Exam 7 Flashcards
Which of the following theories proposes that physiological arousal and the experience of emotion occur simultaneously and independently in response to a stimulus?
A. Hering’s opponent process theory
B. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory
C. James-Lange theory
D. Cannon-Bard theory
D. Cannon-Bard theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Emotions and Stress-047 Answer D is correct. Cannon-Bard theory describes all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal and proposes that the physiological reaction and subjective emotional reaction to a stimulus occur simultaneously and independently. Hering’s opponent process theory (answer A) is a theory of color vision. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory (answer B) proposes that physiological arousal occurs first and then the person looks for external cues that provide a reason for that arousal. According to the James-Lange theory (answer C), emotions are the result of physiological arousal, with different types of arousal producing different emotions.
When a psychologist is providing therapy to an employee through an employee assistance program (EAP), the psychologist:
A. must not provide information to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee whether the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral or referral from the supervisor.
B. must not provide information to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee only when the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral.
C. may provide information about the employee’s attendance to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee only if the employee’s participation is the result of a referral from the supervisor.
D. may provide information about the employee’s attendance to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee when the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral or referral from the supervisor.
A. must not provide information to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee whether the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral or referral from the supervisor.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-090 Answer A is correct. Employees participating in EAPs have the same right to confidentiality as other therapy clients do. Consequently, information about their participation is provided to their supervisors only when the employees have signed an authorization to release information. This is true whether participation is the result of a self-referral or a referral from the supervisor. (Note that, ordinarily, the authorization will be to release information only pertaining to the employee’s attendance and adherence to EAP recommendations.)
Current indications for deep brain stimulation (DBS) include all of the following except:
A. Parkinson’s disease.
B. atypical parkinsonism.
C. essential tremor.
D. dystonia.
B. atypical parkinsonism.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-096 Answer B is correct. DBS is a surgical treatment for Parkinson’s disease, essential tremor, and dystonia (especially primary dystonia) that involves implanting a device that sends electrical signals to areas in the brain that control movement. It is contraindicated for atypical parkinsonism, which shares some symptoms with Parkinson’s disease but is caused by other disorders, including progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, corticobasal degeneration, and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Unlike Parkinson’s disease, atypical parkinsonism does not respond well to treatment with levodopa or DBS.
Which of the following is associated with stage 6 of Kohlberg’s model of moral development?
A. transcendental morality
B. social contract orientation
C. interpersonal concordance
D. universal ethical principles
D. universal ethical principles
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-125 Answer D is correct. Kohlberg’s model of moral development consists of three levels, with each level including two stages. The third level is the post-conventional level and consists of stages 5 and 6: Stage 5 is the social contract and individual rights stage (answer B), and stage 6 is the universal ethical principles stage (answer D). Transcendental morality (answer A) was a seventh stage that Kohlberg proposed later in his life. However, due to a lack of evidence for its existence, he considered it to be speculative. Interpersonal concordance (answer C) is another name for stage 3 of Kohlberg’s model, which is better known as the “good-boy/good girl” stage.
The Dot Counting Test (DCT) is most useful:
A. for detecting dysfunction in selective attention.
B. for detecting feigned cognitive impairment.
C. as a screening test for mild neurocognitive disorder.
D. as a screening test for attention deficits.
B. for detecting feigned cognitive impairment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Clinical Tests-176 Answer B is correct. The DCT requires examinees to count grouped and ungrouped dots printed on separate cards as quickly as possible. Poor effort is suggested when the time taken to count grouped dots (which should be easier to count) is equal to or greater than the time taken to count ungrouped dots. It allows examiners to detect poor test-taking effort and whether it was intentional (e.g., due to malingering) or unintentional and represents normal effort for several diagnostic groups (e.g., depression, schizophrenia, head injury).
Statistical power is increased by all of the following except:
A. a large sample.
B. a large level of significance (.05 rather than .01).
C. a parametric (versus nonparametric) statistical test.
D. population heterogeneity on the dependent variable.
D. population heterogeneity on the dependent variable.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-36 Answer D is correct. Statistical power is affected by several factors including the variability of the population with regard to status on the dependent variable: The more homogeneous the population is (i.e., the lower its variability), the more homogeneous the groups drawn from that population will be and, consequently, the easier it will be to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. In other words, greater population homogeneity (not heterogeneity) is associated with greater statistical power. Other factors that increase statistical power are listed in answers A, B, and C.
Intravenous administration of ________ is the primary treatment for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
A. vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
B. vitamin B1 (thiamine)
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin D
B. vitamin B1 (thiamine)
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-105 Answer B is correct. If you are unfamiliar with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, knowing that Korsakoff syndrome is also known as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and is caused by a thiamine deficiency would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is the acute disorder that is caused by a thiamine deficiency and involves confusion, abnormal eye movements, and ataxia. When it is not adequately treated, it leads to Korsakoff syndrome, which is a chronic disorder that is due to permanent damage to the brain and involves anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation.
A graduate student recently completed a research study and simultaneously submitted the article he wrote about the study to three APA journals. This is:
A. acceptable.
B. acceptable only if he informed each journal that he had submitted the article to two other journals.
C. acceptable only if, after finding out that one journal intends to publish the article, he immediately notifies the other journals and withdraws his submission to those journals.
D. unacceptable.
D. unacceptable.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-197 Answer D is correct. Simultaneous (concurrent) submission of an article to multiple journals is not addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or Canadian Code of Ethics. However, as noted by Belcher (2019), it is unacceptable for the author(s) of a journal article to simultaneously submit the same journal article to more than one journal. Instead, the author(s) should submit the article to one journal at a time and wait for it to be rejected by one journal before submitting it to another journal.
Which of the following tests is useful for assessing children 3 to 10 years of age who have sensory, motor, or speech deficits and was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy?
A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children
B. Leiter International Performance Scale
C. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale
D. Cognitive Abilities Test
C. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-126 Answer C is correct. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale, Third Edition (CMMS) does not require verbal responses or fine motor skills. It was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy, but it is also useful for children with sensory, speech, or other motor impairments or limited English proficiency. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (answer A) is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3:0 through 18:11 and was designed to be a culture fair test by minimizing cultural content and verbal instructions and responses. The Leiter International Performance Scale, Third Edition (answer B) is a nonverbal measure of cognitive abilities for individuals 3 to 75+ years of age who have cognitive delays, speech or hearing impairments, autism spectrum disorder, or limited English proficiency. The Cognitive Abilities Test, Form 7 (answer D) assesses cognitive abilities in verbal, quantitative, and nonverbal domains and is appropriate for students in grades K through 12.
Studies investigating the relationship between Baumrind’s parenting styles and children’s bullying behavior and victimization by a bully have found that:
A. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to victimization and permissive parenting is more strongly related to bullying behavior.
B. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to bullying behavior and permissive parenting is more strongly related to victimization.
C. authoritarian parenting is associated with bullying behavior only and permissive parenting is associated with victimization only.
D. authoritarian parenting is associated with both bullying behavior and victimization, but permissive parenting is not associated with bullying behavior or victimization.
B. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to bullying behavior and permissive parenting is more strongly related to victimization.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-095 Answer B is correct. Research on the impact of parenting style on bullying behavior and victimization by a bully has not produced entirely consistent results. However, the best conclusion that can be drawn from the studies is that authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying behavior and victimization by a bully but that authoritarian parenting is more strongly associated with bullying behavior while permissive parenting is more strongly associated with victimization by a bully.
According to the 4D model of appreciative inquiry, the first stage in organizational change is which of the following?
A. dream
B. detect
C. discover
D. desire
C. discover
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Change and Development-160 Answer C is correct. The 4D model of appreciative inquiry describes organizational change as involving a cycle that consists of four stages. These stages are, in order, discover (or discovery), dream, design, and delivery (or destiny).
Children as young as 3 years of age categorize toys, clothing, and activities by gender. This is due to the acquisition of:
A. gender stability.
B. gender schemas.
C. gender typing.
D. gender constancy.
B. gender schemas.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-056 Answer B is correct. Children use gender schemas to perceive, encode, and interpret information about themselves and others. For example, by 3 years of age, boys and girls usually have well-established gender schemas for toys, clothing, and activities (e.g., they consider trucks to be toys for boys and dolls to be toys for girls). The acquisition of gender stability and gender constancy (answers A and D) are the second and third stages, respectively, of Kohlberg’s gender identity development model. They can be eliminated as correct answers because they emerge after 4 years of age. Gender typing (answer C) can be eliminated because it refers to expectations about the behaviors of others based on their biological sex.
Of the Big Five personality traits, level of __________ has been most consistently identified as an accurate predictor of level of marital satisfaction and stability.
A. agreeableness
B. extraversion
C. conscientiousness
D. neuroticism
D. neuroticism
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- School and Family Influences-114 Answer D is correct. With regard to marriage, high levels of neuroticism have been most consistently linked to a number of negative outcomes including marital dissatisfaction and an increased risk for separation and divorce. See, e.g., B. R. Karney and T. N. Bradbury, The longitudinal course of marital quality and stability: A review of theory, method, and research, Psychological Bulletin, 118(1), 3-34, 1995.
In his research on conformity to group norms, Asch (1951):
A. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms.
B. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects did not conform to group norms.
C. used an ambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms.
D. used an ambiguous stimulus and found that subjects did not conform to group norms.
A. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Social Influence – Types of Influence-167 Answer A is correct. Prior to Asch’s research, Sherif (1935) used an ambiguous stimulus (the autokinetic effect) to study conformity to group norms, and found that subjects conformed to the group norm. Asch then used an unambiguous stimulus (comparisons of the lengths of three lines) and found that subjects conformed to the group norm even when it was obvious that the line-length estimates made by other group members (confederates) were clearly wrong.
Instrumental aggression usually first appears in children by the time they are ____ of age and then peaks at _____ of age.
A. 1 year; 2 years
B. 3 years; 4 years
C. 5 years; 7 years
D. 7 years; 9 years
A. 1 year; 2 years
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-174 Answer A is correct. The purpose of instrumental aggression is to achieve a goal, most often to gain attention or obtain an object (e.g., to get a toy from another child). For most children, it first appears by the time they are one year of age and peaks at about two years of age when they begin to be better able to negotiate verbally.
Methods of __________ can be categorized as work-oriented, worker-oriented, or a combination of the two.
A. job evaluation
B. job analysis
C. needs assessment
D. job specification
B. job analysis
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-17 Answer B is correct. A job analysis is a systematic procedure for obtaining work- and/or worker-oriented information about a job – i.e., information about the content and context of a job and/or the human characteristics required to perform the job successfully. A job evaluation (answer A) is conducted to obtain information needed to make decisions about compensation. A needs assessment (answer C) is also known as a needs analysis and is used to make decisions about training. A job specification (answer D) provides a description of the worker characteristics required to perform a job successfully. These three procedures are not categorized as work-oriented, worker-oriented, or a combination of the two.
Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) are similar to actual epileptic seizures in terms of symptoms but are due to psychological distress. Which of the following is considered most useful for distinguishing PNES from actual seizures?
A. MRI
B. NEBA
C. video EEG
D. ambulatory EEG
C. video EEG
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-032 Answer C is correct. Video electroencephalography (vEEG) is considered the gold standard for diagnosing PNES. It involves simultaneously recording a person’s brain electrical activity with an EEG and overt behaviors on video. When the person’s seizures are psychogenic, the EEG pattern does not correspond to the person’s seizure-like behaviors because they are not being caused by abnormal electrical brain activity. MRI (answer A) is a structural neuroimaging technique that is used to obtain information about brain structure. NEBA (answer B) is the acronym for the neuropsychiatric EEG-based assessment aid, which is used to assist in the diagnosis of ADHD. Ambulatory EEG (answer D) is used to record electrical activity in a person’s brain while the person engages in usual activities.
Which of the following best describes the results of research investigating the effectiveness of olanzapine (an atypical antipsychotic) and fluoxetine (an SSRI antidepressant) as treatments for anorexia nervosa?
A. Studies have established olanzapine as an evidence-based treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as an evidence-based treatment for weight maintenance.
B. Studies have established fluoxetine as an evidence-based treatment for fostering initial weight gain and olanzapine as an evidence-based treatment for weight maintenance.
C. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of olanzapine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as a treatment for weight maintenance.
D. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of fluoxetine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and olanzapine as a treatment for weight maintenance.
C. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of olanzapine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as a treatment for weight maintenance.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-130 Answer C is correct. The effectiveness of olanzapine for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine for improving weight maintenance for individuals with anorexia has been evaluated by a number of studies. While some studies have provided evidence of the effectiveness of both drugs, others have not. Consequently, the best conclusion is that the studies have produced mixed results about the effects of both of these drugs.
Research has confirmed that different early life experiences (e.g., child maltreatment, parental divorce, parental psychopathology) can lead to childhood depression. This is an example of which of the following?
A. integration
B. differentiation
C. equifinality
D. multifinality
C. equifinality
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Theories-067 Answer C is correct. The concepts of equifinality and multifinality are derived from general systems theory and have been applied to several disciplines including biology, developmental psychopathology, family therapy, and organizational theory. Equifinality refers to the ability of open systems to reach the same final state from different initial conditions, while multifinality refers to the ability of open systems to reach different final states from the same initial condition. This question applies equifinality to developmental psychopathology.
Dittmar, Bond, Hurst, and Kasser’s (2014) meta-analysis of the research found that there is:
A. a positive relationship between materialism and well-being with higher levels of materialism being associated with higher levels of well-being.
B. a negative relationship between materialism and well-being with higher levels of materialism being associated with lower levels of well-being.
C. a U-shaped relationship between materialism and well-being with high and low levels of materialism being associated with the highest levels of well-being.
D. an inverted U-shaped relationship between materialism and well-being with moderate levels of materialism being associated with the highest levels of well-being.
B. a negative relationship between materialism and well-being with higher levels of materialism being associated with lower levels of well-being.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Persuasion and Behavioral Economics-065 Answer B is correct. Dittmar et al.’s meta-analysis confirmed that prioritization of materialist values has a negative effect on personal well-being. They found that higher levels of materialism were associated, for example, with lower levels of life satisfaction, mental health, and physical health.
In most people, Broca’s area is located in the __________ and Wernicke’s area is located in the __________.
A. left inferior frontal gyrus; left superior temporal gyrus
B. right inferior frontal gyrus; right superior temporal gyrus
C. left anterior cingulate gyrus; left posterior cingulate gyrus
D. right anterior cingulate gyrus; right posterior cingulate gyrus
A. left inferior frontal gyrus; left superior temporal gyrus
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-149 Answer A is correct. Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are the major language areas of the brain. Knowing that the left hemisphere is dominant for language in most people and that Broca’s area is located in the frontal lobe and Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal lobe would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Also, knowing that the cingulate gyrus is part of the cingulate cortex and that the cingulate cortex is one of the structures of the limbic system would have helped you eliminate answers C and D. (A gyrus is a ridge on the surface of the cerebral cortex.)
An advantage of computerized adaptive tests is that they:
A. are time- and cost-effective to develop.
B. allow examinees to review and change answers to items they have already answered.
C. reduce testing time without losing precision of measurement.
D. facilitate the interpretation of test scores.
C. reduce testing time without losing precision of measurement.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-051 Answer C is correct. One important advantage of computer adaptive tests is that they reduce testing time by requiring examinees to answer only items that are appropriate for their ability level rather than requiring all examinees to answer all of the items in the item pool. Another advantage is that they can be designed so that they provide the same amount of measurement precision (accuracy) for all examinees. Answers A and B do not describe advantages of computerized adaptive testing but, instead, refer to disadvantages: Computerized adaptive tests can be time- and resource-intensive to create, and they do not usually allow examinees to make changes to items they have already answered. Answer D is not correct because scores on a computerized adaptive test are not necessarily easier or more difficult to interpret than scores on a paper-and-pencil test or other type of test.
In a multitrait-multimethod matrix, a large monotrait-heteromethod coefficient provides evidence of a test’s:
A. reliability.
B. divergent validity.
C. convergent validity.
D. factorial validity.
C. convergent validity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-060 Answer C is correct. A multitrait-multimethod matrix contains correlation coefficients that provide information about a measure’s reliability and convergent and divergent validity. The monotrait-heteromethod coefficient is the correlation between two different measures (heteromethod) that assess the same trait (monotrait). When this correlation is large, it provides evidence of a measure’s convergent validity.
Pavlov proposed that spontaneous recovery of a conditioned response after extinction trials provides evidence that extinction of the conditioned response is due to:
A. external inhibition.
B. internal inhibition.
C. higher-order conditioning.
D. habituation.
B. internal inhibition.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-LEA-Classical Conditioning-33 Answer B is correct. During extinction trials, the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus until the conditioned stimulus no longer elicits the conditioned response. However, after a period of time, when the conditioned stimulus is again presented without the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned response returns in a reduced or less intense form. Pavlov referred to the return of the conditioned response as spontaneous recovery. He proposed that it provides evidence that the extinction of a conditioned response is due to a physiological process that suppresses (rather than eliminates) the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response, and he referred to this physiological process as internal inhibition.
When reviewing a supervisor’s performance ratings of the employees he supervises, you notice that there is a great deal of consistency in the positivity or negativity of ratings he has assigned to each employee, but his positive and negative ratings vary for different employees. For example, the supervisor assigned one employee very low ratings on all dimensions of job performance but another employee high ratings on all dimensions. Which of the following rater biases is suggested by this pattern of ratings?
A. central tendency bias
B. false consensus effect
C. halo effect
D. leniency/strictness bias
C. halo effect
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-057 Answer C is correct. When a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are affected by the central tendency, leniency, or strictness bias (answers A and D), the ratings of all employees are affected in the same way. The central tendency bias occurs, for instance, when a supervisor gives all employees average ratings regardless of their actual level of performance. In contrast, when a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect, ratings are likely to differ for different employees. For example, a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect when the supervisor highly values communication skills and, consequently, rates employees who have very good communication skills high on all other dimensions of performance but rates employees who have poor communication skills low on all other dimensions of performance regardless of their actual performance on the other dimensions. The false consensus effect (answer B) is not a rater bias but is a cognitive bias that occurs when we overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.
For practitioners of positive psychology, which of the following is the likely outcome when there is balance between the level of challenge posed by a task and the skill level of the person performing the task?
A. individuation
B. committed action
C. flow
D. arugamama
C. flow
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-075 Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the conditions that lead to flow, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you have positive psychology associated with flow, which is a state of being totally immersed in an activity accompanied by joy and a sense of fulfillment. According to M. Csikszentmihalyi, a person is most likely to experience flow when there is a challenge-skill balance – i.e., when people perceive a task’s level of challenge (difficulty) and their level of skill with regard to accomplishing that task to be similar (Finding flow: The psychology of engagement with everyday life, New York, Basic Books, 1997). Individuation (answer A) is a goal of Jung’s analytical psychology and is the process by which a person develops an integrated, unique identity. Committed action (answer B) is associated with acceptance and commitment therapy. Arugamama (answer D) means acceptance of life as it is and is a goal of Morita therapy, which is NOT something you need to be familiar with for the exam.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for soliciting client testimonials to be used by psychologists in advertisements for their professional services?
A. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting testimonials from current clients but not former clients.
B. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting testimonials from current clients and, in some circumstances, former clients.
C. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting client testimonials from current and former clients in any circumstances.
D. Psychologists are allowed to solicit testimonials from current and former clients if the information in the testimonials is not false or misleading.
B. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting testimonials from current clients and, in some circumstances, former clients.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-147 Answer B is correct. This issue is directly addressed by Standard 5.05 of the APA Ethics Code and indirectly by Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.05 prohibits psychologists from soliciting testimonials from current therapy clients and from others “who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.” In other words, soliciting testimonials from current clients always violates ethical responsibilities, while soliciting testimonials from former clients violates ethical responsibilities when those clients are vulnerable to undue influence.
Rowe and Kahn’s (1987) model of successful aging includes all of the following except:
A. a low probability of disease and disease-related disability.
B. active engagement in life.
C. acceptance of the normal effects of aging.
D. high cognitive and physical functional capacity.
C. acceptance of the normal effects of aging.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-134 Answer C is correct. Rowe and Kahn’s model identifies three factors that are essential for successful aging: reducing the risk for disease and disease-related disability, maintaining high cognitive and physical functioning, and staying actively engaged in life by being connected to others and involved in productive activities.
Satir’s conjoint family therapy is based on the assumption that problematic family behaviors often involve one or more of four dysfunctional communication patterns that include all of the following except:
A. blaming.
B. placating.
C. manipulating.
D. computing.
C. manipulating.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-224 Answer C is correct. Satir distinguished between four dysfunctional (incongruent) communication styles that contribute to family problems: blaming, placating, distracting (also known as irrelevant), and computing (also known as super-reasonable).
Which of the following is the most likely effect of a GABA receptor agonist?
A. anxiety and insomnia
B. unusual thoughts and feelings
C. relaxed muscles and sleepiness
D. nausea and vomiting
C. relaxed muscles and sleepiness
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-153 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to be familiar with the effects of GABA and know that an agonist mimics or enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter. GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. It slows down brain activity and plays a role in visual processing, sleep, and motor control and produces a calming effect that helps alleviate anxiety and stress. Consequently, a GABA agonist (e.g., a benzodiazepine) would most likely relax tense muscles and cause sleepiness.
Harrington and Gelfand’s (2014) research investigating the relationship between cultural tightness-looseness and personality traits in the United States found that:
A. people in tight cultures exhibit greater conscientiousness and greater openness relative to people in loose cultures.
B. people in tight cultures exhibit less conscientiousness and less openness relative to people in loose cultures.
C. people in tight cultures exhibit less conscientiousness and greater openness relative to people in loose cultures.
D. people in tight cultures exhibit greater conscientiousness and less openness relative to people in loose cultures.
D. people in tight cultures exhibit greater conscientiousness and less openness relative to people in loose cultures.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-109 Answer D is correct. Cultural tightness-looseness refers to the strength of a culture’s social norms and tolerance for deviant behaviors. Knowing that tight cultures have strong social norms and low tolerance for deviant behaviors and that loose cultures have weak social norms and high tolerance for deviant behaviors might have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As noted by Harrington and Gelfand, tightness has a positive correlation with conscientiousness because this personality dimension “reflects greater impulse control and overall self-constraint and is associated with cautiousness, self-discipline, ability to delay gratification, desire for orderliness, and conformity to norms.” In contrast, looseness has a positive correlation with openness because this dimension “is associated with nontraditional values and beliefs, breadth of experience, interest and curiosity toward new ideas, tolerance for other cultures, and a preference for originality” (2014, p. 7993).
As conceptualized by Shapiro and her colleagues (e.g., Shapiro & Maxfield, 2002), the rapid eye movement component of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) exerts its beneficial effects on the symptoms of PTSD by:
A. suppressing the anxiety response to traumatic memories by substituting a relaxation response.
B. desensitizing the conditioned fear response through repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories.
C. synchronizing the functioning of the right and left hemispheres of the brain.
D. accelerating information processing and adaptive resolution of traumatic memories.
D. accelerating information processing and adaptive resolution of traumatic memories.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-189 Answer D is correct. EMDR is based on Shapiro’s adaptive information processing model, which proposes (a) that PTSD results when traumatic experiences are inadequately processed and (b) that rapid eye movements facilitate information processing, resulting in an adaptive resolution of traumatic memories. Note that there is some evidence that rapid eye movements exert beneficial effects by providing repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories (answer B), but this is not Shapiro’s explanation for the effects of rapid eye movements, which is what this question is asking about.
H. M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as a treatment for intractable epilepsy. Following surgery, H. M.:
A. was unable to form new long-term declarative memories.
B. was unable to form new long-term nondeclarative memories.
C. had severe deficits in procedural memory.
D. had severe deficits in short-term memory.
A. was unable to form new long-term declarative memories.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Memory and Sleep-198 Answer A is correct. The medial temporal lobe is the inner surface of the temporal lobe and includes the hippocampus and several other structures that are vital for long-term declarative memories. Following a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy, H. M.’s short-term memory and procedural memory were intact, but he had deficits in remote long-term episodic memory and was unable to transfer any new declarative information from short- to long-term memory. (Declarative memory consists of semantic and episodic memories, while nondeclarative memory consists of procedural memories, memories created by classical conditioning, and memories affected by priming.)
Cognitive therapy for suicide prevention (CT-SP) has been found to be effective for reducing suicidal ideation, repeat suicide attempts, and depression in adolescents and adults who recently attempted suicide. As described by Bryan (2019), the primary targets of the three stages of CT-SP are, in order:
A. risk assessment, skills training, and safety planning.
B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention.
C. crisis management, cognitive flexibility, and safety planning.
D. cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and relapse prevention.
B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-050 Answer B is correct. As described by Bryan, emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility are essential mechanisms for reducing suicidal behaviors and, consequently, are the primary targets of the first and second phases of CT-SP, respectively. Then, when a client has acquired emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility skills, the third phase begins and focuses on relapse prevention. Although risk assessment, skills training, cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and safety planning are often included as elements of cognitive therapy for suicide prevention and cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention, they are not the primary targets of the three stages identified by Bryan.
When a therapist is using dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) with a client who has recently received the diagnosis of borderline personality disorder, the client’s treatment will least likely include which of the following?
A. intersession coaching
B. individual psychotherapy
C. family or couple counseling
D. group skills training
C. family or couple counseling
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Personality Disorders-049 Answer C is correct. DBT includes group skills training, individual psychotherapy, and phone coaching (which is also known as intersession coaching). Note that a therapist consultation team is often described as a fourth component of DBT. It is a peer consultation team that therapists participate in for the purpose of helping them maintain the motivation and skills needed to be effective therapists.
Data collected by Bouchard and McGue (1981) indicate that the median correlation coefficient for IQ scores is lowest for which of the following?
A. biological parent and child living apart
B. adopted siblings living together
C. biological siblings living apart
D. half-siblings living together
A. biological parent and child living apart
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-31 Answer A is correct. The median correlation coefficients for IQ scores reported by Bouchard and McGue are .22 for biological parent and child living apart, .31 for adopted siblings living together, .24 for biological siblings living apart, and .35 for half-siblings living together. Note that an implication of this data is that nature (genetics) contributes somewhat less than nurture (environment) to IQ scores: For example, the correlation coefficient is higher for adopted siblings living together than for biological siblings living apart.
Research on which of the following has found that people tend to hate losses about twice as much as they enjoy gains?
A. scarcity trap
B. loss aversion
C. gain/loss theory
D. gambler’s fallacy
B. loss aversion
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Persuasion and Behavioral Economics-119 Answer B is correct. Loss aversion is the tendency of people to weigh losses more heavily than gains. For example, Kahneman and Tversky (1979) found that the aggravation caused by losing a specific amount of money is about twice as intense as the satisfaction caused by gaining the same amount of money.
Dr. Jackson earned a Ph.D in clinical psychology from St. Louis University seven years ago and now has a private practice and teaches undergraduate psychology classes as an adjunct professor at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign. On the business cards for her clinical practice, Dr. Jackson lists St. Louis University and the University of Illinois. In terms of ethical guidelines, listing the University of Illinois is:
A. acceptable since she is teaching psychology classes at the University of Illinois.
B. acceptable since the psychology department at the University of Illinois is accredited by APA.
C. not acceptable since she is an adjunct (versus tenured) professor at the University of Illinois.
D. not acceptable since her affiliation with the University of Illinois is not relevant to her clinical practice.
D. not acceptable since her affiliation with the University of Illinois is not relevant to her clinical practice.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ETH-Standards 5 & 6-21 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Principles III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibit psychologists from making false or misleading statements about their credentials, institutional or associational affiliations, etc. Listing the University of Illinois on her business card violates this ethical responsibility because it might be interpreted as indicating that her clinical practice is sponsored or endorsed by the University of Illinois (see, e.g., G. G. Ford, Mental health reasoning for mental health professionals, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publications, Inc., 2006).
The Boston Process Approach:
A. provides decision rules for identifying the presence and location of focal lesions that are causing a patient’s symptoms.
B. reduces testing time by providing guidelines for determining the order and number of tests needed to identify areas of brain dysfunction.
C. emphasizes observing a patient’s problem-solving activity to determine how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems.
D. emphasizes identifying the personal, interpersonal, and contextual factors that have contributed to a patient’s cognitive impairments.
C. emphasizes observing a patient’s problem-solving activity to determine how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Clinical Tests-107 Answer C is correct. Use of the Boston Process Approach is based on the assumption that qualitative analysis of a patient’s responses to test items provides more information than quantitative scores about the patient’s neuropsychological processes by identifying how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems presented by test items.
Studies confirming the predictions of the overjustification effect also provide evidence for which of the following?
A. cognitive dissonance theory
B. theory of planned behavior
C. balance theory
D. self-perception theory
D. self-perception theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Attitudes and Attitude Change-132 Answer D is correct. According to Bem’s (1972) self-perception theory, people learn about themselves in the same way they learn about other people – i.e., by observing their behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur. Evidence for self-perception theory is provided by studies confirming the overjustification effect. It predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, they’ll think they are performing the behavior because of the external rewards, which will cause their intrinsic motivation to decline. In other words, as predicted by self-perception theory, they will look at the external circumstances to understand their own behaviors.
Research has found that individuals with nonverbal learning disability (NVLD) tend to obtain:
A. significantly lower scores on the WAIS-IV’s WMI than on the PSI.
B. significantly higher scores on the WAIS-IV’s PSI than on the WMI.
C. significantly lower scores on the WAIS-IV’s VCI than on the PRI.
D. significantly higher scores on the WAIS-IV’s VCI than on the PRI.
D. significantly higher scores on the WAIS-IV’s VCI than on the PRI.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-29 Answer D is correct. For prior versions of the Wechsler tests that provided Verbal and Performance IQ scores, a significantly higher Verbal IQ than Performance IQ was found to be characteristic of NVLD. On the WAIS-IV, which does not provide Verbal and Performance IQ scores, the same difference was found on the Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) and Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI), which are considered to be substitutes, respectively, for Verbal IQ and Performance IQ. (See, e.g., D. L. Wodrich and A. J. Schmitt, Learning disorders: Working systematically from assessment to intervention, New York, Guilford Press, 2006.)
Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs in individuals who are:
A. heterozygous for a recessive allele.
B. homozygous for a recessive allele.
C. heterozygous or homozygous for a recessive allele.
D. heterozygous or homozygous for a dominant allele.
B. homozygous for a recessive allele.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-207 Answer B is correct. PKU results when a child inherits a recessive allele from both parents – i.e., when the child is homozygous for the recessive allele. (An allele is an alternative form of a gene.) The recessive allele responsible for PKU causes a failure to produce the enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, which is an amino acid found in a number of foods including milk, cheese, beans, meat, bread, and eggs. If a newborn with PKU is not started on diet low in phenylalanine soon after birth, PKU can cause severe intellectual disability.
Lawrence Kohlberg’s stages of moral development were derived from his research with male subjects of various ages, and he concluded that the typical male tends to function at stage 4. When his method for assessing moral development was subsequently used with female subjects, it was found that the typical female tends to function at stage 3, which led some researchers to conclude that females tend to be less morally developed than males are. As described by Sandra Bem (2008), this conclusion about the difference between males and females with regard to moral development best illustrates which of the following?
A. gender polarization
B. androcentrism
C. gender stereotyping
D. androgyny
B. androcentrism
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-007 Answer B is correct. S. L. Bem distinguished between three “lenses” through which people perceive gender (The lenses of gender: Transforming the debate on sexual inequality, New Haven, Yale University Press, 2008): (a) Biological essentialism refers to the attribution of gender differences to unalterable biological factors. (b) Gender polarization (answer A) refers to the exaggeration of gender differences. (c) Androcentrism (answer B) refers to the tendency to view the behaviors and experiences of males as the norm and the behaviors and experiences of females as deviations from the norm, often to the disadvantage of females. Gender stereotyping (answer C) refers to overgeneralizing attributes that are considered normal or appropriate for males or females and is not one of the lenses identified by Bem. Androgyny (answer D) is the term Bem used to describe individuals who have both feminine and masculine traits and is also not one of the three lenses that she identified for perceiving gender.
A psychologist is conducting a study that involves having children, one at a time, watch a video in which Sally first puts a teddy bear in a box on a table and then leaves the room. While Sally is out of the room, Anne enters the room and moves the teddy bear to a drawer in a nearby cupboard. Each child is then asked where Sally will look for the teddy bear when she returns to the room. This task is most often used to assess which of the following?
A. transductive reasoning
B. zone of proximal development
C. egocentrism
D. theory of mind
D. theory of mind
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Cognitive Development-199 Answer D is correct. The task described in the question is the change-of-location task, which is one of several false-belief tasks that are used to evaluate children’s theory of mind – i.e., children’s ability to understand that the beliefs, perceptions, and intentions of others can differ from their own. More specifically, the change-of-location task assesses children’s understanding that another person can have a mistaken belief about the location of something and will act in accord with that belief.
The reliability index is an estimate of the correlation between actual observed scores and theoretical true scores and is calculated by:
A. squaring the reliability coefficient.
B. taking the square root of the reliability coefficient.
C. subtracting the reliability coefficient from 1.0.
D. taking the square root of the standard error of measurement.
B. taking the square root of the reliability coefficient.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-1 Answer B is correct. The reliability index is calculated by taking the square root of the reliability coefficient. For example, when a test’s reliability coefficient is .81, the reliability index is .90.
The first stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model and Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model are best described as being characterized by which of the following?
A. Positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
B. Negative attitudes toward White (majority) culture and positive attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
C. Positive attitudes toward both White (majority) and Black (minority) cultures.
D. Negative attitudes toward both White (majority) and Black (minority) cultures.
A. Positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-113 Answer A is correct. The first stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s model is the conformity stage, and the first stage of Cross’s model is the pre-encounter stage. Both stages are characterized by positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
Based on the results of their meta-analysis of research on the efficacy and safety of St. John’s wort extract for people with mild to moderate depression, Cui and Zheng (2016) concluded that St. John’s wort:
A. is significantly less effective than SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a higher rate of adverse events.
B. is significantly less effective than SSRIs in terms of treatment response but has a lower rate of adverse events.
C. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response but has a higher rate of adverse events.
D. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a lower rate of adverse events.
D. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a lower rate of adverse events.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-157 Answer D is correct. Cui and Sheng’s meta-analysis found that, for individuals with mild to moderate depression, St. John’s wort extract was comparable to SSRIs in terms of clinical response and remission and had a lower rate of adverse events.
In their longitudinal study of the effects of overcontrolling (“helicopter”) parenting, Perry and colleagues (2018) found that children’s levels of __________ at age 5 were mediators that linked overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood to poor emotional, social, and academic functioning at 10 years of age.
A. behavioral restraint and social reticence
B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control
C. negative affectivity and aggression
D. self-awareness and empathy
B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- School and Family Influences-191 Answer B is correct. Studies have linked helicopter parenting to a number of negative outcomes for children, and some studies have identified mediators that explain this link. For example, Perry and colleagues found that overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood was predictive of poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation (as measured by emotion regulation and inhibitory control) at age 5 which, in turn, was predictive of emotional, social, and academic problems at age 10.
The mother of a 5-year-old boy yells at him whenever he misbehaves by, for example, teasing the dog or punching his younger brother. The boy figures out that, if he says “I love you” to his mother when she yells at him, she will stop yelling. For the boy, continuing to say “I love you” to his mother whenever she yells at him is best described as being the result of:
A. escape conditioning.
B. avoidance conditioning.
C. stimulus generalization.
D. response generalization.
A. escape conditioning.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Operant Conditioning-041 Answer A is correct. In this situation, the boy says “I love you” to his mother because, when he does so, she stops yelling at him. In other words, his behavior continues because it allows him to “escape” his mother’s yelling. Escape conditioning is essentially another name for negative reinforcement: It occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because something is removed following the behavior.
The insufficient top-down control hypothesis predicts that generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is due to reduced connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and:
A. anterior cingulate cortex.
B. entorhinal cortex.
C. mammillary bodies.
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
A. anterior cingulate cortex.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-044 Answer A is correct. If you’re not familiar with research linking GAD to weak connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and anterior cingulate cortex, you might have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the anterior cingulate cortex plays a role in mood and anxiety disorders. Alternatively, you might have been able to use the process of elimination to make an “educated guess”: Knowing that the entorhinal cortex and mammillary bodies play important roles in memory would have helped you eliminate answers B and C, and knowing that the suprachiasmatic nucleus is responsible for controlling the body’s circadian rhythms would have helped you eliminate answer D.
Structural equation modeling (SEM) is used to test models of the relationships among:
A. observed variables only.
B. latent variables only.
C. observed and latent variables.
D. observed and manifest variables.
C. observed and latent variables.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Correlation and Regression-184 Answer C is correct. An advantage of SEM is that it allows researchers to test models of the relationships among observed and latent variables. Observed variables are also known as manifest variables and indicators and can be directly measured. Latent variables are also known as factors and constructs and cannot be measured directly but are inferred from observed variables.
One of Dr. Honesta’s current clients has filed a complaint against her with the Ethics Committee, which has requested that she provide the Committee with client information related to the cause of the complaint. Dr. Honesta believes the client’s complaint is baseless and is a manifestation of the client’s resistance to therapy. Dr. Honesta should:
A. provide the Committee with only information she believes is relevant to the complaint.
B. provide the Committee with a copy of the client’s file and a cover letter that explains why she believes the complaint is baseless.
C. provide the Committee with the information it has requested after confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release the information.
D. not provide the Committee with the information it has requested and, instead, send a letter that explains why she believes the client’s complaint is baseless.
C. provide the Committee with the information it has requested after confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release the information.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-062 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 1.06 of APA’s Ethics Code and the Preamble (Responsibility of the Individual Psychologist) and Principle I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 1.06 requires psychologists to cooperate with ethics committees and states that failing to do so constitutes an ethical violation. However, it also states that, before doing so, psychologists should address confidentiality issues which can be accomplished by confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release information to the Ethics Committee.
As described by Broten and colleagues (2011), when a stepped care approach is used to treat individuals with low levels of depressive symptoms, the first step includes assessment and monitoring. When symptoms do not remit, the second step includes which of the following?
A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT
B. watchful waiting, self-monitoring, and/or psychoeducation
C. group therapy, brief individual CBT, and/or medication
D. psychoeducation, peer support group, and/or brief individual CBT
A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-179 Answer A is correct. The stepped care model developed by Broten and colleagues is similar to other models of stepped care for depression and includes four steps. Step 1 consists of assessment, monitoring, and watchful waiting. Step 2 consists of interventions that require minimal practitioner involvement and includes psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT. Step 3 consists of interventions that require more intensive care and specialized therapist training and includes group therapy, individual therapy, and/or medication. Step 4 consists of the most restrictive and intensive form of care and involves voluntary or involuntary inpatient care.
You saw Betty and Bob in therapy for several months and, during their last two sessions, they came to the decision that divorce was the best course of action for them. Several months after terminating therapy with you, Betty calls to ask you to conduct a child custody evaluation and provide recommendations about custody to the court. You should:
A. conduct the custody evaluation as long as you base your recommendations on the best interests of the children.
B. conduct the custody evaluation if you obtain consent from both Betty and Bob.
C. conduct the custody evaluation if you obtain consent from both Betty and Bob and provide the court with the results of the evaluation but not with a custody recommendation.
D. refuse to conduct the custody evaluation.
D. refuse to conduct the custody evaluation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-133 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines regarding multiple relationships in general and in the context of custody evaluations. For example, Paragraph II.7 of the APA’s Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings (2010) states that psychologists should avoid multiple relationships and identifies conducting a custody evaluation with current or former psychotherapy clients as a multiple relationship. Guidelines for custody evaluations are also provided by the College of Psychologists of Ontario’s Custody and Access Task Force: Its guidelines state that, when providing services related to custody, psychologists “make best efforts to avoid dual or multiple relationships, or roles, even when the parties request or consent to this” (Information for Consideration by Members Providing Psychological Services in the Context of Child Custody Disputes & Child Protection Proceedings, 2014, https://cpo.on.ca/wp-content/uploads/Custody-and-Access-Information-for-Members.pdf).
Cross-cultural research on social loafing has found that it is:
A. common in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures.
B. more common in collectivistic than individualistic cultures.
C. more common in individualistic than collectivistic cultures.
D. more common among women than men in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures.
C. more common in individualistic than collectivistic cultures.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Social Influence – Group Influences-074 Answer C is correct. A number of studies have confirmed that people from individualistic cultures are more likely than those from collectivistic cultures to engage in social loafing. There’s also evidence that, in some collectivistic cultures, individuals work harder in a group than they do when working alone, and this is referred to as social striving. With regard to gender (answer D), there’s some evidence that men engage in more social loafing than women do in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures [e.g., D. Tsaw, S. Murphy, and J. Detgen, Social loafing and culture: Does gender matter?, International Review of Business Research Papers, 7(3), 1-8].
Which of the following videoconferencing platforms is not considered HIPAA compliant because it will not enter into a business associate agreement?
A. Consumer Skype
B. Doxy-me
C. thera-LINK
D. Zoom for Healthcare
A. Consumer Skype
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-202 Answer A is correct. Consumer Skype is not considered HIPAA compliant for several reasons. One reason is that, unlike the videoconferencing platforms listed in answers B, C, and D, it will not enter into a business associate agreement (BAA). (Note that HIPAA compliance is required for all health care providers who are covered entities – i.e., who electronically transmit protected health information.)
The Multidimensional Model of Racial Identity (MMRI) developed by Sellers and colleagues (1998) distinguishes between four dimensions of African American identity. Which of these dimensions is most affected by the nature of the individual’s current situation?
A. racial regard
B. racial disparity
C. racial salience
D. racial centrality
C. racial salience
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-212 Answer C is correct. Sellers and colleagues distinguish between four dimensions of racial identity: racial salience, racial centrality, racial regard, and racial ideology. Racial salience refers to the extent to which a person’s race is relevant to the person’s self-concept at a particular point in time or in a particular situation. In other words, the degree of racial salience for a person depends on the circumstances. For example, the salience of an African American person’s race is likely to be high when that person is the only African American in a social situation. In contrast, Sellers et al. describe the other three dimensions as being stable across different situations. Racial disparity (answer B) is not one of the dimensions identified by Sellers et al.
In a normal distribution, a T-score of ___ is equivalent to a percentile rank of: 84.
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
C. 60
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-TES-Test Score Interpretation-15 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, in a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 and a T-score of 60 are both one standard deviation above the mean.
As used by practitioners of motivational interviewing, the technique known as “developing discrepancy” involves helping clients recognize the difference between:
A. a success identity and a failure identity.
B. their values and goals and their current behaviors.
C. reality and their expectations for reality.
D. the self and the ideal self.
B. their values and goals and their current behaviors.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Brief Therapies-039 Answer B is correct. Practitioners of motivational interviewing view discrepancy as a source of motivation, and the technique of developing discrepancy involves helping clients recognize discrepancies between their goals, values, and beliefs and their current behaviors in order to increase their motivation to change.
Terror management theory (TMT) predicts that increasing the salience of mortality:
A. increases a person’s positive attitudes toward both in-group and out-group members.
B. increases a person’s negative attitudes toward both in-group and out-group members.
C. increases a person’s negative attitudes toward in-group members and positive attitudes toward out-group members.
D. increases a person’s positive attitudes toward in-group members and negative attitudes toward out-group members.
D. increases a person’s positive attitudes toward in-group members and negative attitudes toward out-group members.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-213 Answer D is correct. According to TMT, awareness (salience) of mortality creates a sense of terror which, in turn, can have a variety of adverse effects. For example, research has found that increasing awareness of mortality contributes to prejudice and discrimination by increasing negative evaluations of and reactions to out-group members and increasing positive evaluations of and reactions to in-group members.
Twin studies investigating the contributions of genetics and the environment to personality have confirmed that:
A. monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality.
B. monozygotic twins reared apart are less similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality.
C. monozygotic twins reared together and dizygotic twins reared together have about the same degree of similarity in terms of personality, but monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than are dizygotic twins reared apart.
D. monozygotic twins and dizygotic twins have about the same degree of similarity in terms of personality, regardless of whether the twins are reared together or apart.
A. monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-166 Answer A is correct. The influence of genetics on personality has been confirmed by studies finding that correlation coefficients for monozygotic twins on a variety of personality traits are larger than the coefficients for dizygotic twins, regardless of whether the twins are reared together or apart (e.g., Tellegen et al., 1988). For example, studies have not only found that monozygotic twins reared together are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together but also that monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than are dizygotic twins reared together.
Akathisia is a movement disorder caused by antipsychotic drugs and is characterized by which of the following?
A. involuntary muscle contractions
B. a sense of restlessness and an urge to keep moving
C. involuntary, rhythmic movements of the tongue, lips, face, and jaw
D. tremor, muscle rigidity, and slowed movements
B. a sense of restlessness and an urge to keep moving
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-120 Answer B is correct. Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic drugs and involves a feeling of inner restlessness with a compulsion to keep moving. The disorders listed in the other answers are also extrapyramidal side effects: Involuntary muscle contractions (answer A) are symptoms of dystonia. Involuntary, jerky movements of the tongue, lips, face, and jaw (answer C) are symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Tremor, muscle rigidity, and slowed movements (answer D) are symptoms of parkinsonism. Note that there is evidence that second-generation antipsychotics are less likely than first-generation antipsychotics to cause dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism but that this is not necessarily true for akathisia [B. Elhusein, O. Mahgoub, R. Kumar, and M. A. Abdullah, The possibility of the second-generation antipsychotic Olanzapine to cause akathisia in a drug naïve patient – A case report, International Journal of Psychiatry, 5(1), 1-4, 2020].
A professional executor is the person designated by a psychologist to carry out the terms of a psychologist’s professional will. According to the ASPPB’s Guidelines for Closing a Psychology Practice (2020), a professional executor:
A. must be a licensed psychologist.
B. must be an attorney.
C. may be a licensed psychologist or other licensed health provider.
D. may be a professional colleague or family member.
C. may be a licensed psychologist or other licensed health provider.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-175 Answer C is correct. As described in the Guidelines for Closing a Psychology Practice, a professional executor should ideally be “a member of the profession or if this is not possible a member of another regulated health profession.” It also states that, ideally, the executor “should not be a member of the psychologist’s own family due to the inherent conflict of interest that exists” (2020, p. 8).
Research on gender segregation has found that most children begin to prefer same-sex playmates between:
A. 2 and 3 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do.
B. 2 and 3 years of age with boys showing a preference earlier than girls do.
C. 4 and 5 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do.
D. 4 and 5 years of age with boys showing a preference earlier than girls do.
A. 2 and 3 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-225 Answer A is correct. Studies have found that most children begin to prefer same-sex playmates between 2 and 3 years of age, with girls showing this preference by age 2 and boys showing this preference by age 3.
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements about authorship credit for research articles substantially based on a student’s doctoral dissertation?
A. The student must always be listed as sole author.
B. The student must always be listed as principal author.
C. The student should be listed as principal author except in exceptional circumstances.
D. Authorship credit should be mutually decided upon by the student and dissertation chairperson.
C. The student should be listed as principal author except in exceptional circumstances.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-222 Answer C is correct. Answer C is the best answer because it is closest to the language of Standard 8.12(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code. It states that, “except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student’s doctoral dissertation.” For example, there is an exception when multiple students write dissertations on a large research project and the results of the project are submitted to a journal as a single article or monograph. Answer D is not the best answer because it implies that listing the dissertation chair as the sole or primary author would be acceptable as long as the student and dissertation chair agreed to do so. However, that agreement would violate Standard 8.12(c).
Which of the following scales of measurement allows you to conclude that the difference between the scores of 50 and 51 on a test is equal to the difference between the scores of 90 and 91 on the same test?
A. ordinal, interval, and ratio
B. interval and ratio
C. interval only
D. ratio only
B. interval and ratio
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Types of Variables and Data-009 Answer B is correct. Interval and ratio scales both have the property of equal intervals between adjacent points on the scale. Equal intervals allow you to draw the conclusion that the one-point difference between the scores of 50 and 51 on a test is equal to the one-point difference between the scores of 90 and 91 on the same test.
The multifactor leadership questionnaire (MLQ) assesses characteristics associated with transformational and transactional leadership. The two transactional leadership characteristics assessed by the MLQ are:
A. individualized consideration and idealized influence.
B. individualized consideration and management-by-exception.
C. contingent rewards and management-by-exception.
D. contingent rewards and individualized consideration.
C. contingent rewards and management-by-exception.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Leadership-180 Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the MLQ, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that transactional leaders rely on contingent rewards to motivate their employees and that individualized consideration and idealized influence are characteristic of transformational (not transactional) leaders. Management-by-exception is characteristic of transactional leaders and can be either active or passive: Active management-by-exception occurs when leaders closely monitor the behaviors of followers and take corrective action when necessary. Passive management-by-exception occurs when leaders do not closely monitor the behavior of followers and take corrective action only when serious errors have already occurred. (For the exam, you do not need to be familiar with the MLQ but should be familiar with the characteristics of transformational and transactional leadership.)
A therapist accepted a small gift from a 65-year-old Chinese therapy client because he was concerned that rejecting the gift might have caused the client to “lose face.” The therapist’s acceptance of the gift is most consistent with which of the General Principles contained in the APA’s Ethics Code?
A. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence and Respect
B. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence and Fidelity/Responsibility
C. Respect and Integrity
D. Fidelity/Responsibility and Integrity
A. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence and Respect
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ETH-Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer A is correct. Neil A. Massoth notes that, of the five General Principles, Beneficence and Nonmaleficence and Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity are most relevant to this situation. Beneficence and Nonmaleficence is Principle A. It states that “psychologists strive to benefit those with whom they work and take care to do no harm.” As noted in the question, rejecting the gift might have harmed the Chinese client by causing the client to lose face. Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity is Principle E. It states that “psychologists are aware of and respect cultural, individual, and role differences.” In Chinese and many other Asian cultures, gift-giving is a common ritual in interpersonal relationships. [Massoth is cited in D. S. Bailey, Approaching ethical dilemmas, Monitor on Psychology, 35(9), 62, 2004, https://www.apa.org/monitor/oct04/dilemmas.]
As described by Baddeley (2000), the phonological loop:
A. transfers auditory information from sensory to short-term memory.
B. transfers auditory information from short- to long-term memory.
C. temporarily stores auditory information.
D. transforms auditory information to visual information.
C. temporarily stores auditory information.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-048 Answer C is correct. Baddeley’s model describes the working memory aspect of short-term memory as consisting of a central executive and three subsystems – a phonological loop, a visuo-spatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer. The phonological loop is responsible for the temporary storage of auditory (verbal) information. It consists of a phonological store that briefly stores words and other speech sounds and an articulatory process that silently repeats words and other speech sounds on a loop to prevent them from decaying.
A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found that flextime has the greatest positive influence on which of the following?
A. absenteeism
B. job satisfaction
C. productivity
D. satisfaction with flextime
A. absenteeism
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Change and Development-087 Answer A is correct. Baltes et al.’s (1999) meta-analysis found that the strongest beneficial effect of flextime was the reduction of absenteeism followed by, in order, objective measures of productivity, employee satisfaction with flextime, job satisfaction, and self-rated performance.
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1988) situational leadership theory, a telling leadership style is most effective for employees who have:
A. low ability and low motivation.
B. low ability and high motivation.
C. high ability and low motivation.
D. high ability and high motivation.
A. low ability and low motivation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Leadership-165 Answer A is correct. Situational leadership theory predicts that leaders are most effective when they adapt their leadership style to the ability and motivation (also known as willingness) of their employees: The telling style is most effective for employees who are low in both ability and motivation (answer A). The selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation (answer B). The participative style is most effective for employees who are high in ability and low in motivation (answer C). The delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation (answer D). Note that, because of its name, the selling style may seem most appropriate for someone with low motivation. However, Hersey and Blanchard’s description of this style clarifies why it’s appropriate for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation: The selling style involves facilitating performance by explaining task directions in a supportive and persuasive way.
Functional family therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based intervention for:
A. families with a history of domestic violence.
B. families that include a member with schizophrenia.
C. children and adolescents with anorexia or bulimia and their families.
D. adolescents with conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder and their families.
D. adolescents with conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder and their families.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-094 Answer D is correct. FFT is an evidence-based intervention for families that include adolescents who present with or are at risk for delinquency, substance use, conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, or other serious behavioral problems.
Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment is best described as a:
A. developmental theory.
B. decision-making theory.
C. person-environment fit theory.
D. social learning theory.
C. person-environment fit theory.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Career Choice and Development-108 Answer C is correct. Like Holland’s theory of career choice, Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment emphasizes the importance of the match between a person’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job. More specifically, Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness: Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.
The goal of APA accreditation is best described as:
A. providing status to graduates of accredited schools.
B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students.
C. establishing minimum standards of competence.
D. protecting the profession of psychology and its practitioners.
B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-116 Answer B is correct. The APA provides several descriptions of the goal of APA accreditation, but all identify benefiting or protecting the public and some also identify protecting students as the goal: For example, the APA accreditation website states that “the ultimate goal of APA accreditation is to graduate psychologists who are uniquely qualified to protect the wellbeing of the public by providing quality psychological service” (https://www.accreditation.apa.org/why-accreditation-matters). In addition, the APA’s Standards for Accreditation for Health Service Psychology and Accreditation Operating Procedures states that “accreditation is intended to protect the interests of students, benefit the public, and improve the quality of teaching, learning, research, and practice in health service psychology” (2018, p. 3).
Adults over the age of 40 are likely to have the least trouble hearing a:
A. child’s voice.
B. bird chirping.
C. frog croaking.
D. microwave oven beeping.
C. frog croaking.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-063 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, for most adults, decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds (presbycusis) begins after age 40. You also need to know that the croaking of a frog is the only sound of the four sounds listed in the answers that is a low-frequency sound.
The EEG for stage ___ of non-REM sleep is characterized by theta waves interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B. 2
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PHY-Memory and Sleep-35 Answer B is correct. Theta waves begin in stage 1 sleep and continue in stage 2, when they are interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes. Sleep spindles are brief bursts of high frequency activity, and K complexes are well-defined high-amplitude waves that occur spontaneously or in response to environmental stimuli.
Which of the following schedules of reinforcement produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction?
A. variable interval
B. fixed interval
C. variable ratio
D. fixed ratio
C. variable ratio
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Operant Conditioning-103 Answer C is correct. When using the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after six responses, then after four responses, then after eight responses, and so on. Of the four intermittent schedules of reinforcement, it produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction.
Because of their location and size, the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex are the lobes that are most often affected by traumatic brain injury. Symptoms of frontal lobe injury are most likely to include which of the following?
A. impaired long-term memory, difficulty understanding spoken words, and increased aggressive behavior
B. inability to identify colors, inability to recognize familiar words, and difficulty locating objects in the environment
C. problems with calculations and writing, difficulty distinguishing between left and right, and inability to identify objects by touch
D. inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements
D. inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-058 Answer D is correct. The symptoms of frontal lobe injury depend on the exact location and extent of the injury. However, of the symptoms listed in the answers, frontal lobe injury is most likely to cause an inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements. The symptoms listed in answer A are most likely to result from injury to the temporal lobes, those listed in answer B are likely to be caused by injury to the occipital lobes, and those listed in answer C are likely to be the result of injury to the parietal lobes.
Use of utility analysis to evaluate the usefulness of a newly developed test for selecting job applicants provides an estimate of which of the following?
A. the percentage of newly hired applicants who will be successful on the job when the test is used to make hiring decisions
B. the probability that a particular applicant will be successful on the job when the test is used to make hiring decisions
C. the monetary gain that can be expected when the test is used to make hiring decisions
D. the incremental validity that can be expected when the test is added to the current hiring procedure
C. the monetary gain that can be expected when the test is used to make hiring decisions
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-079 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to estimate the economic benefit that would be achieved by using a selection test or other procedure to assist with hiring and other personnel decisions. The Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula is commonly used to assess the utility of a selection technique, and it transforms the validity coefficient of the selection technique into an estimate of the technique’s monetary value. Note that utility analysis and cost-utility analysis are not the same thing: Utility analysis (which is described in the organizational psychology content summary) is used in organizations to determine the economic gain that a procedure produces in terms of worker productivity (e.g., the dollar value of performance gains obtained by using a new selection test to hire job applicants). Cost-utility analysis (which is described in the clinical psychology content summary) is used to compare the effects of two or more healthcare interventions on quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY).
Auditory hallucinations are a frequent symptom of schizophrenia, and research has shown that they are caused by neuronal abnormalities in the:
A. right temporal lobe.
B. left temporal lobe.
C. right occipital lobe.
D. left occipital lobe.
B. left temporal lobe.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-205 Answer B is correct. Knowing that the temporal lobe contains the auditory cortex and that the production and comprehension of speech are dominant (most often left) hemisphere functions would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. See, e.g., K. Hugdahl, E. M. Loberg, and M. Nygard, Left temporal lobe structural and functional abnormality underlying auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia, Frontiers in Neuroscience, 3(1), 34-45, 2009.
Spanhel and colleagues (2018) found that patients with lesions in the __________ had significantly diminished flashbulb memory recall.
A. thalamus
B. nucleus accumbens
C. primary visual cortex
D. amygdala
D. amygdala
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-071 Answer D is correct. K. Spanhel and colleagues compared the flashbulb memory recall of temporal lobe epilepsy patients with and without lesions in the amygdala and found that only those with lesions in the amygdala (especially in the non-dominant hemisphere) had significantly diminished recall (Flashbulb memories: Is the amygdala central? An investigation of patients with amygdalar damage, Neuropsychologia, 111, 163-171, 2018). If you’re unfamiliar with the Spanhel et al. study, knowing that the amygdala is involved in the formation of flashbulb memories would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
The 7th edition of the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association states that authors should retain raw data associated with their articles published in APA journals:
A. for at least 7 years after publication of the articles.
B. for at least 12 years after publication of the articles.
C. in accordance with APA’s Record Keeping Guidelines.
D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements.
D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-185 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because the 7th edition of APA’s Publication Manual (APA, 2020) does not specify a specific number of years for retaining raw data. Instead, it states that “authors are expected to retain the data associated with a published article in accordance with institutional requirements; funder requirements; participant agreements; and, when publishing in an APA journal, the APA Ethics Code” (p. 13). Note, however, that the 6th edition of the Publication Manual and submission guidelines for APA journals state that authors of articles published in an APA journal must maintain raw data for at least five years after publication of the articles.
Which of the following is an evidence-based treatment for adolescents with anorexia nervosa that takes an agnostic view of the disorder and consists of three phases – parental control of the adolescent’s eating, gradual return of control to the adolescent, and establishing age-appropriate independence in the adolescent?
A. family-based treatment
B. family-focused therapy
C. functional family therapy
D. interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders
A. family-based treatment
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-061 Answer A is correct. Family-based treatment for anorexia consists of the three phases listed in the question. It takes an agnostic approach to the etiology of the disorder, which means it doesn’t attempt to identify why it developed and does not blame the parents or adolescent. Family-focused therapy (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders (answer D) is an evidence-based treatment for bulimia and binge-eating disorder. There is some evidence that it may also be useful for anorexia, but it doesn’t involve the phases described in the question.
Glick and Fiske’s (2001) theory of ambivalent sexism distinguishes between __________ components of sexism.
A. reactive and proactive
B. cognitive, affective, and behavioral
C. interpersonal and intrapersonal
D. hostile and benevolent
D. hostile and benevolent
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-104 Answer D is correct. According to Glick and Fiske, ambivalent sexism consists of two distinct but co-existing and complementary components: Hostile sexism is characterized by a negative attitude toward women who have not accepted traditional female roles (e.g., women who challenge male dominance), while benevolent sexism is characterized by a positive attitude toward women who adhere to traditional roles (e.g., women who accept the belief that they need to be protected by men).
Community reinforcement and family training (CRAFT) distinguishes between the identified patient (IP), who is the person with the substance-use problem, and the concerned significant other (CSO), who is a family member or close friend of the IP. The primary goals of CRAFT include all of the following except:
A. getting the IP into substance-use treatment.
B. decreasing the IP’s substance use.
C. helping the CSO adopt “loving-detachment” from the IP.
D. improving the CSO’s quality of life.
C. helping the CSO adopt “loving-detachment” from the IP.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-084 Answer C is correct. CRAFT is a type of unilateral family therapy in which therapists work directly with a CSO rather than with the IP to achieve three primary goals: (a) helping the CSO influence the IP to seek substance-use treatment, (b) teaching the CSO procedures to help reduce the IP’s substance use, and (c) helping the CSO make positive life changes that improve the CSO’s quality of life. Encouraging CSOs to adopt a position of loving detachment (answer C) is characteristic of Al-Anon.
Overcorrection is ordinarily classified as a type of:
A. negative punishment.
B. positive punishment.
C. negative reinforcement.
D. positive reinforcement.
B. positive punishment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-072 Answer B is correct. Overcorrection is considered an application of positive punishment because it involves applying a penalty (restitution and/or positive practice) after the target behavior occurs in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
Studies comparing the effectiveness of prolonged-exposure therapy delivered face-to-face (FtF) or via computer videoconferencing (CVT) for treating PTSD have most often found that:
A. FtF therapy is significantly less effective than CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.
B. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms but significantly less effective for maintaining treatment fidelity.
C. FtF therapy is somewhat less effective than CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms but more effective for maintaining treatment fidelity.
D. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.
D. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-070 Answer D is correct. Most studies comparing the use of computer videoconferencing to face-to-face therapy for delivering prolonged-exposure therapy to individuals with PTSD have found that they are comparable in terms of both reducing the symptoms of PTSD and maintaining treatment fidelity, which is the degree to which an intervention is delivered as intended. See, e.g., L. A. Morland, S. Y. Wells, L. H. Glassman, C. J. Greene, J. E. Hoffman, and C. S. Rosen, Advances in PTSD treatment delivery: Review of findings and clinical considerations for the use of telehealth interventions for PTSD, Current Treatment Options in Psychiatry, 7, 221-241, 2020.
Most cross-cultural research has found that, when judging the attractiveness of women, men tend to prefer a waist-to-hip ratio of about:
A. 1.50.
B. 1.00.
C. .70.
D. .50.
C. .70.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-178 Answer C is correct. The waist-to-hip ratio is calculated by dividing waist circumference by hip circumference. Most cross-cultural studies have found that men prefer a low waist-to-hip ratio of .70, which means that waist circumference is about 70% of hip circumference.
When psychologists are faced with conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements, they:
A. may comply with legal requirements when the conflict is unresolvable.
B. may comply with legal requirements when doing so doesn’t violate basic human rights.
C. must choose the course of action that allows fullest adherence to ethical guidelines.
D. must choose the course of action that allows the greatest degree of compliance with both ethical guidelines and legal requirements.
B. may comply with legal requirements when doing so doesn’t violate basic human rights.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-124 Answer B is correct. Conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements are addressed in Standard 1.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Both require psychologists to make a reasonable effort to resolve a conflict in a way that is consistent with ethical responsibilities but do not require them to abide by ethical responsibilities in all situations (which is why answers C and D are not the best answers). As noted by Fisher, “when reasonable actions taken by psychologists do not resolve the conflict, they are permitted to make a conscientious decision to comply with the legal or regulatory authority under circumstances in which their actions cannot be used to justify or defend violating human rights” (2017, p. 59).
When evaluating the effectiveness of an intervention to eliminate the head banging of a child with autism spectrum disorder, a researcher would be least likely to use which single-subject research design?
A. AB
B. ABAB
C. multiple baseline
D. counterbalanced
B. ABAB
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-052 Answer B is correct. Of the three single-subject designs listed in answers A, B, and C, the ABAB design would be least desirable in the situation described in the question. Although the AB and multiple baseline designs (answers A and C) have disadvantages, those disadvantages are not unique to the situation described in this question. However, a disadvantage of the ABAB design applies to studies investigating the effects of a treatment to eliminate a self-injurious behavior: Removing a successful treatment during the second baseline (A) phase just to see if the treatment caused the elimination of the self-injurious behavior during the initial treatment (B) phase would be unethical. [Counterbalanced (answer D) can be eliminated because it is a type of group design.]
