Exam 7 Flashcards
Which of the following theories proposes that physiological arousal and the experience of emotion occur simultaneously and independently in response to a stimulus?
A. Hering’s opponent process theory
B. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory
C. James-Lange theory
D. Cannon-Bard theory
D. Cannon-Bard theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Emotions and Stress-047 Answer D is correct. Cannon-Bard theory describes all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal and proposes that the physiological reaction and subjective emotional reaction to a stimulus occur simultaneously and independently. Hering’s opponent process theory (answer A) is a theory of color vision. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory (answer B) proposes that physiological arousal occurs first and then the person looks for external cues that provide a reason for that arousal. According to the James-Lange theory (answer C), emotions are the result of physiological arousal, with different types of arousal producing different emotions.
When a psychologist is providing therapy to an employee through an employee assistance program (EAP), the psychologist:
A. must not provide information to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee whether the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral or referral from the supervisor.
B. must not provide information to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee only when the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral.
C. may provide information about the employee’s attendance to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee only if the employee’s participation is the result of a referral from the supervisor.
D. may provide information about the employee’s attendance to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee when the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral or referral from the supervisor.
A. must not provide information to the employee’s supervisor without authorization from the employee whether the employee’s participation is the result of a self-referral or referral from the supervisor.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-090 Answer A is correct. Employees participating in EAPs have the same right to confidentiality as other therapy clients do. Consequently, information about their participation is provided to their supervisors only when the employees have signed an authorization to release information. This is true whether participation is the result of a self-referral or a referral from the supervisor. (Note that, ordinarily, the authorization will be to release information only pertaining to the employee’s attendance and adherence to EAP recommendations.)
Current indications for deep brain stimulation (DBS) include all of the following except:
A. Parkinson’s disease.
B. atypical parkinsonism.
C. essential tremor.
D. dystonia.
B. atypical parkinsonism.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-096 Answer B is correct. DBS is a surgical treatment for Parkinson’s disease, essential tremor, and dystonia (especially primary dystonia) that involves implanting a device that sends electrical signals to areas in the brain that control movement. It is contraindicated for atypical parkinsonism, which shares some symptoms with Parkinson’s disease but is caused by other disorders, including progressive supranuclear palsy, multiple system atrophy, corticobasal degeneration, and neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Unlike Parkinson’s disease, atypical parkinsonism does not respond well to treatment with levodopa or DBS.
Which of the following is associated with stage 6 of Kohlberg’s model of moral development?
A. transcendental morality
B. social contract orientation
C. interpersonal concordance
D. universal ethical principles
D. universal ethical principles
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-125 Answer D is correct. Kohlberg’s model of moral development consists of three levels, with each level including two stages. The third level is the post-conventional level and consists of stages 5 and 6: Stage 5 is the social contract and individual rights stage (answer B), and stage 6 is the universal ethical principles stage (answer D). Transcendental morality (answer A) was a seventh stage that Kohlberg proposed later in his life. However, due to a lack of evidence for its existence, he considered it to be speculative. Interpersonal concordance (answer C) is another name for stage 3 of Kohlberg’s model, which is better known as the “good-boy/good girl” stage.
The Dot Counting Test (DCT) is most useful:
A. for detecting dysfunction in selective attention.
B. for detecting feigned cognitive impairment.
C. as a screening test for mild neurocognitive disorder.
D. as a screening test for attention deficits.
B. for detecting feigned cognitive impairment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Clinical Tests-176 Answer B is correct. The DCT requires examinees to count grouped and ungrouped dots printed on separate cards as quickly as possible. Poor effort is suggested when the time taken to count grouped dots (which should be easier to count) is equal to or greater than the time taken to count ungrouped dots. It allows examiners to detect poor test-taking effort and whether it was intentional (e.g., due to malingering) or unintentional and represents normal effort for several diagnostic groups (e.g., depression, schizophrenia, head injury).
Statistical power is increased by all of the following except:
A. a large sample.
B. a large level of significance (.05 rather than .01).
C. a parametric (versus nonparametric) statistical test.
D. population heterogeneity on the dependent variable.
D. population heterogeneity on the dependent variable.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-36 Answer D is correct. Statistical power is affected by several factors including the variability of the population with regard to status on the dependent variable: The more homogeneous the population is (i.e., the lower its variability), the more homogeneous the groups drawn from that population will be and, consequently, the easier it will be to detect the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. In other words, greater population homogeneity (not heterogeneity) is associated with greater statistical power. Other factors that increase statistical power are listed in answers A, B, and C.
Intravenous administration of ________ is the primary treatment for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
A. vitamin C (ascorbic acid)
B. vitamin B1 (thiamine)
C. vitamin E
D. vitamin D
B. vitamin B1 (thiamine)
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-105 Answer B is correct. If you are unfamiliar with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, knowing that Korsakoff syndrome is also known as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome and is caused by a thiamine deficiency would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is the acute disorder that is caused by a thiamine deficiency and involves confusion, abnormal eye movements, and ataxia. When it is not adequately treated, it leads to Korsakoff syndrome, which is a chronic disorder that is due to permanent damage to the brain and involves anterograde and retrograde amnesia and confabulation.
A graduate student recently completed a research study and simultaneously submitted the article he wrote about the study to three APA journals. This is:
A. acceptable.
B. acceptable only if he informed each journal that he had submitted the article to two other journals.
C. acceptable only if, after finding out that one journal intends to publish the article, he immediately notifies the other journals and withdraws his submission to those journals.
D. unacceptable.
D. unacceptable.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-197 Answer D is correct. Simultaneous (concurrent) submission of an article to multiple journals is not addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or Canadian Code of Ethics. However, as noted by Belcher (2019), it is unacceptable for the author(s) of a journal article to simultaneously submit the same journal article to more than one journal. Instead, the author(s) should submit the article to one journal at a time and wait for it to be rejected by one journal before submitting it to another journal.
Which of the following tests is useful for assessing children 3 to 10 years of age who have sensory, motor, or speech deficits and was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy?
A. Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children
B. Leiter International Performance Scale
C. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale
D. Cognitive Abilities Test
C. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-126 Answer C is correct. The Columbia Mental Maturity Scale, Third Edition (CMMS) does not require verbal responses or fine motor skills. It was originally developed for children with cerebral palsy, but it is also useful for children with sensory, speech, or other motor impairments or limited English proficiency. The Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children, Second Edition (answer A) is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3:0 through 18:11 and was designed to be a culture fair test by minimizing cultural content and verbal instructions and responses. The Leiter International Performance Scale, Third Edition (answer B) is a nonverbal measure of cognitive abilities for individuals 3 to 75+ years of age who have cognitive delays, speech or hearing impairments, autism spectrum disorder, or limited English proficiency. The Cognitive Abilities Test, Form 7 (answer D) assesses cognitive abilities in verbal, quantitative, and nonverbal domains and is appropriate for students in grades K through 12.
Studies investigating the relationship between Baumrind’s parenting styles and children’s bullying behavior and victimization by a bully have found that:
A. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to victimization and permissive parenting is more strongly related to bullying behavior.
B. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to bullying behavior and permissive parenting is more strongly related to victimization.
C. authoritarian parenting is associated with bullying behavior only and permissive parenting is associated with victimization only.
D. authoritarian parenting is associated with both bullying behavior and victimization, but permissive parenting is not associated with bullying behavior or victimization.
B. authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying and victimization, but authoritarian parenting is more strongly related to bullying behavior and permissive parenting is more strongly related to victimization.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-095 Answer B is correct. Research on the impact of parenting style on bullying behavior and victimization by a bully has not produced entirely consistent results. However, the best conclusion that can be drawn from the studies is that authoritarian and permissive parenting are both associated with an increased risk for bullying behavior and victimization by a bully but that authoritarian parenting is more strongly associated with bullying behavior while permissive parenting is more strongly associated with victimization by a bully.
According to the 4D model of appreciative inquiry, the first stage in organizational change is which of the following?
A. dream
B. detect
C. discover
D. desire
C. discover
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Change and Development-160 Answer C is correct. The 4D model of appreciative inquiry describes organizational change as involving a cycle that consists of four stages. These stages are, in order, discover (or discovery), dream, design, and delivery (or destiny).
Children as young as 3 years of age categorize toys, clothing, and activities by gender. This is due to the acquisition of:
A. gender stability.
B. gender schemas.
C. gender typing.
D. gender constancy.
B. gender schemas.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-056 Answer B is correct. Children use gender schemas to perceive, encode, and interpret information about themselves and others. For example, by 3 years of age, boys and girls usually have well-established gender schemas for toys, clothing, and activities (e.g., they consider trucks to be toys for boys and dolls to be toys for girls). The acquisition of gender stability and gender constancy (answers A and D) are the second and third stages, respectively, of Kohlberg’s gender identity development model. They can be eliminated as correct answers because they emerge after 4 years of age. Gender typing (answer C) can be eliminated because it refers to expectations about the behaviors of others based on their biological sex.
Of the Big Five personality traits, level of __________ has been most consistently identified as an accurate predictor of level of marital satisfaction and stability.
A. agreeableness
B. extraversion
C. conscientiousness
D. neuroticism
D. neuroticism
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- School and Family Influences-114 Answer D is correct. With regard to marriage, high levels of neuroticism have been most consistently linked to a number of negative outcomes including marital dissatisfaction and an increased risk for separation and divorce. See, e.g., B. R. Karney and T. N. Bradbury, The longitudinal course of marital quality and stability: A review of theory, method, and research, Psychological Bulletin, 118(1), 3-34, 1995.
In his research on conformity to group norms, Asch (1951):
A. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms.
B. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects did not conform to group norms.
C. used an ambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms.
D. used an ambiguous stimulus and found that subjects did not conform to group norms.
A. used an unambiguous stimulus and found that subjects conformed to group norms.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Social Influence – Types of Influence-167 Answer A is correct. Prior to Asch’s research, Sherif (1935) used an ambiguous stimulus (the autokinetic effect) to study conformity to group norms, and found that subjects conformed to the group norm. Asch then used an unambiguous stimulus (comparisons of the lengths of three lines) and found that subjects conformed to the group norm even when it was obvious that the line-length estimates made by other group members (confederates) were clearly wrong.
Instrumental aggression usually first appears in children by the time they are ____ of age and then peaks at _____ of age.
A. 1 year; 2 years
B. 3 years; 4 years
C. 5 years; 7 years
D. 7 years; 9 years
A. 1 year; 2 years
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-174 Answer A is correct. The purpose of instrumental aggression is to achieve a goal, most often to gain attention or obtain an object (e.g., to get a toy from another child). For most children, it first appears by the time they are one year of age and peaks at about two years of age when they begin to be better able to negotiate verbally.
Methods of __________ can be categorized as work-oriented, worker-oriented, or a combination of the two.
A. job evaluation
B. job analysis
C. needs assessment
D. job specification
B. job analysis
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-17 Answer B is correct. A job analysis is a systematic procedure for obtaining work- and/or worker-oriented information about a job – i.e., information about the content and context of a job and/or the human characteristics required to perform the job successfully. A job evaluation (answer A) is conducted to obtain information needed to make decisions about compensation. A needs assessment (answer C) is also known as a needs analysis and is used to make decisions about training. A job specification (answer D) provides a description of the worker characteristics required to perform a job successfully. These three procedures are not categorized as work-oriented, worker-oriented, or a combination of the two.
Psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) are similar to actual epileptic seizures in terms of symptoms but are due to psychological distress. Which of the following is considered most useful for distinguishing PNES from actual seizures?
A. MRI
B. NEBA
C. video EEG
D. ambulatory EEG
C. video EEG
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-032 Answer C is correct. Video electroencephalography (vEEG) is considered the gold standard for diagnosing PNES. It involves simultaneously recording a person’s brain electrical activity with an EEG and overt behaviors on video. When the person’s seizures are psychogenic, the EEG pattern does not correspond to the person’s seizure-like behaviors because they are not being caused by abnormal electrical brain activity. MRI (answer A) is a structural neuroimaging technique that is used to obtain information about brain structure. NEBA (answer B) is the acronym for the neuropsychiatric EEG-based assessment aid, which is used to assist in the diagnosis of ADHD. Ambulatory EEG (answer D) is used to record electrical activity in a person’s brain while the person engages in usual activities.
Which of the following best describes the results of research investigating the effectiveness of olanzapine (an atypical antipsychotic) and fluoxetine (an SSRI antidepressant) as treatments for anorexia nervosa?
A. Studies have established olanzapine as an evidence-based treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as an evidence-based treatment for weight maintenance.
B. Studies have established fluoxetine as an evidence-based treatment for fostering initial weight gain and olanzapine as an evidence-based treatment for weight maintenance.
C. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of olanzapine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as a treatment for weight maintenance.
D. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of fluoxetine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and olanzapine as a treatment for weight maintenance.
C. Studies have produced mixed results about the effectiveness of olanzapine as a treatment for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine as a treatment for weight maintenance.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-130 Answer C is correct. The effectiveness of olanzapine for fostering initial weight gain and fluoxetine for improving weight maintenance for individuals with anorexia has been evaluated by a number of studies. While some studies have provided evidence of the effectiveness of both drugs, others have not. Consequently, the best conclusion is that the studies have produced mixed results about the effects of both of these drugs.
Research has confirmed that different early life experiences (e.g., child maltreatment, parental divorce, parental psychopathology) can lead to childhood depression. This is an example of which of the following?
A. integration
B. differentiation
C. equifinality
D. multifinality
C. equifinality
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Theories-067 Answer C is correct. The concepts of equifinality and multifinality are derived from general systems theory and have been applied to several disciplines including biology, developmental psychopathology, family therapy, and organizational theory. Equifinality refers to the ability of open systems to reach the same final state from different initial conditions, while multifinality refers to the ability of open systems to reach different final states from the same initial condition. This question applies equifinality to developmental psychopathology.
Dittmar, Bond, Hurst, and Kasser’s (2014) meta-analysis of the research found that there is:
A. a positive relationship between materialism and well-being with higher levels of materialism being associated with higher levels of well-being.
B. a negative relationship between materialism and well-being with higher levels of materialism being associated with lower levels of well-being.
C. a U-shaped relationship between materialism and well-being with high and low levels of materialism being associated with the highest levels of well-being.
D. an inverted U-shaped relationship between materialism and well-being with moderate levels of materialism being associated with the highest levels of well-being.
B. a negative relationship between materialism and well-being with higher levels of materialism being associated with lower levels of well-being.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Persuasion and Behavioral Economics-065 Answer B is correct. Dittmar et al.’s meta-analysis confirmed that prioritization of materialist values has a negative effect on personal well-being. They found that higher levels of materialism were associated, for example, with lower levels of life satisfaction, mental health, and physical health.
In most people, Broca’s area is located in the __________ and Wernicke’s area is located in the __________.
A. left inferior frontal gyrus; left superior temporal gyrus
B. right inferior frontal gyrus; right superior temporal gyrus
C. left anterior cingulate gyrus; left posterior cingulate gyrus
D. right anterior cingulate gyrus; right posterior cingulate gyrus
A. left inferior frontal gyrus; left superior temporal gyrus
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-149 Answer A is correct. Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas are the major language areas of the brain. Knowing that the left hemisphere is dominant for language in most people and that Broca’s area is located in the frontal lobe and Wernicke’s area is located in the temporal lobe would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Also, knowing that the cingulate gyrus is part of the cingulate cortex and that the cingulate cortex is one of the structures of the limbic system would have helped you eliminate answers C and D. (A gyrus is a ridge on the surface of the cerebral cortex.)
An advantage of computerized adaptive tests is that they:
A. are time- and cost-effective to develop.
B. allow examinees to review and change answers to items they have already answered.
C. reduce testing time without losing precision of measurement.
D. facilitate the interpretation of test scores.
C. reduce testing time without losing precision of measurement.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-051 Answer C is correct. One important advantage of computer adaptive tests is that they reduce testing time by requiring examinees to answer only items that are appropriate for their ability level rather than requiring all examinees to answer all of the items in the item pool. Another advantage is that they can be designed so that they provide the same amount of measurement precision (accuracy) for all examinees. Answers A and B do not describe advantages of computerized adaptive testing but, instead, refer to disadvantages: Computerized adaptive tests can be time- and resource-intensive to create, and they do not usually allow examinees to make changes to items they have already answered. Answer D is not correct because scores on a computerized adaptive test are not necessarily easier or more difficult to interpret than scores on a paper-and-pencil test or other type of test.
In a multitrait-multimethod matrix, a large monotrait-heteromethod coefficient provides evidence of a test’s:
A. reliability.
B. divergent validity.
C. convergent validity.
D. factorial validity.
C. convergent validity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-060 Answer C is correct. A multitrait-multimethod matrix contains correlation coefficients that provide information about a measure’s reliability and convergent and divergent validity. The monotrait-heteromethod coefficient is the correlation between two different measures (heteromethod) that assess the same trait (monotrait). When this correlation is large, it provides evidence of a measure’s convergent validity.
Pavlov proposed that spontaneous recovery of a conditioned response after extinction trials provides evidence that extinction of the conditioned response is due to:
A. external inhibition.
B. internal inhibition.
C. higher-order conditioning.
D. habituation.
B. internal inhibition.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-LEA-Classical Conditioning-33 Answer B is correct. During extinction trials, the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus until the conditioned stimulus no longer elicits the conditioned response. However, after a period of time, when the conditioned stimulus is again presented without the unconditioned stimulus, the conditioned response returns in a reduced or less intense form. Pavlov referred to the return of the conditioned response as spontaneous recovery. He proposed that it provides evidence that the extinction of a conditioned response is due to a physiological process that suppresses (rather than eliminates) the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response, and he referred to this physiological process as internal inhibition.
When reviewing a supervisor’s performance ratings of the employees he supervises, you notice that there is a great deal of consistency in the positivity or negativity of ratings he has assigned to each employee, but his positive and negative ratings vary for different employees. For example, the supervisor assigned one employee very low ratings on all dimensions of job performance but another employee high ratings on all dimensions. Which of the following rater biases is suggested by this pattern of ratings?
A. central tendency bias
B. false consensus effect
C. halo effect
D. leniency/strictness bias
C. halo effect
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-057 Answer C is correct. When a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are affected by the central tendency, leniency, or strictness bias (answers A and D), the ratings of all employees are affected in the same way. The central tendency bias occurs, for instance, when a supervisor gives all employees average ratings regardless of their actual level of performance. In contrast, when a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect, ratings are likely to differ for different employees. For example, a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect when the supervisor highly values communication skills and, consequently, rates employees who have very good communication skills high on all other dimensions of performance but rates employees who have poor communication skills low on all other dimensions of performance regardless of their actual performance on the other dimensions. The false consensus effect (answer B) is not a rater bias but is a cognitive bias that occurs when we overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.
For practitioners of positive psychology, which of the following is the likely outcome when there is balance between the level of challenge posed by a task and the skill level of the person performing the task?
A. individuation
B. committed action
C. flow
D. arugamama
C. flow
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-075 Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the conditions that lead to flow, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you have positive psychology associated with flow, which is a state of being totally immersed in an activity accompanied by joy and a sense of fulfillment. According to M. Csikszentmihalyi, a person is most likely to experience flow when there is a challenge-skill balance – i.e., when people perceive a task’s level of challenge (difficulty) and their level of skill with regard to accomplishing that task to be similar (Finding flow: The psychology of engagement with everyday life, New York, Basic Books, 1997). Individuation (answer A) is a goal of Jung’s analytical psychology and is the process by which a person develops an integrated, unique identity. Committed action (answer B) is associated with acceptance and commitment therapy. Arugamama (answer D) means acceptance of life as it is and is a goal of Morita therapy, which is NOT something you need to be familiar with for the exam.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for soliciting client testimonials to be used by psychologists in advertisements for their professional services?
A. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting testimonials from current clients but not former clients.
B. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting testimonials from current clients and, in some circumstances, former clients.
C. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting client testimonials from current and former clients in any circumstances.
D. Psychologists are allowed to solicit testimonials from current and former clients if the information in the testimonials is not false or misleading.
B. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting testimonials from current clients and, in some circumstances, former clients.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-147 Answer B is correct. This issue is directly addressed by Standard 5.05 of the APA Ethics Code and indirectly by Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.05 prohibits psychologists from soliciting testimonials from current therapy clients and from others “who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.” In other words, soliciting testimonials from current clients always violates ethical responsibilities, while soliciting testimonials from former clients violates ethical responsibilities when those clients are vulnerable to undue influence.
Rowe and Kahn’s (1987) model of successful aging includes all of the following except:
A. a low probability of disease and disease-related disability.
B. active engagement in life.
C. acceptance of the normal effects of aging.
D. high cognitive and physical functional capacity.
C. acceptance of the normal effects of aging.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-134 Answer C is correct. Rowe and Kahn’s model identifies three factors that are essential for successful aging: reducing the risk for disease and disease-related disability, maintaining high cognitive and physical functioning, and staying actively engaged in life by being connected to others and involved in productive activities.
Satir’s conjoint family therapy is based on the assumption that problematic family behaviors often involve one or more of four dysfunctional communication patterns that include all of the following except:
A. blaming.
B. placating.
C. manipulating.
D. computing.
C. manipulating.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-224 Answer C is correct. Satir distinguished between four dysfunctional (incongruent) communication styles that contribute to family problems: blaming, placating, distracting (also known as irrelevant), and computing (also known as super-reasonable).
Which of the following is the most likely effect of a GABA receptor agonist?
A. anxiety and insomnia
B. unusual thoughts and feelings
C. relaxed muscles and sleepiness
D. nausea and vomiting
C. relaxed muscles and sleepiness
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-153 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to be familiar with the effects of GABA and know that an agonist mimics or enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter. GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. It slows down brain activity and plays a role in visual processing, sleep, and motor control and produces a calming effect that helps alleviate anxiety and stress. Consequently, a GABA agonist (e.g., a benzodiazepine) would most likely relax tense muscles and cause sleepiness.
Harrington and Gelfand’s (2014) research investigating the relationship between cultural tightness-looseness and personality traits in the United States found that:
A. people in tight cultures exhibit greater conscientiousness and greater openness relative to people in loose cultures.
B. people in tight cultures exhibit less conscientiousness and less openness relative to people in loose cultures.
C. people in tight cultures exhibit less conscientiousness and greater openness relative to people in loose cultures.
D. people in tight cultures exhibit greater conscientiousness and less openness relative to people in loose cultures.
D. people in tight cultures exhibit greater conscientiousness and less openness relative to people in loose cultures.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-109 Answer D is correct. Cultural tightness-looseness refers to the strength of a culture’s social norms and tolerance for deviant behaviors. Knowing that tight cultures have strong social norms and low tolerance for deviant behaviors and that loose cultures have weak social norms and high tolerance for deviant behaviors might have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As noted by Harrington and Gelfand, tightness has a positive correlation with conscientiousness because this personality dimension “reflects greater impulse control and overall self-constraint and is associated with cautiousness, self-discipline, ability to delay gratification, desire for orderliness, and conformity to norms.” In contrast, looseness has a positive correlation with openness because this dimension “is associated with nontraditional values and beliefs, breadth of experience, interest and curiosity toward new ideas, tolerance for other cultures, and a preference for originality” (2014, p. 7993).
As conceptualized by Shapiro and her colleagues (e.g., Shapiro & Maxfield, 2002), the rapid eye movement component of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) exerts its beneficial effects on the symptoms of PTSD by:
A. suppressing the anxiety response to traumatic memories by substituting a relaxation response.
B. desensitizing the conditioned fear response through repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories.
C. synchronizing the functioning of the right and left hemispheres of the brain.
D. accelerating information processing and adaptive resolution of traumatic memories.
D. accelerating information processing and adaptive resolution of traumatic memories.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-189 Answer D is correct. EMDR is based on Shapiro’s adaptive information processing model, which proposes (a) that PTSD results when traumatic experiences are inadequately processed and (b) that rapid eye movements facilitate information processing, resulting in an adaptive resolution of traumatic memories. Note that there is some evidence that rapid eye movements exert beneficial effects by providing repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories (answer B), but this is not Shapiro’s explanation for the effects of rapid eye movements, which is what this question is asking about.
H. M. underwent a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy as a treatment for intractable epilepsy. Following surgery, H. M.:
A. was unable to form new long-term declarative memories.
B. was unable to form new long-term nondeclarative memories.
C. had severe deficits in procedural memory.
D. had severe deficits in short-term memory.
A. was unable to form new long-term declarative memories.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Memory and Sleep-198 Answer A is correct. The medial temporal lobe is the inner surface of the temporal lobe and includes the hippocampus and several other structures that are vital for long-term declarative memories. Following a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy, H. M.’s short-term memory and procedural memory were intact, but he had deficits in remote long-term episodic memory and was unable to transfer any new declarative information from short- to long-term memory. (Declarative memory consists of semantic and episodic memories, while nondeclarative memory consists of procedural memories, memories created by classical conditioning, and memories affected by priming.)
Cognitive therapy for suicide prevention (CT-SP) has been found to be effective for reducing suicidal ideation, repeat suicide attempts, and depression in adolescents and adults who recently attempted suicide. As described by Bryan (2019), the primary targets of the three stages of CT-SP are, in order:
A. risk assessment, skills training, and safety planning.
B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention.
C. crisis management, cognitive flexibility, and safety planning.
D. cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and relapse prevention.
B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-050 Answer B is correct. As described by Bryan, emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility are essential mechanisms for reducing suicidal behaviors and, consequently, are the primary targets of the first and second phases of CT-SP, respectively. Then, when a client has acquired emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility skills, the third phase begins and focuses on relapse prevention. Although risk assessment, skills training, cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and safety planning are often included as elements of cognitive therapy for suicide prevention and cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention, they are not the primary targets of the three stages identified by Bryan.
When a therapist is using dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) with a client who has recently received the diagnosis of borderline personality disorder, the client’s treatment will least likely include which of the following?
A. intersession coaching
B. individual psychotherapy
C. family or couple counseling
D. group skills training
C. family or couple counseling
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Personality Disorders-049 Answer C is correct. DBT includes group skills training, individual psychotherapy, and phone coaching (which is also known as intersession coaching). Note that a therapist consultation team is often described as a fourth component of DBT. It is a peer consultation team that therapists participate in for the purpose of helping them maintain the motivation and skills needed to be effective therapists.
Data collected by Bouchard and McGue (1981) indicate that the median correlation coefficient for IQ scores is lowest for which of the following?
A. biological parent and child living apart
B. adopted siblings living together
C. biological siblings living apart
D. half-siblings living together
A. biological parent and child living apart
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-31 Answer A is correct. The median correlation coefficients for IQ scores reported by Bouchard and McGue are .22 for biological parent and child living apart, .31 for adopted siblings living together, .24 for biological siblings living apart, and .35 for half-siblings living together. Note that an implication of this data is that nature (genetics) contributes somewhat less than nurture (environment) to IQ scores: For example, the correlation coefficient is higher for adopted siblings living together than for biological siblings living apart.
Research on which of the following has found that people tend to hate losses about twice as much as they enjoy gains?
A. scarcity trap
B. loss aversion
C. gain/loss theory
D. gambler’s fallacy
B. loss aversion
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Persuasion and Behavioral Economics-119 Answer B is correct. Loss aversion is the tendency of people to weigh losses more heavily than gains. For example, Kahneman and Tversky (1979) found that the aggravation caused by losing a specific amount of money is about twice as intense as the satisfaction caused by gaining the same amount of money.
Dr. Jackson earned a Ph.D in clinical psychology from St. Louis University seven years ago and now has a private practice and teaches undergraduate psychology classes as an adjunct professor at the University of Illinois at Urbana-Champaign. On the business cards for her clinical practice, Dr. Jackson lists St. Louis University and the University of Illinois. In terms of ethical guidelines, listing the University of Illinois is:
A. acceptable since she is teaching psychology classes at the University of Illinois.
B. acceptable since the psychology department at the University of Illinois is accredited by APA.
C. not acceptable since she is an adjunct (versus tenured) professor at the University of Illinois.
D. not acceptable since her affiliation with the University of Illinois is not relevant to her clinical practice.
D. not acceptable since her affiliation with the University of Illinois is not relevant to her clinical practice.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ETH-Standards 5 & 6-21 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Principles III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibit psychologists from making false or misleading statements about their credentials, institutional or associational affiliations, etc. Listing the University of Illinois on her business card violates this ethical responsibility because it might be interpreted as indicating that her clinical practice is sponsored or endorsed by the University of Illinois (see, e.g., G. G. Ford, Mental health reasoning for mental health professionals, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publications, Inc., 2006).
The Boston Process Approach:
A. provides decision rules for identifying the presence and location of focal lesions that are causing a patient’s symptoms.
B. reduces testing time by providing guidelines for determining the order and number of tests needed to identify areas of brain dysfunction.
C. emphasizes observing a patient’s problem-solving activity to determine how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems.
D. emphasizes identifying the personal, interpersonal, and contextual factors that have contributed to a patient’s cognitive impairments.
C. emphasizes observing a patient’s problem-solving activity to determine how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Clinical Tests-107 Answer C is correct. Use of the Boston Process Approach is based on the assumption that qualitative analysis of a patient’s responses to test items provides more information than quantitative scores about the patient’s neuropsychological processes by identifying how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems presented by test items.
Studies confirming the predictions of the overjustification effect also provide evidence for which of the following?
A. cognitive dissonance theory
B. theory of planned behavior
C. balance theory
D. self-perception theory
D. self-perception theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Attitudes and Attitude Change-132 Answer D is correct. According to Bem’s (1972) self-perception theory, people learn about themselves in the same way they learn about other people – i.e., by observing their behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur. Evidence for self-perception theory is provided by studies confirming the overjustification effect. It predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, they’ll think they are performing the behavior because of the external rewards, which will cause their intrinsic motivation to decline. In other words, as predicted by self-perception theory, they will look at the external circumstances to understand their own behaviors.
Research has found that individuals with nonverbal learning disability (NVLD) tend to obtain:
A. significantly lower scores on the WAIS-IV’s WMI than on the PSI.
B. significantly higher scores on the WAIS-IV’s PSI than on the WMI.
C. significantly lower scores on the WAIS-IV’s VCI than on the PRI.
D. significantly higher scores on the WAIS-IV’s VCI than on the PRI.
D. significantly higher scores on the WAIS-IV’s VCI than on the PRI.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-29 Answer D is correct. For prior versions of the Wechsler tests that provided Verbal and Performance IQ scores, a significantly higher Verbal IQ than Performance IQ was found to be characteristic of NVLD. On the WAIS-IV, which does not provide Verbal and Performance IQ scores, the same difference was found on the Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) and Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI), which are considered to be substitutes, respectively, for Verbal IQ and Performance IQ. (See, e.g., D. L. Wodrich and A. J. Schmitt, Learning disorders: Working systematically from assessment to intervention, New York, Guilford Press, 2006.)
Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs in individuals who are:
A. heterozygous for a recessive allele.
B. homozygous for a recessive allele.
C. heterozygous or homozygous for a recessive allele.
D. heterozygous or homozygous for a dominant allele.
B. homozygous for a recessive allele.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-207 Answer B is correct. PKU results when a child inherits a recessive allele from both parents – i.e., when the child is homozygous for the recessive allele. (An allele is an alternative form of a gene.) The recessive allele responsible for PKU causes a failure to produce the enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, which is an amino acid found in a number of foods including milk, cheese, beans, meat, bread, and eggs. If a newborn with PKU is not started on diet low in phenylalanine soon after birth, PKU can cause severe intellectual disability.
Lawrence Kohlberg’s stages of moral development were derived from his research with male subjects of various ages, and he concluded that the typical male tends to function at stage 4. When his method for assessing moral development was subsequently used with female subjects, it was found that the typical female tends to function at stage 3, which led some researchers to conclude that females tend to be less morally developed than males are. As described by Sandra Bem (2008), this conclusion about the difference between males and females with regard to moral development best illustrates which of the following?
A. gender polarization
B. androcentrism
C. gender stereotyping
D. androgyny
B. androcentrism
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-007 Answer B is correct. S. L. Bem distinguished between three “lenses” through which people perceive gender (The lenses of gender: Transforming the debate on sexual inequality, New Haven, Yale University Press, 2008): (a) Biological essentialism refers to the attribution of gender differences to unalterable biological factors. (b) Gender polarization (answer A) refers to the exaggeration of gender differences. (c) Androcentrism (answer B) refers to the tendency to view the behaviors and experiences of males as the norm and the behaviors and experiences of females as deviations from the norm, often to the disadvantage of females. Gender stereotyping (answer C) refers to overgeneralizing attributes that are considered normal or appropriate for males or females and is not one of the lenses identified by Bem. Androgyny (answer D) is the term Bem used to describe individuals who have both feminine and masculine traits and is also not one of the three lenses that she identified for perceiving gender.
A psychologist is conducting a study that involves having children, one at a time, watch a video in which Sally first puts a teddy bear in a box on a table and then leaves the room. While Sally is out of the room, Anne enters the room and moves the teddy bear to a drawer in a nearby cupboard. Each child is then asked where Sally will look for the teddy bear when she returns to the room. This task is most often used to assess which of the following?
A. transductive reasoning
B. zone of proximal development
C. egocentrism
D. theory of mind
D. theory of mind
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Cognitive Development-199 Answer D is correct. The task described in the question is the change-of-location task, which is one of several false-belief tasks that are used to evaluate children’s theory of mind – i.e., children’s ability to understand that the beliefs, perceptions, and intentions of others can differ from their own. More specifically, the change-of-location task assesses children’s understanding that another person can have a mistaken belief about the location of something and will act in accord with that belief.
The reliability index is an estimate of the correlation between actual observed scores and theoretical true scores and is calculated by:
A. squaring the reliability coefficient.
B. taking the square root of the reliability coefficient.
C. subtracting the reliability coefficient from 1.0.
D. taking the square root of the standard error of measurement.
B. taking the square root of the reliability coefficient.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-1 Answer B is correct. The reliability index is calculated by taking the square root of the reliability coefficient. For example, when a test’s reliability coefficient is .81, the reliability index is .90.
The first stages of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model and Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model are best described as being characterized by which of the following?
A. Positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
B. Negative attitudes toward White (majority) culture and positive attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
C. Positive attitudes toward both White (majority) and Black (minority) cultures.
D. Negative attitudes toward both White (majority) and Black (minority) cultures.
A. Positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-113 Answer A is correct. The first stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s model is the conformity stage, and the first stage of Cross’s model is the pre-encounter stage. Both stages are characterized by positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.
Based on the results of their meta-analysis of research on the efficacy and safety of St. John’s wort extract for people with mild to moderate depression, Cui and Zheng (2016) concluded that St. John’s wort:
A. is significantly less effective than SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a higher rate of adverse events.
B. is significantly less effective than SSRIs in terms of treatment response but has a lower rate of adverse events.
C. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response but has a higher rate of adverse events.
D. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a lower rate of adverse events.
D. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a lower rate of adverse events.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-157 Answer D is correct. Cui and Sheng’s meta-analysis found that, for individuals with mild to moderate depression, St. John’s wort extract was comparable to SSRIs in terms of clinical response and remission and had a lower rate of adverse events.
In their longitudinal study of the effects of overcontrolling (“helicopter”) parenting, Perry and colleagues (2018) found that children’s levels of __________ at age 5 were mediators that linked overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood to poor emotional, social, and academic functioning at 10 years of age.
A. behavioral restraint and social reticence
B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control
C. negative affectivity and aggression
D. self-awareness and empathy
B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- School and Family Influences-191 Answer B is correct. Studies have linked helicopter parenting to a number of negative outcomes for children, and some studies have identified mediators that explain this link. For example, Perry and colleagues found that overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood was predictive of poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation (as measured by emotion regulation and inhibitory control) at age 5 which, in turn, was predictive of emotional, social, and academic problems at age 10.
The mother of a 5-year-old boy yells at him whenever he misbehaves by, for example, teasing the dog or punching his younger brother. The boy figures out that, if he says “I love you” to his mother when she yells at him, she will stop yelling. For the boy, continuing to say “I love you” to his mother whenever she yells at him is best described as being the result of:
A. escape conditioning.
B. avoidance conditioning.
C. stimulus generalization.
D. response generalization.
A. escape conditioning.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Operant Conditioning-041 Answer A is correct. In this situation, the boy says “I love you” to his mother because, when he does so, she stops yelling at him. In other words, his behavior continues because it allows him to “escape” his mother’s yelling. Escape conditioning is essentially another name for negative reinforcement: It occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because something is removed following the behavior.
The insufficient top-down control hypothesis predicts that generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is due to reduced connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and:
A. anterior cingulate cortex.
B. entorhinal cortex.
C. mammillary bodies.
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
A. anterior cingulate cortex.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-044 Answer A is correct. If you’re not familiar with research linking GAD to weak connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and anterior cingulate cortex, you might have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the anterior cingulate cortex plays a role in mood and anxiety disorders. Alternatively, you might have been able to use the process of elimination to make an “educated guess”: Knowing that the entorhinal cortex and mammillary bodies play important roles in memory would have helped you eliminate answers B and C, and knowing that the suprachiasmatic nucleus is responsible for controlling the body’s circadian rhythms would have helped you eliminate answer D.
Structural equation modeling (SEM) is used to test models of the relationships among:
A. observed variables only.
B. latent variables only.
C. observed and latent variables.
D. observed and manifest variables.
C. observed and latent variables.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Correlation and Regression-184 Answer C is correct. An advantage of SEM is that it allows researchers to test models of the relationships among observed and latent variables. Observed variables are also known as manifest variables and indicators and can be directly measured. Latent variables are also known as factors and constructs and cannot be measured directly but are inferred from observed variables.
One of Dr. Honesta’s current clients has filed a complaint against her with the Ethics Committee, which has requested that she provide the Committee with client information related to the cause of the complaint. Dr. Honesta believes the client’s complaint is baseless and is a manifestation of the client’s resistance to therapy. Dr. Honesta should:
A. provide the Committee with only information she believes is relevant to the complaint.
B. provide the Committee with a copy of the client’s file and a cover letter that explains why she believes the complaint is baseless.
C. provide the Committee with the information it has requested after confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release the information.
D. not provide the Committee with the information it has requested and, instead, send a letter that explains why she believes the client’s complaint is baseless.
C. provide the Committee with the information it has requested after confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release the information.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-062 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 1.06 of APA’s Ethics Code and the Preamble (Responsibility of the Individual Psychologist) and Principle I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 1.06 requires psychologists to cooperate with ethics committees and states that failing to do so constitutes an ethical violation. However, it also states that, before doing so, psychologists should address confidentiality issues which can be accomplished by confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release information to the Ethics Committee.
As described by Broten and colleagues (2011), when a stepped care approach is used to treat individuals with low levels of depressive symptoms, the first step includes assessment and monitoring. When symptoms do not remit, the second step includes which of the following?
A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT
B. watchful waiting, self-monitoring, and/or psychoeducation
C. group therapy, brief individual CBT, and/or medication
D. psychoeducation, peer support group, and/or brief individual CBT
A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-179 Answer A is correct. The stepped care model developed by Broten and colleagues is similar to other models of stepped care for depression and includes four steps. Step 1 consists of assessment, monitoring, and watchful waiting. Step 2 consists of interventions that require minimal practitioner involvement and includes psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT. Step 3 consists of interventions that require more intensive care and specialized therapist training and includes group therapy, individual therapy, and/or medication. Step 4 consists of the most restrictive and intensive form of care and involves voluntary or involuntary inpatient care.
You saw Betty and Bob in therapy for several months and, during their last two sessions, they came to the decision that divorce was the best course of action for them. Several months after terminating therapy with you, Betty calls to ask you to conduct a child custody evaluation and provide recommendations about custody to the court. You should:
A. conduct the custody evaluation as long as you base your recommendations on the best interests of the children.
B. conduct the custody evaluation if you obtain consent from both Betty and Bob.
C. conduct the custody evaluation if you obtain consent from both Betty and Bob and provide the court with the results of the evaluation but not with a custody recommendation.
D. refuse to conduct the custody evaluation.
D. refuse to conduct the custody evaluation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-133 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines regarding multiple relationships in general and in the context of custody evaluations. For example, Paragraph II.7 of the APA’s Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings (2010) states that psychologists should avoid multiple relationships and identifies conducting a custody evaluation with current or former psychotherapy clients as a multiple relationship. Guidelines for custody evaluations are also provided by the College of Psychologists of Ontario’s Custody and Access Task Force: Its guidelines state that, when providing services related to custody, psychologists “make best efforts to avoid dual or multiple relationships, or roles, even when the parties request or consent to this” (Information for Consideration by Members Providing Psychological Services in the Context of Child Custody Disputes & Child Protection Proceedings, 2014, https://cpo.on.ca/wp-content/uploads/Custody-and-Access-Information-for-Members.pdf).
Cross-cultural research on social loafing has found that it is:
A. common in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures.
B. more common in collectivistic than individualistic cultures.
C. more common in individualistic than collectivistic cultures.
D. more common among women than men in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures.
C. more common in individualistic than collectivistic cultures.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Social Influence – Group Influences-074 Answer C is correct. A number of studies have confirmed that people from individualistic cultures are more likely than those from collectivistic cultures to engage in social loafing. There’s also evidence that, in some collectivistic cultures, individuals work harder in a group than they do when working alone, and this is referred to as social striving. With regard to gender (answer D), there’s some evidence that men engage in more social loafing than women do in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures [e.g., D. Tsaw, S. Murphy, and J. Detgen, Social loafing and culture: Does gender matter?, International Review of Business Research Papers, 7(3), 1-8].
Which of the following videoconferencing platforms is not considered HIPAA compliant because it will not enter into a business associate agreement?
A. Consumer Skype
B. Doxy-me
C. thera-LINK
D. Zoom for Healthcare
A. Consumer Skype
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-202 Answer A is correct. Consumer Skype is not considered HIPAA compliant for several reasons. One reason is that, unlike the videoconferencing platforms listed in answers B, C, and D, it will not enter into a business associate agreement (BAA). (Note that HIPAA compliance is required for all health care providers who are covered entities – i.e., who electronically transmit protected health information.)
The Multidimensional Model of Racial Identity (MMRI) developed by Sellers and colleagues (1998) distinguishes between four dimensions of African American identity. Which of these dimensions is most affected by the nature of the individual’s current situation?
A. racial regard
B. racial disparity
C. racial salience
D. racial centrality
C. racial salience
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-212 Answer C is correct. Sellers and colleagues distinguish between four dimensions of racial identity: racial salience, racial centrality, racial regard, and racial ideology. Racial salience refers to the extent to which a person’s race is relevant to the person’s self-concept at a particular point in time or in a particular situation. In other words, the degree of racial salience for a person depends on the circumstances. For example, the salience of an African American person’s race is likely to be high when that person is the only African American in a social situation. In contrast, Sellers et al. describe the other three dimensions as being stable across different situations. Racial disparity (answer B) is not one of the dimensions identified by Sellers et al.
In a normal distribution, a T-score of ___ is equivalent to a percentile rank of: 84.
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
C. 60
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-TES-Test Score Interpretation-15 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, in a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 and a T-score of 60 are both one standard deviation above the mean.
As used by practitioners of motivational interviewing, the technique known as “developing discrepancy” involves helping clients recognize the difference between:
A. a success identity and a failure identity.
B. their values and goals and their current behaviors.
C. reality and their expectations for reality.
D. the self and the ideal self.
B. their values and goals and their current behaviors.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Brief Therapies-039 Answer B is correct. Practitioners of motivational interviewing view discrepancy as a source of motivation, and the technique of developing discrepancy involves helping clients recognize discrepancies between their goals, values, and beliefs and their current behaviors in order to increase their motivation to change.
Terror management theory (TMT) predicts that increasing the salience of mortality:
A. increases a person’s positive attitudes toward both in-group and out-group members.
B. increases a person’s negative attitudes toward both in-group and out-group members.
C. increases a person’s negative attitudes toward in-group members and positive attitudes toward out-group members.
D. increases a person’s positive attitudes toward in-group members and negative attitudes toward out-group members.
D. increases a person’s positive attitudes toward in-group members and negative attitudes toward out-group members.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-213 Answer D is correct. According to TMT, awareness (salience) of mortality creates a sense of terror which, in turn, can have a variety of adverse effects. For example, research has found that increasing awareness of mortality contributes to prejudice and discrimination by increasing negative evaluations of and reactions to out-group members and increasing positive evaluations of and reactions to in-group members.
Twin studies investigating the contributions of genetics and the environment to personality have confirmed that:
A. monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality.
B. monozygotic twins reared apart are less similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality.
C. monozygotic twins reared together and dizygotic twins reared together have about the same degree of similarity in terms of personality, but monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than are dizygotic twins reared apart.
D. monozygotic twins and dizygotic twins have about the same degree of similarity in terms of personality, regardless of whether the twins are reared together or apart.
A. monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-166 Answer A is correct. The influence of genetics on personality has been confirmed by studies finding that correlation coefficients for monozygotic twins on a variety of personality traits are larger than the coefficients for dizygotic twins, regardless of whether the twins are reared together or apart (e.g., Tellegen et al., 1988). For example, studies have not only found that monozygotic twins reared together are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together but also that monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than are dizygotic twins reared together.
Akathisia is a movement disorder caused by antipsychotic drugs and is characterized by which of the following?
A. involuntary muscle contractions
B. a sense of restlessness and an urge to keep moving
C. involuntary, rhythmic movements of the tongue, lips, face, and jaw
D. tremor, muscle rigidity, and slowed movements
B. a sense of restlessness and an urge to keep moving
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-120 Answer B is correct. Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic drugs and involves a feeling of inner restlessness with a compulsion to keep moving. The disorders listed in the other answers are also extrapyramidal side effects: Involuntary muscle contractions (answer A) are symptoms of dystonia. Involuntary, jerky movements of the tongue, lips, face, and jaw (answer C) are symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Tremor, muscle rigidity, and slowed movements (answer D) are symptoms of parkinsonism. Note that there is evidence that second-generation antipsychotics are less likely than first-generation antipsychotics to cause dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism but that this is not necessarily true for akathisia [B. Elhusein, O. Mahgoub, R. Kumar, and M. A. Abdullah, The possibility of the second-generation antipsychotic Olanzapine to cause akathisia in a drug naïve patient – A case report, International Journal of Psychiatry, 5(1), 1-4, 2020].
A professional executor is the person designated by a psychologist to carry out the terms of a psychologist’s professional will. According to the ASPPB’s Guidelines for Closing a Psychology Practice (2020), a professional executor:
A. must be a licensed psychologist.
B. must be an attorney.
C. may be a licensed psychologist or other licensed health provider.
D. may be a professional colleague or family member.
C. may be a licensed psychologist or other licensed health provider.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-175 Answer C is correct. As described in the Guidelines for Closing a Psychology Practice, a professional executor should ideally be “a member of the profession or if this is not possible a member of another regulated health profession.” It also states that, ideally, the executor “should not be a member of the psychologist’s own family due to the inherent conflict of interest that exists” (2020, p. 8).
Research on gender segregation has found that most children begin to prefer same-sex playmates between:
A. 2 and 3 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do.
B. 2 and 3 years of age with boys showing a preference earlier than girls do.
C. 4 and 5 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do.
D. 4 and 5 years of age with boys showing a preference earlier than girls do.
A. 2 and 3 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-225 Answer A is correct. Studies have found that most children begin to prefer same-sex playmates between 2 and 3 years of age, with girls showing this preference by age 2 and boys showing this preference by age 3.
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements about authorship credit for research articles substantially based on a student’s doctoral dissertation?
A. The student must always be listed as sole author.
B. The student must always be listed as principal author.
C. The student should be listed as principal author except in exceptional circumstances.
D. Authorship credit should be mutually decided upon by the student and dissertation chairperson.
C. The student should be listed as principal author except in exceptional circumstances.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-222 Answer C is correct. Answer C is the best answer because it is closest to the language of Standard 8.12(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code. It states that, “except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student’s doctoral dissertation.” For example, there is an exception when multiple students write dissertations on a large research project and the results of the project are submitted to a journal as a single article or monograph. Answer D is not the best answer because it implies that listing the dissertation chair as the sole or primary author would be acceptable as long as the student and dissertation chair agreed to do so. However, that agreement would violate Standard 8.12(c).
Which of the following scales of measurement allows you to conclude that the difference between the scores of 50 and 51 on a test is equal to the difference between the scores of 90 and 91 on the same test?
A. ordinal, interval, and ratio
B. interval and ratio
C. interval only
D. ratio only
B. interval and ratio
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Types of Variables and Data-009 Answer B is correct. Interval and ratio scales both have the property of equal intervals between adjacent points on the scale. Equal intervals allow you to draw the conclusion that the one-point difference between the scores of 50 and 51 on a test is equal to the one-point difference between the scores of 90 and 91 on the same test.
The multifactor leadership questionnaire (MLQ) assesses characteristics associated with transformational and transactional leadership. The two transactional leadership characteristics assessed by the MLQ are:
A. individualized consideration and idealized influence.
B. individualized consideration and management-by-exception.
C. contingent rewards and management-by-exception.
D. contingent rewards and individualized consideration.
C. contingent rewards and management-by-exception.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Leadership-180 Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the MLQ, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that transactional leaders rely on contingent rewards to motivate their employees and that individualized consideration and idealized influence are characteristic of transformational (not transactional) leaders. Management-by-exception is characteristic of transactional leaders and can be either active or passive: Active management-by-exception occurs when leaders closely monitor the behaviors of followers and take corrective action when necessary. Passive management-by-exception occurs when leaders do not closely monitor the behavior of followers and take corrective action only when serious errors have already occurred. (For the exam, you do not need to be familiar with the MLQ but should be familiar with the characteristics of transformational and transactional leadership.)
A therapist accepted a small gift from a 65-year-old Chinese therapy client because he was concerned that rejecting the gift might have caused the client to “lose face.” The therapist’s acceptance of the gift is most consistent with which of the General Principles contained in the APA’s Ethics Code?
A. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence and Respect
B. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence and Fidelity/Responsibility
C. Respect and Integrity
D. Fidelity/Responsibility and Integrity
A. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence and Respect
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ETH-Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer A is correct. Neil A. Massoth notes that, of the five General Principles, Beneficence and Nonmaleficence and Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity are most relevant to this situation. Beneficence and Nonmaleficence is Principle A. It states that “psychologists strive to benefit those with whom they work and take care to do no harm.” As noted in the question, rejecting the gift might have harmed the Chinese client by causing the client to lose face. Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity is Principle E. It states that “psychologists are aware of and respect cultural, individual, and role differences.” In Chinese and many other Asian cultures, gift-giving is a common ritual in interpersonal relationships. [Massoth is cited in D. S. Bailey, Approaching ethical dilemmas, Monitor on Psychology, 35(9), 62, 2004, https://www.apa.org/monitor/oct04/dilemmas.]
As described by Baddeley (2000), the phonological loop:
A. transfers auditory information from sensory to short-term memory.
B. transfers auditory information from short- to long-term memory.
C. temporarily stores auditory information.
D. transforms auditory information to visual information.
C. temporarily stores auditory information.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-048 Answer C is correct. Baddeley’s model describes the working memory aspect of short-term memory as consisting of a central executive and three subsystems – a phonological loop, a visuo-spatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer. The phonological loop is responsible for the temporary storage of auditory (verbal) information. It consists of a phonological store that briefly stores words and other speech sounds and an articulatory process that silently repeats words and other speech sounds on a loop to prevent them from decaying.
A meta-analysis of the research by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found that flextime has the greatest positive influence on which of the following?
A. absenteeism
B. job satisfaction
C. productivity
D. satisfaction with flextime
A. absenteeism
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Change and Development-087 Answer A is correct. Baltes et al.’s (1999) meta-analysis found that the strongest beneficial effect of flextime was the reduction of absenteeism followed by, in order, objective measures of productivity, employee satisfaction with flextime, job satisfaction, and self-rated performance.
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1988) situational leadership theory, a telling leadership style is most effective for employees who have:
A. low ability and low motivation.
B. low ability and high motivation.
C. high ability and low motivation.
D. high ability and high motivation.
A. low ability and low motivation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Leadership-165 Answer A is correct. Situational leadership theory predicts that leaders are most effective when they adapt their leadership style to the ability and motivation (also known as willingness) of their employees: The telling style is most effective for employees who are low in both ability and motivation (answer A). The selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation (answer B). The participative style is most effective for employees who are high in ability and low in motivation (answer C). The delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation (answer D). Note that, because of its name, the selling style may seem most appropriate for someone with low motivation. However, Hersey and Blanchard’s description of this style clarifies why it’s appropriate for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation: The selling style involves facilitating performance by explaining task directions in a supportive and persuasive way.
Functional family therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based intervention for:
A. families with a history of domestic violence.
B. families that include a member with schizophrenia.
C. children and adolescents with anorexia or bulimia and their families.
D. adolescents with conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder and their families.
D. adolescents with conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder and their families.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-094 Answer D is correct. FFT is an evidence-based intervention for families that include adolescents who present with or are at risk for delinquency, substance use, conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, or other serious behavioral problems.
Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment is best described as a:
A. developmental theory.
B. decision-making theory.
C. person-environment fit theory.
D. social learning theory.
C. person-environment fit theory.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Career Choice and Development-108 Answer C is correct. Like Holland’s theory of career choice, Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment emphasizes the importance of the match between a person’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job. More specifically, Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness: Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.
The goal of APA accreditation is best described as:
A. providing status to graduates of accredited schools.
B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students.
C. establishing minimum standards of competence.
D. protecting the profession of psychology and its practitioners.
B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-116 Answer B is correct. The APA provides several descriptions of the goal of APA accreditation, but all identify benefiting or protecting the public and some also identify protecting students as the goal: For example, the APA accreditation website states that “the ultimate goal of APA accreditation is to graduate psychologists who are uniquely qualified to protect the wellbeing of the public by providing quality psychological service” (https://www.accreditation.apa.org/why-accreditation-matters). In addition, the APA’s Standards for Accreditation for Health Service Psychology and Accreditation Operating Procedures states that “accreditation is intended to protect the interests of students, benefit the public, and improve the quality of teaching, learning, research, and practice in health service psychology” (2018, p. 3).
Adults over the age of 40 are likely to have the least trouble hearing a:
A. child’s voice.
B. bird chirping.
C. frog croaking.
D. microwave oven beeping.
C. frog croaking.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-063 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, for most adults, decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds (presbycusis) begins after age 40. You also need to know that the croaking of a frog is the only sound of the four sounds listed in the answers that is a low-frequency sound.
The EEG for stage ___ of non-REM sleep is characterized by theta waves interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B. 2
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PHY-Memory and Sleep-35 Answer B is correct. Theta waves begin in stage 1 sleep and continue in stage 2, when they are interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes. Sleep spindles are brief bursts of high frequency activity, and K complexes are well-defined high-amplitude waves that occur spontaneously or in response to environmental stimuli.
Which of the following schedules of reinforcement produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction?
A. variable interval
B. fixed interval
C. variable ratio
D. fixed ratio
C. variable ratio
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Operant Conditioning-103 Answer C is correct. When using the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after six responses, then after four responses, then after eight responses, and so on. Of the four intermittent schedules of reinforcement, it produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction.
Because of their location and size, the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex are the lobes that are most often affected by traumatic brain injury. Symptoms of frontal lobe injury are most likely to include which of the following?
A. impaired long-term memory, difficulty understanding spoken words, and increased aggressive behavior
B. inability to identify colors, inability to recognize familiar words, and difficulty locating objects in the environment
C. problems with calculations and writing, difficulty distinguishing between left and right, and inability to identify objects by touch
D. inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements
D. inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-058 Answer D is correct. The symptoms of frontal lobe injury depend on the exact location and extent of the injury. However, of the symptoms listed in the answers, frontal lobe injury is most likely to cause an inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements. The symptoms listed in answer A are most likely to result from injury to the temporal lobes, those listed in answer B are likely to be caused by injury to the occipital lobes, and those listed in answer C are likely to be the result of injury to the parietal lobes.
Use of utility analysis to evaluate the usefulness of a newly developed test for selecting job applicants provides an estimate of which of the following?
A. the percentage of newly hired applicants who will be successful on the job when the test is used to make hiring decisions
B. the probability that a particular applicant will be successful on the job when the test is used to make hiring decisions
C. the monetary gain that can be expected when the test is used to make hiring decisions
D. the incremental validity that can be expected when the test is added to the current hiring procedure
C. the monetary gain that can be expected when the test is used to make hiring decisions
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-079 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to estimate the economic benefit that would be achieved by using a selection test or other procedure to assist with hiring and other personnel decisions. The Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula is commonly used to assess the utility of a selection technique, and it transforms the validity coefficient of the selection technique into an estimate of the technique’s monetary value. Note that utility analysis and cost-utility analysis are not the same thing: Utility analysis (which is described in the organizational psychology content summary) is used in organizations to determine the economic gain that a procedure produces in terms of worker productivity (e.g., the dollar value of performance gains obtained by using a new selection test to hire job applicants). Cost-utility analysis (which is described in the clinical psychology content summary) is used to compare the effects of two or more healthcare interventions on quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY).
Auditory hallucinations are a frequent symptom of schizophrenia, and research has shown that they are caused by neuronal abnormalities in the:
A. right temporal lobe.
B. left temporal lobe.
C. right occipital lobe.
D. left occipital lobe.
B. left temporal lobe.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-205 Answer B is correct. Knowing that the temporal lobe contains the auditory cortex and that the production and comprehension of speech are dominant (most often left) hemisphere functions would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. See, e.g., K. Hugdahl, E. M. Loberg, and M. Nygard, Left temporal lobe structural and functional abnormality underlying auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia, Frontiers in Neuroscience, 3(1), 34-45, 2009.
Spanhel and colleagues (2018) found that patients with lesions in the __________ had significantly diminished flashbulb memory recall.
A. thalamus
B. nucleus accumbens
C. primary visual cortex
D. amygdala
D. amygdala
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-071 Answer D is correct. K. Spanhel and colleagues compared the flashbulb memory recall of temporal lobe epilepsy patients with and without lesions in the amygdala and found that only those with lesions in the amygdala (especially in the non-dominant hemisphere) had significantly diminished recall (Flashbulb memories: Is the amygdala central? An investigation of patients with amygdalar damage, Neuropsychologia, 111, 163-171, 2018). If you’re unfamiliar with the Spanhel et al. study, knowing that the amygdala is involved in the formation of flashbulb memories would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
The 7th edition of the Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association states that authors should retain raw data associated with their articles published in APA journals:
A. for at least 7 years after publication of the articles.
B. for at least 12 years after publication of the articles.
C. in accordance with APA’s Record Keeping Guidelines.
D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements.
D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-185 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because the 7th edition of APA’s Publication Manual (APA, 2020) does not specify a specific number of years for retaining raw data. Instead, it states that “authors are expected to retain the data associated with a published article in accordance with institutional requirements; funder requirements; participant agreements; and, when publishing in an APA journal, the APA Ethics Code” (p. 13). Note, however, that the 6th edition of the Publication Manual and submission guidelines for APA journals state that authors of articles published in an APA journal must maintain raw data for at least five years after publication of the articles.
Which of the following is an evidence-based treatment for adolescents with anorexia nervosa that takes an agnostic view of the disorder and consists of three phases – parental control of the adolescent’s eating, gradual return of control to the adolescent, and establishing age-appropriate independence in the adolescent?
A. family-based treatment
B. family-focused therapy
C. functional family therapy
D. interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders
A. family-based treatment
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-061 Answer A is correct. Family-based treatment for anorexia consists of the three phases listed in the question. It takes an agnostic approach to the etiology of the disorder, which means it doesn’t attempt to identify why it developed and does not blame the parents or adolescent. Family-focused therapy (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders (answer D) is an evidence-based treatment for bulimia and binge-eating disorder. There is some evidence that it may also be useful for anorexia, but it doesn’t involve the phases described in the question.
Glick and Fiske’s (2001) theory of ambivalent sexism distinguishes between __________ components of sexism.
A. reactive and proactive
B. cognitive, affective, and behavioral
C. interpersonal and intrapersonal
D. hostile and benevolent
D. hostile and benevolent
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-104 Answer D is correct. According to Glick and Fiske, ambivalent sexism consists of two distinct but co-existing and complementary components: Hostile sexism is characterized by a negative attitude toward women who have not accepted traditional female roles (e.g., women who challenge male dominance), while benevolent sexism is characterized by a positive attitude toward women who adhere to traditional roles (e.g., women who accept the belief that they need to be protected by men).
Community reinforcement and family training (CRAFT) distinguishes between the identified patient (IP), who is the person with the substance-use problem, and the concerned significant other (CSO), who is a family member or close friend of the IP. The primary goals of CRAFT include all of the following except:
A. getting the IP into substance-use treatment.
B. decreasing the IP’s substance use.
C. helping the CSO adopt “loving-detachment” from the IP.
D. improving the CSO’s quality of life.
C. helping the CSO adopt “loving-detachment” from the IP.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-084 Answer C is correct. CRAFT is a type of unilateral family therapy in which therapists work directly with a CSO rather than with the IP to achieve three primary goals: (a) helping the CSO influence the IP to seek substance-use treatment, (b) teaching the CSO procedures to help reduce the IP’s substance use, and (c) helping the CSO make positive life changes that improve the CSO’s quality of life. Encouraging CSOs to adopt a position of loving detachment (answer C) is characteristic of Al-Anon.
Overcorrection is ordinarily classified as a type of:
A. negative punishment.
B. positive punishment.
C. negative reinforcement.
D. positive reinforcement.
B. positive punishment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-072 Answer B is correct. Overcorrection is considered an application of positive punishment because it involves applying a penalty (restitution and/or positive practice) after the target behavior occurs in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.
Studies comparing the effectiveness of prolonged-exposure therapy delivered face-to-face (FtF) or via computer videoconferencing (CVT) for treating PTSD have most often found that:
A. FtF therapy is significantly less effective than CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.
B. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms but significantly less effective for maintaining treatment fidelity.
C. FtF therapy is somewhat less effective than CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms but more effective for maintaining treatment fidelity.
D. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.
D. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-070 Answer D is correct. Most studies comparing the use of computer videoconferencing to face-to-face therapy for delivering prolonged-exposure therapy to individuals with PTSD have found that they are comparable in terms of both reducing the symptoms of PTSD and maintaining treatment fidelity, which is the degree to which an intervention is delivered as intended. See, e.g., L. A. Morland, S. Y. Wells, L. H. Glassman, C. J. Greene, J. E. Hoffman, and C. S. Rosen, Advances in PTSD treatment delivery: Review of findings and clinical considerations for the use of telehealth interventions for PTSD, Current Treatment Options in Psychiatry, 7, 221-241, 2020.
Most cross-cultural research has found that, when judging the attractiveness of women, men tend to prefer a waist-to-hip ratio of about:
A. 1.50.
B. 1.00.
C. .70.
D. .50.
C. .70.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-178 Answer C is correct. The waist-to-hip ratio is calculated by dividing waist circumference by hip circumference. Most cross-cultural studies have found that men prefer a low waist-to-hip ratio of .70, which means that waist circumference is about 70% of hip circumference.
When psychologists are faced with conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements, they:
A. may comply with legal requirements when the conflict is unresolvable.
B. may comply with legal requirements when doing so doesn’t violate basic human rights.
C. must choose the course of action that allows fullest adherence to ethical guidelines.
D. must choose the course of action that allows the greatest degree of compliance with both ethical guidelines and legal requirements.
B. may comply with legal requirements when doing so doesn’t violate basic human rights.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-124 Answer B is correct. Conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements are addressed in Standard 1.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Both require psychologists to make a reasonable effort to resolve a conflict in a way that is consistent with ethical responsibilities but do not require them to abide by ethical responsibilities in all situations (which is why answers C and D are not the best answers). As noted by Fisher, “when reasonable actions taken by psychologists do not resolve the conflict, they are permitted to make a conscientious decision to comply with the legal or regulatory authority under circumstances in which their actions cannot be used to justify or defend violating human rights” (2017, p. 59).
When evaluating the effectiveness of an intervention to eliminate the head banging of a child with autism spectrum disorder, a researcher would be least likely to use which single-subject research design?
A. AB
B. ABAB
C. multiple baseline
D. counterbalanced
B. ABAB
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-052 Answer B is correct. Of the three single-subject designs listed in answers A, B, and C, the ABAB design would be least desirable in the situation described in the question. Although the AB and multiple baseline designs (answers A and C) have disadvantages, those disadvantages are not unique to the situation described in this question. However, a disadvantage of the ABAB design applies to studies investigating the effects of a treatment to eliminate a self-injurious behavior: Removing a successful treatment during the second baseline (A) phase just to see if the treatment caused the elimination of the self-injurious behavior during the initial treatment (B) phase would be unethical. [Counterbalanced (answer D) can be eliminated because it is a type of group design.]
Which of the following would be most useful for combining scores on multiple predictors when good performance on one predictor can compensate for poor performance on another predictor?
A. multiple regression
B. multiple comparisons
C. multiple hurdles
D. multiple cutoff
A. multiple regression
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Techniques-025 Answer A is correct. A compensatory method for combining scores on multiple predictors is appropriate when a high score on one predictor can compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple regression is the only compensatory method listed in the answers. Multiple hurdles and multiple cutoff (answers C and D) are non-compensatory methods and are useful when a high score on one predictor cannot compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple comparisons (answer B) is not a method for combining scores on multiple predictors.
Practitioners of acceptance and commitment therapy (ACT) use cognitive defusion and mindfulness techniques to foster which of the following?
A. individuation
B. adaptive coping skills
C. self-actualization
D. psychological flexibility
D. psychological flexibility
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-085 Answer D is correct. Knowing that the primary goal of ACT is to increase psychological flexibility would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you are not familiar with cognitive defusion and mindfulness techniques. As noted by Hayes, Pistorello, and Levin, “cognitive defusion and mindfulness techniques are used [in ACT] to attempt to create more flexibility in the presence of difficult thoughts, in part by making the ongoing process of thinking much more evident” (2012, p. 983).
When a predictor has a criterion-related validity coefficient of _____, this means that 64% of variability in scores on the criterion is explained by variability in scores on the predictor.
A. .80
B. .64
C. .40
D. .36
A. .80
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-218 Answer A is correct. A criterion-related validity coefficient, like other correlation coefficients for two different variables, can be interpreted by squaring it to obtain a measure of shared variability. This question gives you the squared number, so you have to take its square root to get the validity coefficient: The square root of .64 is .80. (Note: If there are any questions on the exam that require you to calculate a square root, the numbers will be easy ones like the one in this question – e.g., .81, .49, .36.)
The peak age of onset for schizophrenia is:
A. early- to mid-20s for males and females.
B. late-20s for males and females.
C. late-20s for males and early- to mid-20s for females.
D. early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females.
D. early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-142 Answer D is correct: The psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia usually first appear between the late teens and early 30s, with the peak age of onset being in the early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females. See, e.g., G. M. Giordano, P. Bucci, A. Mucci, P. Pezzella, and S. Galderisi, Gender differences in clinical and psychosocial features among persons with schizophrenia: A mini review, Frontiers in Psychiatry, 12, 2021, https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fpsyt.2021.789179/full.
When the court determines that an employer’s selection test has an adverse impact on members of a legally protected group, the employer:
A. will not be permitted to use the test to hire employees under any circumstances.
B. will be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and the test will be used in conjunction with other measures that do not have an adverse impact.
C. may be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and the employer will broaden recruitment methods so that more job applicants are from the legally protected group.
D. may be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and there are no alternative valid measures available that would not have an adverse impact.
D. may be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and there are no alternative valid measures available that would not have an adverse impact.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-8 Answer D is correct. When the court determines that a selection test is having an adverse impact, the employer has several options: The employer can substitute another measure for the test that does not have an adverse impact, can modify the test so that it no longer has an adverse impact, or can show that the attributes measured by the test are job related and there are no other valid measures available that would not have an adverse impact. The applicable rules for this situation are described in the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.
Based on their analysis of data collected in the Generations Study of LGB individuals belonging to three age cohorts, Bishop and her colleagues (2020) concluded that:
A. members of the younger age cohort experienced all sexual identity development milestones earlier than did members of the middle and older age cohorts.
B. members of the older age cohort experienced all sexual identity development milestones earlier than did members of the middle and younger age cohorts.
C. members of the younger age cohort experienced some sexual identity development milestones earlier, while members of the middle and older age cohorts experienced other milestones earlier.
D. members of the younger, middle, and older age cohorts experienced all sexual identity development milestones at about the same average ages.
A. members of the younger age cohort experienced all sexual identity development milestones earlier than did members of the middle and older age cohorts.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-128 Answer A is correct. The Generations Study was a five-year study that examined the health and well-being of lesbian, gay, and bisexual (LGB) individuals who represented three age cohorts: 18-25, 34-41, and 52-59. Included in this study were questions about participants’ ages when they first experienced five sexual identity milestones: awareness of same-sex attraction; self-identification as lesbian, gay, or bisexual; same-sex sexual behavior; disclosure as a sexual minority to a straight friend; and disclosure as a sexual minority to a family member. Consistent with previous research, Bishop, Fish, Hammack, and Russell found that members of the younger cohort reported first experiencing all milestones at the youngest ages, while members of the older cohort reported first experiencing all milestones at the oldest ages.
The treatment-of-choice for a 6-year-old child whose symptoms meet the diagnostic criteria for oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and who has been physically abused by his parents is which of the following?
A. parent-child interaction therapy
B. assertive community treatment
C. functional family therapy
D. multidimensional family therapy
A. parent-child interaction therapy
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-097 Answer A is correct. Of the treatments listed in the answers, parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) is the only one that is appropriate for young children (ages 2 to 7) who have ODD or other disruptive behavior problems and is also an evidence-based intervention for children who have experienced or are at risk for experiencing maltreatment. Assertive community treatment (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for schizophrenia. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Multidimensional family therapy (answer D) is for families that include a member 11 to 21 years old who has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency.
Which of the following infants is at greatest risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
A. an 8-month-old Hispanic girl
B. an 8-month-old Asian American boy
C. a 5-month-old European American girl
D. a 5-month-old African American boy
D. a 5-month-old African American boy
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-155 Answer D is correct. Risk factors for SIDS include male gender, African American and Native American race, and age under 6 months. Consequently, of the infants listed in the answers, a 5-month-old African American boy is at greatest risk for SIDS.
Research has provided evidence for the effectiveness of voucher-based reinforcement therapy (VBRT) and cognitive behavior therapy (CBT) for treating patients with cocaine use disorder. More specifically, the studies have found that:
A. VBRT and CBT are equally effective for promoting initial abstinence and preventing relapse.
B. VBRT and CBT are both more effective for preventing relapse than for promoting initial abstinence.
C. VBRT is most effective for promoting initial abstinence and CBT is most effective for preventing relapse.
D. VBRT is most effective for preventing relapse and CBT is most effective for promoting initial abstinence.
C. VBRT is most effective for promoting initial abstinence and CBT is most effective for preventing relapse.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-211 Answer C is correct. VBRT is a type of contingency management that involves giving patients vouchers that can be exchanged for goods and services in the community when they meet treatment goals. It has been found useful for promoting initial abstinence, but its positive effect on abstinence tends to fade once vouchers are no longer provided. In contrast, CBT has been found useful for helping patients maintain abstinence following treatment, apparently because it provides them with coping skills they can continue to use post-treatment.
When using _______ sampling, researchers rely on their own judgment to determine which individuals to include as subjects in their studies.
A. purposive
B. convenience
C. snowball
D. systematic
A. purposive
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-089 Answer A is correct. Purposive sampling is also known as judgmental sampling and is a type of non-probability sampling. When using purposive sampling, investigators rely on their own judgment when choosing individuals to participate in their studies. This involves selecting individuals who have characteristics that are relevant to the purpose of the study.
According to Helms’s White Racial Identity Development Model, people in which of the following stages have a lack of awareness of racism and White privilege and are satisfied with the racial status quo?
A. pseudo-independence
B. contact
C. disintegration
D. pre-encounter
B. contact
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-154 Answer B is correct. Helms’s model distinguishes between six stages which are, in order, contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. According to this model, White individuals in the contact stage are oblivious to race and racism and how they benefit from institutional and cultural racism and White privilege.
Systematic desensitization is to ________ as exposure therapy is to ________.
A. stimulus generalization; response generalization
B. response generalization; stimulus generalization
C. extinction; counterconditioning
D. counterconditioning; extinction
D. counterconditioning; extinction
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-092 Answer D is correct. Systematic desensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate an undesirable anxiety or fear response by replacing the undesirable response with an incompatible and more desirable relaxation response. Exposure therapy (also known as exposure with response prevention) is based on the assumption that a neutral stimulus that does not ordinarily elicit anxiety becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits anxiety because, at some time in the past, it was paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicited anxiety. It uses classical extinction to eliminate the conditioned anxiety response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.
An achievement test has been given to 1,000 middle-school students. The scores obtained by the students are normally distributed and have a mean of 150 and standard deviation of 15. Given this information, you can conclude that ____% of students obtained scores above 165.
A. 32
B. 16
C. 5
D. 2.5
B. 16
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Types of Variables and Data-138 Answer B is correct. In a normal distribution, 68% of scores fall between the scores that are one standard deviation below and above the mean, and the remaining 32% of scores are divided between the positive and negative tails of the distribution: 16% of scores are below the score that is one standard deviation below the mean and 16% are above the score that is one standard deviation above the mean. In the distribution described in the question, the score of 165 is one standard deviation above the mean, which means that 16% of scores fall above this score.
As the result of a stroke, a 74-year-old woman experiences complete paralysis on the right side of her body. This is referred to as __________ and is due to damage in the __________ side of the woman’s brain.
A. hemiplegia; right
B. hemiplegia; left
C. hemiparesis; right
D. hemiparesis; left
B. hemiplegia; left
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-209 Answer B is correct. Knowing that the left side of the brain controls motor functions on the right side of the body (and vice versa) would have helped you eliminate answers A and C since the woman’s paralysis is on the right side of her body. Then, to distinguish between answers B and D, you need to know that hemiplegia is partial or total paralysis on one side of the body and that hemiparesis is muscular weakness on one side of the body.
Hans Eysenck is probably best known for his controversial conclusions about which of the following?
A. the impact of negative parenting on child psychopathology
B. the heritability of intelligence
C. the use of hypnosis to retrieve repressed memories
D. the over-diagnosis of mental illness
B. the heritability of intelligence
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-204 Answer B is correct. Eysenck is known for several controversial views, but only answer B refers to one of them: According to Eysenck, intelligence is highly heritable and, consequently, race differences in IQ are due primarily to genetic differences.
Data collected by Schmidt, Oh, and Shaffer (2016) indicate that the greatest increase in predictive validity for job performance occurs when a test of general mental ability is combined with which of the following?
A. work sample
B. integrity test
C. biodata
D. job knowledge test
B. integrity test
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Techniques-173 Answer B is correct. Schmidt, Oh, and Shaffer’s meta-analysis of research on the predictive validity of selection methods found that general mental ability tests have the highest predictive validity for job performance and that the greatest increase in predictive validity (i.e., the greatest incremental validity) is obtained when a general mental ability test is combined with an integrity test. They note that this is not only because integrity tests have relatively high validity coefficients but also because they have a nearly zero correlation with general mental ability tests, which means the two types of tests assess different contributors to job performance.
THC (tetrahydrocannabinol) produces its reinforcing effects by increasing dopamine concentrations in the:
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B. dorsal striatum.
C. hypothalamus.
D. nucleus accumbens.
D. nucleus accumbens.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-159 Answer D is correct. THC is the main psychoactive chemical in marijuana. Like cocaine, opiates, and other drugs of abuse, it produces reinforcing effects by increasing dopamine concentrations in the nucleus accumbens, which is a component of the brain’s mesolimbic dopaminergic reward pathway. Note, however, that there’s some evidence that chronic heavy use of marijuana may decrease (rather than increase) the release of dopamine in this pathway. See, e.g., E. van de Giessne et al., Deficits in striatal dopamine release in cannabis dependence, Molecular Psychiatry, 22(1), 68-75, 2017.
A college student says her seizures begin with the feeling like she’s on a roller coaster and a sudden sense of fear. She never remembers what happens next, but her roommate has told her that she’s very “fidgety” during seizures and makes smacking noises with her lips. These symptoms suggest that the woman is experiencing which of the following?
A. frontal lobe seizures
B. temporal lobe seizures
C. parietal lobe seizures
D. occipital lobe seizures
B. temporal lobe seizures
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-028 Answer B is correct. The woman’s feeling that she’s on a roller coaster accompanied by a sense of fear and automatisms (being fidgety and smacking her lips) are most characteristic of temporal lobe seizures.
Humanistic and existential therapies share all of the following except:
A. emphasis on current circumstances rather than past formative influences.
B. recognition of the inherent potential for both good and evil.
C. resistance to the use of clinical labels.
D. adoption of a phenomenological orientation that prioritizes subjective experience over objective reality.
B. recognition of the inherent potential for both good and evil.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-10 Answer B is correct. Humanistic therapies focus on the inherent positive aspects of human nature such as the potential for growth and greatness, and they regard evil and destructiveness as distinct from human nature and due to social and cultural factors. In contrast, existential therapies recognize the inherent potential for both good and evil. Unlike answer B, answers A, C, and D are characteristic of both humanistic and existential therapies. For example, with regard to clinical labels, both approaches view diagnoses as counterproductive because they tend to act as self-fulfilling prophecies.
You have been hired by the parent company of a national chain of toy stores to evaluate applicants for managerial positions. During your interview with a 35-year-old applicant, she mentions that she and her husband have two children and that she had an abortion before she got married. When reporting the results of your evaluation of this applicant to the company, you:
A. include information about the applicant’s abortion because the company is the “client” in this situation.
B. include information about the applicant’s abortion in your report because the company is the “client” but indicate that you believe it is irrelevant to her qualifications for a managerial position.
C. include information about the applicant’s abortion in your report only if you informed her of the limits to confidentiality when obtaining her informed consent for the evaluation.
D. do not include information about the applicant’s abortion in your report.
D. do not include information about the applicant’s abortion in your report.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-141 Answer D is correct. Ethical guidelines related to privacy apply to this situation. Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code states that “psychologists include in written and oral reports and consultations only information germane for which the communication is made.” Principle I.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics similarly states that psychologists “seek and collect only information that is germane to the purpose(s) for which consent has been obtained.” In this situation, you would provide the company only with information relevant to each applicant’s qualifications for the managerial positions.
According to Meyer’s (2003) minority stress theory, perceived stigma and internalized heterosexism are __________ factors that increase the risk for mental health problems for sexual-minority individuals.
A. distal
B. proximal
C. autoplastic
D. alloplastic
B. proximal
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-170 Answer B is correct. Meyer’s minority stress theory distinguishes between distal and proximal factors that increase the risk for mental health problems for sexual-minority individuals: Distal factors are external stressors and include prejudice, discrimination, harassment, and violence, while proximal factors are internal stressors and include concealment of sexual identity, perceived stigma, and internalized heterosexism.
Siegel and Langford (1998) compared the MMPI-2 L, K, and F scale scores of two groups of mothers undergoing child custody evaluations. They found that, when compared to mothers who were not exhibiting parental alienation syndrome (PAS), mothers exhibiting PAS were more likely to obtain:
A. significantly higher L and K scale scores and significantly lower F scale scores.
B. significantly higher F scale scores and significantly lower L and K scale scores.
C. significantly higher L scales scores and significantly lower K and F scale scores.
D. significantly higher K scale scores and significantly lower L and F scale scores.
A. significantly higher L and K scale scores and significantly lower F scale scores.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- MMPI-2-064 Answer A is correct. Parental alienation syndrome refers to a parent’s behaviors that cause a child to express hatred and resistance toward the other parent. Research by J. C. Siegel and J. S. Langford and others has found that parents exhibiting PAS often obtain high L and K scale scores on the MMPI-2 and low scores on the F scale, which indicates that they tend to rely on the primitive defenses of denial, projection, splitting, and devaluation [MMPI-2 validity scales and suspected parental alienation syndrome, American Journal of Forensic Psychology, 16(4), 5-14, 1998].
When people are unable to end their cognitive dissonance by replacing or subtracting the dissonant cognition or adding a consonant cognition, they will most likely:
A. decide that the dissonant cognition is actually consonant.
B. decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition.
C. find someone or something to support the dissonant cognition.
D. hide the dissonant cognition from other people.
B. decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Attitudes and Attitude Change-037 Answer B is correct. This question requires you to be familiar with the four methods that people usually use to reduce cognitive dissonance: replace or subtract the dissonant cognition, add a consonant cognition, increase the importance of a consonant cognition, or decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. Of the answers given, only decreasing the importance of the dissonant cognition is one of these methods and, therefore, is the best answer.
Which of the following is likely to produce the largest reliability coefficient for a newly developed achievement test?
A. unrestricted range of scores and homogeneous content of test items
B. unrestricted range of score and heterogeneous content of test items
C. restricted range of scores and homogeneous content of test items
D. restricted range of scores and heterogeneous content of test items
A. unrestricted range of scores and homogeneous content of test items
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Item Analysis and Test Reliability-168 Answer A is correct. Two factors that affect the size of a test’s reliability coefficient are the range of test scores and the homogeneity of the test’s content: All other things being equal, a test with an unrestricted range of test scores and homogeneous items will produce a larger reliability coefficient than will a test with a restricted range of scores and heterogeneous items. For example, a 50-item test that measures knowledge of neuropsychology and contains items that range from easy to very difficult can be expected to have a higher reliability coefficient than will a 50-item test that measures knowledge of neuropsychology, psychopathology, and clinical psychology and contains items that range only from difficult to very difficult.
A rapid decline in which of the following senses is an early symptom of Alzheimer’s disease?
A. hearing
B. taste
C. smell
D. sight
C. smell
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders–190 Answer C is correct. A rapid deterioration in the sense of smell is an early symptom of mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and Alzheimer’s disease, with greater olfactory loss being associated with greater cognitive impairment. (Note that, while a decline in the sense of smell is an early symptom of Alzheimer’s disease, untreated hearing loss is a risk factor for this disorder.)
Which of the following is the primary focus of therapy for Milan systemic family therapists?
A. destructive family games
B. oppressive life stories
C. boundary disturbances
D. unresolved intrapsychic conflicts
A. destructive family games
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. A primary goal of Milan systemic family therapy is to disrupt destructive family games (“dirty games”) that involve deceit and power struggles and lead to and maintain symptoms.
The word “unsustainable” has:
A. one bound morpheme and two free morphemes.
B. two bound morphemes and one free morpheme.
C. three bound morphemes and one free morpheme
D. four bound morphemes.
B. two bound morphemes and one free morpheme.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Language Development-181 Answer B is correct. Free morphemes are minimal units of meaning that stand alone as words, while bound morphemes must be combined with at least one other morpheme. Unsustainable has two bound morphemes (un and able) and one free morpheme (sustain).
Dr. Renee Rochester has been hired to conduct a court-ordered evaluation of Terrance Tillis, the defendant in a criminal court case. To be consistent with the provisions of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (2013), Dr. Rochester:
A. must obtain informed consent from the defendant before conducting the evaluation.
B. must obtain informed consent from the defendant and remind him that the evaluation is court-ordered if he refuses to consent.
C. does not have to obtain informed consent from the defendant but should tell him about the nature of the services being provided and the limits of confidentiality.
D. does not have to obtain informed consent from the defendant unless the court or the defendant’s attorney has asked her to do so.
C. does not have to obtain informed consent from the defendant but should tell him about the nature of the services being provided and the limits of confidentiality.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-069 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Paragraphs 6.03 and 6.03.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. Paragraph 6.03 states that psychologists inform examinees about the nature and purpose of the examination, limitations on privacy and confidentiality, and the voluntary or involuntary nature of their participation. Paragraph 6.03.02 states that, if an examinee is ordered by the court to undergo an examination, a “forensic practitioner can conduct the examination over the objection, and without the consent, of the examinee…. If the examinee declines to proceed after being notified of the nature and purpose of the forensic examination, the forensic practitioner may consider a variety of options including postponing the examination, advising the examinee to contact his or her attorney, and notifying the retaining party about the examinee’s unwillingness to proceed.”
Studies have confirmed that patients with coronary heart disease (CHD) have a high rate of comorbid psychiatric disorders. For example, Bankier, Januzzi, and Littman (2004) found a high prevalence rate of several disorders in their sample of patients with CHD, with __________ having the highest prevalence rate.
A. major depressive disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder
C. alcohol use disorder
D. binge-eating disorder
A. major depressive disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-182 Answer A is correct. Bankier, Januzzi, and Littman found that 31% of their sample of individuals with CHD had recurrent major depressive disorder with a current major depressive episode, 29% had a single past major depressive episode, 24% had current generalized anxiety disorder, 19% had current alcohol abuse (alcohol use disorder), and 10% had current binge-eating disorder.
As described by __________, a career is “the combination and sequence of roles played by a person during the course of a lifetime.”
A. Donald Super
B. John Holland
C. David Tiedeman
D. John Krumboltz
A. Donald Super
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ORG-Career Choice and Development-12 Answer A is correct. Knowing that Super’s theory is known as the life-space, life-span career theory and that life space refers to a person’s life roles or that his Life Career Rainbow depicts the relationship between a person’s life stages and life roles would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer using the process of elimination because the individuals listed in the wrong answers did not emphasize the roles people assume during their lifetimes: Holland (answer B) can be eliminated because he focused on the importance of the fit between the characteristics of the person and the person’s work environment. Tiedeman (answer C) can be eliminated because he and his colleagues described vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that is linked to Erikson’s psychosocial stages of ego identity development. Krumboltz (answer D) can be eliminated because he described career choice as being related to the learning opportunities that are provided by a person’s social environment and influence the person’s career decisions. (The quotation in the question is from D. Super, A life-span, life-space approach to career development, Journal of Vocational Behavior, 16, 282-298, 1980.)
Mental imagery serves several functions in cognitive behavior therapy (CBT). For example, __________ is used to replace involuntary distressing and intrusive images related to a client’s presenting problem with more adaptive images.
A. guided imagery
B. guided visualization
C. imagery rescripting
D. imaginal exposure
C. imagery rescripting
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-135 Answer C is correct. The importance of imagery in cognitive behavior therapy has been acknowledged by A. T. Beck who has noted that “[m]any times, maladaptive ideation occurs in a pictorial form instead of, or in addition to, the verbal form” (1976, p. 242). Guided imagery (also known as guided visualization) and imaginal exposure (answers A, B, and D) have been incorporated into CBT, with guided imagery/guided visualization being used primarily to promote relaxation and reduce stress and pain and imaginal exposure being used to treat phobic reactions. Imagery rescripting is used to replace (rescript) involuntary negative images and memories with more realistic and adaptive content (Cognitive therapy and the emotional disorders, New York, New American Library, 1976).
The primary goal of mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT) is to help clients:
A. identify, challenge, and replace maladaptive thoughts and beliefs.
B. disengage from distressing thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
C. make life choices that are consistent with their values and beliefs.
D. reduce ineffective behavioral tendencies that are related to dysregulated emotions.
B. disengage from distressing thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-066 Answer B is correct. As its name suggests, MBCT combines mindfulness with elements of cognitive therapy. However, in contrast to cognitive therapy, the primary goal of ACT is not to help clients identify, challenge, and replace maladaptive thoughts and beliefs but, instead, to help them “become self-aware, so they can learn to de-centre from distressing thoughts, feelings, bodily sensations and behaviours” (Scott & Adam, 2017, p. 246).
As described by McClelland (1961), which of the following is least characteristic of people who have a high need for achievement?
A. They find it difficult to delegate part of their tasks to others.
B. They like regular, concrete feedback about their performance.
C. They are motivated most by opportunities for gaining status and recognition.
D. They tend to prefer tasks that have a 50/50 chance of success.
C. They are motivated most by opportunities for gaining status and recognition.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Theories of Motivation-123 Answer C is correct. According to McClelland, people with a high need for achievement have a strong desire for assuming personal responsibility for completing a task and, therefore, have trouble delegating work to others (answer A). They also desire regular, concrete feedback about their performance (answer B) and are motivated most by moderately difficult goals – i.e., goals that have about a 50/50 chance of being successfully accomplished (answer D). However, being motivated by opportunities to gain status and recognition (answer C) is more characteristic of individuals with a high need for power than of those with a high need for achievement: Individuals with a high need for achievement are motivated most by opportunities for achieving a sense of personal accomplishment.
The ASPPB’s E.Passport is one of the requirements for:
A. providing telepsychology to a client who is in another jurisdiction.
B. providing temporary in-person therapy across jurisdictional boundaries.
C. providing telepsychology and temporary in-person therapy across jurisdictional boundaries.
D. transferring EPPP scores across jurisdictional lines.
A. providing telepsychology to a client who is in another jurisdiction.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-019 Answer A is correct. For psychologists licensed in a compact jurisdiction to provide telepsychology services to clients in other compact jurisdictions under the authority of PSYPACT, they must obtain an E.Passport from the ASPPB and an Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology (APIT) from the PSYPACT Commission. When these have been obtained, psychologists may practice telepsychology in any compact jurisdiction without obtaining additional licenses. To provide temporary in-person therapy across jurisdictional boundaries under the authority of PSYPACT, psychologists licensed in a compact jurisdiction must obtain an Interjurisdictional Practice Certificate and a Temporary Authorization to Practice.
Anna, age 13, refuses to eat at a restaurant, a friend’s house, or anywhere else except at home because she’s afraid she might vomit if she does so. To help alleviate her fears, Anna stays away from people who are sick, eats only food that she or her mother prepared, frequently takes the garbage out to avoid bad smells in the kitchen, and often checks food to make sure it hasn’t gone bad. Her symptoms began two years ago after a classmate sitting next to her in school threw up, which made Anna feel like she was going to throw up and caused her to run out of the classroom. The most likely diagnosis for Anna is:
A. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
B. social anxiety disorder.
C. specific phobia, other type.
D. unspecified eating disorder.
C. specific phobia, other type.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-077 Answer C is correct. Anna’s symptoms are characteristic of emetophobia, which is a fear of vomiting. In addition to a fear of vomiting, its symptoms include a fear of seeing someone else vomit as well as the other symptoms listed in the question. It is categorized in the DSM as an “other type” of specific phobia. Answer A (obsessive-compulsive disorder) is not the best answer because the question does not indicate that Anna is experiencing recurrent intrusive or unwanted thoughts or repetitive behaviors that she feels driven to perform. Answer B (social anxiety disorder) is not the best answer because Anna’s symptoms are not limited to marked fear or anxiety about social situations in which she might be exposed to the scrutiny of others. Answer D (unspecified eating disorder) is not the best answer because Anna’s symptoms more closely fit an anxiety disorder than an eating disorder.
Requiring psychology students enrolled in undergraduate or graduate programs to participate in individual or group therapy may be acceptable if:
A. students are allowed to select their own providers.
B. students are allowed to select providers from mental health professionals not affiliated with the program.
C. students are provided with a list of providers who have been screened and approved by the program.
D. students have the choice of participating in therapy or an alternative activity.
B. students are allowed to select providers from mental health professionals not affiliated with the program.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-156 Answer B is correct. Standards 3.05 and 7.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Principle III and Principles III.30 and III.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this issue. Answer B is the best answer because it is most similar to the requirements of Standard 7.05(a), which states that, “when individual or group therapy is a program or course requirement, psychologists responsible for that program allow students in undergraduate and graduate programs the option of selecting such therapy from practitioners unaffiliated with the program.” Answer D can be eliminated because the Ethics Code does not require that students be provided with an alternative to participation in therapy.
Long-term white blood cell monitoring is required when a person is taking which of the following drugs?
A. prednisone
B. lithium
C. paroxetine or fluoxetine
D. clozapine or carbamazepine
D. clozapine or carbamazepine
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-082 Answer D is correct. A number of psychoactive drugs can cause agranulocytosis, which is a potentially fatal blood disorder that involves a low level of white blood cells and requires white blood cell monitoring. Of these drugs, clozapine (a second-generation antipsychotic) and carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant drug used to treat bipolar disorder) are the most common causes of this disorder. The drugs listed in answers A, B, and C do not cause agranulocytosis but may produce other blood dyscrasias that you do NOT need to be familiar with for the exam. See, e.g., R. J. Flanagan and L. Dunk, Haematological toxicity of drugs used in psychiatry, Human Psychopharmacology: Clinical & Experimental, 23, 27-41, 2008.
A client says he feels unhappy about not having any close relationships. However, additional questioning of the client reveals that he’s often suspicious of the motives of other people, is anxious when he’s around other people, and prefers to keep to himself because he doesn’t feel like he “fits in” with other people. These symptoms are most characteristic of which personality disorder?
A. avoidant
B. schizotypal
C. schizoid
D. borderline
B. schizotypal
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Personality Disorders-102 Answer B is correct. The personality disorders listed in the answers all involve problems with social relationships. However, schizotypal personality disorder is the best answer because people with this disorder may say that they’re unhappy about their lack of relationships, but they have few close friends beyond first-degree relatives, are anxious around other people (usually because they’re suspicious of their motives), and prefer being alone. People with avoidant personality disorder (answer A) say they’d like to have close relationships but avoid them because of their fear of being criticized, embarrassed, or rejected. People with schizoid personality disorder (answer C) have limited desire for close relationships and do not derive pleasure from them. People with borderline personality disorder (answer D) have unstable, intense relationships that fluctuate between overidealizing and devaluing other people.
Research has linked ADHD to which of the following?
A. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus and putamen and larger-than-normal amygdala
B. smaller-than-normal amygdala and larger-than-normal caudate nucleus and putamen
C. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala
D. larger-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala
C. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Neurodevelopmental Disorders-137 Answer C is correct. Individuals with ADHD tend to have a smaller volume in five brain structures: caudate nucleus, putamen, nucleus accumbens, amygdala, and hippocampus (Radboud University Nijmegen Medical Centre, 2017).
Subjects in a research study first read the following list of words: mad, fear, rage, hatred, emotion, mean, enrage, calm. Then, after the list is removed, subjects are asked to recall as many words as possible from the list. Many of the subjects say that “anger” was one of the words although it was not included in the list. This illustrates which of the following?
A. keyword method
B. testing effect
C. illusory memory
D. associative priming
C. illusory memory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-117 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that the task described in the question is known as the Deese, Roediger and McDermott (DRM) procedure, that it is a false memory task, and that illusory memory is a synonym for false memory. The DRM procedure requires subjects to read a list of semantically related words and then to recall as many words from the list as they can. Research using this procedure has found that it often creates a false memory for words.
The two most frequently cited models of disability are the ________ models.
A. medical and social
B. deficit and surfeit
C. behavioral and functional
D. unidimensional and multidimensional
A. medical and social
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-121 Answer A is correct. There are a number of models of disability, but the most frequently mentioned are the medical and social models. The medical model is also referred to as the biomedical model and views a disability as a medical problem intrinsic to the individual and as an abnormality or deficiency. In contrast, the social model views a disability as a difference rather than a deficiency and as due primarily to aspects of society that create barriers for people with disabilities (e.g., negative attitudes, discrimination, exclusion).
People tend to attribute the desirable behaviors of members of their in-group to dispositional factors but the desirable behaviors of out-group members to situational factors. Conversely, people typically attribute the undesirable behaviors of members of their in-group to situational factors and the undesirable behaviors of out-group members to dispositional factors. This describes which of the following?
A. group attribution error
B. actor-observer effect
C. ultimate attribution bias
D. confirmation bias
C. ultimate attribution bias
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-6 Answer C is correct. The information in the question accurately describes the predictions of the ultimate attribution bias which, of the biases listed in the answers, is the only one that applies to attributions that members of an in-group make about the behaviors of members of their in-group and members of an out-group. The group attribution error (answer A) occurs when people believe that their group’s decision is consistent with the decision of each individual group member, even in the presence of information suggesting that the group decision was not unanimous. The actor-observer effect (answer B) is the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of others to dispositional factors. While this is consistent with the prediction made by the ultimate attribution bias for the undesirable behaviors of in-group and out-group members, it is not consistent with its prediction for desirable behaviors. The confirmation bias (answer D) is not an attribution bias but is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that refutes them.
In the context of diagnostic efficiency, prevalence refers to how common a disorder is in a particular population at a particular point in time, and its magnitude affects a test’s positive and negative predictive values. When the prevalence increases:
A. the positive and negative predictive values both increase.
B. the positive and negative predictive values both decrease.
C. the positive predictive value increases and the negative predictive value decreases.
D. the positive predictive value decreases and the negative predictive value increases.
C. the positive predictive value increases and the negative predictive value decreases.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-146 Answer C is correct. A test’s positive predictive value (PPV) is the probability that a person who tests positive for a disorder actually has the disorder, while the negative predictive value (NPV) is the probability that a person who tests negative for a disorder does not actually have the disorder. Both values are affected by the prevalence of the disorder, which can vary in different locations and at different times. When the prevalence of the disorder increases, the PPV increases and the NPV decreases, and vice versa.
Which of the following is not one of the problem areas ordinarily addressed in interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)?
A. role disputes
B. role transitions
C. unresolved grief
D. social alienation
D. social alienation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Brief Therapies-194 Answer D is correct. IPT focuses on one or more of four problem areas: interpersonal role disputes, interpersonal role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and unresolved grief. Although these problem areas are the same for different disorders, the strategies used to address them vary somewhat, depending on the disorder being treated.
Overexpression of the ________ gene on chromosome 21 has been identified as the link between standard trisomy 21 and early-onset Alzheimer’s disease.
A. APOE4
B. APOE2
C. MECP2
D. APP
D. APP
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Neurocognitive Disorders-215 Answer D is correct. Standard trisomy 21 is the most common type of Down syndrome and is caused by an extra chromosome 21, which means that people with this disorder have an extra gene for the amyloid precursor protein (APP) gene. Because of the extra APP gene, amyloid begins to accumulate in the brains of people with this disorder in their late teens to early 20s and increases their risk for early-onset Alzheimer’s disease. The APOE4 gene (answer A) is located on chromosome 19 and is the strongest genetic risk factor for late-onset Alzheimer’s disease. The APOE2 gene (answer B) is also located on chromosome 19 but has been linked to a decreased risk for late-onset Alzheimer’s disease. Mutations on the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome (answer C) have been identified as a cause of Rett syndrome. Knowing that APP is the acronym for amyloid protein precursor and that amyloid plaques are a key characteristic of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
Since their 16-year-old daughter, Mary, received a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder several months ago, Mr. and Mrs. Molina have become increasingly overprotective of and emotionally overinvolved with her, and this has increased conflicts between them and Mary. The treatment-of-choice in this situation is:
A. multidimensional family therapy.
B. family-focused therapy.
C. multisystemic therapy.
D. transference-focused psychotherapy.
B. family-focused therapy.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-172 Answer B is correct. Family-focused therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. It is based on recognition that high levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement (i.e., high expressed emotion) by family members can trigger relapse in a family member with this disorder. Multidimensional family therapy (answer A) is a treatment for families that include a member who is 11 to 21 years old and has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency. Multisystemic therapy (answer C) is an intensive family and community-based intervention for adolescents 12 to 18 years old who are at imminent risk for out-of-home placement due to antisocial behaviors, substance use problems, and/or serious psychiatric problems. Transference-focused psychotherapy (answer D) is used to treat borderline and other personality disorders.
Your one-way ANOVA produces a statistically significant F-ratio. In this situation, you would consider conducting a post-hoc test if:
A. the independent variable has only two levels.
B. the independent variable has three or more levels.
C. there is more than one dependent variable.
D. the interaction between independent variables is also statistically significant.
B. the independent variable has three or more levels.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Inferential Statistical Tests-118 Answer B is correct. A one-way ANOVA is used when a study has one independent variable and one dependent variable (which is why answers C and D can be eliminated). When it produces a statistically significant F-ratio, this indicates that at least one group mean is significantly different from another group mean. If there are only two groups (two levels of the independent variable), a post-hoc test is not necessary because the significant F-ratio indicates that the means of those two groups are significantly different. However, when there are three or more groups (three or more levels of the independent variable), a post-hoc test is useful for determining which group means are significantly different. (Comparing the magnitude of the means obtained by the groups indicates which group means differ, but a post-hoc test is needed to determine which differences are statistically significant.)
Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of the behavioral variant of frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder?
A. perseverative or compulsive behaviors, apathy, loss of empathy, dietary changes, and socially inappropriate behaviors
B. behavioral disinhibition, irritability, impaired insight, mild apraxia, and ataxia
C. fluctuations in attention and alertness, visual hallucinations, sleep disturbances, impaired mobility, and depression
D. impaired attention and concentration, psychomotor retardation, clumsiness, tremors, and social withdrawal
Items selected for inclusion in each Occupational Scale of the Strong Interest Inventory:
A. distinguished between employees who expressed high satisfaction with the occupation assessed by the scale to those who expressed low satisfaction with the occupation.
B. distinguished between individuals employed in the occupation assessed by the scale and individuals in a general representative sample.
C. were identified by subject matter experts as representative of the occupation assessed by the scale.
D. had high correlations with other items in the scale and low correlations with items in other scales.
B. distinguished between individuals employed in the occupation assessed by the scale and individuals in a general representative sample.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Interest Inventories-193 Answer B is correct. The Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were derived using an empirical criterion keying method that involved comparing the responses of males and females employed in various occupations with the responses of males and females in a general representative sample and including items in a scale that were consistently answered in the same way only by males and females employed in that occupation. For example, items that were consistently answered in the same way by psychologists but not by people in the general representative sample were included in the psychologist scale.
When a forensic psychologist is hired to conduct a psychological evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case, the “client” is:
A. the defendant.
B. the defendant’s legal representative.
C. the court.
D. the person/entity that retained the psychologist.
D. the person/entity that retained the psychologist.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-111 Answer D is correct. The definition of “client” in forensic settings is provided in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (2013). It states that “client refers to the attorney, law firm, court, agency, entity, party, or other person who has retained, and who has a contractual relationship with, the forensic practitioner to provide services” (p. 19). For example, when the evaluation is court ordered, the client is the court even when the order was requested by the defense attorney because, in this situation, the court retained the psychologist to conduct the evaluation [C. R. Bartol and A. M. Bartol, Introduction to forensic psychology: Research and application (6th ed.), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2021]. Since the question does not indicate who hired the psychologist, answer D is the best answer.
A 36-year-old man suddenly and unexpectedly leaves his home in a rural town and travels by bus to a nearby city. When he arrives at the city, he is unable to recall any details of his life including his name or where he lives. The man’s symptoms are most characteristic of:
A. depersonalization disorder.
B. derealization disorder.
C. dissociative identity disorder.
D. dissociative fugue.
D. dissociative fugue.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders–162 Answer D is correct. In the DSM-5-TR, dissociative fugue is a subtype of dissociative amnesia and involves “apparently purposeful travel or bewildered wandering that is associated with amnesia for identity or for other important autobiographical information” (p.337).
Open access refers to making digitally distributed research articles available for free to readers, with publication costs being covered by means other than subscriptions. Open access is most consistent with which of the following General Principles contained in the APA’s Ethics Code?
A. Justice
B. Integrity
C. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence
D. Fidelity/Responsibility
A. Justice
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-099 Answer A is correct. Open access is most consistent with General Principle D, which is titled Justice. It calls for psychologists to “recognize that fairness and justice entitle all persons to access to and benefit from the contributions of psychology.” See, e.g., JEPS Bulletin, APA’s five General Principles of ethics: How do they matter to an aspiring scientist, 2021, https://blog.efpsa.org/2013/08/15/apas-five-general-principles-of-ethics/.
As described in the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing (AERA, APA, & NCME, 2014):
A. test accommodations and modifications both alter the construct measured by the original test.
B. test modifications (but not accommodations) alter the construct measured by the original test.
C. test accommodations (but not modifications) alter the construct measured by the original test.
D. neither test modifications nor accommodations alter the construct measured by the original test.
B. test modifications (but not accommodations) alter the construct measured by the original test.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-164 Answer B is correct. As described in the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, the characteristic that distinguishes test accommodations from test modifications is that accommodations do not alter the construct measured by the original test while modifications alter the construct to some extent.
As described by Shneidman (1994), the purpose of a psychological autopsy is to:
A. aid in the identification, apprehension, and conviction of the perpetrator of a crime.
B. clarify the manner of death when the manner is equivocal.
C. identify the psychosocial factors that contributed to person’s suicide.
D. determine if the insanity defense can be supported.
B. clarify the manner of death when the manner is equivocal.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-083 Answer B is correct. Because this question is asking specifically about Shneidman’s description of the purpose of a psychological autopsy, answer B is the correct answer: According to Shneidman, the primary function of a psychological autopsy is to clarify the manner of death when the manner is initially equivocal. La Fon (1999) subsequently distinguished between two types of psychological autopsy: equivocal death psychological autopsy and suicide psychological autopsy. Answer C describes the second type. Answer D is not the correct answer because it describes the purpose of a criminal responsibility evaluation. Answer A is not the correct answer because it describes the purpose of psychological profiling, which is also known as criminal and offender profiling.
The F scale of the MMPI provides information on:
A. random responding.
B. inconsistent responding.
C. underreporting of psychological symptoms.
D. overreporting of psychological symptoms.
D. overreporting of psychological symptoms.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PAS-MMPI-2-13 Answer D is correct. Items in the F scale are infrequently endorsed by members of the general population. Consequently, an elevated F scale score indicates overreporting of atypical or deviant behaviors or beliefs that may be due to an attempt to “fake bad” or significant pathology.
A manager and assistant manager were asked to rate 30 employees in terms of readiness for promotion. After reviewing each employee’s file, the manager and assistant manager independently categorized employees as being ready or not ready for promotion. Which of the following is the appropriate technique for determining the inter-rater reliability of the ratings made by the manager and assistant manager?
A. coefficient of determination
B. coefficient alpha
C. Kuder-Richardson 20
D. Cohen’s kappa coefficient
D. Cohen’s kappa coefficient
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Item Analysis and Test Reliability-073 Answer D is correct. Of the methods for assessing reliability listed in the answers, only Cohen’s kappa coefficient is used to measure inter-rater reliability. It assesses the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters when the ratings represent a nominal scale (e.g., when two raters classify employees as either ready or not ready for promotion).
Halfway through the semester, a psychology professor changes some of the requirements listed in the course syllabus because he realizes he left out several important readings that are relevant to the course. Changing the requirements is:
A. acceptable only if the professor included a statement in the syllabus indicating that course requirements might change during the semester.
B. acceptable only if the professor’s changes do not affect the ability of students to fulfill the new requirements by the end of the semester.
C. acceptable only if the professor has a valid pedagogical reason for making the changes.
D. unacceptable because psychology professors are ethically obligated to ensure that course syllabi are accurate when they are first made available to students.
B. acceptable only if the professor’s changes do not affect the ability of students to fulfill the new requirements by the end of the semester.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-046 Answer B is correct. Making changes to course syllabi is directly addressed in Standard 7.03 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in the Values Statements for Principle I (Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples) and Principle II (Responsible Caring) and in Principle I.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Principle 7.03 states that “this standard does not preclude an instructor from modifying course content or requirements when the instructor considers it pedagogically necessary or desirable, so long as students are made aware of these modifications in a manner that enables them to fulfill course requirements.” Answer C is not the best answer because it doesn’t mention the requirement that students will be able to fulfill course requirements and because the question implies that the professor has a valid pedagogical reason (“he realizes that he left out several important readings that are relevant to the course”).
Which of the following is the least accurate description of mentoring in organizations?
A. Mentors focus on the career and professional development (versus the performance) of mentees.
B. The mentor-mentee relationship is often long-term, and the outcomes of the relationship may change over time.
C. Mentors identify the agenda for the nature and goals of their relationships with mentees.
D. Mentor-mentee meetings are usually informal and take place when the mentee needs support or guidance.
C. Mentors identify the agenda for the nature and goals of their relationships with mentees.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Training Methods and Evaluation-045 Answer C is correct. Answers A, B, and D accurately describe mentoring, while answer C is more characteristic of coaching: A coach and employee co-determine the agenda for their relationship, while a mentee sets the mentoring agenda and the mentor supports that agenda.
Fairchild and colleagues (2008) compared groups of male adolescents with childhood-onset or adolescence-onset conduct disorder to a control group of adolescents without a psychiatric disorder and found that youth in both conduct disorder groups:
A. were hyperreactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls.
B. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls.
C. were hyperreactive in terms of cortisol response but hyporeactive in terms of cardiovascular response to stress when compared to controls.
D. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol response but hyperreactive in terms of cardiovascular response to stress when compared to controls.
B. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-018 Answer B is correct. Fairchild et al. found that male adolescents with conduct disorder showed hyporeactive (reduced) cortisol and cardiovascular responses to a stressful procedure when compared to adolescents without a psychiatric disorder even though adolescents in all three groups reported experiencing similar levels of negative feelings when exposed to the procedure.
Studies comparing transdiagnostic psychological treatments with diagnosis-specific psychological treatments for adult anxiety and depression have generally found that transdiagnostic treatments:
A. are less effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and depression.
B. are less effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety but as effective or more effective for depression.
C. are as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety but less effective for depression.
D. are as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and depression.
D. are as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and depression.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy-020 Research Answer D is correct. This is a difficult question because the studies have not produced entirely consistent results. However, most studies have found transdiagnostic psychological treatments to be as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific psychological treatments for depression and anxiety. For example, based on the results of their meta-analysis, Newby and colleagues (2015) concluded that transdiagnostic treatments are as effective as diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and may be more effective for depression.
Which of the following best describes ethical guidelines for using obsolete tests and test results?
A. Psychologists may use obsolete tests and test results in certain circumstances.
B. Psychologists may use obsolete tests in certain situations but must never use obsolete test results.
C. Psychologists may use obsolete test results in certain situations but must never use obsolete tests.
D. Psychologists must never use obsolete tests or test results.
A. Psychologists may use obsolete tests and test results in certain circumstances.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-078 Answer A is correct. Standard 9.08 of the APA Ethics Code and Principle II.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to the use of obsolete tests and outdated test results. These requirements imply that using obsolete tests or outdated test results may be acceptable when doing so is appropriate for the purposes of the current evaluation. For example, it would be acceptable to use a previous version of a test when it has norms for a client’s racial/ethnic group, but the newest version does not yet have norms for that group.
The reliable change index (RCI) is useful for determining if a change in a client’s scores on an outcome measure administered before and after the client receives treatment is:
A. valid.
B. statistically significant.
C. attributable to sampling error.
D. attributable to measurement error.
D. attributable to measurement error.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Inferential Statistical Tests-220 Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, the reliable change index is used to determine if a difference in pre- and post-treatment scores on an outcome measure is reliable – i.e., if it is due to real improvement or deterioration in a person’s clinical condition or to measurement error. The RCI is also used in conjunction with the outcome measure’s cutoff score to determine if a change in scores is clinically significant.
Edward Tolman concluded that his research with rats confirmed that:
A. reinforcing a behavior increases the likelihood that it will be repeated.
B. connections must be made between stimuli or events for learning to occur.
C. learning can occur without being apparent in behavior.
D. learning can be the result of an “aha” experience.
C. learning can occur without being apparent in behavior.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-136 Answer C is correct. Tolman derived his theory of latent learning from research with rats in mazes. This research found that rats formed cognitive maps of the maze without exhibiting that learning until they were reinforced for doing so. In other words, his studies showed that learning can occur without being apparent in behavior.
Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy (2003) investigated the relationship between religiosity and substance use among adolescents and found that:
A. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.
B. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent marijuana and alcohol use but not tobacco use.
C. moderate levels of religiosity are associated with the highest risk for alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.
D. low and high levels of religiosity are both associated with a high risk for alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.
A. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-042 Answer A is correct. Research has consistently confirmed that life stress is associated with an increased risk for substance use. Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy extended this research by confirming that religiosity acts as a buffer (mediator) between life stress and substance use: They found that, for adolescents, high religious involvement reduced the impact of life stress on both the initial level of alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use and the rate of increase in their use over time.
Henrich, Heine, and Norenzayan (2010) argue that much of the published research on human psychology over-relies on WEIRD samples and, consequently, the results of this research may have limited generalizability. As defined by Henrich, WEIRD refers to people who are all of the following except:
A. rich.
B. educated.
C. Western.
D. idealistic.
D. idealistic.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-161 Answer D is correct. As described by Henrich and colleagues, the acronym WEIRD refers to individuals from Western, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic cultures. They note that much of the published psychological research has relied on WEIRD samples and, therefore, the results of this research may not apply to people from cultures with other characteristics.
When asked about their sleep, people with insomnia disorder most often:
A. underestimate their total sleep time and overestimate their sleep onset latency.
B. underestimate their total sleep time and their sleep onset latency.
C. overestimate their total sleep time and underestimate their sleep onset latency.
D. overestimate their total sleep time and their sleep onset latency.
A. underestimate their total sleep time and overestimate their sleep onset latency.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders–023 Answer A is correct. When subjective reports of people with insomnia disorder are compared to polysomnography or other objective measure of sleep, their subjective reports most often underestimate the total amount of sleep they have each night and overestimate their sleep onset latency (the time it takes them to fall asleep).
Task analysis is the essential first step when using which of the following interventions to establish a new behavior?
A. differential reinforcement
B. response cost
C. shaping
D. chaining
D. chaining
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-148 Answer D is correct. Chaining is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of separate responses (links in the behavior chain). It begins with a task analysis to identify the individual responses that make up the behavior chain and involves teaching the individual how to perform each response in the behavior chain sequentially, starting with the first or the last response.
A person misperceives the sound of running water in the next room as people talking to each other. This is an example of which of the following?
A. delusion
B. illusion
C. hallucination
D. allusion
B. illusion
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PPY-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-34 Answer B is correct. An illusion is a misperception or misinterpretation of an external stimulus, and the person in this question is misperceiving the sound of running water as human voices. A delusion (answer A) is a false belief that is firmly held despite contradictory evidence. An hallucination (answer C) is a sensory perception that occurs in the absence of an external stimulus. An allusion (answer D) is a literary device that is used to indirectly refer to a person, place, thing, or idea. In contrast to illusions, delusions, and hallucinations, which may be associated with a mental disorder, allusions are not associated with a mental disorder and are not something you need to be familiar with for the exam.
When using Bayes’ theorem:
A. the likelihood function is derived from a synthesis of the prior and posterior.
B. the prior is derived from a synthesis of the posterior and likelihood function.
C. the posterior is derived from a synthesis of the prior and likelihood function.
D. the prevailing is derived from a synthesis of the prior, likelihood function, and posterior.
C. the posterior is derived from a synthesis of the prior and likelihood function.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Overview of Inferential Statistics-201 Answer C is correct. Bayes’ theorem combines the prior probability distribution for the target parameter and the probability distribution for the parameter derived from current data (the likelihood function) to obtain a posterior (updated) probability distribution for the parameter. [There is no “prevailing” (answer D) in Bayes’ theorem.]
The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate the effects of increasing:
A. the reliability of a predictor and/or criterion on the criterion-related validity coefficient.
B. the reliability of a predictor and/or criterion on the predictor’s incremental validity.
C. the number of items included in the predictor on its criterion-related validity coefficient.
D. the base rate on the predictor’s incremental validity.
A. the reliability of a predictor and/or criterion on the criterion-related validity coefficient.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-183 Answer A is correct. The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate what the maximum criterion-related validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0.
The use of banding to assist with hiring decisions is based on the assumption that:
A. the standard error of estimate is not the same magnitude throughout the distribution of selection test scores.
B. small differences in criterion-related validity coefficients are not necessarily associated with meaningful differences in the accuracy of predictions of job performance.
C. adding more predictors to a selection procedure will not necessarily lead to more accuracy in hiring decisions.
D. small differences in selection test scores are not necessarily associated with meaningful differences in job performance.
D. small differences in selection test scores are not necessarily associated with meaningful differences in job performance.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Score Interpretation-127 Answer D is correct. Banding is also known as statistical banding and test-score banding. When using banding, score bands (intervals) are created, usually using the test’s standard error of measurement. Examinees whose test scores fall within the same band are considered to be equal in terms of the attribute(s) measured by the test. Banding is based on the assumption that the differences in selection test scores within a band are not associated with significant differences in job performance.
Which of the following is the best generalization about the pharmacological treatment of classic and atypical bipolar disorder?
A. Lithium is more effective than anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs for both classic and atypical bipolar disorder.
B. Anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs are more effective than lithium for both classic and atypical bipolar disorder.
C. Lithium is more effective for classic bipolar disorder, while anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs are more effective for atypical bipolar disorder.
D. Anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs are more effective for classic bipolar disorder, while lithium is more effective for atypical bipolar disorder.
C. Lithium is more effective for classic bipolar disorder, while anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs are more effective for atypical bipolar disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-088 Answer C is correct. The distinction between classic and atypical bipolar disorder is not an official distinction (i.e., it is not included in the DSM) but, instead, is a clinical description of two types of bipolar disorder. Classic bipolar disorder is characterized by euphoric or grandiose mania with episodes being clearly separated by periods of full recovery. It is most responsive to lithium. In contrast, atypical bipolar disorder is characterized by dysphoric or mixed episodes with the presence of subsyndromal symptoms between episodes. It is most responsive to anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs.
The unique information gained when a new selection test or other procedure is added to the current selection procedure is maximized when:
A. the base rate is moderate and there are few applicants and many job openings.
B. the base rate is moderate and there are many applicants and a few job openings.
C. the base rate is high and there are few applicants and many job openings.
D. the base rate is high and there are many applicants and a few job openings.
B. the base rate is moderate and there are many applicants and a few job openings.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-093 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that it is asking about incremental validity and know (a) that a moderate base rate and low selection ratio increase the likelihood that a selection test will provide incremental validity when added to the existing selection procedure and (b) that the selection ratio is low when there are many applicants and few job openings (i.e., when there are a large number of applicants to choose from).
The most likely side effects of buspirone (BuSpar) include which of the following?
A. lethargy, ataxia, tremor, visual disturbances, and impaired concentration
B. weakness, unsteadiness, impaired memory, anticholinergic effects, and sexual dysfunction
C. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, nausea, nervousness, blurred vision, and trouble sleeping
D. hypertension, tremors, headaches, confusion, and cardiac arrhythmia
C. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, nausea, nervousness, blurred vision, and trouble sleeping
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-30 Answer C is correct. The symptoms listed in this answer are side effects of buspirone, which is an anxiolytic drug used to treat anxiety disorders. Answer A lists side effects of anticonvulsant drugs, answer B lists side effects of benzodiazepines, and answer D describes rebound effects that may occur when the beta-blocker propranolol is abruptly discontinued.
Hall, Hall, and Caselli (2019) conclude that, for deaf and hard-of-hearing (DHH) children, the research suggests that learning sign language:
A. interferes with the acquisition of spoken language.
B. benefits the acquisition of spoken language.
C. benefits the acquisition of spoken language only when it occurs after spoken language interventions have failed.
D. has no impact on the acquisition of spoken language.
B. benefits the acquisition of spoken language.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Language Development-086 Answer B is correct. Hall, Hall, and Caselli conclude that the research confirms that exposing DHH children to sign language from birth does not have detrimental effects on the acquisition of spoken language and that, instead, “there is evidence that exposure to a sign language can confer a host of benefits, and that excluding a sign language leaves the child at great risk of language deprivation” (2019, p. 383). Answer C can be eliminated because the benefits of sign language occur without previous spoken language interventions. In addition, there is evidence that waiting to introduce sign language as a “last resort” after spoken language interventions have failed can have a negative irreversible effect on the language areas of the brain.
The gender affirmative model for the care of transgender and gender-expansive children advocates considering social gender transitioning when:
A. children have reached puberty and are exploring or affirming their gender expression.
B. children have reached puberty and are exploring or affirming their gender identity.
C. children have or have not yet reached puberty and are exploring or affirming their gender expression.
D. children have or have not yet reached puberty and are exploring or affirming their gender identity.
D. children have or have not yet reached puberty and are exploring or affirming their gender identity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-055 Answer D is correct. An essential characteristic of the gender affirmative model is that it advocates considering social gender transitioning as long as certain conditions are met: (a) gender concerns are not due to some other problem; (b) the central issue for the child is gender identity (how children internally experience their gender) rather than gender expression (how children publicly present their gender); (c) the child expresses a need or desire to transition; and (d) the child’s parents can offer support for transitioning (D. Ehrensaft, The gender creative child: Pathways for nurturing and supporting children who live outside gender boxes, New York, The Experiment Publishing, 2016). Note that the gender affirmative model’s guidelines for social transitioning distinguish it from the watchful waiting (Dutch) model, which recommends adopting a neutral position about children’s gender concerns until they reach puberty when social transitioning should be considered.
Use of the ________ heuristic tends to intensify a person’s emotional reaction to a negative event that has already occurred.
A. simulation
B. availability
C. representativeness
D. anchoring and adjustment
A. simulation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Social Cognition – Errors, Bias, and Heuristics-053 Answer A is correct. When using the simulation heuristic, a person imagines alternatives to a negative event that has already occurred, and the imagined alternatives can cause the person to have a stronger negative emotional reaction to the actual event.
One concern about prescribing stimulant medications for children with ADHD is that doing so may increase their risk for developing a substance use disorder (SUD) later in life. Based on the results of their meta-analysis of the research, Humphreys, Eng, and Lee (2013) concluded that use of a stimulant medication by children with ADHD:
A. decreases the risk for developing an SUD in adulthood.
B. increases the risk for developing an SUD in adulthood.
C. increases the risk for developing an SUD in adulthood only when stimulant treatment begins at a young age and at a high dose.
D. does not decrease or increase the risk of developing an SUD in adulthood.
D. does not decrease or increase the risk of developing an SUD in adulthood.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PPY-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-14 Answer D is correct. The research is not entirely consistent with regard to the association between the use of stimulant drugs by children with ADHD and risk for developing an SUD later in life. For example, the Humphreys, Eng, and Lee meta-analysis cited in the question found that the use of stimulant medications to treat children with ADHD neither increased nor decreased the risk for later development of an SUD. However, a study conducted since that meta-analysis found that children with ADHD who began treatment with a stimulant drug at a young age and at a high dose were less likely to develop an SUD than were those who began treatment at an older age and at a lower dose (A. G. Groenman et al., Stimulant treatment profiles predicting co-occurring substance use disorders in individuals with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, European Child & Adolescent Psychiatry, 28, 1213-1222, 2019.)
All of the following are “red flags” that suggest a young child should be referred for a speech/language evaluation except:
A. no canonical babbling (e.g., bababa) by 5 months of age.
B. no first words by 19 months of age.
C. no meaningful two-word combinations (e.g., juice gone) by 28 months of age.
D. no appropriate pronoun use by 42 months of age.
A. no canonical babbling (e.g., bababa) by 5 months of age.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Language Development-027 Answer A is correct. The reported ages for language milestones vary somewhat from source to source, but most sources list canonical babbling as occurring by 6 to 8 months of age, first words by 15 months, meaningful two-word combinations by 24 months of age, and appropriate pronoun use by 36 months of age. Therefore, answer A is the best answer because no canonical babbling at 5 months is not unusual and, therefore, does not suggest a child should be referred for a speech/language evaluation. See, e.g., H. M. Feldman and C. Messick, Assessment of language and speech, in M. L. Wolrich, D. D. Drotar, P. H. Dworkin, and E. C. Perrin (Eds.), Behavioral pediatrics: Evidence and practice (pp. 177-190), Philadelphia, Mosby-Elsevier, 2008.
Which of the following women is at greatest risk for having a child with standard (nondisjunction) trisomy 21?
A. a 28-year-old African American woman
B. a 42-year-old European American woman
C. a woman whose sister has a child with standard trisomy 21
D. a woman who has a folic acid deficiency during pregnancy
B. a 42-year-old European American woman
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-080 Answer B is correct. Studies have found that women who are 30 years of age or older at the time of conception are more likely than younger women to have a baby with standard trisomy 21, with the risk increasing with increasing age. Maternal race/ethnicity has not been linked to the risk for standard trisomy 21, so an African American woman (answer A) is not at increased risk for having a child with this disorder because of her race. Having a sister who has a child with standard trisomy 21 (answer C) does not increase a woman’s risk for having a child with this type of trisomy 21 because it is not genetically inherited. (Translocation trisomy 21 can be due to an error during cell division or can be inherited from a parent carrier.) A folic acid deficiency during pregnancy (answer D) can cause neural tube defects but has not been linked to an increased risk for having a baby with trisomy 21.
__________ validity refers to the extent to which research results are generalizable to other people, settings, and times.
A. External
B. Ecological
C. Exogeneous
D. Endogenous
A. External
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Internal/External Validity-068 Answer A is correct. External validity refers to the generalizability of research results and includes population validity (generalizability to other people in the population the sample was drawn from), ecological validity (generalizability to other settings or environments), and temporal validity (generalizability to other times).
Which of the following neuroimaging techniques is generally considered most useful for assessing acute traumatic brain injury because it is quick and cost effective and is usually available in medical settings?
A. SPECT
B. FDG-PET
C. MRI
D. CT
D. CT
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-171 Answer D is correct. MRI and CT are structural neuroimaging techniques that are used to assess the effects of traumatic brain injury. CT is normally the preferred method for acute injury for the reasons listed in the question [B. Lee and A. Newberg, Neuroimaging in traumatic brain imaging, NeuroRx, 2(2), 372-383, 2005]. Other advantages of CT are that, unlike MRI, it does not require the individual to remain motionless for an extended period of time and is less noisy and, therefore, does not require the use of earplugs or headphones.
A low blood glucose level causes hypoglycemia, the symptoms of which include:
A. tremor, sweating, tachycardia, difficulty sleeping, anxiety, sensitivity to heat, and unexplained weight loss.
B. fatigue, muscle cramps, bradycardia, constipation, dry skin, depression, sensitivity to cold, and unexplained weight gain.
C. shaking, sweating, hunger, dizziness, irritability, disorientation, weakness, sleepiness, and pallor.
D. frequent and excessive urination, extreme thirst, dehydration, constipation, weight loss, and low blood pressure.
C. shaking, sweating, hunger, dizziness, irritability, disorientation, weakness, sleepiness, and pallor.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-129 Answer C is correct. The symptoms described in this answer are mild to moderate symptoms of hypoglycemia. The symptoms listed in answer A are characteristic of hyperthyroidism, those listed in answer B are characteristic of hypothyroidism, and those listed in answer D are characteristic of diabetes insipidus.
You have been seeing Betsy B., age 49, in therapy via videoconferencing for five months when she tells you she is moving to another state to be closer to her daughter and son-in-law but would like to continue therapy with you. You are not licensed in the state Betsy is moving to. You tell Betsy:
A. you cannot continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state because you’re not licensed in that state.
B. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only until she begins seeing a therapist who is licensed in that state.
C. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only if your state and the state she is moving to are PSYPACT states.
D. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only if your state and the state she is moving to are PSYPACT states or that state’s law permits you to do so.
D. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only if your state and the state she is moving to are PSYPACT states or that state’s law permits you to do so.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-169 Answer D is correct. Psychologists licensed in a PSYPACT state can provide telepsychology services to clients in other PSYPACT states. In addition, some states have laws that allow psychologists licensed in another state to provide telepsychology in those states for a specified period of time.
The goals of Project MATCH (Matching Alcoholism Treatment to Client Heterogeneity) were to compare the effects of motivational enhancement therapy, cognitive-behavioral therapy, and twelve-step facilitation for individuals who had received a DSM-III-R diagnosis of alcohol dependence or abuse and to test the hypothesis that matching type of treatment to certain patient characteristics improves treatment outcomes. Results found which of the following?
A. The three treatments produced similar outcomes but there was no support for the matching hypothesis.
B. The three treatments produced similar outcomes and there was some support for the matching hypothesis.
C. Motivational enhancement therapy produced the best outcomes but there was no support for the matching hypothesis.
D. Motivational enhancement therapy produced the best outcomes and there was some support for the matching hypothesis.
B. The three treatments produced similar outcomes and there was some support for the matching hypothesis.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-223 Answer B is correct. The results of Project MATCH indicated that the three treatments produced similar reductions in drinking with only a small (nonsignificant) advantage for twelve-step facilitation. The results also provided some support for the hypothesis that matching type of treatment to certain patient characteristics improves treatment outcomes. For example, at the three-year follow-up, patients who had higher levels of anger had better outcomes with motivational enhancement therapy, while those low in psychiatric severity and those with a pre-treatment social network that supported drinking had better outcomes with twelve-step facilitation (Project MATCH Research Group, 1997, 1998).
Which of the following best describes classical test theory (CTT) and item response theory (IRT)?
A. CTT and IRT are both test based.
B. CTT and IRT are both item based.
C. CTT is test based and IRT is item based.
D. CTT is item based and IRT is test based.
C. CTT is test based and IRT is item based.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Item Analysis and Test Reliability-195 Answer C is correct. One difference between CTT and IRT is that CTT is best described as “test based” while IRT is best described as “item based.” CTT focuses on total test scores, and tests based on CTT do not provide a basis for predicting how an examinee or group of examinees will respond to a particular test item. In contrast, IRT focuses on responses to individual test items and provides the information needed to determine the probability that a particular examinee or group of examinees will correctly answer any specific item.
When conducting a factor analysis, a researcher would rotate the initial factor matrix to:
A. reduce measurement error.
B. increase the size of the communality.
C. obtain a factor matrix that is easier to interpret.
D. minimize the effects of missing data.
C. obtain a factor matrix that is easier to interpret.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-098 Answer C is correct. Rotation of the initial factor matrix simplifies the factor structure, thereby creating a matrix that is easier to interpret. In a rotated factor matrix, each test included in the factor analysis will have a high correlation (factor loading) with one of the factors and low correlations with the remaining factors. Consequently, the interpretation of and name given to each factor involves considering the tests that correlate highly with each factor. For example, if Tests A, B, and C all have high correlations with Factor 1 and low correlations with Factor 2, the content of these three tests will be considered to determine what they have in common, and that information will be used to name Factor 1. If the opposite pattern is true for Tests D, E, and F, the same procedure will be used to name Factor 2. Note that answer B is not the correct answer because the communality (the amount of variability in each test that is explained by all of the factors) is not affected by rotation.
A meta-analysis of research conducted by D’Iorio and colleagues (2017) compared the self-ratings and informant-ratings of the personality characteristics of individuals with and without Alzheimer’s disease. The results indicated that, for both ratings, individuals with Alzheimer’s disease were rated as having significantly:
A. higher levels of neuroticism and lower levels of openness and extraversion.
B. higher levels of neuroticism and openness and lower levels of extraversion.
C. higher levels of neuroticism, agreeableness, and extraversion.
D. lower levels of neuroticism, agreeableness, and extraversion.
A. higher levels of neuroticism and lower levels of openness and extraversion.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Other Measures of Personality-140 Answer A is correct. The meta-analysis conducted by D’Iorio and colleagues found that self- and informant-ratings for patients with Alzheimer’s disease were the same for three of the Big Five personality traits: Both provided high ratings for neuroticism and low ratings for openness and extraversion. In contrast, only informants rated individuals with Alzheimer’s disease as having low agreeableness and conscientiousness. These investigators note that the profile of high neuroticism, low openness, and low extraversion is similar to the premorbid profile that has been associated with Alzheimer’s disease and suggest that this profile might be useful for identifying individuals who are at increased risk for developing this disorder.
The “classic aging pattern” on measures of IQ refers to:
A. the tendency of scores on performance tests to hold up fairly well with increasing age while scores on verbal tests do not.
B. the tendency of scores on verbal tests to hold up fairly well with increasing age while scores on performance tests do not.
C. the tendency of scores on performance tests to increase throughout the lifespan while scores on verbal tests remain relatively stable.
D. the tendency of scores on verbal tests to increase throughout the lifespan while scores on performance tests remain relatively stable.
B. the tendency of scores on verbal tests to hold up fairly well with increasing age while scores on performance tests do not.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-151 Answer B is correct. Scores on measures of verbal IQ (crystallized intelligence) remain relatively stable in adulthood until the 70s or 80s when they begin to decline, while scores on measures of performance IQ (fluid intelligence) begin to decline in the 20s. This is referred to as the classic aging pattern and is best described by answer B.
Glasser’s reality therapy is based on choice theory which states that all people are motivated to:
A. satisfy five genetically encoded needs.
B. find meaning and purpose in life.
C. fulfill their innate capacity for self-actualization.
D. develop an adaptive lifestyle.
A. satisfy five genetically encoded needs.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-081 Answer A is correct. According to choice theory, all people are born with five genetically encoded needs (love/belonging, power, fun, freedom, and survival) and satisfying these needs is the primary source of motivation. Answer B describes existential therapy, answer C describes person-centered therapy, and answer D describes Adler’s individual psychology.
Uncertainty intolerance refers to anxiety about the possible occurrence of future threats. Kim and colleagues (2017) found that high scores on a measure of uncertainty intolerance were most associated with increased volume of which of the following?
A. striatum
B. cerebellum
C. reticular formation
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
A. striatum
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-139 Answer A is correct. M. J. Kim and colleagues used magnetic resonance imaging to identify structural brain abnormalities associated with uncertainty tolerance and found that high scores on the Intolerance of Uncertainty Scale were most associated with increased volume of the striatum [Intolerance of uncertainty predicts increased striatal volume, Emotion, 17(6), 895-899, 2017]. The exam is likely to include 2 or 3 questions like this one that ask about a topic that has been addressed by only a few studies and require you to be familiar with the results of one of those studies. If you are unfamiliar with the study being asked about in this question, knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that altered basal ganglia functioning has been linked to generalized anxiety disorder would have helped you identify the correct answer. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer using the process of elimination if you are familiar with the functions of the three other areas of the brain listed in the answers.
Adorno’s F Scale measures traits and tendencies that are associated with:
A. authoritarianism.
B. sociopathy.
C. prosocial behaviors.
D. alexithymia.
A. authoritarianism.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-186 Answer A is correct. Adorno’s F (Fascism) Scale is a self-report measure of traits and tendencies associated with authoritarianism (e.g., conventionalism, destructiveness and cynicism, authoritarian aggression, authoritarian submission, and superstition and stereotypy). Alexithymia (answer D) is an inability to recognize or describe one’s own emotions.
A meta-analysis of the research by the APA Task Force on Violent Media (2015) found that exposure to violent videogames:
A. increases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy.
B. increases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect but has no effect on empathy.
C. increases aggressive cognitions and affect but has no effect on aggressive behaviors or empathy.
D. decreases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect and increases empathy.
A. increases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-106 Answer A is correct. The APA Task Force found that exposure to violent videogames increases aggressive behavior, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy for the distress of others in children over 10, adolescents, and young adults. It concluded, however, that (a) this relationship has not been established for younger children because very few of the existing studies included children 10 years of age and younger and (b) there is also insufficient evidence to draw conclusions about gender and racial/ethnic differences.
At the request of the editor of a professional journal, a psychologist is reviewing a research paper that has been submitted to the journal for publication. The psychologist is impressed with the research and wants to apply some of the unique ideas and procedures presented in the paper to the research he is currently conducting. In this situation, the psychologist (reviewer):
A. can use the unique ideas and procedures in his own research since the article has not been published.
B. can use the unique ideas and procedures in his own research only if he gives credit to the paper’s authors when his own research is published.
C. cannot use the unique ideas and procedures in his own research unless he obtains permission from the paper’s authors to do so.
D. cannot use the unique ideas and procedures in his own research unless he obtains permission from the journal’s editor to do so.
C. cannot use the unique ideas and procedures in his own research unless he obtains permission from the paper’s authors to do so.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 7 & 8-054 Answer C is correct. Standard 8.15 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation. Standard 8.15 requires reviewers to respect the proprietary rights of the authors of the documents they review. This means that reviewers must not make personal or professional use of proprietary and unique ideas, procedures, and information presented in the documents without permission from the authors. Note that reviewers are often not given the names of authors and, therefore, cannot contact them directly. In this situation, reviewers should ask the journal editor to contact the authors about their willingness to interact with them.
A psychologist is conducting clinical trials to evaluate the effectiveness of a treatment for children, ages 9 to 12 years, who have received a diagnosis of bipolar disorder with comorbid symptoms of acute stress disorder. Before administering the intervention to each child, the psychologist must obtain consent from the child’s legal guardian(s) and:
A. assent from the child.
B. assent from the child when the child is under 12 years of age or consent from the child when the child is 12 years of age or older.
C. assent from the child unless assent is waived because an appropriate mechanism for protecting the child’s safety will be provided.
D. assent from the child unless assent is waived on capacity grounds or grounds of direct benefit to the child.
D. assent from the child unless assent is waived on capacity grounds or grounds of direct benefit to the child.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-ETH-Standards 7 & 8-26 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed by Fisher (2017) in her discussion of the application of Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code to pediatric clinical trials. She notes that U.S. federal regulations [CFR 46.408(a)] permit waiver of a child’s assent to participate in research that involves a therapeutic intervention when the child does not have the capacity to consent or when the research offers benefits to the health of the child that cannot be obtained from interventions available outside the research study.
There is evidence that spatial working memory depends on interactions between the:
A. basal ganglia and cerebellum.
B. basal ganglia and mamillary bodies.
C. prefrontal cortex and hippocampus.
D. prefrontal cortex and pons.
C. prefrontal cortex and hippocampus.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Memory and Sleep-221 Answer C is correct. Spatial working memory allows us to maintain and manipulate spatial information in working memory for a relatively brief period of time. Research suggests that it depends on interactions between the right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. Note that there is also evidence that the right posterior parietal lobe plays a role in this type of memory. See, e.g., M. van Asselen et al., Brain areas involved in spatial working memory, Neuropsychologia, 44, 1185-1194, 2006. Knowing that the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus are both involved in memory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you are unfamiliar with research on spatial working memory.
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding a psychologist’s use of animals as subjects in a research study?
A. Psychologists are prohibited from using animal subjects in research when the procedures of the research are likely to cause the animals pain or stress.
B. Psychologists should not use animal subjects in research that may cause the animals pain or stress unless their use is justified by the potential value of the research.
C. Psychologists may use animal subjects in research that may cause the animals pain or stress when alternative nonpainful and nonstressful procedures are unavailable and use of animals is justified by the potential value of the research.
D. Psychologists may use animal subjects in research that may cause the animals pain or stress when the pain or stress is minimized and ended as soon as feasible.
C. Psychologists may use animal subjects in research that may cause the animals pain or stress when alternative nonpainful and nonstressful procedures are unavailable and use of animals is justified by the potential value of the research.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-210 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.09(e) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles II.49 and II.51 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.09(e) states that “psychologists use a procedure subjecting animals to pain, stress, or privation only when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the goal is justified by its prospective scientific, educational, or applied value.”
Based on the results of their review of research on relational aggression, Voulgaridou and Kokkinos (2015) concluded that the studies have:
A. consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical and relational aggression than adolescent girls do.
B. consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical aggression while adolescent girls engage in more relational aggression.
C. consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical aggression but have provided mixed results about gender differences in relational aggression.
D. provided mixed results about gender differences in both physical aggression and relational aggression during adolescence.
C. consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical aggression but have provided mixed results about gender differences in relational aggression.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-24 Answer C is correct. Voulgaridou and Kokkinos conclude that the research has consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical aggression than adolescent girls do but has provided mixed results about relational aggression: Some studies have found that adolescent girls engage in more relational aggression, while others have found that adolescent boys engage in more relational aggression or that there is no significant gender difference in relational aggression.
Person-centered therapy is based on the assumption that providing therapy clients with three facilitative conditions will help them:
A. function in an authentic and holistic way.
B. move beyond internalized conditions of worth.
C. replace a failure identity with a success identity.
D. create a self-valued existence.
B. move beyond internalized conditions of worth.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-187 Answer B is correct. Knowing that conditions of worth is a key concept in person-centered therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. An assumption of person-centered therapy is that providing clients with three facilitative conditions (empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence) will help them move beyond internalized conditions of worth and thereby progress from a state of incongruence to a state of congruence. Answer A is most applicable to Gestalt therapy, answer C is the primary goal of reality therapy, and the language used in answer D is most consistent with existential therapy.
The essential features of total quality management (TQM) include:
A. continuous improvement, individual responsibility, and open information systems.
B. continuous improvement, full employee involvement, and data-supported decisions.
C. incremental improvement, individual responsibility, and open information systems.
D. incremental improvement, full employee involvement, and data-supported decisions.
B. continuous improvement, full employee involvement, and data-supported decisions.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Change and Development-112 Answer B is correct. TQM is an organizational intervention that focuses on improving the quality of an organization’s activities and products. Its essential characteristics are continuous improvement, full employee involvement, customer satisfaction, and data-driven decision-making.
During her first therapy session, Renee, age 21, tells you she’s “depressed a lot” but that she also sometimes feels “really good.” After questioning Renee about her depression, you determine she has experienced several episodes that meet the diagnostic criteria for a major depressive episode. You are considering a diagnosis of bipolar II disorder for Renee and, to confirm this diagnosis, you will want to determine if her periods of feeling good meet the diagnostic criteria for:
A. one or more manic episodes.
B. two or more manic episodes.
C. one or more hypomanic episodes.
D. two or more hypomanic episodes.
C. one or more hypomanic episodes.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-150 Answer C is correct. For a DSM diagnosis of bipolar II disorder, a person must have had at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode.
A disadvantage of empirically derived biodata forms is that they:
A. are susceptible to rater biases.
B. are difficult to score.
C. may contain items that lack face validity.
D. have low validity for skilled and unskilled jobs.
C. may contain items that lack face validity.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Techniques-152 Answer C is correct. A disadvantage of empirically derived biodata forms is that, while they contain items that have been found to predict job performance, some items may lack face validity – i.e., they may not “look like” they are related to job performance. Consequently, job applicants may feel that biodata forms request irrelevant information and are an invasion of privacy. Empirically derived biodata forms are not susceptible to rater biases (answer A), they are not difficult to score (answer B) because items are presented in a multiple-choice format or other format that is easy to score, and they have been found to be valid predictors of performance for a variety of jobs, ranging from unskilled jobs to managerial- and executive-level jobs (answer D).
The best conclusion about research on the effectiveness of telepsychology for bulimia nervosa is that it:
A. is ineffective as a means of providing therapy in terms of most treatment outcomes.
B. is equally effective as in-person therapy for most or all treatment outcomes.
C. is more effective than in-person therapy for most or all treatment outcomes.
D. has positive effects but may be less effective than in-person therapy in terms of some treatment outcomes.
D. has positive effects but may be less effective than in-person therapy in terms of some treatment outcomes.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-101 Answer D is correct. Studies evaluating the effectiveness of telepsychology as a means of providing therapy for bulimia nervosa have not produced entirely consistent results, and the best conclusion that can be drawn from the studies is that telepsychology has positive effects but may be less effective than in-person therapy for some treatment outcomes.
A distinguishing characteristic of community-based preparatory research (CBPR) is that community members who take part in CBPR act as:
A. research subjects who help identify the goals of the research.
B. advocates who support the work of the research team.
C. subject matter experts who act as consultants.
D. equal research partners who participate in all phases of the research.
D. equal research partners who participate in all phases of the research.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- RMS- Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-163 Answer D is correct. CBPR differs from traditional community-based research by its inclusion of community members as equal research partners with other members of the research team during all phases of the research. Even if community members adopt other roles during the course of the research, their primary role is that of a research partner.
Prosopagnosia (face blindness) is best described as involving:
A. prioritization of top-down processing over bottom-up processing.
B. intact bottom-up processing with a lack of top-down processing.
C. intact top-down processing with a lack of bottom-up processing.
D. inadequate bottom-up and top-down processing.
B. intact bottom-up processing with a lack of top-down processing.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Sensation and Perception-110 Answer B is correct. Bottom-up processing refers to processing that begins with incoming sensory information and continues upward to the brain where it is perceived, interpreted, and stored, while top-down processing refers to processing that begins with the brain’s use of expectations, experience, and preexisting knowledge to interpret incoming sensory information. For people with prosopagnosia, bottom-up processing remains intact – i.e., they are able to see the features on a person’s face. However, they lack top-down processing due to a brain malfunction, which means they are unable to recognize a familiar face because they cannot use previous knowledge and experience to recognize and interpret facial features.
The National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions III (NESARC-III) found that, among respondents with major depressive disorder, the largest percentage reported having had which of the following during their lifetimes?
A. alcohol use disorder
B. borderline personality disorder
C. generalized anxiety disorder
D. post-traumatic stress disorder
A. alcohol use disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-200 Answer A is correct. The NESARC-III collected data from more than 36,000 adults on the occurrence of major depressive disorder (MDD) and other psychiatric disorders during the last 12 months and over their lifetimes. Among respondents with MDD, 40.8% reported that they also had an alcohol use disorder during their lifetimes, 26.6% reported they also had borderline personality disorder, 20.5% reported they also had generalized anxiety disorder, and 15.6% reported they also had PTSD.
The incremental validity of a new selection test (predictor) is calculated by subtracting:
A. the positive hit rate from the base rate.
B. the base rate from the positive hit rate.
C. the negative hit rate from the positive hit rate.
D. the positive hit rate from the negative hit rate.
B. the base rate from the positive hit rate.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-043 Answer B is correct. Incremental validity refers to the increase in the accuracy of predictions about criterion performance that occurs by adding a new predictor to the current method used to make predictions. It can be calculated by subtracting the base rate from the positive hit rate using data collected in a criterion-related validity study: The base rate is the proportion of employees who were hired without the new selection test (predictor) and who obtained high scores on the measure of job performance (criterion). The positive hit rate is the proportion of employees who would have been hired using their scores on the new selection test and who obtained high scores on the measure of job performance.
A __________ can be used to visually summarize the nominal data collected in a research study.
A. line graph
B. histogram
C. bar graph
D. histogram or bar graph
C. bar graph
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-16 Answer C is correct. Bar graphs are used to depict the number of observations in each nominal category (e.g., gender, eye color). Interval and ratio data are depicted with histograms and with line graphs, which are also known as frequency polygons.
As described by Trochim (2020), a summative evaluation includes all of the following except:
A. secondary analysis.
B. implementation evaluation.
C. impact evaluation.
D. cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis.
B. implementation evaluation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Training Methods and Evaluation-100 Answer B is correct. Trochim distinguishes between formative and summative evaluations and identifies the components of each type: The components of formative evaluation are needs assessment, evaluability assessment, structured conceptualization, implementation evaluation, and process evaluation. The components of summative evaluation are outcome evaluation, impact evaluation, cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis, secondary analysis, and meta-analysis.
Scarr and McCartney (1983) distinguish between three gene-environment correlations. Niche-picking is another name for which of these correlations?
A. passive genotype-environment
B. evocative genotype-environment
C. reactive genotype-environment
D. active genotype-environment
D. active genotype-environment
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-143 Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and D are the three gene-environment correlations identified by Scarr and McCartney. [Reactive genotype-environment correlation (answer C) is another name for evocative genotype-environment correlation.] As described by these investigators, the active genotype-environment correlation is the association between an individual’s genetic predisposition and the niches (environments) the individual chooses. Consequently, this correlation is also referred to as niche-picking and niche-building.
The Stroop Color and Word Test is most useful for assessing:
A. abstract thinking and cognitive flexibility in adults with alcohol use disorder.
B. attention and concentration in patients with traumatic brain injury.
C. perseveration and divided attention in children with autistic spectrum disorder.
D. selective attention and response inhibition in children with ADHD.
D. selective attention and response inhibition in children with ADHD.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Clinical Tests-076 Answer D is correct. The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which an examinee can inhibit a prepotent (habitual) response in favor of a less familiar response and provides information about several cognitive processes including selective attention and response inhibition. It is often used to assess children with ADHD but is not useful for assessing the functions listed in answers A, B, and C.
Research has shown that sense of self and language skills are most useful for understanding which of the following?
A. synchrony effect
B. reminiscence bump
C. involuntary memory
D. childhood amnesia
D. childhood amnesia
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Cognitive Development-091 Answer D is correct. Inadequate language skills and lack of a coherent sense of self have been identified as possible causes of childhood amnesia, which is also known as infantile amnesia and is the inability of adults to recall events they experienced before they were three or four years of age. The synchrony effect (answer A) refers to age-related differences in the optimal time of day for successful performance on various tasks and is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms. The reminiscence bump (answer B) is the tendency for older adults to have increased recall for events that occurred when they were between 15 and 25 years old when they are asked to recall events from their past. It has been attributed to identity formation (which is related to a sense of self) during this period but not to language skills. Involuntary memory (answer C) occurs when an intentionally recalled memory automatically elicits another memory. It has not been linked to a sense of self or language skills.
A psychologist who is providing individual therapy to inmates of an adult correctional facility is told by one of the inmates during a therapy session that he is very angry at another inmate and intends to physically harm him. The psychologist knows that the inmate (his client) has a history of violent behavior. The psychologist should:
A. maintain the inmate’s confidentiality.
B. warn the intended victim of the inmate’s intent.
C. inform the appropriate prison official of the inmate’s intent.
D. warn the intended victim and inform the appropriate prison official of the inmate’s intent.
C. inform the appropriate prison official of the inmate’s intent.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-040 Answer C is correct. This situation is addressed by Pinta (2010), who states that, in correctional facilities, protecting the safety of staff and inmates takes precedence over concerns about client confidentiality. Consequently, when inmates tell their therapists they are planning to harm staff members or other inmates and therapists believe the threat is serious, therapists should meet the duty to protect by breaching confidentiality and informing the warden or other appropriate prison official of the threat. Pinta also notes that warning the inmate who is the intended victim (answers B and D) is not the best course of action because doing so could lead to retaliation.
Survey research on sexual fluidity has found that it is reported:
A. only by men and women who self-identify as bisexual, with reported frequencies being similar for men and women.
B. only by men and women who self-identity as heterosexual, with reported frequencies being similar for men and women.
C. by heterosexual and homosexual men and women, with reported frequencies being somewhat greater for women.
D. by heterosexual and homosexual men and women, with reported frequencies being somewhat greater for men.
C. by heterosexual and homosexual men and women, with reported frequencies being somewhat greater for women.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-214 Answer C is correct. Sexual fluidity refers to changes in a person’s sexual attractions and/or behaviors at different times and in different situations that are inconsistent with the person’s self-described sexual orientation. The studies have found that sexual fluidity occurs in both heterosexual and homosexual men and women but that it is somewhat more common in women.
Which of the following is based on the assumption that high probability behaviors can be used to increase low probability behaviors?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement
B. Premack principle
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-206 Answer B is correct. When using the Premack principle, a high probability (frequency) behavior is used as reinforcement for a low probability behavior to increase the low probability behavior.
The word-stem and word-fragment completion tasks and other tasks that assess repetition priming are measures of:
A. explicit memory.
B. implicit memory.
C. iconic memory.
D. short-term memory.
B. implicit memory.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-158 Answer B is correct. Priming is a method for studying implicit memory, and there are several types of priming. One type is repetition priming, which occurs when presentation of a word or object facilitates later identification of that word or object in a different format or context. Word-stem completion and word-fragment completion are two of the repetition priming tasks that are used to investigate implicit memory.
As described by Herbert Simon (1957) “satisficing” is caused by several factors that include all of the following except:
A. cognitive limitations.
B. time constraints.
C. imperfect or inadequate information.
D. communication failures.
D. communication failures.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Decision-Making-196 Answer D is correct. Simon identified cognitive limitations, time constraints, and imperfect or inadequate information as the causes of satisficing, which involves making decisions by considering alternatives only until a minimally acceptable (rather than the best) alternative is found. Communication failures is not one of the factors identified by Simon as a cause of satisficing.
The best conclusion that can be drawn about the pharmacological treatment of major depressive disorder with atypical features is that:
A. TCAs are more effective than SSRIs and MAOIs.
B. SSRIs and TCAs are both more effective than MAOIs.
C. MAOIs are effective but may not be significantly more effective than SSRIs.
D. MAOIs are effective but may not be significantly more effective than TCAs.
C. MAOIs are effective but may not be significantly more effective than SSRIs.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-177 Answer C is correct. This is a difficult question because the research has not provided consistent results. Although the studies have confirmed that MAOIs are effective and more effective than TCAs for treating atypical depression, they have provided mixed results for SSRIs: Some studies have found MAOIs to be somewhat more effective than SSRIs, while others have found the two drugs to be similar in effectiveness. See, e.g., V. Henkel, R. Mergi, A. K. Allgaier, R. Kohnen, H. J. Moller, and U. Hegerl, Treatment of depression with atypical features: A meta-analytic approach, Psychiatry Research, 141(1), 89-101, 2006.
A practitioner of Minuchin’s structural family therapy is most likely to say that detouring is occurring when:
A. family members avoid talking about important issues by changing the subject or pretending to misunderstand.
B. a parent and child form a cross-generational coalition and repeatedly “gang up” against the other parent.
C. both parents demand that a child side with them against the other parent.
D. parents avoid their own conflicts by scapegoating or overprotecting a child.
D. parents avoid their own conflicts by scapegoating or overprotecting a child.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-144 Answer D is correct. Structural family therapists describe detouring as a type of rigid family triad and distinguish between two types: A detouring-attack coalition occurs when parents avoid the conflict between them by blaming (scapegoating) a child for their problems, and a detouring-support coalition occurs when parents avoid their own conflict by overprotecting a child. Answer A describes distracting, which is not one of the types of rigid triads identified by Minuchin but is one of the dysfunctional communication styles described by Satir. Answers B and C describe two other rigid triads: Answer B describes a stable coalition and answer C describes an unstable coalition.
__________ is the most common outcome of damage to the cerebellum and can also be due to abnormalities in the sensory or vestibular system.
A. Ataxia
B. Apraxia
C. Dyskinesia
D. Paresthesia
A. Ataxia
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-188 Answer A is correct. Ataxia is the most common consequence of damage to the cerebellum and involves a lack of coordination and clumsiness of movement that is not due to muscular weakness. In addition to problems with gait and posture, cerebellar ataxia can cause abnormal eye movements, dysarthria (difficulty moving the muscles involved in speech), and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Apraxia (answer B) is an inability to carry out purposeful movements despite normal muscle power and control. It is most often due to damage to the parietal lobes but may also be caused by damage to the corpus callosum and certain areas of the frontal lobes. There is also evidence that damage to the cerebellum may be involved in several specific types of apraxia including oculomotor apraxia and agraphic apraxia. However, apraxia is not the correct answer because it is not the most common outcome of damage to the cerebellum, which is what this question is asking about. Dyskinesia (answer C) involves abnormal, involuntary muscle movements (e.g., twitching, fidgeting) that are caused by abnormal activity in the basal ganglia. Paresthesia (answer D) involves numbness, tingling, or other abnormal sensation in the skin. It is caused by sustained pressure or damage to a nerve in the brain or spinal cord due, for example, to a stroke or tumor.
A researcher would use which of the following to compare the effects of two interventions on quality-adjusted life-years (QALY)?
A. cost-utility analysis
B. cost-benefit analysis
C. cost-effectiveness analysis
D. cost-consequences analysis
A. cost-utility analysis
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-059 Answer A is correct. Cost-utility analysis is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when outcomes are expressed as quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY). Cost-benefit analysis (answer B) is used when the costs and benefits of the interventions being evaluated can be expressed in monetary terms. Cost-effectiveness analysis (answer C) is used to compare two or more interventions that have outcomes that are measured in nonmonetary terms other than QALYs or DALYs (e.g., as reduction in symptom severity or probability of relapse). Cost-consequences analysis (answer D) is used to compare the consequences (outcomes) of two or more interventions when there are multiple consequences that are simply listed and not aggregated into a QALY, DALY, cost-effectiveness ratio, or other single metric.
According to the theory of groupthink, mindguards:
A. protect the group leader from being criticized or ignored by group members.
B. protect the group and group leader from dissenting views.
C. pressure group members to consider contradictory information.
D. pressure group members to “stay on track” whenever discussions go off-topic.
B. protect the group and group leader from dissenting views.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Decision-Making-131 Answer B is correct. A mindguard is a group member who acts as a self-appointed censor and shields the group and group leader from dissenting views by, for example, actively discouraging members from sharing contradictory ideas. The presence of a mindguard is one of the symptoms of groupthink.
Cohen-Charash and Spector’s (2001) meta-analysis of research on the effects of organizational justice found that job satisfaction is:
A. positively related to perceived procedural justice but unrelated to perceived distributive or interactional justice.
B. positively related to perceived distributive justice but unrelated to perceived procedural or interactional justice.
C. positively related to perceived interactional justice but unrelated to perceived procedural or distributive justice.
D. positively and similarly related to perceived procedural, distributive, and interactional justice.
D. positively and similarly related to perceived procedural, distributive, and interactional justice.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-208 Answer D is correct. Cohen-Charash and Spector found positive correlation coefficients between the three types of organizational justice and job satisfaction and that the coefficients varied somewhat but that the differences were small: Based on their data, they concluded that job satisfaction is similarly and relatively highly related to all three types of organizational justice.
The Technical and Interpretive Manual for the WAIS-IV reports the results of several factor analyses that support the test’s underlying ________ structure.
A. two-factor
B. three-factor
C. four-factor
D. six-factor
C. four-factor
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PAS- Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-216 Answer C is correct. This is an easy question as long as you know that the WAIS-IV includes four indexes that each assess a different factor: Verbal Comprehension, Working Memory, Perceptual Reasoning, and Processing Speed.
Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) has been linked to which of the following?
A. low brain and blood levels of serotonin
B. high brain and blood levels of serotonin
C. high brain level and low blood level of serotonin
D. low brain level and high blood level of serotonin
D. low brain level and high blood level of serotonin
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Neurodevelopmental Disorders-038 Answer D is correct. Studies have found that individuals with ASD typically have lower-than-normal levels of serotonin in several areas of the brain, while some also have higher-than-normal blood levels of serotonin. One explanation for this difference is that blood serotonin enters the fetal brain during the early stages of development before the blood-brain barrier is fully mature, which causes reduced development of or damage to serotonergic neurons in the brain (Whitaker-Azmitia, 2005).
Research on which of the following has found that retrieval memory is optimal when conditions are the same at the time of learning and the time of retrieval.
A. levels of processing
B. encoding specificity
C. elaborative rehearsal
D. practice testing
B. encoding specificity
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-3 Answer B is correct. According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of learning (encoding) new information are the same as the conditions when the information must be recalled. The conditions can be external circumstances (e.g., the same room) or internal states (the same mood).
A large manufacturing company uses the salary history of job applicants to determine the wages they offer to them, even though this practice results in applicants belonging to racial/ethnic minority groups regularly being offered lower wages than the wages offered to White applicants for the same job. This is an example of:
A. intrapersonal racism.
B. interpersonal racism.
C. institutional racism.
D. structural racism.
C. institutional racism.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-4 Answer C is correct. Institutional racism refers to covert and overt policies, procedures, and operations of public or private institutions, organizations, and companies that disadvantage members of racial/ethnic minority groups. Structural racism (answer D) is embedded in systems and structures (e.g., laws, rules, ideologies, societal norms) that create and perpetuate inequities for members of racial/ethnic minority groups.
Correll and his colleagues (2007) found that the police officers included in their study demonstrated shooter bias in terms of:
A. both response time and accuracy.
B. response time but not accuracy.
C. accuracy but not response time.
D. neither response time nor accuracy.
B. response time but not accuracy.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-192 Answer B is correct. Correll and his colleagues compared the shoot/don’t shoot decisions of civilians and police officers using a videogame simulation designed to recreate the experience of a police officer who suddenly encounters a potentially dangerous suspect. They found that civilians demonstrated shooter bias in terms of both response time and accuracy, while police officers demonstrated shooter bias only in terms of response time: Police officers did not make as many shooting errors as the civilians did. However, like civilians, they decided to shoot armed Black suspects more quickly than armed White suspects and not to shoot unarmed White suspects more quickly than unarmed Black suspects.
Which of the following syndromes is not caused by a chromosomal deletion?
A. cri-du-chat
B. Prader-Willi
C. Klinefelter
D. Angelman
C. Klinefelter
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-22 Answer C is correct. Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome. Chromosomal deletion syndromes are caused by the loss of a segment of a chromosome and include cri-du-chat, Prader-Willi, and Angelman syndromes.
In the context of expectancy theory, __________ refers to an employee’s belief that adequate effort will lead to successful performance.
A. valence
B. instrumentality
C. expectancy
D. execution
C. expectancy
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Theories of Motivation-203 Answer C is correct. Expectancy theory proposes that three factors affect job motivation: (a) Expectancy is a worker’s belief that adequate effort will lead to successful performance. (b) Instrumentality is a worker’s belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes. (c) Valence is the value the worker places on those outcomes.
The majority of men who receive the diagnosis of transvestic disorder identify their sexual orientation as:
A. homosexual.
B. heterosexual.
C. bisexual.
D. asexual.
B. heterosexual.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- PPA- Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-122 Answer B is correct. The majority of men with transvestic disorder self-identify as heterosexual, although some may occasionally have sexual interactions with other men, especially when cross-dressed. See, e.g., N. O. Rosen, L. A. Brotto, and K. J. Zucker, Sexual dysfunctions and paraphilic disorders, in D. C. Beidel and B. C. Frueh (Eds.), Adult psychopathology and diagnosis (8th ed., pp. 571-632), Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2018.
The etiology of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to:
A. low levels of both acetylcholine and glutamate.
B. high levels of both acetylcholine and glutamate.
C. a low level of acetylcholine and a high level of glutamate.
D. a high level of acetylcholine and a low level of glutamate.
C. a low level of acetylcholine and a high level of glutamate.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-5 Answer C is correct. Impairments in memory and other cognitive functions associated with Alzheimer’s disease have been linked to neurodegeneration in certain areas of the brain resulting from acetylcholine deficiency and glutamate excitotoxicity: Acetylcholine deficiency is caused by degeneration of neurons that release acetylcholine and increased activity of an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Glutamate excitotoxity is caused by excessive presynaptic release of glutamate and decreased glutamate reuptake in synaptic clefts.
John Watson used which of the following procedures to establish Little Albert’s fear response to white rats?
A. backwards conditioning
B. trace conditioning
C. delay conditioning
D. simultaneous conditioning
C. delay conditioning
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- LEA- Classical Conditioning-217 Answer C is correct. Watson first presented the white rat (CS) to Albert and then, while the white rat was still present, presented an unexpected loud noise (the US) that naturally elicited a startle response in Albert. After doing this numerous times, presentation of the white rat alone elicited a startle response. Presentation of the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US is referred to as delay conditioning.
Faragher, Cass, and Cooper’s (2005) meta-analysis of the research indicated that job satisfaction:
A. is unrelated to mental or physical health.
B. is related to mental and physical health, with the relationship being stronger for mental health.
C. is related to mental and physical health, with the relationship being stronger for physical health.
D. is related to physical health but not to mental health.
B. is related to mental and physical health, with the relationship being stronger for mental health.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-219 Answer B is correct. Faragher et al. found that level of job satisfaction had a positive correlation with measures of both mental/psychological health and physical health. However, the correlation coefficient was higher for mental/psychological health than for physical health (.318 for mental health versus .235 for physical health).
Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS) combine which of the following?
A. graphic rating scale and critical incidents
B. paired comparison and critical incidents
C. behavioral anchors and forced choice
D. behavioral anchors and forced distribution
A. graphic rating scale and critical incidents
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P7- ORG- Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-145 Answer A is correct. When using BARS, a supervisor rates each employee on several dimensions of job performance using a graphic rating scale, with points on the scale being “anchored” by specific behaviors (critical incidents) that each describe a different level of performance.
