanska and Knaack (2003) conclude that effortful (inhibitory) control is an important contributor to the early development of conscious. This research found that effortful control becomes a stable, coherent trait by _____ months of age.

A. 8-12

B. 12-18

C. 18-30

D. 33-45

Answer 77

Research on the development of conscience indicates that its precursers are apparent during the second and third years of life.

D. CORRECT- effortful control is modestrly coherent across task at age 22 months but does not become highly coherent (trail-like) until 33 months of age. They also found that children with higher effortful control at 22 to 45 months had stronger consciences at 56 months of age.

Question 78

6. Semantic memory involves:

• 1. the transfer from sensory memory to short term memory.
• 2. the transfer from short-term memory to long-term memory.
• 3. the meaning of the words.
• 4. the pronunciation of the words.

Answer 78

Feedback: Semantic memory is memory that has to do with the meaning of words.

Question 79

The concept of instrumental learning was introduced by:

• 1. Thorndike.
• 2. Pavlov.
• 3. Tolman.
• 4. Kohler.

Answer 79

• 1. Thorndike. (correct answer)

Instrumental learning is another term for operant conditioning and is associated with Thorndike and Skinner. Thorndike developed the law of effect, which basically proposes that people repeat behaviors that have positive consequences (what Skinner would call positive reinforcement). Initially, he also proposed that negative consequences (what Skinner termed punishment) decreased behavior but he later revised the law of effect, proposing that negative consequences may or may not decrease behavior. Pavlov (Response 2) is known for classical conditioning, Tolman (Response 3) for latent learning, and Kohler (Response 4) for insight learning.

Question 80

103. Radiation treatment for children with tumors in the cerebellum (cerebellar astrocytomas) may result in:
104. learning problems or disabilities.
105. impaired visuospatial abilities.
106. memory problems.
107. apraxias.

Answer 80

Among childhood brain tumors, 15-25% are cerebellar astrocytomas, which can be either benign or malignant. Chemotherapy is usually the preferred mode of treatment to avoid the problematic side effects of radiation. In young children, radiation can cause learning problems as well as reduction in growth. Other common side effects of radiation treatment for cerebellar astrocytomas include fatigue, skin rashes, and decreased appetite.

Question 81

According to Helm’s White Identity Development Model, the reintegration stage is characterized by:

A. a realization that whites have a responsibilty for racism.

B. adoption of a “culture-blind” perspective.

C. embracing white identity while rejecting racist views of minorities.

D. adopting a belief in white superiority and minority inferiority.

Answer 81

Six statuses: Contact, Disintegration, Reintegration, Pseudo-independence, Immersion-Emmersion, and autonomy.

D. CORRECT. the disintegration phase, which is marked by considerable conflict, may be resolved by adopting traditional racist views, which characteriszes the reintegration phase.

Question 82

Interval recording is used:

• 1. in conjunction with event sampling.
• 2. when a behavior occurs infrequently.
• 3. when a behavior has no clear beginning, middle, or end. (correct answer)
• 4. to obtain a complete record of an event.

Answer 82

3. when a behavior has no clear beginning, middle, or end. (correct answer)

Feedback: Interval sampling is a type of behavioral sampling that is useful when a behavior has no distinct beginning or end. A period of time is broken into smaller parts (e.g., one hour is broken into five minute intervals) and it is recorded whether or not the behavior took place during each interval. Thus, interval sampling is one type of time sampling. Event sampling is useful when a behavior occurs infrequently (Response 2). Responses 1 & 4 are not correct.

Question 83

90. A gradual decrease in an unconditioned response due to repeated presentation of the unconditioned stimulus is termed:

• 1. classical extinction.
• 2. satiation.
• 3. habituation.
• 4. operant extinction.

Answer 83

3. habituation. (correct answer)

Feedback: Habituation is a concept from classical conditioning. It occurs when a person is repeatedly exposed to an unconditioned stimulus and, as a result, the unconditioned response eventually decreases. For example, people habituate to the hum of the computer and no longer notice it after a while. Classical extinction (Response 1) involves repeated presentation of the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus; eventually, the pairing between the two is extinguished. Satiation (Response 2), an operant conditioning concept, occurs when a reinforcer loses its value over time. For example, if you were reinforced with hot fudge sundaes three times a day, you would quickly find that the sundaes were no longer very reinforcing. Operant extinction (Response 4) refers to withholding reinforcement for a previously reinforced behavior. For example, if a teacher stops paying attention (a reinforcer) to the disruptive behavior of a student, the student’s behavior will slowly decrease (be extinguished).

Question 84

From the perspective of Rational-Emotive- Behavior Therapy:

A. irrational beliefs are acquired primarily through social learning processes.

B. irrational beliefs are acquired largelyare acquired largely through the process of selective reinforcement.

C. people are biologically prone to the acquisition of irrational beliefs.

D. people adopt irrational beliefs as the result of early traumatic events that are still unresolved.

Answer 84

C. CORRECT- Ellis believed that the majority of behavior has a biological basis. With regard to irrational thoughts, he proposed that they are attributable to natural tendencies towards, for example, moodiness, negativsm, and excitement-seeking.

Question 85

15. According to Marcia, adolescents can be in one of four possible identity states. Which of the following best describes foreclosure?

• 1. Commitment and resolution of crisis.
• 2. Commitment and absence of crisis. (correct answer)
• 3. Crisis and absence of commitment.
• 4. Absence of both crisis and commitment.

Answer 85

Feedback: According to James Marcia, there are four possible identity statuses for adolescents. The adolescent in foreclosure commits himself or herself to a goal without exploring alternatives, thus there is commitment with an absence of crisis. In identity achievement, the person has struggled and explored several options and developed goals and values. He or she has resolved the crisis, and made a commitment (Response 1). In moratorium, the person is actively struggling with exploring options and making a decision, but has not yet made a commitment. There is crisis and absence of commitment (Response 3). In identity diffusion, the adolescent lacks direction and is not seriously considering options or trying to develop goals, thus, there is an absence of both crisis and commitment (Response 4).

Question 86

When should management reward group performance rather than individual performance?

• 1. To reduce social loafing.
• 2. On a task that is high in interdependence.
• 3. On a task that is low in interdependence.
• 4. On a task that is conjunctive.

Answer 86

Feedback: In an interdependent task, group members need to work together in order to succeed, therefore rewarding group performance is most sensible (response 2)

In a task that is low in interdependence (Response 3), individual performance is more important; therefore individual rewards would be more useful.

Social loafing (Response 1) occurs when people in a group work less hard than they would if they were being evaluated individually. The solution to social loafing is to make individuals more accountable for their contributions.

On a conjunctive task (Response 4), the group’s overall functioning is affected by the least effective member (e.g., the one who makes the most errors). Group rewards would be inappropriate here as well.

Question 87

Increasing test length:

• 1. will affect only reliability.
• 2. will affect reliability more than validity.
• 3. will have an equal effect on reliability and validity.
• 4. will affect neither reliability, nor validity.

Answer 87

Feedback: Increasing test length will have a direct impact on reliability since it is one of the key factors that affect reliability. Everything else being equal, the more items a test has, the more reliable the test is. Since reliability, in turn, puts a ceiling on validity, increasing test length will also affect validity. However, the effect on validity will be less direct. Overall, reliability will be more affected than validity.

Question 88

Handedness appears to be genetically determined. Preference for handedness first expresses itself at ____ and becomes firmly established by age ____:

• 1. birth, four to five.
• 2. age two, four to five.
• 3. age two, seven to eight. (correct answer)
• 4. age four, seven to eight.

Feedback: While hand preference typically emerges around age two, it only becomes firmly established around age seven to eight. This age corresponds to the age associated with increased brain specialization and decreased brain plasticity.

Answer 88

age two, seven to eight. (correct answer)

Feedback: While hand preference typically emerges around age two, it only becomes firmly established around age seven to eight. This age corresponds to the age associated with increased brain specialization and decreased brain plasticity.

Question 89

Beck emphasizes:

• 1. automatic thinking and logical errors.
• 2. irrational beliefs.
• 3. positive self-statements.
• 4. positive and negative reinforcement.

Answer 89

Feedback: Although there are similarities in terminology, you need to know which terms apply to which cognitive theory.

Beck is the founder of Cognitive Therapy. He is known for “automatic thinking” and “logical errors.”

His contemporary Ellis, the founder of Rational-Emotive Therapy, coined the term “irrational beliefs” (Response 2).

Positive self-statements (Response 3) are a focus of the Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy of Meichenbaum.

Positive and negative reinforcement (Response 4) are most commonly associated with Skinner, and sometimes with Thorndike.

Question 90

The “storm and stress theory” of adolescent mental health proposes that most adolescents experience externsive physical, social, and psychological turmoil. Research conducted in the past three or four decades on this topic.

A. confirms that most adolescents do experience substantial “storm and stress”

B. Demonstrates that “storm and stress” is characteristic of adolescents in westernized cultures only.

C. indicates that, for the large majority of individuals, adolescence is not a time of significant “storm and stress”

D. shows that “storm and stress” is largely due to increases in family conflicts during the adolescent period.

Answer 90

C. indicates that, for the large majority of individuals, adolescence is not a time of significant “storm and stress”. Studies suggest that, while adolescents may exhibit greater emotional lability, only about 10-20% of adolescents exhibit some type of severe emotional turmoil, which is approximately the same percent as found in the adult population.

Research conducted in the past few decades has largely refuted Hall (1904) proposition that adolescence is a time of substantial “storm and stress”

D. incorrect- in fact, contrary to the popular view of adol. the researchc suggests that family conflicts do not actually increase substantially during this period.

Question 91

106. Following an incident of spousal abuse, the intervention with the lowest recidivism rate would be:
107. imprisoning the perpetrator.
108. court-ordered group therapy focusing on issues of abuse.
109. the woman leaving the husband and going to a shelter.
110. crisis marital counseling.

Answer 91

Feedback: Unfortunately, there is not only a high incidence of spousal abuse, but there is also a high incidence of repeat offenses. Arrest and imprisonment is the intervention that has been demonstrated to have the greatest likelihood of preventing future incidents.

Question 92

55. Scores from non-parallel measures can be equated through the use of:

• 1. classical test theory.
• 2. empirical criterion keying.
• 3. item response theory.
• 4. ipsative measures.

Answer 92

3. item response theory. (correct answer)

Feedback: Item response theory (IRT), also termed latent trait theory, is used to calculate to what extent a specific item on a test correlates with an underlying construct. Put differently, item response theory looks at a subject’s performance on a test item as representing the degree to which the subject has a latent trait. For example, correctly answering a difficult statistics question would indicate a subject is high in the latent trait of “statistics ability.” It can be used, therefore, to compare a subject’s performance on two measures that have different types or number of items, or are scored differently. IRT is used to develop individually tailored “adaptive” tests, in which an answer to one question in a domain area determines whether another question in that area will be asked. Such tests end up having the fewest number of items necessary to assess a subject’s performance. Classical test theory (Response 1) views an individual’s test score as being the sum of true score variability and error score variability (X = T + E). In empirical criterion keying (Response 2), which was used in the development of the original MMPI, items are chosen based on their ability to discriminate group membership. In other words, a specific item on the MMPI was only kept on the Schizophrenia scale if people without Schizophrenia and people with Schizophrenia answered it differently. Ipsative measures (Response 4) yield only information on an individual, without any information about how that individual compares to others. For example, an ipsative measure might show that Mr. Smith likes gardening more than cooking, but doesn’t tell us whether he likes gardening more or less than the average person does.

Question 93

73. The presence of incoherence and loose associations is most suggestive of:

• 1. Schizophrenia, Catatonic Type.
• 2. Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type.
• 3. Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type.
• 4. Delusional Disorder.

Answer 93

Feedback: Incoherence and loose associations are typical of Schizophrenia, Disorganized Type, while catatonic stupor, rigidity, or unusual posturing are typical of Schizophrenia, Catatonic Type (Response 1). Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type (Response 3), is characterized by systematized delusions or frequent auditory hallucinations related to a single theme. Delusional Disorder (Response 4) is a psychotic disorder that involves non-bizarre delusions and no previous history of active phase schizophrenic symptoms.

Question 94

93. In using an empirical criterion keying approach to construct a personality inventory, a researcher would select items that:

• 1. have a high correlation with each other and a low correlation with outside criteria.
• 2. discriminate among various criterion groups. (correct answer)
• 3. have high criterion-related validity coefficients.
• 4. provide empirical support for the personality traits measured.

Answer 94

2. discriminate among various criterion groups. (correct answer)

Feedback: Empirical criterion keying was most notably used in the development of the original MMPI. It involves choosing items based on their ability to discriminate between different criterion groups. For example, items were included in the schizophrenia scale of the MMPI if people with schizophrenia responded positively to those items while people without schizophrenia responded negatively to them.

Question 95

When working with the AA exhibiting “healthy cultural paranoia”a White thp would be best advised to:

• refer clt to an AA thp
• use a culturally sensitive approach that ameliorates the clt’s parnoia.
• help the clt bring feelings of suspicious, frustration, and antipathy toward whites into conscious awareness.
• help the clt understand that his/her beh. is manifestation of resistance

Answer 95

• help the clt bring feelings of suspicious, frustration, and antipathy toward whites into conscious awareness.
• Ridley recommends that therapists confront the meaning of the client’s cultural paranoia by bringing his/her feelings into coscious awareness and then help the clt clarify when it is appropriate or inappropriate to self-disclose.

Question 96

In her third session, a client tells you that she is also seeing a sex therapist. Recently, this sex therapist had the client take off her top and then massaged the client’s breasts in a demonstration of sensate focus techniques. The best course of action would be to:

• 1. recommend that she terminate therapy and file an ethics charge.
• 2. discuss your ethical concerns with the therapist.
• 3. explore the impact this is having on her, and based on her reactions (e.g., her feelings about whether it’s therapeutic or not) decide on your course of action.
• 4. discuss her dynamics.

Answer 96

Feedback: The behavior of the sex therapist is unethical. This is a clear case of a therapist exploiting the client in the guise of doing therapy. Of the responses here, the best one would be to recommend that your client terminate therapy and file an ethics charge. Response 3 may look like a possible alternative; however, even if your patient somehow feels it is therapeutic, the therapist’s actions are clearly an abuse of power, are exploitative, and are not part of any reputable treatment protocol. Discussing your concerns with the therapist (Response 2) could constitute a breach of confidentiality. Discussing the patient’s dynamics (Response 4) does not sufficiently address the legal and ethical concerns.

Question 97

A student is enrolled in a graduate level class on psychological issues related to HIV. In the course of the semester the instructor self-discloses that he is HIV+. This disclosure makes the student uncomfortable and he then goes to the chair of the department and requests permission to withdraw from the class. The deadline for withdrawal has passed and the department chair refuses his request. Which of the following statements is accurate about this situation?

• 1. The instructor’s behavior was unethical; the student’s was ethical.
• 2. The instructor’s behavior was ethical; the student’s was unethical.
• 3. The department chair’s behavior was ethical since he should only allow the student to withdraw if the instructor’s behavior was unethical.
• 4. The instructor’s behavior did not violate any principles or standards of the APA Ethics Code.

Answer 97

4. The instructor’s behavior did not violate any principles or standards of the APA Ethics Code. (correct answer)

There is nothing unethical about the instructor’s self-disclosure of his HIV status (ruling out Response 1). Nor is there anything unethical about the student requesting to withdraw from the class, even though the deadline has passed (ruling out Response 2). Depending on the rules and procedures of the institution, the chair most likely would have the discretion to allow the student to withdraw, regardless of whether the instructor’s behavior was ethical (ruling out Response 3).

Question 98

A nine-year-old is asked why one should not steal. According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, she would probably say:

• 1. stealing is against the law.
• 2. one can be punished for stealing.
• 3. stealing is wrong.
• 4. thieves are bad people.

Answer 98

one can be punished for stealing. (correct answer)

Feedback: According to Kohlberg, a nine-year-old would be in the stage of preconventional morality. Specifically, this response typifies the punishment-obedience orientation, with a focus on avoiding punishment. Response 1 is characteristic of the law and order orientation of conventional morality, with a focus on doing one’s duty. Response 3 is characteristic of post-conventional morality, based on universal principles of justice, equality, and respect for life. Response 4 is typical of the good boy/good girl orientation of conventional morality, which involves concern for gaining approval through obedience.

Question 99

On the MMPI-2, an attempt to “fake good” is suggested by which of the following?

A. elevated F with low L and K scale scores.

B. elevated F and L with low K scale scores.

C. low F with elevated L and K scale scores.

D. low K with moderately high L and very high F scale scores.

Answer 99

C. CORRECT. low F with elevated L and K scale scores. Low score on the F (infrequency) scale indicates an absence of psychopathology, social conformity, or an attempt to fake good; and a high score on the K (correction) suggests an atempt to fake good, denial or lack of insight.

A. incorrect- high F scale with low L and K scores suggests attempt to fake bad

B. incorrect- this pattern is not indivative of attempt to fake good.

D. incorrect- although an elevated L score may suggest attempt to fake good, a high F scale and a low K score may indicate an attempt to fake bad.

Question 100

118. According to the tenets of Alcoholics Anonymous, addiction:

•

1. is an overlearned habit.

•

2. is a disease.

•

3. is merely societal mislabeling.

•

4. results from inadequate self worth.

Answer 100

Feedback: 2. is a disease: Alcoholics Anonymous adheres to a disease model of addiction. By contrast, Marlatt’s approach to managing addiction, which is cognitive behavioral (skills for relapse prevention are taught), views addiction primarily as an overlearned habit (Response 1). The concept of mislabeling (Response 3) is associated with Thomas Szasz, whose somewhat controversial book, “The Myth of Mental Illness,” argues that psychiatric diagnoses are labels devoid of significance. While many alcoholics have low self-esteem, it is not believed that low self-esteem causes addiction (Response 4).

Question 101

The world health organization’s internaltional pilot study of schizophrenia and deperminants of outcome study have compared pts with schizophrenia from non-Western developing countries to those from Wstern industrialized countries. This research has found that patients from developing and industrialized countries tend to differ in terms of:

A. age and gender ratios.

B. course and outcomes

C. symptom profiles

D. gender and prognosis

Answer 101

B. course and outcomes

Developing countries were much more likely to exhibit an acute onset of sxs, shorter clinical course and a complete remission of sx.s

Age, gender and sx profile were not found to differ.

Question 102

A menopausal woman who is considering hormone replacement therapy should be advised that this treatment may do all of the following except.

A. reduce the risk for osteoporosis.

B. reduce or eliminate hot flashes

C. increase sex drive

D. reduce mood symptoms.

Answer 102

HRT continues to be controversial because it is not only associated with a number of benefits but also with some negative side effects.

A. Incorrect- this is a major advantages of HRT.

B. Incorrect- HRT is effective for alleviating hot flashes.

C. CORRECT- research on the effects of HRT on libido is inconsistent, and the best conclusion that can be drawn at this time is that it does not increase sex drive.

Question 103

50. Since the standard error of the measurement is significantly influenced by the reliability coefficient, the range of the standard error of the measurement is:

• 1. -1 to +1.
• 2. 0 to +1.
• 3. 0 to SDx.
• 4. 0 to SDy.

Answer 103

Feedback: The range of the standard error of measurement is always from 0 to the standard deviation of the test (SDx).

The range of the validity coefficient is from -1 to +1 (Response 1).

The range of the reliability coefficient is from 0 to +1 (Response 2).

The range of the standard error of estimate is from 0 to the standard deviation of the criterion (SDy)(Response 4).

Question 104

According to the preamble, the goal(s) of APA’s Ethical Principles of Psychologists and Code of Conduct (2002) can best be summarized as:

• 1. the welfare and protection of consumers of psychological services.
• 2. the welfare and protection of consumers of psychological services and education regarding ethical standards of conduct.
• 3. beneficence and nonmaleficence.
• 4. establishment of the highest possible ethical standards.

Answer 104

2. the welfare and protection of consumers of psychological services and education regarding ethical standards of conduct. (correct answer)

Feedback: APA’s 2002 Ethics Code describes two goals in the preamble: “The welfare of and protection of the individuals and groups with whom psychologists work” (Response 1), and “The education of members, students, and the public regarding ethical standards of the discipline.” Beneficence and nonmaleficence (Response 3) constitute the first ethical principle. The Ethics Code does not state that it seeks to establish the highest ethical standards (Response 4).