Exam 7 Flashcards

Question

When reviewing a supervisor’s performance ratings of the employees he supervises, you notice that there is a great deal of consistency in the positivity or negativity of ratings he has assigned to each employee, but his positive and negative ratings vary for different employees. For example, the supervisor assigned one employee very low ratings on all dimensions of job performance but another employee high ratings on all dimensions. Which of the following rater biases is suggested by this pattern of ratings? A. central tendency bias B. false consensus effect C. halo effect D. leniency/strictness bias

Answer 1

C. halo effect EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-057 Answer C is correct. When a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are affected by the central tendency, leniency, or strictness bias (answers A and D), the ratings of all employees are affected in the same way. The central tendency bias occurs, for instance, when a supervisor gives all employees average ratings regardless of their actual level of performance. In contrast, when a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect, ratings are likely to differ for different employees. For example, a supervisor’s ratings are affected by the halo effect when the supervisor highly values communication skills and, consequently, rates employees who have very good communication skills high on all other dimensions of performance but rates employees who have poor communication skills low on all other dimensions of performance regardless of their actual performance on the other dimensions. The false consensus effect (answer B) is not a rater bias but is a cognitive bias that occurs when we overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.

Answer 2

C. flow EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-075 Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the conditions that lead to flow, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you have positive psychology associated with flow, which is a state of being totally immersed in an activity accompanied by joy and a sense of fulfillment. According to M. Csikszentmihalyi, a person is most likely to experience flow when there is a challenge-skill balance – i.e., when people perceive a task’s level of challenge (difficulty) and their level of skill with regard to accomplishing that task to be similar (Finding flow: The psychology of engagement with everyday life, New York, Basic Books, 1997). Individuation (answer A) is a goal of Jung’s analytical psychology and is the process by which a person develops an integrated, unique identity. Committed action (answer B) is associated with acceptance and commitment therapy. Arugamama (answer D) means acceptance of life as it is and is a goal of Morita therapy, which is NOT something you need to be familiar with for the exam.

Answer 3

B. Psychologists are prohibited from soliciting testimonials from current clients and, in some circumstances, former clients. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-147 Answer B is correct. This issue is directly addressed by Standard 5.05 of the APA Ethics Code and indirectly by Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.05 prohibits psychologists from soliciting testimonials from current therapy clients and from others “who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.” In other words, soliciting testimonials from current clients always violates ethical responsibilities, while soliciting testimonials from former clients violates ethical responsibilities when those clients are vulnerable to undue influence.

Answer 4

C. acceptance of the normal effects of aging. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-134 Answer C is correct. Rowe and Kahn’s model identifies three factors that are essential for successful aging: reducing the risk for disease and disease-related disability, maintaining high cognitive and physical functioning, and staying actively engaged in life by being connected to others and involved in productive activities.

Answer 5

C. manipulating. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-224 Answer C is correct. Satir distinguished between four dysfunctional (incongruent) communication styles that contribute to family problems: blaming, placating, distracting (also known as irrelevant), and computing (also known as super-reasonable).

Answer 6

C. relaxed muscles and sleepiness EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-153 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to be familiar with the effects of GABA and know that an agonist mimics or enhances the effects of a neurotransmitter. GABA is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. It slows down brain activity and plays a role in visual processing, sleep, and motor control and produces a calming effect that helps alleviate anxiety and stress. Consequently, a GABA agonist (e.g., a benzodiazepine) would most likely relax tense muscles and cause sleepiness.

Answer 7

D. people in tight cultures exhibit greater conscientiousness and less openness relative to people in loose cultures. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-109 Answer D is correct. Cultural tightness-looseness refers to the strength of a culture’s social norms and tolerance for deviant behaviors. Knowing that tight cultures have strong social norms and low tolerance for deviant behaviors and that loose cultures have weak social norms and high tolerance for deviant behaviors might have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As noted by Harrington and Gelfand, tightness has a positive correlation with conscientiousness because this personality dimension “reflects greater impulse control and overall self-constraint and is associated with cautiousness, self-discipline, ability to delay gratification, desire for orderliness, and conformity to norms.” In contrast, looseness has a positive correlation with openness because this dimension “is associated with nontraditional values and beliefs, breadth of experience, interest and curiosity toward new ideas, tolerance for other cultures, and a preference for originality” (2014, p. 7993).

Answer 8

D. accelerating information processing and adaptive resolution of traumatic memories. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-189 Answer D is correct. EMDR is based on Shapiro’s adaptive information processing model, which proposes (a) that PTSD results when traumatic experiences are inadequately processed and (b) that rapid eye movements facilitate information processing, resulting in an adaptive resolution of traumatic memories. Note that there is some evidence that rapid eye movements exert beneficial effects by providing repeated exposure in imagination to traumatic memories (answer B), but this is not Shapiro’s explanation for the effects of rapid eye movements, which is what this question is asking about.

Answer 9

A. was unable to form new long-term declarative memories. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Memory and Sleep-198 Answer A is correct. The medial temporal lobe is the inner surface of the temporal lobe and includes the hippocampus and several other structures that are vital for long-term declarative memories. Following a bilateral medial temporal lobectomy, H. M.’s short-term memory and procedural memory were intact, but he had deficits in remote long-term episodic memory and was unable to transfer any new declarative information from short- to long-term memory. (Declarative memory consists of semantic and episodic memories, while nondeclarative memory consists of procedural memories, memories created by classical conditioning, and memories affected by priming.)

Answer 10

B. emotion regulation, cognitive flexibility, and relapse prevention. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-050 Answer B is correct. As described by Bryan, emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility are essential mechanisms for reducing suicidal behaviors and, consequently, are the primary targets of the first and second phases of CT-SP, respectively. Then, when a client has acquired emotion regulation and cognitive flexibility skills, the third phase begins and focuses on relapse prevention. Although risk assessment, skills training, cognitive restructuring, behavioral activation, and safety planning are often included as elements of cognitive therapy for suicide prevention and cognitive-behavioral therapy for suicide prevention, they are not the primary targets of the three stages identified by Bryan.

Answer 11

C. family or couple counseling EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Personality Disorders-049 Answer C is correct. DBT includes group skills training, individual psychotherapy, and phone coaching (which is also known as intersession coaching). Note that a therapist consultation team is often described as a fourth component of DBT. It is a peer consultation team that therapists participate in for the purpose of helping them maintain the motivation and skills needed to be effective therapists.

Answer 12

A. biological parent and child living apart EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-31 Answer A is correct. The median correlation coefficients for IQ scores reported by Bouchard and McGue are .22 for biological parent and child living apart, .31 for adopted siblings living together, .24 for biological siblings living apart, and .35 for half-siblings living together. Note that an implication of this data is that nature (genetics) contributes somewhat less than nurture (environment) to IQ scores: For example, the correlation coefficient is higher for adopted siblings living together than for biological siblings living apart.

Answer 13

B. loss aversion EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Persuasion and Behavioral Economics-119 Answer B is correct. Loss aversion is the tendency of people to weigh losses more heavily than gains. For example, Kahneman and Tversky (1979) found that the aggravation caused by losing a specific amount of money is about twice as intense as the satisfaction caused by gaining the same amount of money.

Answer 14

D. not acceptable since her affiliation with the University of Illinois is not relevant to her clinical practice. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-ETH-Standards 5 & 6-21 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Principles III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which prohibit psychologists from making false or misleading statements about their credentials, institutional or associational affiliations, etc. Listing the University of Illinois on her business card violates this ethical responsibility because it might be interpreted as indicating that her clinical practice is sponsored or endorsed by the University of Illinois (see, e.g., G. G. Ford, Mental health reasoning for mental health professionals, Thousand Oaks, CA, Sage Publications, Inc., 2006).

Answer 15

C. emphasizes observing a patient’s problem-solving activity to determine how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PAS- Clinical Tests-107 Answer C is correct. Use of the Boston Process Approach is based on the assumption that qualitative analysis of a patient’s responses to test items provides more information than quantitative scores about the patient’s neuropsychological processes by identifying how, when, and why the patient is unable to solve problems presented by test items.

Answer 16

D. self-perception theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Attitudes and Attitude Change-132 Answer D is correct. According to Bem’s (1972) self-perception theory, people learn about themselves in the same way they learn about other people – i.e., by observing their behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur. Evidence for self-perception theory is provided by studies confirming the overjustification effect. It predicts that, when people are externally reinforced for engaging in an intrinsically rewarding behavior, they’ll think they are performing the behavior because of the external rewards, which will cause their intrinsic motivation to decline. In other words, as predicted by self-perception theory, they will look at the external circumstances to understand their own behaviors.

Answer 17

D. significantly higher scores on the WAIS-IV’s VCI than on the PRI. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-29 Answer D is correct. For prior versions of the Wechsler tests that provided Verbal and Performance IQ scores, a significantly higher Verbal IQ than Performance IQ was found to be characteristic of NVLD. On the WAIS-IV, which does not provide Verbal and Performance IQ scores, the same difference was found on the Verbal Comprehension Index (VCI) and Perceptual Reasoning Index (PRI), which are considered to be substitutes, respectively, for Verbal IQ and Performance IQ. (See, e.g., D. L. Wodrich and A. J. Schmitt, Learning disorders: Working systematically from assessment to intervention, New York, Guilford Press, 2006.)

Answer 18

B. homozygous for a recessive allele. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-207 Answer B is correct. PKU results when a child inherits a recessive allele from both parents – i.e., when the child is homozygous for the recessive allele. (An allele is an alternative form of a gene.) The recessive allele responsible for PKU causes a failure to produce the enzyme needed to metabolize phenylalanine, which is an amino acid found in a number of foods including milk, cheese, beans, meat, bread, and eggs. If a newborn with PKU is not started on diet low in phenylalanine soon after birth, PKU can cause severe intellectual disability.

Answer 19

B. androcentrism EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-007 Answer B is correct. S. L. Bem distinguished between three “lenses” through which people perceive gender (The lenses of gender: Transforming the debate on sexual inequality, New Haven, Yale University Press, 2008): (a) Biological essentialism refers to the attribution of gender differences to unalterable biological factors. (b) Gender polarization (answer A) refers to the exaggeration of gender differences. (c) Androcentrism (answer B) refers to the tendency to view the behaviors and experiences of males as the norm and the behaviors and experiences of females as deviations from the norm, often to the disadvantage of females. Gender stereotyping (answer C) refers to overgeneralizing attributes that are considered normal or appropriate for males or females and is not one of the lenses identified by Bem. Androgyny (answer D) is the term Bem used to describe individuals who have both feminine and masculine traits and is also not one of the three lenses that she identified for perceiving gender.

Answer 20

D. theory of mind EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Cognitive Development-199 Answer D is correct. The task described in the question is the change-of-location task, which is one of several false-belief tasks that are used to evaluate children’s theory of mind – i.e., children’s ability to understand that the beliefs, perceptions, and intentions of others can differ from their own. More specifically, the change-of-location task assesses children’s understanding that another person can have a mistaken belief about the location of something and will act in accord with that belief.

Answer 21

B. taking the square root of the reliability coefficient. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-1 Answer B is correct. The reliability index is calculated by taking the square root of the reliability coefficient. For example, when a test’s reliability coefficient is .81, the reliability index is .90.

Answer 22

A. Positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-113 Answer A is correct. The first stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s model is the conformity stage, and the first stage of Cross’s model is the pre-encounter stage. Both stages are characterized by positive attitudes toward White (majority) culture and negative attitudes toward Black (minority) culture.

Answer 23

D. is not significantly different from SSRIs in terms of treatment response and has a lower rate of adverse events. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-157 Answer D is correct. Cui and Sheng’s meta-analysis found that, for individuals with mild to moderate depression, St. John’s wort extract was comparable to SSRIs in terms of clinical response and remission and had a lower rate of adverse events.

Answer 24

B. emotion regulation and inhibitory control EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- School and Family Influences-191 Answer B is correct. Studies have linked helicopter parenting to a number of negative outcomes for children, and some studies have identified mediators that explain this link. For example, Perry and colleagues found that overcontrolling parenting during toddlerhood was predictive of poor emotional and behavioral self-regulation (as measured by emotion regulation and inhibitory control) at age 5 which, in turn, was predictive of emotional, social, and academic problems at age 10.

Answer 25

A. escape conditioning. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Operant Conditioning-041 Answer A is correct. In this situation, the boy says “I love you” to his mother because, when he does so, she stops yelling at him. In other words, his behavior continues because it allows him to “escape” his mother’s yelling. Escape conditioning is essentially another name for negative reinforcement: It occurs when a behavior increases or is maintained because something is removed following the behavior.

Answer 26

A. anterior cingulate cortex. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-044 Answer A is correct. If you’re not familiar with research linking GAD to weak connectivity between the prefrontal cortex, amygdala, and anterior cingulate cortex, you might have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the anterior cingulate cortex plays a role in mood and anxiety disorders. Alternatively, you might have been able to use the process of elimination to make an “educated guess”: Knowing that the entorhinal cortex and mammillary bodies play important roles in memory would have helped you eliminate answers B and C, and knowing that the suprachiasmatic nucleus is responsible for controlling the body’s circadian rhythms would have helped you eliminate answer D.

Answer 27

C. observed and latent variables. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Correlation and Regression-184 Answer C is correct. An advantage of SEM is that it allows researchers to test models of the relationships among observed and latent variables. Observed variables are also known as manifest variables and indicators and can be directly measured. Latent variables are also known as factors and constructs and cannot be measured directly but are inferred from observed variables.

Answer 28

C. provide the Committee with the information it has requested after confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release the information. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-062 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 1.06 of APA’s Ethics Code and the Preamble (Responsibility of the Individual Psychologist) and Principle I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 1.06 requires psychologists to cooperate with ethics committees and states that failing to do so constitutes an ethical violation. However, it also states that, before doing so, psychologists should address confidentiality issues which can be accomplished by confirming that the client has signed an authorization to release information to the Ethics Committee.

Answer 29

A. psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-179 Answer A is correct. The stepped care model developed by Broten and colleagues is similar to other models of stepped care for depression and includes four steps. Step 1 consists of assessment, monitoring, and watchful waiting. Step 2 consists of interventions that require minimal practitioner involvement and includes psychoeducation, bibliotherapy, and/or computer-aided CBT. Step 3 consists of interventions that require more intensive care and specialized therapist training and includes group therapy, individual therapy, and/or medication. Step 4 consists of the most restrictive and intensive form of care and involves voluntary or involuntary inpatient care.

Answer 30

D. refuse to conduct the custody evaluation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-133 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines regarding multiple relationships in general and in the context of custody evaluations. For example, Paragraph II.7 of the APA’s Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings (2010) states that psychologists should avoid multiple relationships and identifies conducting a custody evaluation with current or former psychotherapy clients as a multiple relationship. Guidelines for custody evaluations are also provided by the College of Psychologists of Ontario’s Custody and Access Task Force: Its guidelines state that, when providing services related to custody, psychologists “make best efforts to avoid dual or multiple relationships, or roles, even when the parties request or consent to this” (Information for Consideration by Members Providing Psychological Services in the Context of Child Custody Disputes & Child Protection Proceedings, 2014, https://cpo.on.ca/wp-content/uploads/Custody-and-Access-Information-for-Members.pdf).

Answer 31

C. more common in individualistic than collectivistic cultures. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Social Influence – Group Influences-074 Answer C is correct. A number of studies have confirmed that people from individualistic cultures are more likely than those from collectivistic cultures to engage in social loafing. There’s also evidence that, in some collectivistic cultures, individuals work harder in a group than they do when working alone, and this is referred to as social striving. With regard to gender (answer D), there’s some evidence that men engage in more social loafing than women do in both individualistic and collectivistic cultures [e.g., D. Tsaw, S. Murphy, and J. Detgen, Social loafing and culture: Does gender matter?, International Review of Business Research Papers, 7(3), 1-8].

Answer 32

A. Consumer Skype EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-202 Answer A is correct. Consumer Skype is not considered HIPAA compliant for several reasons. One reason is that, unlike the videoconferencing platforms listed in answers B, C, and D, it will not enter into a business associate agreement (BAA). (Note that HIPAA compliance is required for all health care providers who are covered entities – i.e., who electronically transmit protected health information.)

Answer 33

C. racial salience EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-212 Answer C is correct. Sellers and colleagues distinguish between four dimensions of racial identity: racial salience, racial centrality, racial regard, and racial ideology. Racial salience refers to the extent to which a person’s race is relevant to the person’s self-concept at a particular point in time or in a particular situation. In other words, the degree of racial salience for a person depends on the circumstances. For example, the salience of an African American person’s race is likely to be high when that person is the only African American in a social situation. In contrast, Sellers et al. describe the other three dimensions as being stable across different situations. Racial disparity (answer B) is not one of the dimensions identified by Sellers et al.

Answer 34

C. 60 EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-TES-Test Score Interpretation-15 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, in a normal distribution, a percentile rank of 84 and a T-score of 60 are both one standard deviation above the mean.

Answer 35

B. their values and goals and their current behaviors. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Brief Therapies-039 Answer B is correct. Practitioners of motivational interviewing view discrepancy as a source of motivation, and the technique of developing discrepancy involves helping clients recognize discrepancies between their goals, values, and beliefs and their current behaviors in order to increase their motivation to change.

Answer 36

D. increases a person’s positive attitudes toward in-group members and negative attitudes toward out-group members. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-213 Answer D is correct. According to TMT, awareness (salience) of mortality creates a sense of terror which, in turn, can have a variety of adverse effects. For example, research has found that increasing awareness of mortality contributes to prejudice and discrimination by increasing negative evaluations of and reactions to out-group members and increasing positive evaluations of and reactions to in-group members.

Answer 37

A. monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together in terms of personality. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-166 Answer A is correct. The influence of genetics on personality has been confirmed by studies finding that correlation coefficients for monozygotic twins on a variety of personality traits are larger than the coefficients for dizygotic twins, regardless of whether the twins are reared together or apart (e.g., Tellegen et al., 1988). For example, studies have not only found that monozygotic twins reared together are more similar than dizygotic twins reared together but also that monozygotic twins reared apart are more similar than are dizygotic twins reared together.

Answer 38

B. a sense of restlessness and an urge to keep moving EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-120 Answer B is correct. Akathisia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic drugs and involves a feeling of inner restlessness with a compulsion to keep moving. The disorders listed in the other answers are also extrapyramidal side effects: Involuntary muscle contractions (answer A) are symptoms of dystonia. Involuntary, jerky movements of the tongue, lips, face, and jaw (answer C) are symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Tremor, muscle rigidity, and slowed movements (answer D) are symptoms of parkinsonism. Note that there is evidence that second-generation antipsychotics are less likely than first-generation antipsychotics to cause dystonia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism but that this is not necessarily true for akathisia [B. Elhusein, O. Mahgoub, R. Kumar, and M. A. Abdullah, The possibility of the second-generation antipsychotic Olanzapine to cause akathisia in a drug naïve patient – A case report, International Journal of Psychiatry, 5(1), 1-4, 2020].

Answer 39

C. may be a licensed psychologist or other licensed health provider. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-175 Answer C is correct. As described in the Guidelines for Closing a Psychology Practice, a professional executor should ideally be “a member of the profession or if this is not possible a member of another regulated health profession.” It also states that, ideally, the executor “should not be a member of the psychologist’s own family due to the inherent conflict of interest that exists” (2020, p. 8).

Answer 40

A. 2 and 3 years of age with girls showing a preference earlier than boys do. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-225 Answer A is correct. Studies have found that most children begin to prefer same-sex playmates between 2 and 3 years of age, with girls showing this preference by age 2 and boys showing this preference by age 3.

Answer 41

C. The student should be listed as principal author except in exceptional circumstances. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-222 Answer C is correct. Answer C is the best answer because it is closest to the language of Standard 8.12(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code. It states that, “except under exceptional circumstances, a student is listed as principal author on any multiple-authored article that is substantially based on the student’s doctoral dissertation.” For example, there is an exception when multiple students write dissertations on a large research project and the results of the project are submitted to a journal as a single article or monograph. Answer D is not the best answer because it implies that listing the dissertation chair as the sole or primary author would be acceptable as long as the student and dissertation chair agreed to do so. However, that agreement would violate Standard 8.12(c).

Answer 42

B. interval and ratio EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Types of Variables and Data-009 Answer B is correct. Interval and ratio scales both have the property of equal intervals between adjacent points on the scale. Equal intervals allow you to draw the conclusion that the one-point difference between the scores of 50 and 51 on a test is equal to the one-point difference between the scores of 90 and 91 on the same test.

Answer 43

C. contingent rewards and management-by-exception. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Leadership-180 Answer C is correct. Even if you are unfamiliar with the MLQ, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you know that transactional leaders rely on contingent rewards to motivate their employees and that individualized consideration and idealized influence are characteristic of transformational (not transactional) leaders. Management-by-exception is characteristic of transactional leaders and can be either active or passive: Active management-by-exception occurs when leaders closely monitor the behaviors of followers and take corrective action when necessary. Passive management-by-exception occurs when leaders do not closely monitor the behavior of followers and take corrective action only when serious errors have already occurred. (For the exam, you do not need to be familiar with the MLQ but should be familiar with the characteristics of transformational and transactional leadership.)

Answer 44

A. Beneficence/Nonmaleficence and Respect EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-ETH-Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer A is correct. Neil A. Massoth notes that, of the five General Principles, Beneficence and Nonmaleficence and Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity are most relevant to this situation. Beneficence and Nonmaleficence is Principle A. It states that “psychologists strive to benefit those with whom they work and take care to do no harm.” As noted in the question, rejecting the gift might have harmed the Chinese client by causing the client to lose face. Respect for People’s Rights and Dignity is Principle E. It states that “psychologists are aware of and respect cultural, individual, and role differences.” In Chinese and many other Asian cultures, gift-giving is a common ritual in interpersonal relationships. [Massoth is cited in D. S. Bailey, Approaching ethical dilemmas, Monitor on Psychology, 35(9), 62, 2004, https://www.apa.org/monitor/oct04/dilemmas.]

Answer 45

C. temporarily stores auditory information. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-048 Answer C is correct. Baddeley’s model describes the working memory aspect of short-term memory as consisting of a central executive and three subsystems – a phonological loop, a visuo-spatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer. The phonological loop is responsible for the temporary storage of auditory (verbal) information. It consists of a phonological store that briefly stores words and other speech sounds and an articulatory process that silently repeats words and other speech sounds on a loop to prevent them from decaying.

Answer 46

A. absenteeism EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Change and Development-087 Answer A is correct. Baltes et al.’s (1999) meta-analysis found that the strongest beneficial effect of flextime was the reduction of absenteeism followed by, in order, objective measures of productivity, employee satisfaction with flextime, job satisfaction, and self-rated performance.

Answer 47

A. low ability and low motivation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Leadership-165 Answer A is correct. Situational leadership theory predicts that leaders are most effective when they adapt their leadership style to the ability and motivation (also known as willingness) of their employees: The telling style is most effective for employees who are low in both ability and motivation (answer A). The selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation (answer B). The participative style is most effective for employees who are high in ability and low in motivation (answer C). The delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation (answer D). Note that, because of its name, the selling style may seem most appropriate for someone with low motivation. However, Hersey and Blanchard’s description of this style clarifies why it’s appropriate for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation: The selling style involves facilitating performance by explaining task directions in a supportive and persuasive way.

Answer 48

D. adolescents with conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder and their families. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-094 Answer D is correct. FFT is an evidence-based intervention for families that include adolescents who present with or are at risk for delinquency, substance use, conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, or other serious behavioral problems.

Answer 49

C. person-environment fit theory. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Career Choice and Development-108 Answer C is correct. Like Holland’s theory of career choice, Dawis and Lofquist’s theory of work adjustment emphasizes the importance of the match between a person’s characteristics and the characteristics of the job. More specifically, Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness: Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.

Answer 50

B. protecting the wellbeing of the public and the interests of students. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-116 Answer B is correct. The APA provides several descriptions of the goal of APA accreditation, but all identify benefiting or protecting the public and some also identify protecting students as the goal: For example, the APA accreditation website states that “the ultimate goal of APA accreditation is to graduate psychologists who are uniquely qualified to protect the wellbeing of the public by providing quality psychological service” (https://www.accreditation.apa.org/why-accreditation-matters). In addition, the APA’s Standards for Accreditation for Health Service Psychology and Accreditation Operating Procedures states that “accreditation is intended to protect the interests of students, benefit the public, and improve the quality of teaching, learning, research, and practice in health service psychology” (2018, p. 3).

Answer 51

C. frog croaking. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-063 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, for most adults, decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds (presbycusis) begins after age 40. You also need to know that the croaking of a frog is the only sound of the four sounds listed in the answers that is a low-frequency sound.

Answer 52

B. 2 EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PHY-Memory and Sleep-35 Answer B is correct. Theta waves begin in stage 1 sleep and continue in stage 2, when they are interrupted by sleep spindles and K complexes. Sleep spindles are brief bursts of high frequency activity, and K complexes are well-defined high-amplitude waves that occur spontaneously or in response to environmental stimuli.

Answer 53

C. variable ratio EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Operant Conditioning-103 Answer C is correct. When using the variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is delivered after a variable number of responses – for example, after six responses, then after four responses, then after eight responses, and so on. Of the four intermittent schedules of reinforcement, it produces the highest and steadiest rate of responding and the greatest resistance to extinction.

Answer 54

D. inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-058 Answer D is correct. The symptoms of frontal lobe injury depend on the exact location and extent of the injury. However, of the symptoms listed in the answers, frontal lobe injury is most likely to cause an inability to interact spontaneously with others, fluctuations in mood, and difficulty planning a complex sequence of movements. The symptoms listed in answer A are most likely to result from injury to the temporal lobes, those listed in answer B are likely to be caused by injury to the occipital lobes, and those listed in answer C are likely to be the result of injury to the parietal lobes.

Answer 55

C. the monetary gain that can be expected when the test is used to make hiring decisions EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-079 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to estimate the economic benefit that would be achieved by using a selection test or other procedure to assist with hiring and other personnel decisions. The Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula is commonly used to assess the utility of a selection technique, and it transforms the validity coefficient of the selection technique into an estimate of the technique’s monetary value. Note that utility analysis and cost-utility analysis are not the same thing: Utility analysis (which is described in the organizational psychology content summary) is used in organizations to determine the economic gain that a procedure produces in terms of worker productivity (e.g., the dollar value of performance gains obtained by using a new selection test to hire job applicants). Cost-utility analysis (which is described in the clinical psychology content summary) is used to compare the effects of two or more healthcare interventions on quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY).

Answer 56

B. left temporal lobe. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-205 Answer B is correct. Knowing that the temporal lobe contains the auditory cortex and that the production and comprehension of speech are dominant (most often left) hemisphere functions would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. See, e.g., K. Hugdahl, E. M. Loberg, and M. Nygard, Left temporal lobe structural and functional abnormality underlying auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia, Frontiers in Neuroscience, 3(1), 34-45, 2009.

Answer 57

D. amygdala EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-071 Answer D is correct. K. Spanhel and colleagues compared the flashbulb memory recall of temporal lobe epilepsy patients with and without lesions in the amygdala and found that only those with lesions in the amygdala (especially in the non-dominant hemisphere) had significantly diminished recall (Flashbulb memories: Is the amygdala central? An investigation of patients with amygdalar damage, Neuropsychologia, 111, 163-171, 2018). If you’re unfamiliar with the Spanhel et al. study, knowing that the amygdala is involved in the formation of flashbulb memories would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer 58

D. in accordance with institutional or funder requirements. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-185 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because the 7th edition of APA’s Publication Manual (APA, 2020) does not specify a specific number of years for retaining raw data. Instead, it states that “authors are expected to retain the data associated with a published article in accordance with institutional requirements; funder requirements; participant agreements; and, when publishing in an APA journal, the APA Ethics Code” (p. 13). Note, however, that the 6th edition of the Publication Manual and submission guidelines for APA journals state that authors of articles published in an APA journal must maintain raw data for at least five years after publication of the articles.

Answer 59

A. family-based treatment EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-061 Answer A is correct. Family-based treatment for anorexia consists of the three phases listed in the question. It takes an agnostic approach to the etiology of the disorder, which means it doesn’t attempt to identify why it developed and does not blame the parents or adolescent. Family-focused therapy (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Interpersonal psychotherapy for eating disorders (answer D) is an evidence-based treatment for bulimia and binge-eating disorder. There is some evidence that it may also be useful for anorexia, but it doesn’t involve the phases described in the question.

Answer 60

D. hostile and benevolent EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-104 Answer D is correct. According to Glick and Fiske, ambivalent sexism consists of two distinct but co-existing and complementary components: Hostile sexism is characterized by a negative attitude toward women who have not accepted traditional female roles (e.g., women who challenge male dominance), while benevolent sexism is characterized by a positive attitude toward women who adhere to traditional roles (e.g., women who accept the belief that they need to be protected by men).

Answer 61

C. helping the CSO adopt “loving-detachment” from the IP. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-084 Answer C is correct. CRAFT is a type of unilateral family therapy in which therapists work directly with a CSO rather than with the IP to achieve three primary goals: (a) helping the CSO influence the IP to seek substance-use treatment, (b) teaching the CSO procedures to help reduce the IP’s substance use, and (c) helping the CSO make positive life changes that improve the CSO’s quality of life. Encouraging CSOs to adopt a position of loving detachment (answer C) is characteristic of Al-Anon.

Answer 62

B. positive punishment. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-072 Answer B is correct. Overcorrection is considered an application of positive punishment because it involves applying a penalty (restitution and/or positive practice) after the target behavior occurs in order to reduce or eliminate that behavior.

Answer 63

D. FtF therapy is similarly effective as CVT for reducing PTSD symptoms and for maintaining treatment fidelity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-070 Answer D is correct. Most studies comparing the use of computer videoconferencing to face-to-face therapy for delivering prolonged-exposure therapy to individuals with PTSD have found that they are comparable in terms of both reducing the symptoms of PTSD and maintaining treatment fidelity, which is the degree to which an intervention is delivered as intended. See, e.g., L. A. Morland, S. Y. Wells, L. H. Glassman, C. J. Greene, J. E. Hoffman, and C. S. Rosen, Advances in PTSD treatment delivery: Review of findings and clinical considerations for the use of telehealth interventions for PTSD, Current Treatment Options in Psychiatry, 7, 221-241, 2020.

Answer 64

C. .70. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-178 Answer C is correct. The waist-to-hip ratio is calculated by dividing waist circumference by hip circumference. Most cross-cultural studies have found that men prefer a low waist-to-hip ratio of .70, which means that waist circumference is about 70% of hip circumference.

Answer 65

B. may comply with legal requirements when doing so doesn’t violate basic human rights. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-124 Answer B is correct. Conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements are addressed in Standard 1.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Both require psychologists to make a reasonable effort to resolve a conflict in a way that is consistent with ethical responsibilities but do not require them to abide by ethical responsibilities in all situations (which is why answers C and D are not the best answers). As noted by Fisher, “when reasonable actions taken by psychologists do not resolve the conflict, they are permitted to make a conscientious decision to comply with the legal or regulatory authority under circumstances in which their actions cannot be used to justify or defend violating human rights” (2017, p. 59).

Answer 66

B. ABAB EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-052 Answer B is correct. Of the three single-subject designs listed in answers A, B, and C, the ABAB design would be least desirable in the situation described in the question. Although the AB and multiple baseline designs (answers A and C) have disadvantages, those disadvantages are not unique to the situation described in this question. However, a disadvantage of the ABAB design applies to studies investigating the effects of a treatment to eliminate a self-injurious behavior: Removing a successful treatment during the second baseline (A) phase just to see if the treatment caused the elimination of the self-injurious behavior during the initial treatment (B) phase would be unethical. [Counterbalanced (answer D) can be eliminated because it is a type of group design.]

Answer 67

A. multiple regression EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Techniques-025 Answer A is correct. A compensatory method for combining scores on multiple predictors is appropriate when a high score on one predictor can compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple regression is the only compensatory method listed in the answers. Multiple hurdles and multiple cutoff (answers C and D) are non-compensatory methods and are useful when a high score on one predictor cannot compensate for a low score on another predictor. Multiple comparisons (answer B) is not a method for combining scores on multiple predictors.

Answer 68

D. psychological flexibility EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-085 Answer D is correct. Knowing that the primary goal of ACT is to increase psychological flexibility would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you are not familiar with cognitive defusion and mindfulness techniques. As noted by Hayes, Pistorello, and Levin, “cognitive defusion and mindfulness techniques are used [in ACT] to attempt to create more flexibility in the presence of difficult thoughts, in part by making the ongoing process of thinking much more evident” (2012, p. 983).

Answer 69

A. .80 EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-218 Answer A is correct. A criterion-related validity coefficient, like other correlation coefficients for two different variables, can be interpreted by squaring it to obtain a measure of shared variability. This question gives you the squared number, so you have to take its square root to get the validity coefficient: The square root of .64 is .80. (Note: If there are any questions on the exam that require you to calculate a square root, the numbers will be easy ones like the one in this question – e.g., .81, .49, .36.)

Answer 70

D. early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-142 Answer D is correct: The psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia usually first appear between the late teens and early 30s, with the peak age of onset being in the early- to mid-20s for males and late-20s for females. See, e.g., G. M. Giordano, P. Bucci, A. Mucci, P. Pezzella, and S. Galderisi, Gender differences in clinical and psychosocial features among persons with schizophrenia: A mini review, Frontiers in Psychiatry, 12, 2021, https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fpsyt.2021.789179/full.

Answer 71

D. may be permitted to use the test if the attributes it measures are job related and there are no alternative valid measures available that would not have an adverse impact. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-8 Answer D is correct. When the court determines that a selection test is having an adverse impact, the employer has several options: The employer can substitute another measure for the test that does not have an adverse impact, can modify the test so that it no longer has an adverse impact, or can show that the attributes measured by the test are job related and there are no other valid measures available that would not have an adverse impact. The applicable rules for this situation are described in the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.

Answer 72

A. members of the younger age cohort experienced all sexual identity development milestones earlier than did members of the middle and older age cohorts. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-128 Answer A is correct. The Generations Study was a five-year study that examined the health and well-being of lesbian, gay, and bisexual (LGB) individuals who represented three age cohorts: 18-25, 34-41, and 52-59. Included in this study were questions about participants’ ages when they first experienced five sexual identity milestones: awareness of same-sex attraction; self-identification as lesbian, gay, or bisexual; same-sex sexual behavior; disclosure as a sexual minority to a straight friend; and disclosure as a sexual minority to a family member. Consistent with previous research, Bishop, Fish, Hammack, and Russell found that members of the younger cohort reported first experiencing all milestones at the youngest ages, while members of the older cohort reported first experiencing all milestones at the oldest ages.

Answer 73

A. parent-child interaction therapy EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-097 Answer A is correct. Of the treatments listed in the answers, parent-child interaction therapy (PCIT) is the only one that is appropriate for young children (ages 2 to 7) who have ODD or other disruptive behavior problems and is also an evidence-based intervention for children who have experienced or are at risk for experiencing maltreatment. Assertive community treatment (answer B) is an evidence-based treatment for schizophrenia. Functional family therapy (answer C) is an intervention for families that include a child 11 to 18 years old who has conduct disorder or other externalizing behavior disorder and/or a substance use problem. Multidimensional family therapy (answer D) is for families that include a member 11 to 21 years old who has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency.

Answer 74

D. a 5-month-old African American boy EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-155 Answer D is correct. Risk factors for SIDS include male gender, African American and Native American race, and age under 6 months. Consequently, of the infants listed in the answers, a 5-month-old African American boy is at greatest risk for SIDS.

Answer 75

C. VBRT is most effective for promoting initial abstinence and CBT is most effective for preventing relapse. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-211 Answer C is correct. VBRT is a type of contingency management that involves giving patients vouchers that can be exchanged for goods and services in the community when they meet treatment goals. It has been found useful for promoting initial abstinence, but its positive effect on abstinence tends to fade once vouchers are no longer provided. In contrast, CBT has been found useful for helping patients maintain abstinence following treatment, apparently because it provides them with coping skills they can continue to use post-treatment.

Answer 76

A. purposive EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-089 Answer A is correct. Purposive sampling is also known as judgmental sampling and is a type of non-probability sampling. When using purposive sampling, investigators rely on their own judgment when choosing individuals to participate in their studies. This involves selecting individuals who have characteristics that are relevant to the purpose of the study.

Answer 77

B. contact EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-154 Answer B is correct. Helms’s model distinguishes between six stages which are, in order, contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. According to this model, White individuals in the contact stage are oblivious to race and racism and how they benefit from institutional and cultural racism and White privilege.

Answer 78

D. counterconditioning; extinction EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-092 Answer D is correct. Systematic desensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate an undesirable anxiety or fear response by replacing the undesirable response with an incompatible and more desirable relaxation response. Exposure therapy (also known as exposure with response prevention) is based on the assumption that a neutral stimulus that does not ordinarily elicit anxiety becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits anxiety because, at some time in the past, it was paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicited anxiety. It uses classical extinction to eliminate the conditioned anxiety response by repeatedly presenting the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

Answer 79

B. 16 EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Types of Variables and Data-138 Answer B is correct. In a normal distribution, 68% of scores fall between the scores that are one standard deviation below and above the mean, and the remaining 32% of scores are divided between the positive and negative tails of the distribution: 16% of scores are below the score that is one standard deviation below the mean and 16% are above the score that is one standard deviation above the mean. In the distribution described in the question, the score of 165 is one standard deviation above the mean, which means that 16% of scores fall above this score.

Answer 80

B. hemiplegia; left EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-209 Answer B is correct. Knowing that the left side of the brain controls motor functions on the right side of the body (and vice versa) would have helped you eliminate answers A and C since the woman’s paralysis is on the right side of her body. Then, to distinguish between answers B and D, you need to know that hemiplegia is partial or total paralysis on one side of the body and that hemiparesis is muscular weakness on one side of the body.

Answer 81

B. the heritability of intelligence EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-204 Answer B is correct. Eysenck is known for several controversial views, but only answer B refers to one of them: According to Eysenck, intelligence is highly heritable and, consequently, race differences in IQ are due primarily to genetic differences.

Answer 82

B. integrity test EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Techniques-173 Answer B is correct. Schmidt, Oh, and Shaffer’s meta-analysis of research on the predictive validity of selection methods found that general mental ability tests have the highest predictive validity for job performance and that the greatest increase in predictive validity (i.e., the greatest incremental validity) is obtained when a general mental ability test is combined with an integrity test. They note that this is not only because integrity tests have relatively high validity coefficients but also because they have a nearly zero correlation with general mental ability tests, which means the two types of tests assess different contributors to job performance.

Answer 83

D. nucleus accumbens. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-159 Answer D is correct. THC is the main psychoactive chemical in marijuana. Like cocaine, opiates, and other drugs of abuse, it produces reinforcing effects by increasing dopamine concentrations in the nucleus accumbens, which is a component of the brain’s mesolimbic dopaminergic reward pathway. Note, however, that there’s some evidence that chronic heavy use of marijuana may decrease (rather than increase) the release of dopamine in this pathway. See, e.g., E. van de Giessne et al., Deficits in striatal dopamine release in cannabis dependence, Molecular Psychiatry, 22(1), 68-75, 2017.

Answer 84

B. temporal lobe seizures EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-028 Answer B is correct. The woman’s feeling that she’s on a roller coaster accompanied by a sense of fear and automatisms (being fidgety and smacking her lips) are most characteristic of temporal lobe seizures.

Answer 85

B. recognition of the inherent potential for both good and evil. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-10 Answer B is correct. Humanistic therapies focus on the inherent positive aspects of human nature such as the potential for growth and greatness, and they regard evil and destructiveness as distinct from human nature and due to social and cultural factors. In contrast, existential therapies recognize the inherent potential for both good and evil. Unlike answer B, answers A, C, and D are characteristic of both humanistic and existential therapies. For example, with regard to clinical labels, both approaches view diagnoses as counterproductive because they tend to act as self-fulfilling prophecies.

Answer 86

D. do not include information about the applicant’s abortion in your report. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-141 Answer D is correct. Ethical guidelines related to privacy apply to this situation. Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code states that “psychologists include in written and oral reports and consultations only information germane for which the communication is made.” Principle I.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics similarly states that psychologists “seek and collect only information that is germane to the purpose(s) for which consent has been obtained.” In this situation, you would provide the company only with information relevant to each applicant’s qualifications for the managerial positions.

Answer 87

B. proximal EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-170 Answer B is correct. Meyer’s minority stress theory distinguishes between distal and proximal factors that increase the risk for mental health problems for sexual-minority individuals: Distal factors are external stressors and include prejudice, discrimination, harassment, and violence, while proximal factors are internal stressors and include concealment of sexual identity, perceived stigma, and internalized heterosexism.

Answer 88

A. significantly higher L and K scale scores and significantly lower F scale scores. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PAS- MMPI-2-064 Answer A is correct. Parental alienation syndrome refers to a parent’s behaviors that cause a child to express hatred and resistance toward the other parent. Research by J. C. Siegel and J. S. Langford and others has found that parents exhibiting PAS often obtain high L and K scale scores on the MMPI-2 and low scores on the F scale, which indicates that they tend to rely on the primitive defenses of denial, projection, splitting, and devaluation [MMPI-2 validity scales and suspected parental alienation syndrome, American Journal of Forensic Psychology, 16(4), 5-14, 1998].

Answer 89

B. decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Attitudes and Attitude Change-037 Answer B is correct. This question requires you to be familiar with the four methods that people usually use to reduce cognitive dissonance: replace or subtract the dissonant cognition, add a consonant cognition, increase the importance of a consonant cognition, or decrease the importance of the dissonant cognition. Of the answers given, only decreasing the importance of the dissonant cognition is one of these methods and, therefore, is the best answer.

Answer 90

A. unrestricted range of scores and homogeneous content of test items EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Item Analysis and Test Reliability-168 Answer A is correct. Two factors that affect the size of a test’s reliability coefficient are the range of test scores and the homogeneity of the test’s content: All other things being equal, a test with an unrestricted range of test scores and homogeneous items will produce a larger reliability coefficient than will a test with a restricted range of scores and heterogeneous items. For example, a 50-item test that measures knowledge of neuropsychology and contains items that range from easy to very difficult can be expected to have a higher reliability coefficient than will a 50-item test that measures knowledge of neuropsychology, psychopathology, and clinical psychology and contains items that range only from difficult to very difficult.

Answer 91

C. smell EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders--190 Answer C is correct. A rapid deterioration in the sense of smell is an early symptom of mild cognitive impairment (MCI) and Alzheimer’s disease, with greater olfactory loss being associated with greater cognitive impairment. (Note that, while a decline in the sense of smell is an early symptom of Alzheimer’s disease, untreated hearing loss is a risk factor for this disorder.)

Answer 92

A. destructive family games EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. A primary goal of Milan systemic family therapy is to disrupt destructive family games (“dirty games”) that involve deceit and power struggles and lead to and maintain symptoms.

Answer 93

B. two bound morphemes and one free morpheme. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Language Development-181 Answer B is correct. Free morphemes are minimal units of meaning that stand alone as words, while bound morphemes must be combined with at least one other morpheme. Unsustainable has two bound morphemes (un and able) and one free morpheme (sustain).

Answer 94

C. does not have to obtain informed consent from the defendant but should tell him about the nature of the services being provided and the limits of confidentiality. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-069 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Paragraphs 6.03 and 6.03.02 of the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology. Paragraph 6.03 states that psychologists inform examinees about the nature and purpose of the examination, limitations on privacy and confidentiality, and the voluntary or involuntary nature of their participation. Paragraph 6.03.02 states that, if an examinee is ordered by the court to undergo an examination, a “forensic practitioner can conduct the examination over the objection, and without the consent, of the examinee…. If the examinee declines to proceed after being notified of the nature and purpose of the forensic examination, the forensic practitioner may consider a variety of options including postponing the examination, advising the examinee to contact his or her attorney, and notifying the retaining party about the examinee’s unwillingness to proceed.”

Answer 95

A. major depressive disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-182 Answer A is correct. Bankier, Januzzi, and Littman found that 31% of their sample of individuals with CHD had recurrent major depressive disorder with a current major depressive episode, 29% had a single past major depressive episode, 24% had current generalized anxiety disorder, 19% had current alcohol abuse (alcohol use disorder), and 10% had current binge-eating disorder.

Answer 96

A. Donald Super EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-ORG-Career Choice and Development-12 Answer A is correct. Knowing that Super’s theory is known as the life-space, life-span career theory and that life space refers to a person’s life roles or that his Life Career Rainbow depicts the relationship between a person’s life stages and life roles would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer using the process of elimination because the individuals listed in the wrong answers did not emphasize the roles people assume during their lifetimes: Holland (answer B) can be eliminated because he focused on the importance of the fit between the characteristics of the person and the person’s work environment. Tiedeman (answer C) can be eliminated because he and his colleagues described vocational identity development as an ongoing decision-making process that is linked to Erikson’s psychosocial stages of ego identity development. Krumboltz (answer D) can be eliminated because he described career choice as being related to the learning opportunities that are provided by a person’s social environment and influence the person’s career decisions. (The quotation in the question is from D. Super, A life-span, life-space approach to career development, Journal of Vocational Behavior, 16, 282-298, 1980.)

Answer 97

C. imagery rescripting EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-135 Answer C is correct. The importance of imagery in cognitive behavior therapy has been acknowledged by A. T. Beck who has noted that “[m]any times, maladaptive ideation occurs in a pictorial form instead of, or in addition to, the verbal form” (1976, p. 242). Guided imagery (also known as guided visualization) and imaginal exposure (answers A, B, and D) have been incorporated into CBT, with guided imagery/guided visualization being used primarily to promote relaxation and reduce stress and pain and imaginal exposure being used to treat phobic reactions. Imagery rescripting is used to replace (rescript) involuntary negative images and memories with more realistic and adaptive content (Cognitive therapy and the emotional disorders, New York, New American Library, 1976).

Answer 98

B. disengage from distressing thoughts, feelings, and behaviors. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-066 Answer B is correct. As its name suggests, MBCT combines mindfulness with elements of cognitive therapy. However, in contrast to cognitive therapy, the primary goal of ACT is not to help clients identify, challenge, and replace maladaptive thoughts and beliefs but, instead, to help them “become self-aware, so they can learn to de-centre from distressing thoughts, feelings, bodily sensations and behaviours” (Scott & Adam, 2017, p. 246).

Answer 99

C. They are motivated most by opportunities for gaining status and recognition. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Theories of Motivation-123 Answer C is correct. According to McClelland, people with a high need for achievement have a strong desire for assuming personal responsibility for completing a task and, therefore, have trouble delegating work to others (answer A). They also desire regular, concrete feedback about their performance (answer B) and are motivated most by moderately difficult goals – i.e., goals that have about a 50/50 chance of being successfully accomplished (answer D). However, being motivated by opportunities to gain status and recognition (answer C) is more characteristic of individuals with a high need for power than of those with a high need for achievement: Individuals with a high need for achievement are motivated most by opportunities for achieving a sense of personal accomplishment.

Answer 100

A. providing telepsychology to a client who is in another jurisdiction. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-019 Answer A is correct. For psychologists licensed in a compact jurisdiction to provide telepsychology services to clients in other compact jurisdictions under the authority of PSYPACT, they must obtain an E.Passport from the ASPPB and an Authority to Practice Interjurisdictional Telepsychology (APIT) from the PSYPACT Commission. When these have been obtained, psychologists may practice telepsychology in any compact jurisdiction without obtaining additional licenses. To provide temporary in-person therapy across jurisdictional boundaries under the authority of PSYPACT, psychologists licensed in a compact jurisdiction must obtain an Interjurisdictional Practice Certificate and a Temporary Authorization to Practice.

Answer 101

C. specific phobia, other type. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-077 Answer C is correct. Anna’s symptoms are characteristic of emetophobia, which is a fear of vomiting. In addition to a fear of vomiting, its symptoms include a fear of seeing someone else vomit as well as the other symptoms listed in the question. It is categorized in the DSM as an “other type” of specific phobia. Answer A (obsessive-compulsive disorder) is not the best answer because the question does not indicate that Anna is experiencing recurrent intrusive or unwanted thoughts or repetitive behaviors that she feels driven to perform. Answer B (social anxiety disorder) is not the best answer because Anna’s symptoms are not limited to marked fear or anxiety about social situations in which she might be exposed to the scrutiny of others. Answer D (unspecified eating disorder) is not the best answer because Anna’s symptoms more closely fit an anxiety disorder than an eating disorder.

Answer 102

B. students are allowed to select providers from mental health professionals not affiliated with the program. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-156 Answer B is correct. Standards 3.05 and 7.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Principle III and Principles III.30 and III.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this issue. Answer B is the best answer because it is most similar to the requirements of Standard 7.05(a), which states that, “when individual or group therapy is a program or course requirement, psychologists responsible for that program allow students in undergraduate and graduate programs the option of selecting such therapy from practitioners unaffiliated with the program.” Answer D can be eliminated because the Ethics Code does not require that students be provided with an alternative to participation in therapy.

Answer 103

D. clozapine or carbamazepine EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-082 Answer D is correct. A number of psychoactive drugs can cause agranulocytosis, which is a potentially fatal blood disorder that involves a low level of white blood cells and requires white blood cell monitoring. Of these drugs, clozapine (a second-generation antipsychotic) and carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant drug used to treat bipolar disorder) are the most common causes of this disorder. The drugs listed in answers A, B, and C do not cause agranulocytosis but may produce other blood dyscrasias that you do NOT need to be familiar with for the exam. See, e.g., R. J. Flanagan and L. Dunk, Haematological toxicity of drugs used in psychiatry, Human Psychopharmacology: Clinical & Experimental, 23, 27-41, 2008.

Answer 104

B. schizotypal EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Personality Disorders-102 Answer B is correct. The personality disorders listed in the answers all involve problems with social relationships. However, schizotypal personality disorder is the best answer because people with this disorder may say that they’re unhappy about their lack of relationships, but they have few close friends beyond first-degree relatives, are anxious around other people (usually because they’re suspicious of their motives), and prefer being alone. People with avoidant personality disorder (answer A) say they’d like to have close relationships but avoid them because of their fear of being criticized, embarrassed, or rejected. People with schizoid personality disorder (answer C) have limited desire for close relationships and do not derive pleasure from them. People with borderline personality disorder (answer D) have unstable, intense relationships that fluctuate between overidealizing and devaluing other people.

Answer 105

C. smaller-than-normal caudate nucleus, putamen, and amygdala EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Neurodevelopmental Disorders-137 Answer C is correct. Individuals with ADHD tend to have a smaller volume in five brain structures: caudate nucleus, putamen, nucleus accumbens, amygdala, and hippocampus (Radboud University Nijmegen Medical Centre, 2017).

Answer 106

C. illusory memory EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-117 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that the task described in the question is known as the Deese, Roediger and McDermott (DRM) procedure, that it is a false memory task, and that illusory memory is a synonym for false memory. The DRM procedure requires subjects to read a list of semantically related words and then to recall as many words from the list as they can. Research using this procedure has found that it often creates a false memory for words.

Answer 107

A. medical and social EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-121 Answer A is correct. There are a number of models of disability, but the most frequently mentioned are the medical and social models. The medical model is also referred to as the biomedical model and views a disability as a medical problem intrinsic to the individual and as an abnormality or deficiency. In contrast, the social model views a disability as a difference rather than a deficiency and as due primarily to aspects of society that create barriers for people with disabilities (e.g., negative attitudes, discrimination, exclusion).

Answer 108

C. ultimate attribution bias EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-6 Answer C is correct. The information in the question accurately describes the predictions of the ultimate attribution bias which, of the biases listed in the answers, is the only one that applies to attributions that members of an in-group make about the behaviors of members of their in-group and members of an out-group. The group attribution error (answer A) occurs when people believe that their group’s decision is consistent with the decision of each individual group member, even in the presence of information suggesting that the group decision was not unanimous. The actor-observer effect (answer B) is the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of others to dispositional factors. While this is consistent with the prediction made by the ultimate attribution bias for the undesirable behaviors of in-group and out-group members, it is not consistent with its prediction for desirable behaviors. The confirmation bias (answer D) is not an attribution bias but is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that refutes them.

Answer 109

C. the positive predictive value increases and the negative predictive value decreases. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-146 Answer C is correct. A test’s positive predictive value (PPV) is the probability that a person who tests positive for a disorder actually has the disorder, while the negative predictive value (NPV) is the probability that a person who tests negative for a disorder does not actually have the disorder. Both values are affected by the prevalence of the disorder, which can vary in different locations and at different times. When the prevalence of the disorder increases, the PPV increases and the NPV decreases, and vice versa.

Answer 110

D. social alienation EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Brief Therapies-194 Answer D is correct. IPT focuses on one or more of four problem areas: interpersonal role disputes, interpersonal role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and unresolved grief. Although these problem areas are the same for different disorders, the strategies used to address them vary somewhat, depending on the disorder being treated.

Answer 111

D. APP EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Neurocognitive Disorders-215 Answer D is correct. Standard trisomy 21 is the most common type of Down syndrome and is caused by an extra chromosome 21, which means that people with this disorder have an extra gene for the amyloid precursor protein (APP) gene. Because of the extra APP gene, amyloid begins to accumulate in the brains of people with this disorder in their late teens to early 20s and increases their risk for early-onset Alzheimer’s disease. The APOE4 gene (answer A) is located on chromosome 19 and is the strongest genetic risk factor for late-onset Alzheimer’s disease. The APOE2 gene (answer B) is also located on chromosome 19 but has been linked to a decreased risk for late-onset Alzheimer’s disease. Mutations on the MECP2 gene on the X chromosome (answer C) have been identified as a cause of Rett syndrome. Knowing that APP is the acronym for amyloid protein precursor and that amyloid plaques are a key characteristic of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer 112

B. family-focused therapy. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-172 Answer B is correct. Family-focused therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based treatment for bipolar disorder. It is based on recognition that high levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional overinvolvement (i.e., high expressed emotion) by family members can trigger relapse in a family member with this disorder. Multidimensional family therapy (answer A) is a treatment for families that include a member who is 11 to 21 years old and has a substance use disorder and comorbid internalizing or externalizing symptoms and/or delinquency. Multisystemic therapy (answer C) is an intensive family and community-based intervention for adolescents 12 to 18 years old who are at imminent risk for out-of-home placement due to antisocial behaviors, substance use problems, and/or serious psychiatric problems. Transference-focused psychotherapy (answer D) is used to treat borderline and other personality disorders.

Answer 113

B. the independent variable has three or more levels. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Inferential Statistical Tests-118 Answer B is correct. A one-way ANOVA is used when a study has one independent variable and one dependent variable (which is why answers C and D can be eliminated). When it produces a statistically significant F-ratio, this indicates that at least one group mean is significantly different from another group mean. If there are only two groups (two levels of the independent variable), a post-hoc test is not necessary because the significant F-ratio indicates that the means of those two groups are significantly different. However, when there are three or more groups (three or more levels of the independent variable), a post-hoc test is useful for determining which group means are significantly different. (Comparing the magnitude of the means obtained by the groups indicates which group means differ, but a post-hoc test is needed to determine which differences are statistically significant.)

Answer 114

B. distinguished between individuals employed in the occupation assessed by the scale and individuals in a general representative sample. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PAS- Interest Inventories-193 Answer B is correct. The Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were derived using an empirical criterion keying method that involved comparing the responses of males and females employed in various occupations with the responses of males and females in a general representative sample and including items in a scale that were consistently answered in the same way only by males and females employed in that occupation. For example, items that were consistently answered in the same way by psychologists but not by people in the general representative sample were included in the psychologist scale.

Answer 115

D. the person/entity that retained the psychologist. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-111 Answer D is correct. The definition of “client” in forensic settings is provided in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology (2013). It states that “client refers to the attorney, law firm, court, agency, entity, party, or other person who has retained, and who has a contractual relationship with, the forensic practitioner to provide services” (p. 19). For example, when the evaluation is court ordered, the client is the court even when the order was requested by the defense attorney because, in this situation, the court retained the psychologist to conduct the evaluation [C. R. Bartol and A. M. Bartol, Introduction to forensic psychology: Research and application (6th ed.), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2021]. Since the question does not indicate who hired the psychologist, answer D is the best answer.

Answer 116

D. dissociative fugue. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders--162 Answer D is correct. In the DSM-5-TR, dissociative fugue is a subtype of dissociative amnesia and involves “apparently purposeful travel or bewildered wandering that is associated with amnesia for identity or for other important autobiographical information” (p.337).

Answer 117

A. Justice EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-099 Answer A is correct. Open access is most consistent with General Principle D, which is titled Justice. It calls for psychologists to “recognize that fairness and justice entitle all persons to access to and benefit from the contributions of psychology.” See, e.g., JEPS Bulletin, APA’s five General Principles of ethics: How do they matter to an aspiring scientist, 2021, https://blog.efpsa.org/2013/08/15/apas-five-general-principles-of-ethics/.

Answer 118

B. test modifications (but not accommodations) alter the construct measured by the original test. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-164 Answer B is correct. As described in the Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, the characteristic that distinguishes test accommodations from test modifications is that accommodations do not alter the construct measured by the original test while modifications alter the construct to some extent.

Answer 119

B. clarify the manner of death when the manner is equivocal. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-083 Answer B is correct. Because this question is asking specifically about Shneidman’s description of the purpose of a psychological autopsy, answer B is the correct answer: According to Shneidman, the primary function of a psychological autopsy is to clarify the manner of death when the manner is initially equivocal. La Fon (1999) subsequently distinguished between two types of psychological autopsy: equivocal death psychological autopsy and suicide psychological autopsy. Answer C describes the second type. Answer D is not the correct answer because it describes the purpose of a criminal responsibility evaluation. Answer A is not the correct answer because it describes the purpose of psychological profiling, which is also known as criminal and offender profiling.

Answer 120

D. overreporting of psychological symptoms. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PAS-MMPI-2-13 Answer D is correct. Items in the F scale are infrequently endorsed by members of the general population. Consequently, an elevated F scale score indicates overreporting of atypical or deviant behaviors or beliefs that may be due to an attempt to “fake bad” or significant pathology.

Answer 121

D. Cohen’s kappa coefficient EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Item Analysis and Test Reliability-073 Answer D is correct. Of the methods for assessing reliability listed in the answers, only Cohen’s kappa coefficient is used to measure inter-rater reliability. It assesses the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters when the ratings represent a nominal scale (e.g., when two raters classify employees as either ready or not ready for promotion).

Answer 122

B. acceptable only if the professor’s changes do not affect the ability of students to fulfill the new requirements by the end of the semester. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-046 Answer B is correct. Making changes to course syllabi is directly addressed in Standard 7.03 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in the Values Statements for Principle I (Respect for the Dignity of Persons and Peoples) and Principle II (Responsible Caring) and in Principle I.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Principle 7.03 states that “this standard does not preclude an instructor from modifying course content or requirements when the instructor considers it pedagogically necessary or desirable, so long as students are made aware of these modifications in a manner that enables them to fulfill course requirements.” Answer C is not the best answer because it doesn’t mention the requirement that students will be able to fulfill course requirements and because the question implies that the professor has a valid pedagogical reason (“he realizes that he left out several important readings that are relevant to the course”).

Answer 123

C. Mentors identify the agenda for the nature and goals of their relationships with mentees. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Training Methods and Evaluation-045 Answer C is correct. Answers A, B, and D accurately describe mentoring, while answer C is more characteristic of coaching: A coach and employee co-determine the agenda for their relationship, while a mentee sets the mentoring agenda and the mentor supports that agenda.

Answer 124

B. were hyporeactive in terms of cortisol and cardiovascular responses to stress when compared to controls. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-018 Answer B is correct. Fairchild et al. found that male adolescents with conduct disorder showed hyporeactive (reduced) cortisol and cardiovascular responses to a stressful procedure when compared to adolescents without a psychiatric disorder even though adolescents in all three groups reported experiencing similar levels of negative feelings when exposed to the procedure.

Answer 125

D. are as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and depression. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy-020 Research Answer D is correct. This is a difficult question because the studies have not produced entirely consistent results. However, most studies have found transdiagnostic psychological treatments to be as effective or more effective than diagnosis-specific psychological treatments for depression and anxiety. For example, based on the results of their meta-analysis, Newby and colleagues (2015) concluded that transdiagnostic treatments are as effective as diagnosis-specific treatments for anxiety and may be more effective for depression.

Answer 126

A. Psychologists may use obsolete tests and test results in certain circumstances. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-078 Answer A is correct. Standard 9.08 of the APA Ethics Code and Principle II.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to the use of obsolete tests and outdated test results. These requirements imply that using obsolete tests or outdated test results may be acceptable when doing so is appropriate for the purposes of the current evaluation. For example, it would be acceptable to use a previous version of a test when it has norms for a client’s racial/ethnic group, but the newest version does not yet have norms for that group.

Answer 127

D. attributable to measurement error. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Inferential Statistical Tests-220 Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, the reliable change index is used to determine if a difference in pre- and post-treatment scores on an outcome measure is reliable – i.e., if it is due to real improvement or deterioration in a person’s clinical condition or to measurement error. The RCI is also used in conjunction with the outcome measure’s cutoff score to determine if a change in scores is clinically significant.

Answer 128

C. learning can occur without being apparent in behavior. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-136 Answer C is correct. Tolman derived his theory of latent learning from research with rats in mazes. This research found that rats formed cognitive maps of the maze without exhibiting that learning until they were reinforced for doing so. In other words, his studies showed that learning can occur without being apparent in behavior.

Answer 129

A. a high level of religiosity acts as a buffer between exposure to life stress and subsequent alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-042 Answer A is correct. Research has consistently confirmed that life stress is associated with an increased risk for substance use. Wills, Yaeger, and Sandy extended this research by confirming that religiosity acts as a buffer (mediator) between life stress and substance use: They found that, for adolescents, high religious involvement reduced the impact of life stress on both the initial level of alcohol, tobacco, and marijuana use and the rate of increase in their use over time.

Answer 130

D. idealistic. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-161 Answer D is correct. As described by Henrich and colleagues, the acronym WEIRD refers to individuals from Western, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic cultures. They note that much of the published psychological research has relied on WEIRD samples and, therefore, the results of this research may not apply to people from cultures with other characteristics.

Answer 131

A. underestimate their total sleep time and overestimate their sleep onset latency. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders--023 Answer A is correct. When subjective reports of people with insomnia disorder are compared to polysomnography or other objective measure of sleep, their subjective reports most often underestimate the total amount of sleep they have each night and overestimate their sleep onset latency (the time it takes them to fall asleep).

Answer 132

D. chaining EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-148 Answer D is correct. Chaining is used to establish a complex behavior that consists of separate responses (links in the behavior chain). It begins with a task analysis to identify the individual responses that make up the behavior chain and involves teaching the individual how to perform each response in the behavior chain sequentially, starting with the first or the last response.

Answer 133

B. illusion EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PPY-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-34 Answer B is correct. An illusion is a misperception or misinterpretation of an external stimulus, and the person in this question is misperceiving the sound of running water as human voices. A delusion (answer A) is a false belief that is firmly held despite contradictory evidence. An hallucination (answer C) is a sensory perception that occurs in the absence of an external stimulus. An allusion (answer D) is a literary device that is used to indirectly refer to a person, place, thing, or idea. In contrast to illusions, delusions, and hallucinations, which may be associated with a mental disorder, allusions are not associated with a mental disorder and are not something you need to be familiar with for the exam.

Answer 134

C. the posterior is derived from a synthesis of the prior and likelihood function. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Overview of Inferential Statistics-201 Answer C is correct. Bayes’ theorem combines the prior probability distribution for the target parameter and the probability distribution for the parameter derived from current data (the likelihood function) to obtain a posterior (updated) probability distribution for the parameter. [There is no “prevailing” (answer D) in Bayes’ theorem.]

Answer 135

A. the reliability of a predictor and/or criterion on the criterion-related validity coefficient. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-183 Answer A is correct. The correction for attenuation formula is used to estimate what the maximum criterion-related validity coefficient would be if the predictor and/or criterion had a reliability coefficient of 1.0.

Answer 136

D. small differences in selection test scores are not necessarily associated with meaningful differences in job performance. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Test Score Interpretation-127 Answer D is correct. Banding is also known as statistical banding and test-score banding. When using banding, score bands (intervals) are created, usually using the test’s standard error of measurement. Examinees whose test scores fall within the same band are considered to be equal in terms of the attribute(s) measured by the test. Banding is based on the assumption that the differences in selection test scores within a band are not associated with significant differences in job performance.

Answer 137

C. Lithium is more effective for classic bipolar disorder, while anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs are more effective for atypical bipolar disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-088 Answer C is correct. The distinction between classic and atypical bipolar disorder is not an official distinction (i.e., it is not included in the DSM) but, instead, is a clinical description of two types of bipolar disorder. Classic bipolar disorder is characterized by euphoric or grandiose mania with episodes being clearly separated by periods of full recovery. It is most responsive to lithium. In contrast, atypical bipolar disorder is characterized by dysphoric or mixed episodes with the presence of subsyndromal symptoms between episodes. It is most responsive to anticonvulsant and atypical antipsychotic drugs.

Answer 138

B. the base rate is moderate and there are many applicants and a few job openings. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-093 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that it is asking about incremental validity and know (a) that a moderate base rate and low selection ratio increase the likelihood that a selection test will provide incremental validity when added to the existing selection procedure and (b) that the selection ratio is low when there are many applicants and few job openings (i.e., when there are a large number of applicants to choose from).

Answer 139

C. dizziness, drowsiness, headache, nausea, nervousness, blurred vision, and trouble sleeping EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-30 Answer C is correct. The symptoms listed in this answer are side effects of buspirone, which is an anxiolytic drug used to treat anxiety disorders. Answer A lists side effects of anticonvulsant drugs, answer B lists side effects of benzodiazepines, and answer D describes rebound effects that may occur when the beta-blocker propranolol is abruptly discontinued.

Answer 140

B. benefits the acquisition of spoken language. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Language Development-086 Answer B is correct. Hall, Hall, and Caselli conclude that the research confirms that exposing DHH children to sign language from birth does not have detrimental effects on the acquisition of spoken language and that, instead, “there is evidence that exposure to a sign language can confer a host of benefits, and that excluding a sign language leaves the child at great risk of language deprivation” (2019, p. 383). Answer C can be eliminated because the benefits of sign language occur without previous spoken language interventions. In addition, there is evidence that waiting to introduce sign language as a “last resort” after spoken language interventions have failed can have a negative irreversible effect on the language areas of the brain.

Answer 141

D. children have or have not yet reached puberty and are exploring or affirming their gender identity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-055 Answer D is correct. An essential characteristic of the gender affirmative model is that it advocates considering social gender transitioning as long as certain conditions are met: (a) gender concerns are not due to some other problem; (b) the central issue for the child is gender identity (how children internally experience their gender) rather than gender expression (how children publicly present their gender); (c) the child expresses a need or desire to transition; and (d) the child’s parents can offer support for transitioning (D. Ehrensaft, The gender creative child: Pathways for nurturing and supporting children who live outside gender boxes, New York, The Experiment Publishing, 2016). Note that the gender affirmative model’s guidelines for social transitioning distinguish it from the watchful waiting (Dutch) model, which recommends adopting a neutral position about children’s gender concerns until they reach puberty when social transitioning should be considered.

Answer 142

A. simulation EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Social Cognition – Errors, Bias, and Heuristics-053 Answer A is correct. When using the simulation heuristic, a person imagines alternatives to a negative event that has already occurred, and the imagined alternatives can cause the person to have a stronger negative emotional reaction to the actual event.

Answer 143

D. does not decrease or increase the risk of developing an SUD in adulthood. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PPY-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-14 Answer D is correct. The research is not entirely consistent with regard to the association between the use of stimulant drugs by children with ADHD and risk for developing an SUD later in life. For example, the Humphreys, Eng, and Lee meta-analysis cited in the question found that the use of stimulant medications to treat children with ADHD neither increased nor decreased the risk for later development of an SUD. However, a study conducted since that meta-analysis found that children with ADHD who began treatment with a stimulant drug at a young age and at a high dose were less likely to develop an SUD than were those who began treatment at an older age and at a lower dose (A. G. Groenman et al., Stimulant treatment profiles predicting co-occurring substance use disorders in individuals with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, European Child & Adolescent Psychiatry, 28, 1213-1222, 2019.)

Answer 144

A. no canonical babbling (e.g., bababa) by 5 months of age. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Language Development-027 Answer A is correct. The reported ages for language milestones vary somewhat from source to source, but most sources list canonical babbling as occurring by 6 to 8 months of age, first words by 15 months, meaningful two-word combinations by 24 months of age, and appropriate pronoun use by 36 months of age. Therefore, answer A is the best answer because no canonical babbling at 5 months is not unusual and, therefore, does not suggest a child should be referred for a speech/language evaluation. See, e.g., H. M. Feldman and C. Messick, Assessment of language and speech, in M. L. Wolrich, D. D. Drotar, P. H. Dworkin, and E. C. Perrin (Eds.), Behavioral pediatrics: Evidence and practice (pp. 177-190), Philadelphia, Mosby-Elsevier, 2008.

Answer 145

B. a 42-year-old European American woman EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-080 Answer B is correct. Studies have found that women who are 30 years of age or older at the time of conception are more likely than younger women to have a baby with standard trisomy 21, with the risk increasing with increasing age. Maternal race/ethnicity has not been linked to the risk for standard trisomy 21, so an African American woman (answer A) is not at increased risk for having a child with this disorder because of her race. Having a sister who has a child with standard trisomy 21 (answer C) does not increase a woman’s risk for having a child with this type of trisomy 21 because it is not genetically inherited. (Translocation trisomy 21 can be due to an error during cell division or can be inherited from a parent carrier.) A folic acid deficiency during pregnancy (answer D) can cause neural tube defects but has not been linked to an increased risk for having a baby with trisomy 21.

Answer 146

A. External EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Internal/External Validity-068 Answer A is correct. External validity refers to the generalizability of research results and includes population validity (generalizability to other people in the population the sample was drawn from), ecological validity (generalizability to other settings or environments), and temporal validity (generalizability to other times).

Answer 147

D. CT EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-171 Answer D is correct. MRI and CT are structural neuroimaging techniques that are used to assess the effects of traumatic brain injury. CT is normally the preferred method for acute injury for the reasons listed in the question [B. Lee and A. Newberg, Neuroimaging in traumatic brain imaging, NeuroRx, 2(2), 372-383, 2005]. Other advantages of CT are that, unlike MRI, it does not require the individual to remain motionless for an extended period of time and is less noisy and, therefore, does not require the use of earplugs or headphones.

Answer 148

C. shaking, sweating, hunger, dizziness, irritability, disorientation, weakness, sleepiness, and pallor. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-129 Answer C is correct. The symptoms described in this answer are mild to moderate symptoms of hypoglycemia. The symptoms listed in answer A are characteristic of hyperthyroidism, those listed in answer B are characteristic of hypothyroidism, and those listed in answer D are characteristic of diabetes insipidus.

Answer 149

D. you can continue seeing her in therapy via videoconferencing after she moves to another state only if your state and the state she is moving to are PSYPACT states or that state’s law permits you to do so. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- Professional Issues-169 Answer D is correct. Psychologists licensed in a PSYPACT state can provide telepsychology services to clients in other PSYPACT states. In addition, some states have laws that allow psychologists licensed in another state to provide telepsychology in those states for a specified period of time.

Answer 150

B. The three treatments produced similar outcomes and there was some support for the matching hypothesis. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-223 Answer B is correct. The results of Project MATCH indicated that the three treatments produced similar reductions in drinking with only a small (nonsignificant) advantage for twelve-step facilitation. The results also provided some support for the hypothesis that matching type of treatment to certain patient characteristics improves treatment outcomes. For example, at the three-year follow-up, patients who had higher levels of anger had better outcomes with motivational enhancement therapy, while those low in psychiatric severity and those with a pre-treatment social network that supported drinking had better outcomes with twelve-step facilitation (Project MATCH Research Group, 1997, 1998).

Answer 151

C. CTT is test based and IRT is item based. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Item Analysis and Test Reliability-195 Answer C is correct. One difference between CTT and IRT is that CTT is best described as “test based” while IRT is best described as “item based.” CTT focuses on total test scores, and tests based on CTT do not provide a basis for predicting how an examinee or group of examinees will respond to a particular test item. In contrast, IRT focuses on responses to individual test items and provides the information needed to determine the probability that a particular examinee or group of examinees will correctly answer any specific item.

Answer 152

C. obtain a factor matrix that is easier to interpret. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-098 Answer C is correct. Rotation of the initial factor matrix simplifies the factor structure, thereby creating a matrix that is easier to interpret. In a rotated factor matrix, each test included in the factor analysis will have a high correlation (factor loading) with one of the factors and low correlations with the remaining factors. Consequently, the interpretation of and name given to each factor involves considering the tests that correlate highly with each factor. For example, if Tests A, B, and C all have high correlations with Factor 1 and low correlations with Factor 2, the content of these three tests will be considered to determine what they have in common, and that information will be used to name Factor 1. If the opposite pattern is true for Tests D, E, and F, the same procedure will be used to name Factor 2. Note that answer B is not the correct answer because the communality (the amount of variability in each test that is explained by all of the factors) is not affected by rotation.

Answer 153

A. higher levels of neuroticism and lower levels of openness and extraversion. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PAS- Other Measures of Personality-140 Answer A is correct. The meta-analysis conducted by D’Iorio and colleagues found that self- and informant-ratings for patients with Alzheimer’s disease were the same for three of the Big Five personality traits: Both provided high ratings for neuroticism and low ratings for openness and extraversion. In contrast, only informants rated individuals with Alzheimer’s disease as having low agreeableness and conscientiousness. These investigators note that the profile of high neuroticism, low openness, and low extraversion is similar to the premorbid profile that has been associated with Alzheimer’s disease and suggest that this profile might be useful for identifying individuals who are at increased risk for developing this disorder.

Answer 154

B. the tendency of scores on verbal tests to hold up fairly well with increasing age while scores on performance tests do not. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PAS- Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-151 Answer B is correct. Scores on measures of verbal IQ (crystallized intelligence) remain relatively stable in adulthood until the 70s or 80s when they begin to decline, while scores on measures of performance IQ (fluid intelligence) begin to decline in the 20s. This is referred to as the classic aging pattern and is best described by answer B.

Answer 155

A. satisfy five genetically encoded needs. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-081 Answer A is correct. According to choice theory, all people are born with five genetically encoded needs (love/belonging, power, fun, freedom, and survival) and satisfying these needs is the primary source of motivation. Answer B describes existential therapy, answer C describes person-centered therapy, and answer D describes Adler’s individual psychology.

Answer 156

A. striatum EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-139 Answer A is correct. M. J. Kim and colleagues used magnetic resonance imaging to identify structural brain abnormalities associated with uncertainty tolerance and found that high scores on the Intolerance of Uncertainty Scale were most associated with increased volume of the striatum [Intolerance of uncertainty predicts increased striatal volume, Emotion, 17(6), 895-899, 2017]. The exam is likely to include 2 or 3 questions like this one that ask about a topic that has been addressed by only a few studies and require you to be familiar with the results of one of those studies. If you are unfamiliar with the study being asked about in this question, knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that altered basal ganglia functioning has been linked to generalized anxiety disorder would have helped you identify the correct answer. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer using the process of elimination if you are familiar with the functions of the three other areas of the brain listed in the answers.

Answer 157

A. authoritarianism. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-186 Answer A is correct. Adorno’s F (Fascism) Scale is a self-report measure of traits and tendencies associated with authoritarianism (e.g., conventionalism, destructiveness and cynicism, authoritarian aggression, authoritarian submission, and superstition and stereotypy). Alexithymia (answer D) is an inability to recognize or describe one’s own emotions.

Answer 158

A. increases aggressive behaviors, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-106 Answer A is correct. The APA Task Force found that exposure to violent videogames increases aggressive behavior, cognitions, and affect and decreases empathy for the distress of others in children over 10, adolescents, and young adults. It concluded, however, that (a) this relationship has not been established for younger children because very few of the existing studies included children 10 years of age and younger and (b) there is also insufficient evidence to draw conclusions about gender and racial/ethnic differences.

Answer 159

C. cannot use the unique ideas and procedures in his own research unless he obtains permission from the paper’s authors to do so. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 7 & 8-054 Answer C is correct. Standard 8.15 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation. Standard 8.15 requires reviewers to respect the proprietary rights of the authors of the documents they review. This means that reviewers must not make personal or professional use of proprietary and unique ideas, procedures, and information presented in the documents without permission from the authors. Note that reviewers are often not given the names of authors and, therefore, cannot contact them directly. In this situation, reviewers should ask the journal editor to contact the authors about their willingness to interact with them.

Answer 160

D. assent from the child unless assent is waived on capacity grounds or grounds of direct benefit to the child. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-ETH-Standards 7 & 8-26 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed by Fisher (2017) in her discussion of the application of Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code to pediatric clinical trials. She notes that U.S. federal regulations [CFR 46.408(a)] permit waiver of a child’s assent to participate in research that involves a therapeutic intervention when the child does not have the capacity to consent or when the research offers benefits to the health of the child that cannot be obtained from interventions available outside the research study.

Answer 161

C. prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Memory and Sleep-221 Answer C is correct. Spatial working memory allows us to maintain and manipulate spatial information in working memory for a relatively brief period of time. Research suggests that it depends on interactions between the right dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and hippocampus. Note that there is also evidence that the right posterior parietal lobe plays a role in this type of memory. See, e.g., M. van Asselen et al., Brain areas involved in spatial working memory, Neuropsychologia, 44, 1185-1194, 2006. Knowing that the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus are both involved in memory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you are unfamiliar with research on spatial working memory.

Answer 162

C. Psychologists may use animal subjects in research that may cause the animals pain or stress when alternative nonpainful and nonstressful procedures are unavailable and use of animals is justified by the potential value of the research. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-210 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.09(e) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles II.49 and II.51 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.09(e) states that “psychologists use a procedure subjecting animals to pain, stress, or privation only when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the goal is justified by its prospective scientific, educational, or applied value.”

Answer 163

C. consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical aggression but have provided mixed results about gender differences in relational aggression. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-24 Answer C is correct. Voulgaridou and Kokkinos conclude that the research has consistently found that adolescent boys engage in more physical aggression than adolescent girls do but has provided mixed results about relational aggression: Some studies have found that adolescent girls engage in more relational aggression, while others have found that adolescent boys engage in more relational aggression or that there is no significant gender difference in relational aggression.

Answer 164

B. move beyond internalized conditions of worth. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-187 Answer B is correct. Knowing that conditions of worth is a key concept in person-centered therapy would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. An assumption of person-centered therapy is that providing clients with three facilitative conditions (empathy, unconditional positive regard, and congruence) will help them move beyond internalized conditions of worth and thereby progress from a state of incongruence to a state of congruence. Answer A is most applicable to Gestalt therapy, answer C is the primary goal of reality therapy, and the language used in answer D is most consistent with existential therapy.

Answer 165

B. continuous improvement, full employee involvement, and data-supported decisions. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Change and Development-112 Answer B is correct. TQM is an organizational intervention that focuses on improving the quality of an organization’s activities and products. Its essential characteristics are continuous improvement, full employee involvement, customer satisfaction, and data-driven decision-making.

Answer 166

C. one or more hypomanic episodes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-150 Answer C is correct. For a DSM diagnosis of bipolar II disorder, a person must have had at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode.

Answer 167

C. may contain items that lack face validity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Employee Selection – Techniques-152 Answer C is correct. A disadvantage of empirically derived biodata forms is that, while they contain items that have been found to predict job performance, some items may lack face validity – i.e., they may not “look like” they are related to job performance. Consequently, job applicants may feel that biodata forms request irrelevant information and are an invasion of privacy. Empirically derived biodata forms are not susceptible to rater biases (answer A), they are not difficult to score (answer B) because items are presented in a multiple-choice format or other format that is easy to score, and they have been found to be valid predictors of performance for a variety of jobs, ranging from unskilled jobs to managerial- and executive-level jobs (answer D).

Answer 168

D. has positive effects but may be less effective than in-person therapy in terms of some treatment outcomes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-101 Answer D is correct. Studies evaluating the effectiveness of telepsychology as a means of providing therapy for bulimia nervosa have not produced entirely consistent results, and the best conclusion that can be drawn from the studies is that telepsychology has positive effects but may be less effective than in-person therapy for some treatment outcomes.

Answer 169

D. equal research partners who participate in all phases of the research. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- RMS- Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-163 Answer D is correct. CBPR differs from traditional community-based research by its inclusion of community members as equal research partners with other members of the research team during all phases of the research. Even if community members adopt other roles during the course of the research, their primary role is that of a research partner.

Answer 170

B. intact bottom-up processing with a lack of top-down processing. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Sensation and Perception-110 Answer B is correct. Bottom-up processing refers to processing that begins with incoming sensory information and continues upward to the brain where it is perceived, interpreted, and stored, while top-down processing refers to processing that begins with the brain’s use of expectations, experience, and preexisting knowledge to interpret incoming sensory information. For people with prosopagnosia, bottom-up processing remains intact – i.e., they are able to see the features on a person’s face. However, they lack top-down processing due to a brain malfunction, which means they are unable to recognize a familiar face because they cannot use previous knowledge and experience to recognize and interpret facial features.

Answer 171

A. alcohol use disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-200 Answer A is correct. The NESARC-III collected data from more than 36,000 adults on the occurrence of major depressive disorder (MDD) and other psychiatric disorders during the last 12 months and over their lifetimes. Among respondents with MDD, 40.8% reported that they also had an alcohol use disorder during their lifetimes, 26.6% reported they also had borderline personality disorder, 20.5% reported they also had generalized anxiety disorder, and 15.6% reported they also had PTSD.

Answer 172

B. the base rate from the positive hit rate. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- TES- Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-043 Answer B is correct. Incremental validity refers to the increase in the accuracy of predictions about criterion performance that occurs by adding a new predictor to the current method used to make predictions. It can be calculated by subtracting the base rate from the positive hit rate using data collected in a criterion-related validity study: The base rate is the proportion of employees who were hired without the new selection test (predictor) and who obtained high scores on the measure of job performance (criterion). The positive hit rate is the proportion of employees who would have been hired using their scores on the new selection test and who obtained high scores on the measure of job performance.

Answer 173

C. bar graph EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-16 Answer C is correct. Bar graphs are used to depict the number of observations in each nominal category (e.g., gender, eye color). Interval and ratio data are depicted with histograms and with line graphs, which are also known as frequency polygons.

Answer 174

B. implementation evaluation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Training Methods and Evaluation-100 Answer B is correct. Trochim distinguishes between formative and summative evaluations and identifies the components of each type: The components of formative evaluation are needs assessment, evaluability assessment, structured conceptualization, implementation evaluation, and process evaluation. The components of summative evaluation are outcome evaluation, impact evaluation, cost-effectiveness and cost-benefit analysis, secondary analysis, and meta-analysis.

Answer 175

D. active genotype-environment EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-143 Answer D is correct. Answers A, B, and D are the three gene-environment correlations identified by Scarr and McCartney. [Reactive genotype-environment correlation (answer C) is another name for evocative genotype-environment correlation.] As described by these investigators, the active genotype-environment correlation is the association between an individual’s genetic predisposition and the niches (environments) the individual chooses. Consequently, this correlation is also referred to as niche-picking and niche-building.

Answer 176

D. selective attention and response inhibition in children with ADHD. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PAS- Clinical Tests-076 Answer D is correct. The Stroop Test assesses the degree to which an examinee can inhibit a prepotent (habitual) response in favor of a less familiar response and provides information about several cognitive processes including selective attention and response inhibition. It is often used to assess children with ADHD but is not useful for assessing the functions listed in answers A, B, and C.

Answer 177

D. childhood amnesia EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Cognitive Development-091 Answer D is correct. Inadequate language skills and lack of a coherent sense of self have been identified as possible causes of childhood amnesia, which is also known as infantile amnesia and is the inability of adults to recall events they experienced before they were three or four years of age. The synchrony effect (answer A) refers to age-related differences in the optimal time of day for successful performance on various tasks and is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms. The reminiscence bump (answer B) is the tendency for older adults to have increased recall for events that occurred when they were between 15 and 25 years old when they are asked to recall events from their past. It has been attributed to identity formation (which is related to a sense of self) during this period but not to language skills. Involuntary memory (answer C) occurs when an intentionally recalled memory automatically elicits another memory. It has not been linked to a sense of self or language skills.

Answer 178

C. inform the appropriate prison official of the inmate’s intent. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ETH- APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-040 Answer C is correct. This situation is addressed by Pinta (2010), who states that, in correctional facilities, protecting the safety of staff and inmates takes precedence over concerns about client confidentiality. Consequently, when inmates tell their therapists they are planning to harm staff members or other inmates and therapists believe the threat is serious, therapists should meet the duty to protect by breaching confidentiality and informing the warden or other appropriate prison official of the threat. Pinta also notes that warning the inmate who is the intended victim (answers B and D) is not the best course of action because doing so could lead to retaliation.

Answer 179

C. by heterosexual and homosexual men and women, with reported frequencies being somewhat greater for women. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LIF- Physical Development-214 Answer C is correct. Sexual fluidity refers to changes in a person’s sexual attractions and/or behaviors at different times and in different situations that are inconsistent with the person’s self-described sexual orientation. The studies have found that sexual fluidity occurs in both heterosexual and homosexual men and women but that it is somewhat more common in women.

Answer 180

B. Premack principle EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-206 Answer B is correct. When using the Premack principle, a high probability (frequency) behavior is used as reinforcement for a low probability behavior to increase the low probability behavior.

Answer 181

B. implicit memory. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Memory and Forgetting-158 Answer B is correct. Priming is a method for studying implicit memory, and there are several types of priming. One type is repetition priming, which occurs when presentation of a word or object facilitates later identification of that word or object in a different format or context. Word-stem completion and word-fragment completion are two of the repetition priming tasks that are used to investigate implicit memory.

Answer 182

D. communication failures. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Decision-Making-196 Answer D is correct. Simon identified cognitive limitations, time constraints, and imperfect or inadequate information as the causes of satisficing, which involves making decisions by considering alternatives only until a minimally acceptable (rather than the best) alternative is found. Communication failures is not one of the factors identified by Simon as a cause of satisficing.

Answer 183

C. MAOIs are effective but may not be significantly more effective than SSRIs. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-177 Answer C is correct. This is a difficult question because the research has not provided consistent results. Although the studies have confirmed that MAOIs are effective and more effective than TCAs for treating atypical depression, they have provided mixed results for SSRIs: Some studies have found MAOIs to be somewhat more effective than SSRIs, while others have found the two drugs to be similar in effectiveness. See, e.g., V. Henkel, R. Mergi, A. K. Allgaier, R. Kohnen, H. J. Moller, and U. Hegerl, Treatment of depression with atypical features: A meta-analytic approach, Psychiatry Research, 141(1), 89-101, 2006.

Answer 184

D. parents avoid their own conflicts by scapegoating or overprotecting a child. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Family Therapies and Group Therapies-144 Answer D is correct. Structural family therapists describe detouring as a type of rigid family triad and distinguish between two types: A detouring-attack coalition occurs when parents avoid the conflict between them by blaming (scapegoating) a child for their problems, and a detouring-support coalition occurs when parents avoid their own conflict by overprotecting a child. Answer A describes distracting, which is not one of the types of rigid triads identified by Minuchin but is one of the dysfunctional communication styles described by Satir. Answers B and C describe two other rigid triads: Answer B describes a stable coalition and answer C describes an unstable coalition.

Answer 185

A. Ataxia EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PHY- Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-188 Answer A is correct. Ataxia is the most common consequence of damage to the cerebellum and involves a lack of coordination and clumsiness of movement that is not due to muscular weakness. In addition to problems with gait and posture, cerebellar ataxia can cause abnormal eye movements, dysarthria (difficulty moving the muscles involved in speech), and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). Apraxia (answer B) is an inability to carry out purposeful movements despite normal muscle power and control. It is most often due to damage to the parietal lobes but may also be caused by damage to the corpus callosum and certain areas of the frontal lobes. There is also evidence that damage to the cerebellum may be involved in several specific types of apraxia including oculomotor apraxia and agraphic apraxia. However, apraxia is not the correct answer because it is not the most common outcome of damage to the cerebellum, which is what this question is asking about. Dyskinesia (answer C) involves abnormal, involuntary muscle movements (e.g., twitching, fidgeting) that are caused by abnormal activity in the basal ganglia. Paresthesia (answer D) involves numbness, tingling, or other abnormal sensation in the skin. It is caused by sustained pressure or damage to a nerve in the brain or spinal cord due, for example, to a stroke or tumor.

Answer 186

A. cost-utility analysis EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- CLI- Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-059 Answer A is correct. Cost-utility analysis is used to compare the outcomes of two or more interventions when outcomes are expressed as quality-adjusted life-years (QALY) or disability-adjusted life-years (DALY). Cost-benefit analysis (answer B) is used when the costs and benefits of the interventions being evaluated can be expressed in monetary terms. Cost-effectiveness analysis (answer C) is used to compare two or more interventions that have outcomes that are measured in nonmonetary terms other than QALYs or DALYs (e.g., as reduction in symptom severity or probability of relapse). Cost-consequences analysis (answer D) is used to compare the consequences (outcomes) of two or more interventions when there are multiple consequences that are simply listed and not aggregated into a QALY, DALY, cost-effectiveness ratio, or other single metric.

Answer 187

B. protect the group and group leader from dissenting views. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Organizational Decision-Making-131 Answer B is correct. A mindguard is a group member who acts as a self-appointed censor and shields the group and group leader from dissenting views by, for example, actively discouraging members from sharing contradictory ideas. The presence of a mindguard is one of the symptoms of groupthink.

Answer 188

D. positively and similarly related to perceived procedural, distributive, and interactional justice. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-208 Answer D is correct. Cohen-Charash and Spector found positive correlation coefficients between the three types of organizational justice and job satisfaction and that the coefficients varied somewhat but that the differences were small: Based on their data, they concluded that job satisfaction is similarly and relatively highly related to all three types of organizational justice.

Answer 189

C. four-factor EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PAS- Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-216 Answer C is correct. This is an easy question as long as you know that the WAIS-IV includes four indexes that each assess a different factor: Verbal Comprehension, Working Memory, Perceptual Reasoning, and Processing Speed.

Answer 190

D. low brain level and high blood level of serotonin EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Neurodevelopmental Disorders-038 Answer D is correct. Studies have found that individuals with ASD typically have lower-than-normal levels of serotonin in several areas of the brain, while some also have higher-than-normal blood levels of serotonin. One explanation for this difference is that blood serotonin enters the fetal brain during the early stages of development before the blood-brain barrier is fully mature, which causes reduced development of or damage to serotonergic neurons in the brain (Whitaker-Azmitia, 2005).

Answer 191

B. encoding specificity EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-3 Answer B is correct. According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of learning (encoding) new information are the same as the conditions when the information must be recalled. The conditions can be external circumstances (e.g., the same room) or internal states (the same mood).

Answer 192

C. institutional racism. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-4 Answer C is correct. Institutional racism refers to covert and overt policies, procedures, and operations of public or private institutions, organizations, and companies that disadvantage members of racial/ethnic minority groups. Structural racism (answer D) is embedded in systems and structures (e.g., laws, rules, ideologies, societal norms) that create and perpetuate inequities for members of racial/ethnic minority groups.

Answer 193

B. response time but not accuracy. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- SOC- Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-192 Answer B is correct. Correll and his colleagues compared the shoot/don’t shoot decisions of civilians and police officers using a videogame simulation designed to recreate the experience of a police officer who suddenly encounters a potentially dangerous suspect. They found that civilians demonstrated shooter bias in terms of both response time and accuracy, while police officers demonstrated shooter bias only in terms of response time: Police officers did not make as many shooting errors as the civilians did. However, like civilians, they decided to shoot armed Black suspects more quickly than armed White suspects and not to shoot unarmed White suspects more quickly than unarmed Black suspects.

Answer 194

C. Klinefelter EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-22 Answer C is correct. Klinefelter syndrome affects males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome. Chromosomal deletion syndromes are caused by the loss of a segment of a chromosome and include cri-du-chat, Prader-Willi, and Angelman syndromes.

Answer 195

C. expectancy EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Theories of Motivation-203 Answer C is correct. Expectancy theory proposes that three factors affect job motivation: (a) Expectancy is a worker’s belief that adequate effort will lead to successful performance. (b) Instrumentality is a worker’s belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes. (c) Valence is the value the worker places on those outcomes.

Answer 196

B. heterosexual. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- PPA- Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-122 Answer B is correct. The majority of men with transvestic disorder self-identify as heterosexual, although some may occasionally have sexual interactions with other men, especially when cross-dressed. See, e.g., N. O. Rosen, L. A. Brotto, and K. J. Zucker, Sexual dysfunctions and paraphilic disorders, in D. C. Beidel and B. C. Frueh (Eds.), Adult psychopathology and diagnosis (8th ed., pp. 571-632), Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, Inc., 2018.

Answer 197

C. a low level of acetylcholine and a high level of glutamate. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-5 Answer C is correct. Impairments in memory and other cognitive functions associated with Alzheimer’s disease have been linked to neurodegeneration in certain areas of the brain resulting from acetylcholine deficiency and glutamate excitotoxicity: Acetylcholine deficiency is caused by degeneration of neurons that release acetylcholine and increased activity of an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. Glutamate excitotoxity is caused by excessive presynaptic release of glutamate and decreased glutamate reuptake in synaptic clefts.

Answer 198

C. delay conditioning EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- LEA- Classical Conditioning-217 Answer C is correct. Watson first presented the white rat (CS) to Albert and then, while the white rat was still present, presented an unexpected loud noise (the US) that naturally elicited a startle response in Albert. After doing this numerous times, presentation of the white rat alone elicited a startle response. Presentation of the CS so that it precedes and overlaps presentation of the US is referred to as delay conditioning.

Answer 199

B. is related to mental and physical health, with the relationship being stronger for mental health. EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-219 Answer B is correct. Faragher et al. found that level of job satisfaction had a positive correlation with measures of both mental/psychological health and physical health. However, the correlation coefficient was higher for mental/psychological health than for physical health (.318 for mental health versus .235 for physical health).

Answer 200

A. graphic rating scale and critical incidents EXPLANATION EPPP-P7- ORG- Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-145 Answer A is correct. When using BARS, a supervisor rates each employee on several dimensions of job performance using a graphic rating scale, with points on the scale being “anchored” by specific behaviors (critical incidents) that each describe a different level of performance.