E 6 Flashcards

Question

When test scores represent an interval or ratio scale and the distribution of scores is skewed, the best measure of central tendency for the distribution is usually which of the following? A. mode B. mean C. median D. minuend

Answer 1

C. see older adults in therapy if she’s able to obtain consultation while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with members of this population.

Answer 2

C. interpersonal therapy

Answer 3

B. minority stress theory

Answer 4

D. Psychologists must not engage in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from current or potential therapy clients or others who are vulnerable to undue influence.

Answer 5

B. Would your friends describe you as impulsive?

Answer 6

B. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing

Answer 7

C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.

Answer 8

D. deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15.

Answer 9

A. must be a licensed psychologist.

Answer 10

B. medium effect; standard deviation units

Answer 11

D. the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are both gradual and blurred and the defendant can recall fragments of some events that occurred during that period.

Answer 12

D. counterconditioning

Answer 13

A. efficacy studies that maximize internal validity are usually conducted first and effectiveness studies that maximize external validity are conducted next.

Answer 14

A. 0 to +1.0; very difficult item

Answer 15

A. the team is large and only the total group performance will be assessed.

Answer 16

C. semantic register

Answer 17

D. the leader’s position power, the nature of the relationships between the leader and the employees, and the task structure

Answer 18

D. The studies have not yet identified a pharmacological treatment that is consistently effective for this disorder.

Answer 19

A. impulsivity, antisocial tendencies, and low frustration tolerance

Answer 20

B. males have higher levels of self-esteem than females do beginning in late childhood and persisting into late adulthood.

Answer 21

B. 99 to 111. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-003 Answer B is correct. To construct a 95% confidence interval, two standard errors of measurement are added to and subtracted from the examinee’s obtained score. The standard error of measurement for this test is 3, so the 95% confidence interval is calculated by adding and subtracting 6 (2 x 3) to and from the examinee’s obtained score of 105: 105 minus 6 is 99 and 105 plus 6 is 111. Therefore, the 95% confidence interval for this student is 99 to 111.

Answer 22

B. Stroop Color-Word Association Test EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Clinical Tests-004 Answer B is correct. The Stroop Color-Word Association Test presents an examinee with a list of color names that are printed in a different color ink (e.g., the word “green” might be printed in red ink). The examinee is asked to state the color of the ink rather than read the word. Because the prepotent response is to read the word, the examinee has to suppress (inhibit) the prepotent response in order to do so.

Answer 23

C. Jung’s theory of psychological types EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-003 Answer C is correct. Development of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) was based on Jung’s theory of psychological types and the personality research of Isabel Briggs Myers and Katherine Cook Briggs. It categorizes personality in terms of four bipolar dimensions – extraversion/introversion, sensing/intuition, thinking/feeling, and judging/perceiving.

Answer 24

D. visual hallucinations and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-013 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of probable major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies requires that (a) the patient meet the criteria for major or mild neurocognitive disorder, (b) the patient’s symptoms had an insidious onset and gradual progression, and (c) the patient’s symptoms include at least two core features or one core feature and one suggestive feature. Visual hallucinations are a core feature and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder is a suggestive feature. Absence seizures are not a core or suggestive feature of this disorder.

Answer 25

A. why homicide rates for White males are higher in America’s Southern states than in its Northern states. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-011 Answer A is correct. R. E. Nisbett notes that the homicide rates for White southern males are substantially higher than those for White northern males (especially in rural areas), and he attributes the difference to a culture of honor in the South. According to Nisbett, “the South has a culture of honor with historical roots that underlies its preferences for violence … [with violence being viewed] as an appropriate response to insults, as a means of self-protection, and as a socialization tool in training children” [Violence and U.S. regional culture, American Psychologist, 48(4), 441-449, 1993].

Answer 26

D. internal consistency reliability. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-001 Answer D is correct. Cronbach’s alpha is also known as coefficient alpha, and it provides information on a test’s internal consistency reliability.

Answer 27

B. DRA EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-008 Answer B is correct. DRA (differential reinforcement for alternative or appropriate behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally. It involves removing all reinforcement (e.g., attention) following the undesirable behavior and providing reinforcement whenever a specified alternative behavior occurs. DRL (differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior) is used to reduce a behavior to a more acceptable level by providing reinforcement only when the behavior occurs at or below that level. It does not involve reinforcing alternative behaviors. DRO (differential reinforcement of other behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior by providing reinforcement after specified intervals of time only when the individual hasn’t engaged in the undesirable behavior during each interval. In contrast to DRA, DRO does not require the individual to engage in any specific alternative behaviors during each interval, only that he/she doesn’t engage in the undesirable behavior. DRI (differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase a desirable and physically incompatible behavior (i.e., a behavior that cannot be performed at the same time as the undesirable behavior is performed). Because the question doesn’t mention that the desirable behaviors are incompatible with the undesirable behavior, this is not the best answer.

Answer 28

A. challenging problematic cognitions related to the trauma and writing and reading a detailed description of the trauma EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-005 Answer A is correct. CPT has received considerable research support as a treatment for PTSD and combines cognitive therapy with exposure. The cognitive therapy component focuses on identifying and challenging negative beliefs (“stuck points”) that keep the person from recovering from the trauma. The exposure component involves writing a detailed description of the traumatic event and reading it aloud to the therapist.

Answer 29

A. the goal(s) of the child’s problematic behavior. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-014 Answer A is correct. Function-based interventions are based on the assumption that disruptive behaviors and other undesirable behaviors are performed to achieve certain goals – e.g., to gain something or to avoid or escape from something. Once the goal(s) of a child’s undesirable behavior are identified from the results of a functional behavioral assessment, the next step is to create conditions in which the child’s goals can be met without engaging in the undesirable behavior. For example, if a child engages in disruptive behavior in the classroom because doing so allows him to get attention from the teacher, the teacher would stop paying attention to the child when he’s disruptive and, instead, pay attention to him whenever he engages in desirable behaviors (e.g., participates in classroom activities).

Answer 30

D. group attribution error. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-009 Answer D is correct. For the exam you want to be sure you know the difference between the ultimate attribution error and the group attribution error, which are sometimes confused because they both address attributions made about groups rather than individuals. The ultimate attribution error occurs when the negative behaviors of members of one’s own in-group are attributed to situational factors while the negative behaviors of members of out-groups are attributed to dispositional factors, and vice versa for positive behaviors. The group attribution error occurs when people believe that an individual group member’s beliefs, attitudes, and preferences are the same as those of all members of the group. Note that the false consensus error (answer B) is actually known as the false consensus effect and is not an attributional bias. It refers to the tendency to overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.

Answer 31

D. a refutational defense EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Persuasion-002 Answer D is correct. McGuire’s attitude inoculation hypothesis is based on the medical model of immunization and proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to “immunize” people against attempts to change their attitudes. This involves providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments (i.e., a refutational defense) before they’re exposed to a persuasive message.

Answer 32

B. tracking EPPP-P6-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-009 Answer B is correct. Tracking, mimesis, and maintenance are methods used by structural family therapists to facilitate joining. Tracking involves adopting the content of a family’s communications; mimesis involves adopting the family’s communication, affective, and behavioral style; and maintenance involves providing the family with support.

Answer 33

C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists. EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-013 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question you have to know (a) that second-generation antipsychotics exert their effects by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors and (b) that an antagonist blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter and an agonist increases or mimics the effects of a neurotransmitter.

Answer 34

C. 31 and 36 EPPP-P6-LIF-Physical Development-011 Answer C is correct. Reported ages at which gross motor milestones are first evident vary somewhat from author to author, but most identify the skills listed in this question as being acquired when a child is between 31 and 36 months of age.

Answer 35

D. It will decrease the number of false positives and increase the number of true negatives. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-008 Answer D is correct. This is a difficult question and, to identify the correct answer, you need to know that raising the predictor (selection test) cutoff score will result in fewer applicants being hired. This decreases the number of true and false positives (which eliminates answers A and C) and increases the number of true and false negatives (which eliminates answer B).

Answer 36

A. insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-009 Answer A is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in DSM-5 as neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. Like other neurocognitive disorders due to prion disease, it typically has an insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.

Answer 37

C. says he’d like to have friends but he’s very uncomfortable around people and he seems uninterested in taking steps to develop friendships. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Personality Disorders-008 Answer C is correct. As described in the DSM-5, people with schizotypal personality disorder have a “pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as by cognitive distortions and eccentricities of behavior” (p. 655). The DSM-5 also notes that people with this disorder may express unhappiness about not having friends but their behavior indicates a lack of interest in developing friendships.

Answer 38

D. temporal EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-004 Answer D is correct. Penfield discovered the effects of electrical stimulation of certain areas of the temporal lobes while performing surgery on patients to control their severe epilepsy. The memories elicited by this stimulation were vivid and highly detailed, and the same memory could be repeatedly elicited by stimulating the same area.

Answer 39

A. the principle of identical elements EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-Training Methods and Evaluation-ORG-017 Answer A is correct. According to the principle of identical elements, the more similar the training and work situations are, the greater the transfer of training. Identical elements is also known as physical and psychological fidelity: Physical fidelity refers to the extent to which the physical training and work conditions are similar, while psychological fidelity refers to the degree to which training addresses the KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics) needed to perform the job satisfactorily. [The principle of equipotentiality (answer B) is another name for the principle of multifinality and predicts that systems can achieve dissimilar outcomes when they have the same starting point.]

Answer 40

D. both positive and negative effects on the child and the parent-child relationship. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Language Development-015 Answer D is correct. As defined by A. Morales, O. F. Yakushko, and A. J. Castro, language brokering “is the act of translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children and adolescents for their parents, other family members, and other adults” [Language brokering among Mexican-immigrant families in the Midwest: A multiple case study, The Counseling Psychologist, 40(4), 520-553, 2012]. Studies on the effects of language brokering have produced mixed results. For example, with regard to the parent-child relationship, language brokering has been linked to a greater sense of connection between the child and his/her parents but also to role reversals within the family that force the parents to become overly dependent on the child [e.g., A. J. Umana-Taylor, Language brokering as a stressor for immigrant children and their families, in M. Coleman and L. Ganong (Eds.), Points and counterpoints: Controversial relationship and family issues in the 21st century (pp. 157-159), Los Angeles, Roxbury, 2002].

Answer 41

A. reality therapy EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-008 Answer A is correct. R. Wubbolding developed the WDEP system to describe the cycle of reality therapy. This system consists of four components: wants, doing, evaluation, and plan (Using reality therapy, New York, Harper & Row, 1988).

Answer 42

D. secondary EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Emotions and Stress-005 Answer D is correct. Cognitive appraisal theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and reappraisal. It proposes that the immediate response to an external event is primary appraisal, which involves determining if the event is relevant and, if so, whether it’s nonstressful or stressful. If the event is stressful, the person then engages in secondary appraisal, which involves determining what personal and environmental resources he/she has to help cope with the event.

Answer 43

D. habit reversal training EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-002 Answer D is correct. Positive practice involves having the individual practice appropriate behaviors that are alternatives to his or her inappropriate behavior. Habit reversal training similarly involves eliminating an undesirable behavior by having the individual practice an alternative, usually incompatible, behavior.

Answer 44

C. knowledge is situational and nonverbal messages are most important. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-021 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, for members of cultural groups that emphasize high-context communication, knowledge depends largely on the nature of the situation and communication relies primarily on nonverbal messages. In contrast, for members of cultural groups that emphasize low-context communication, knowledge depends less on the situation and, instead, is viewed as something that is easily transferred from one person to another. In addition, communication relies primarily on verbal messages. (Even if the statements about knowledge are unfamiliar or confusing, a good “guess” would have been to choose answer C because “situational” seems compatible with the importance of the context for high-context communications.)

Answer 45

C. in early adolescence. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-006 Answer C is correct. The research has found that children’s adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child’s age, with the poorest adjustment occurring when children are in early adolescence at the time a parent remarries. Note that there’s also evidence that, with regard to gender, girls often exhibit more adjustment problems than boys do following the remarriage of their parents. See, e.g., E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage: A focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology, 7, 39-56, 1993.

Answer 46

C. functional neurological symptom disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders--014 Answer C is correct. Functional neurological symptom disorder (formerly conversion disorder) is characterized by one or more symptoms that involve a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning, with symptoms being incompatible with any known neurological or medical condition. It can involve psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES) that resemble true epileptic seizures in terms of behavioral symptoms but are not accompanied by the brain electrical activity associated with true epileptic seizures. [Note that obstructive sleep apnea can trigger seizures, but these seizures (unlike PNES) are true seizures that are associated with abnormal brain electrical activity.]

Answer 47

A. it’s often difficult to express the outcomes of mental health programs in monetary terms. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-015 Answer A is correct. When using cost benefit analysis to compare two or more programs, a cost/benefit ratio is calculated for each program and the ratios are compared. This means that the costs and benefits (outcomes) of the programs must be expressed in monetary terms, which is often difficult to do. For example, it would be difficult to assign a dollar value to life satisfaction. Answer B can be eliminated because cost benefit analysis can be used when programs have different types of costs because the total monetary (dollar) cost – not the types of costs – is used to calculate a cost-benefit ratio for each program being evaluated. Answer C can be eliminated because cost benefit analysis does not require the calculation of QALYs. Therefore, the inability to calculate QALYs is not a barrier to its use. (Cost utility analysis is useful for comparing the effects of two or more interventions on QALYs). Answer D can be eliminated because the outcomes of the programs being compared are converted to monetary (dollar) values, which are directly comparable.

Answer 48

A. sensitivity EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-007 Answer A is correct. Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disorder who are identified by a test as having the disorder. It’s calculated by dividing the true positives identified by the test by the true positives plus the false negatives (TP/TP + FN).

Answer 49

B. welcoming family members and helping members feel comfortable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-025 Answer B is correct. Answers B and D describe the first and second stages, respectively, of strategic family therapy and are referred to as the social stage and problem stage. The third and fourth stages are the interactional stage (during which the therapist has family members discuss the family’s problem to determine how they interact when doing so) and the goal-setting stage (during which the therapist helps family members agree on a definition of the family’s problem and on concrete therapy goals that target the problem). Describing the nature of strategic family therapy to family members (answer A) is not part of the social stage of strategic family therapy. The three main phases of structural family therapy are joining the family and accommodating to its style (answer C), evaluating the family’s structure to make a structural diagnosis, and intervening to transform the family’s structure.

Answer 50

D. Psychologists may not deny tenure or promotion to an employee solely because that employee is the complainant or respondent in a pending ethics complaint. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-001 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed by Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 1.08 prohibits psychologists from denying a person employment, tenure, or promotion solely because the person has filed or is the subject of an ethics complaint.

Answer 51

A. It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-007 Answer A is correct. A change in alpha from .01 to .05 is an increase in alpha, and an increase in alpha makes it easier to reject the null hypothesis whether it’s actually true or false. When this occurs, a researcher is more likely to make a Type I error (reject a true null hypothesis) and, conversely, less likely to make a Type II error (retain a false null hypothesis).

Answer 52

A. married women. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-020 Answer A is correct. The longitudinal U.S. Medicare Health Outcome Survey (HOS) confirmed the results of other studies that have found that women tend to live longer than men do and that, for both genders, married people tend to live longer than never married people do. For example, the HOS found that, for people 65 years of age, the life expectancy for married women was 21.1 years, for never married women was 19.3 years, for married men was 18.6 years, and for never married men was 16.2 years.

Answer 53

D. disintegration EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-011 Answer D is correct. Helms’s model of White racial identity development distinguishes between six identity statuses, and each status is characterized by a different information processing strategy (IPS). Disintegration is the second status in this model, and its IPS is suppression of information and ambivalence [J. E. Helms, An update of Helms’s White and people of color racial identity models, in J. G. Ponterotto, J. M. Casas, L. A. Suzuki, and C. M. Alexander (Eds.), Handbook of multicultural counseling (pp. 181-191), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE, 1995].

Answer 54

B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-028 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to notice that it’s asking which symptom is not included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of a panic attack. The symptoms listed in answers A, C, and D are all included in DSM-5, albeit with slightly different language – i.e., the symptoms listed in DSM-5 include depersonalization (being detached from oneself), fear of losing control or “going crazy,” and paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations). Increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli is not listed as a characteristic symptom of a panic attack.

Answer 55

A. a programmed decision. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-019 Answer A is correct. Organizational decisions can be categorized as programmed or nonprogrammed: Programmed decisions are repetitive and routine and are governed by rules, policies, and procedures, while nonprogrammed decisions are non-repetitive and complex and rely on the decision-maker’s judgment and problem-solving skills. Automatically ordering inventory when the level of inventory falls below a certain point is an example of a programmed decision. The terms allocentric and idiocentric (answers C and D) are not relevant to decision-making but are applied to several phenomena including personality: A person with an allocentric personality is group centered, while a person with an idiocentric personality is self-centered.

Answer 56

C. leaders adopt different behaviors with different subordinates and these behaviors depend on the quality of the leader-subordinate relationship. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-Organizational Leadership-ORG-011 Answer C is correct. LMX theory is based on the assumption that leaders treat different subordinates differently, depending on the quality of the interactions between the leader and each subordinate. More specifically, it proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility: In-group members have high-quality relationships with their leaders, while out-group members have low-quality relationships with their leaders.

Answer 57

C. medulla oblongata EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-002 Answer C is correct. The medulla oblongata is part of the hindbrain. Because it regulates a number of vital life functions, damage can result in death.

Answer 58

B. positive effects on attention and mood but no beneficial effects on GPA. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-012 Answer B is correct. The research is not entirely consistent, but the best conclusion that can be drawn from the existing research is that, for college students who do not have ADHD and take psychostimulants to improve their cognitive functioning, these drugs have positive effects on attention and mood but no beneficial effect on GPA. See, e.g., A. M. Arria et al., Do college students improve their grades by using prescription stimulants nonmedically?, Addictive Behaviors, 65, 245-249, 2017; L. L. Weyandt, et al., Neurocognitive, autonomic, and mood effects of Adderall: A pilot study of healthy college students, Pharmacy, 6(3), 58, 2018.

Answer 59

D. in a single test that’s accounted for by all of the identified factors. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-012 Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that a communality indicates the amount of variability in each test included in the factor analysis that’s explained by all of the identified factors. Alternatively, knowing that each test in a factor matrix has its own communality would have helped you eliminate answers A and B. Then, knowing that it’s a factor loading (not a communality) that indicates the proportion of variability in a single test that’s accounted for by a single factor would have helped you eliminate answer C.

Answer 60

C. behavioral norms EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-007 Answer C is correct. The Health Belief Model identifies the following factors as contributors to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk for developing a disorder: perceived susceptibility to the disorder, perceived severity of the consequences of having the disorder, perceived benefits of taking action, perceived barriers to taking action, self-efficacy, and cues to action.

Answer 61

A. 72% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-004 Answer A is correct. Based on his review of 24 psychotherapy outcome studies, Eysenck concluded that 72% of untreated patients, 66% of patients receiving eclectic psychotherapy, and 44% of patients receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy experienced a substantial decrease in symptoms. In other words, many untreated patients were better off than the treated patients, and he attributed the improvement of untreated patients to spontaneous recovery.

Answer 62

B. fading. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Operant Conditioning-011 Answer B is correct. Fading is sometimes confused with thinning (answer A): However, the gradual removal of visual or auditory hints or cues (prompts) is referred to as fading, while the reduction of reinforcers is referred to as thinning.

Answer 63

C. why a Black therapy client resists disclosing personal information to a White therapist. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-005 Answer C is correct. Ridley proposed that the unwillingness of Black therapy clients to disclose personal information to a White therapist is an adaptive coping mechanism (“healthy cultural paranoia”) when it’s due to cultural distrust that’s based on past experiences with prejudice and discrimination.

Answer 64

A. 4 and 6 years. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-016 Answer A is correct. According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is typically between 4 and 6 years of age, with the severity of tics ordinarily peaking between 10 and 12 years of age.

Answer 65

A. Among children, the rates are about the same for males and females but, by late-adolescence, the rate for females is about twice the rate for males. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-003 Answer A is correct. The prevalence rates of major depressive disorder are about the same for boys and girls until puberty when there’s a substantial increase in the rates for girls and the difference begins to approach the 2:1 female-to-male ratio that is found among adults. See, e.g., R. Wicks-Nelson and A. C. Israel, Abnormal child and adolescent psychology: DSM-5 update (8th ed.), New York, Taylor and Francis Group, 2015.

Answer 66

A. apraxia EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-015 Answer A is correct. For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms listed in the answers to this question. Apraxia is the inability to perform purposeful movements in the absence of paralysis, muscle weakness, or impaired coordination and best describes Sam’s inability to remove the cork from the wine bottle. Ataxia (answer B) involves a lack of muscle control and impaired balance and coordination, akinesia (answer C) is the loss of the ability to move, and akathisia (answer D) is a feeling of restlessness that makes it difficult to sit or stand still.

Answer 67

B. reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the client or other person. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-009 Answer B is correct. Denial of access to protected health information is addressed in 45 CFR 164.524(a)(2)-(4), and the language of this answer is most similar to Section (a)(3)(i). It states that a licensed health care professional can deny an individual access to his/her protected health information, when the “professional has determined, in the exercise of professional judgment, that the access requested is reasonably likely to endanger the life or physical safety of the individual or another person.” Note that, in this situation, the client has the right to have the denial reviewed by another designated licensed health care professional.

Answer 68

B. Tiedeman and O’Hara’s career decision-making model EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Career Choice and Development-023 Answer B is correct. The career decision-making model developed by Tiedeman and his colleagues (e.g., Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) views career identity development as an ongoing process that’s linked to Erikson’s psychosocial stages of ego identity development.

Answer 69

B. continue to discuss Sally’s feelings about killing herself to determine if she is actually at risk for attempting suicide. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-020 Answer B is correct. Suicide threats should always be taken seriously and, in this situation, you’d want to determine if Sally is actually at risk for attempting suicide before contacting her parents or taking any other action. Note that there’s evidence that no-suicide contracts (answer D) do not guarantee a person’s safety and should be used only as one element of a comprehensive intervention.

Answer 70

B. flow EPPP-P6-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-012 Answer B is correct. Csikszentmihaly coined the term flow to describe a state of engagement, focused attention, and complete absorption that a person can experience when working on a task that’s challenging and intrinsically rewarding and that’s accompanied by a sense of fulfillment and loss of the feeling of self-consciousness.

Answer 71

C. illusory control EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-005 Answer C is correct. Gamblers may exhibit a number of cognitive biases and distortions including the gambler’s fallacy and illusory control. The gambler’s fallacy is the belief that the likelihood that a chance event will occur is affected by how often it has or has not occurred in the past. Illusory control is the belief that certain superstitious objects or rituals (e.g., blowing on dice) can alter outcomes, especially outcomes that are random or due to chance.

Answer 72

B. point biserial EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-RMS-Correlation and Regression-004 Answer B is correct. The point biserial correlation coefficient is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is a true dichotomy and the other is measured on a continuous (interval or ratio) scale. High school diploma (yes or no) is a true dichotomy and yearly income in dollars is measured on a continuous scale.

Answer 73

B. bystander effect EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-008 Answer B is correct. Kitty Genovese was sexually assaulted and stabbed to death in 1964 outside her New York City apartment. Despite her cries for help during the attack, none of the 38 people who witnessed the crime called the police. Latane and Darley (1970) subsequently developed the concept of bystander apathy (also known as the bystander effect) to explain why she received no help. Note that this question illustrates the use of a term you may be unfamiliar but looks like an alternative to the term that you are familiar with. This occurs sometimes on the exam, and you want to be sure you don’t eliminate an answer because it doesn’t match the term you know.

Answer 74

B. unwillingness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-007 Answer B is correct. An assumption of acceptance and commitment therapy is that a natural level of physical or psychological discomfort (clean discomfort) combined with unwillingness results in suffering (dirty discomfort). Unwillingness is the opposite of willingness, which refers to the ability to accept and be in contact with clean discomfort. See, e.g., P. E. Flaxman, J. T. Blackledge, and F. W. Bond, Acceptance and commitment therapy, New York, Routledge, 2011.

Answer 75

C. exposure with response prevention alone and an antidepressant alone have similar effects and their effects may be enhanced by combining the two treatments. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-023 Answer C is correct. As usual, the research is not entirely consistent. However, most studies have found that exposure with response prevention alone and an SSRI or the tricyclic clomipramine alone are about equally effective and that the combination of the two treatments may be superior to either treatment used alone (e.g., Dougherty, Rauch, & Jenike, 2015).

Answer 76

B. Driver and Brousseau’s EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Career Choice and Development-003 Answer B is correct. Driver and Brousseau’s career concept model distinguishes between four career concepts (linear, expert, spiral, and transitory) that differ in terms of the factors listed in this question.

Answer 77

B. counseling and medication are each effective when used alone but the combination of counseling and medication is most effective. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-007 Answer B is correct. The studies have found that counseling (especially problem solving/skills training and social support) and medication (especially nicotine nasal spray and varenicline, a nicotine receptor partial agonist) are both effective when used alone but that interventions that combine counseling and medication are most effective. See, e.g., M. C. Fiore, C. R. Jaen, T. Baker, et al., Treating tobacco use and dependence: 2008 update, Rockville, MD, USDHHS, U.S. Public Health Service, 2008.

Answer 78

D. multifinality EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Theories-014 Answer D is correct. The concepts of equifinality and multifinality are derived from general systems theory and are included in Katz and Kahn’s (1978) open-system theory which applies systems theory to organizational behavior. According to the principle of equifinality, different systems can achieve the same outcomes when they have different starting points; according to the principle of multifinality, systems can achieve dissimilar outcomes when they have the same starting point.

Answer 79

C. resistance EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-024 Answer C is correct. According to Maslach, Schaufeli, and Leiter (2001), job burnout has three core characteristics: exhaustion, depersonalization and cynicism, and a sense of inefficacy. Resistance is the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome.

Answer 80

B. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-001 Answer B is correct. An examinee’s GAI score is based on Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning subtest scores. It’s useful when an examiner wants to obtain a measure of general intelligence that’s not affected by processing speed or working memory, which are both sensitive to the effects of brain injury and age.

Answer 81

D. maintenance: counterconditioning EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Brief Therapies-006 Answer D is correct. The transtheoretical model is based on the assumptions that change occurs in stages and, to help clients progress to the next stage, interventions must match their current stage. According to this model, consciousness raising is an optimal strategy for clients in the precontemplation stage and contemplation stages, stimulus control is optimal for clients in the action or maintenance stage, self-liberation is optimal for clients in the preparation stage, and counterconditioning is another optimal intervention for clients in the action or maintenance stage. See, e.g., J. O Prochaska and C. DiClemente, The transtheoretical approach, in J. C. Norcross and M. R. Goldfried (Eds.), Handbook of psychotherapy integration (pp. 147-171), New York, Oxford University Press, 2005.

Answer 82

B. retroactive EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-005 Answer B is correct. Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information. It’s most likely to occur when recently and previously learned information are similar – e.g., when recently and previously learned material are different lists of paired words.

Answer 83

B. phenelzine EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-006 Answer B is correct. A hypertensive crisis may result when an MAOI is taken in conjunction with foods containing tyramine or with certain drugs (e.g., antihistamines, amphetamines). Of the antidepressants listed in the answers, only phenelzine is an MAOI.

Answer 84

C. attachment theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-027 Answer C is correct. Emotionally focused therapy for couples is an evidence-based treatment for distressed couples. Attachment theory is one of its influences, and “process research confirms that … [its positive effects] on relationship distress arise from expressing and responding to attachment needs in an emotionally meaningful way during therapy” [A. Carr, The evidence base for couple therapy, family therapy and systemic interventions for adult-focused problems, Journal of Family Therapy, 36(2), 158-194, 2014]. Mindfulness and the transtheoretical model (answers A and B) are not relevant to emotionally focused therapy. Carstensen’s socioemotional selectivity theory (answer D) predicts that our social goals are related to our perception of time left in life. According to this theory, younger adults perceive time as unlimited and tend to prefer partners who can provide information, while older adults perceive time as constrained and tend to prefer partners who can provide emotional gratification.

Answer 85

B. adults with a mental illness EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-Professional Issues-012 Answer B is correct. “Adults with a mental illness” is consistent with the guidelines, but answers A, C, and D are not consistent: “Adults afflicted with cerebral palsy” is not an emotionally neutral description because of its inclusion of the word “afflicted,” “black and white adults” should be “Black and White adults,” and “non-White adults” implies a judgment regarding race.

Answer 86

C. the defendant’s ability to understand the charges against him/her EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-Professional Issues-021 Answer C is correct. An evaluation of a defendant’s competency to stand trial focuses on his/her ability to understand the charges against him/her and the nature and range of possible penalties and the defendant’s ability to cooperate with his/her attorney. When a defendant is found incompetent, judicial proceedings are suspended until the defendant receives treatment and his/her competency is restored.

Answer 87

D. covert racism. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-013 Answer D is correct. Covert racism is often difficult to recognize because it’s more subtle than overt racism and is often disguised. Symbolic, aversive, and ambivalent racism are types of covert racism. The personnel director described in this question is exhibiting unintentional covert racism because she believes she’s “colorblind” and doesn’t seem to be aware of the reasons for her actions and their harmful consequences. Neo-racism (answer A) is also known as cultural racism and is justified on the basis of cultural differences rather than racial or ethnic differences. Ethnocentrism (answer B) is the tendency to evaluate other cultures based on the norms and standards of one’s own culture.

Answer 88

A. protecting the welfare of the clients of supervisees EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-Professional Issues-023 Answer A is correct. The APA’s Guidelines for Clinical Supervision in Health Service Psychology states that the highest duty of a supervisor is the protection of a supervisee’s clients. In addition, the ASPPB’s Supervision Guidelines identifies “the protection of and accountability to the public … [as the] paramount goals of supervision” (p. 1), and it lists the following as additional goals: protecting the supervisee, acting as a gatekeeper by assessing the supervisee’s readiness for autonomous practice, facilitating the supervisee’s professional development, remediating areas where the supervisee is not meeting the criteria for competence or ethical standards, and preparing the supervisee for independent practice.

Answer 89

D. base rate fallacy EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-014 Answer D is correct. The base rate fallacy (also known as base rate neglect) is the tendency to ignore or underuse base rate information and to rely, instead, on irrelevant information. Of the cognitive errors and biases listed in the answers, it’s most similar to the representativeness heuristic. When relying on this heuristic to make judgments about the likelihood of an event, a person ignores base rates and other important information and focuses, instead, on the extent to which the event resembles a typical case. Some experts believe the base rate fallacy is the result of relying on the representativeness heuristic.

Answer 90

C. a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-018 Answer C is correct. Knowing that Lewinsohn’s model of depression is known as social reinforcement theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The model is based on the principles of operant conditioning and attributes depression to low rates of response-contingent reinforcement for social behaviors due to a lack of reinforcement in the environment and/or poor social skills.

Answer 91

A. show more restraint in expressing negative emotions. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-008 Answer A is correct. L. L. Carstensen, J. M. Gottman, and R. W. Levenson found that dissatisfied older married couples were less likely than dissatisfied middle-aged couples and satisfied older and middle-aged couples to engage in “negative start up” – i.e., they were less likely to respond to their partners’ expressions of neutral affect with expressions of anger, disgust, or other negative emotions during discussions of their marital problems [Emotional behavior in long-term marriage, Psychology and Aging, 10(1), 140-149, 1995].

Answer 92

C. should ordinarily debrief research participants immediately after their participation but, when that isn’t possible, should take steps to reduce the risk for harm. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-028 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 8.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles II.47 and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.08(a) states that “psychologists provide a prompt opportunity for participants to obtain appropriate information about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research, and they take reasonable steps to correct any misconceptions that participants may have of which the psychologists are aware. Standard 8.08(b) states “if scientific or humane values justify delaying or withholding this information, psychologists take reasonable measures to reduce the risk of harm.”

Answer 93

A. excitation transfer theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-010 Answer A is correct. Excitation transfer “occurs when the arousal caused by one stimulus is added to the arousal from a second stimulus and the combined arousal is attributed (erroneously) to the second stimulus” (C. A. Sanderson, Social psychology, Hoboken, NJ, John Wiley & Sons, Inc, 2010, p. 423) In the situation described in this question, Tom experienced physiological arousal from watching the violent movie and, when his friend stepped on his foot, the arousal from that event combined with the arousal from the movie. Consistent with the prediction of excitation transfer theory, Tom attributed the combined arousal to having his foot stepped on and overreacted by becoming angry and yelling at and shoving his friend. Note that the frustration-aggression hypothesis (answer D) predicts that the inability to achieve a goal leads to frustration which, in turn, leads to aggressive behavior. This doesn’t describe Tom’s experience.

Answer 94

B. decreased activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and increased activity in the amygdala. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-020 Answer B is correct. Neuroimaging studies have linked PTSD to several brain abnormalities, including a hyperactive amygdala and anterior cingulate cortex, a hypoactive ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC), and a reduced volume of the hippocampus, with some studies finding increased activity of the hippocampus and other studies finding decreased activity.

Answer 95

D. covert self-instruction. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-028 Answer D is correct. Meichenbaum’s self-instructional training was originally developed to help impulsive children have greater self-control when completing tasks by teaching them to use helpful self-statements to guide their behaviors. It consists of five steps: cognitive modeling, overt external guidance, overt self-guidance, faded overt self-guidance, and covert self-instruction. (Answer A is the final step in stress inoculation training and answers B and C are “made-up” terms that aren’t relevant to self-instructional training.)

Answer 96

B. Bottom-up EPPP-P6-PHY-Sensation and Perception-008 Answer B is correct. Bottom-up processing is data driven (driven by information), while top-down processing is concept-driven. In terms of perception, bottom-up processing begins with incoming sensory information and continues upward to the brain where it is perceived, interpreted, and stored. In contrast, top-down processing begins with the brain’s use of preexisting knowledge and expectations to interpret incoming sensory information.

Answer 97

D. Symbol Search and Coding EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-007 Answer D is correct. The WAIS-IV Processing Speed Index assesses speed of mental and graphomotor processing. It consists of two core subtests (Symbol Search and Coding) and one supplemental subtest (Cancellation).

Answer 98

D. play with or live near them. EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-017 Answer D is correct. R. L. Selman distinguishes between five overlapping stages of friendship: Level 0 (momentary playmate) extends from about 3 to 6 years of age. During this stage, a child says friends are children whom they play with or live nearby. The other stages are Level 1 (one-way assistance; ages 5-9), Level 2 (two-way, fair weather cooperation; ages 7-12), Level 3 (intimate, mutually shared relationships; ages 8-15), and Level 4 (mature friendship; ages 12+). [The child as a friendship philosopher, in S. R. Asher and J. M. Gottman (Eds.), The development of children’s friendships (pp. 242-272), Cambridge, Cambridge University Press, 1980.]

Answer 99

B. selective abstraction EPPP-P6-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-003 Answer B is correct. Selective abstraction is a type of cognitive distortion that involves drawing a conclusion based on one detail while ignoring the “bigger picture.” In the situation described in this question, the employee has decided that he’s worthless and not likely to be promoted based on a single criticism while ignoring the fact that he received a very positive performance review. Selective abstraction is sometimes confused with arbitrary inference (answer D). However, selective abstraction involves drawing a conclusion based on a detail that’s taken out of context, while arbitrary inference involves drawing a conclusion without any corroborating evidence.

Answer 100

B. the larger the number of older biological brothers a boy has, the more likely he will have a homosexual orientation. EPPP-P6-LIF-Physical Development-004 Answer B is correct. The FBOE predicts that the likelihood that a boy will have a homosexual orientation increases with each older male biological sibling (Blanchard, 2018). The maternal immune hypothesis proposes that the FBOE is of prenatal origin and is due to the progressive increase in the immune response of some mothers to antigens produced by successive sons during pregnancy. Note that the FBOE accounts for only a small percent of variance in sexual orientation and has been challenged by several investigators.

Answer 101

C. 75; 10 EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-010 Answer C is correct. K. I. Howard, S. Kopta, M. S. Krouse, and D. E. Orlinsky concluded that psychotherapy has a “dose effect,” with about 50% of patients showing measurable improvements by eight to 13 therapy sessions, 75% by 26 sessions, and 85% by 52 sessions (The dose-effect relationship in psychotherapy, American Psychologist, 41, 159-164, 1986).

Answer 102

C. concurrent episodes of major depression or mania for the duration of the disorder except for at least two weeks when delusions and hallucinations were present without mood episodes. EPPP-P6-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-002 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder requires the presence of concurrent psychotic symptoms and mood episodes for the duration of the disorder except for two or more weeks when psychotic symptoms were present without mood symptoms.

Answer 103

D. refer Mrs. Miller to another family therapist who is willing to see only some members of the family. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-024 Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to notice that the question states that Dr. Stein “believes therapy is most effective when all members of the immediate family attend all therapy sessions.” Some family therapists are amenable to seeing only some family members. However, Dr. Stein is not one of these therapists, so a referral to another therapist is the best course of action.

Answer 104

A. a decreased risk for marital dissolution during the first year of marriage only. EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-018 Answer A is correct. Rosenfeld and Roesler (2019) found that, in the first year of marriage, couples who had cohabited before marriage had a lower rate of marital dissolution than did couples who had not cohabited. However, they also found that the apparent advantage of living together with a partner before marriage no longer applied in subsequent years, with the rate for couples who cohabited prior to marriage becoming higher than the rate for couples who had not cohabited.

Answer 105

C. competency EPPP-P6-ETH-Professional Issues-016 Answer C is correct. Like other developmental models, IDM focuses on the developmental levels of supervisees and proposes that supervision is most effective when a supervisor’s actions match a supervisee’s developmental level. IDM distinguishes between three developmental levels that differ in terms of a supervisee’s level of self-other awareness, motivation, and autonomy.

Answer 106

D. determine if it’s necessary to reassign the intern’s current client to another therapist and discuss with the intern ways that might help her reconcile the conflict between her religious beliefs and the requirement that psychologists work effectively with diverse (including homosexual) clients. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-026 Answer D is correct. Conflicts between religious values and professional competence when working with diverse clients have been addressed by a number of experts. For example, the APA’s Virtual Working Group on Restrictions Affecting Diversity Training in Graduate Education developed a Sample Program Policy Statement that articulates the policy for APA-accredited programs when trainees experience conflicts when working with diverse clients. Among other things, its states that the program is committed to helping trainees develop the knowledge and skills they need to work with diverse clients and to providing trainees with additional time and faculty support to help them integrate their personal values with the professional competence they need to work with all clients. Answer D is the best answer because it not only reflects this position but also takes into account the welfare of the intern’s current client. See, e.g., E. H. Wise, K. J. Bieschke, L. Forrest, J. Cohen-Filpic, W. L. Hathaway, and L. A. Douce, Psychology’s proactive approach to conscience clause court cases and legislation, Training and Education in Professional Psychology, 9, 259-268, 2015.

Answer 107

C. test unfairness EPPP-P6-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-002 Answer C is correct. As defined in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, test unfairness occurs when a criterion-related validity coefficient is the same for two groups and the two groups achieve similar scores on the criterion but their scores on the predictor are significantly different.

Answer 108

A. the nonverbal intelligence of a 7-year-old child with limited English skills. EPPP-P6-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-002 Answer A is correct. The Coloured Progressive Matrices is a version of Raven’s Progressive Matrices for children ages 5 to 11, older adults, and individuals with mental or physical impairments. Like the other versions, it assesses nonverbal intelligence and, because instructions are simple and can be pantomimed if necessary, it’s useful for individuals who are hearing-impaired or non-English speakers.

Answer 109

A. breastfeeding the baby and having the baby sleep on his/her back EPPP-P6-LIF-Physical Development-024 Answer A is correct. Breast feeding the baby, having the baby sleep on his back, and keeping the crib as bare as possible are associated with a decreased risk for SIDS. In contrast, having the baby sleep on his/her stomach, having the baby co-sleep with his/her parents, and using crib bumpers have been linked to an increased risk.

Answer 110

C. twice; three EPPP-P6-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-011 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of intermittent explosive disorder requires that the individual exhibit recurrent impulsive and aggressive outbursts that are manifested as either (a) verbal aggression or physical aggression for, on average, at least twice a week for at least three months, with physical aggression not causing damage or destruction of property or physical injury to other people or animals, or (b) three or more outbursts during a 12-month period that caused damage or destruction of property and/or physical injury to other people or animals.

Answer 111

B. cultural socialization has been more consistently linked to the development of a positive ethnic identity than preparation for bias has. EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-019 Answer B is correct. Racial-ethnic socialization refers to the implicit and explicit practices of parents that communicate information about race and ethnicity to their children and takes the form of cultural socialization, preparation for bias, promotion of mistrust, and/or egalitarianism. Of these, cultural socialization (which focuses on teaching children about their cultural history and traditions and promoting cultural pride) and preparation for bias (which emphasizes making children aware of discrimination and teaching them ways to cope with it) have been studied the most. The results of these studies indicate that cultural socialization is most consistently linked to positive outcomes for children and adolescents (including the development of a positive ethnic identity), while preparation for bias is associated with both positive and negative outcomes [D. Hughes, J. Rodriguez, E. Smith, D. Johnson, H. Stevenson, and P. Spicer, Parents' ethnic–racial socialization practices: A review of research and directions for future study, Developmental Psychology, 42(5), 747-770, 2006].

Answer 112

D. conditioned stimulus. EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-003 Answer D is correct. When using aversive counterconditioning to treat a fetishistic disorder, the fetish object is the conditioned stimulus, and presentation of the fetish object is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus (e.g., electric shock) that naturally elicits fear or other undesirable response. As a result, the sexual arousal elicited by the fetish object is replaced with fear or other undesirable response.

Answer 113

C. each biological child of that parent has a 50% chance of having that disease. EPPP-P6-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-011 Answer C is correct. Huntington’s disease is caused by a single autosomal dominant gene and, when one parent has that gene with a corresponding normal gene, this means that there’s a 50% chance that each of the biological children of that parent will inherit the defective gene. In other words, there’s a 50% chance that each child will inherit the defective gene and a 50% chance that he/she will inherit the normal gene. It’s not possible to predict what percent of the parent’s children will inherit the defective gene, which is why answers A and B can be eliminated: All of the children, some of the children, or none of the children might inherit that gene.

Answer 114

C. divergent validity. EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-005 Answer C is correct. The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the test being evaluated for construct validity and a measure of a different trait (heterotrait) using the same method of measurement (monomethod). For example, if the multitrait-multimethod matrix is being used to assess the construct validity of a self-report measure of assertiveness, a heterotrait-monomethod coefficient might be the correlation between the self-report measure of assertiveness and a self-report measure of seriousness. This coefficient should be small and, when it is, it provides evidence of the test’s divergent validity. (A measure’s construct validity is demonstrated when the measure has adequate levels of both divergent and convergent validity.)

Answer 115

A. Chinese patients were more likely than Euro-Canadian patients to express somatic symptoms and less likely to express psychological symptoms. EPPP-P6-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-022 Answer A is correct. If you’re not familiar with the Ryder et al. (2008) study, knowing that patients belonging to certain ethnic and cultural groups (including Chinese patients) are more likely to express depression as somatic complaints would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. These investigators found that Euro-Canadian and Chinese outpatients both expressed a mixture of somatic and psychological symptoms but that Euro-Canadian patients expressed a greater proportion of psychological symptoms while Chinese patients expressed a greater proportion of somatic symptoms. Ryder et al. attribute the propensity of Chinese patients to somaticize depression to “externally oriented thinking,” which occurs because their culture tends to discourage focusing on internal emotional states and, as a result, they’re more likely to notice somatic symptoms. [A. G. Ryder et al., The cultural shaping of depression: Somatic symptoms in China, psychological symptoms in North America?, Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 117(2), 300-313, 2008]

Answer 116

B. mixed EPPP-P6-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-001 Answer B is correct. A mixed design is being used when a study has at least two independent variables and one variable is a between groups variable and the other is a within subjects variable. The study described in this question has two independent variables – treatment and time: Treatment is a between subjects variable because each subject will receive only one of the three treatments, while time is a within subjects variable because all subjects will be assessed at five different times.

Answer 117

C. uncorrelated. EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-002 Answer C is correct. The factors extracted (identified) in a factor analysis can be either orthogonal or oblique. Orthogonal factors are uncorrelated, while oblique factors are correlated.

Answer 118

A. SSRIs and SNRIs are both considered first-line pharmacological treatments. EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-014 Answer A is correct. The SSRIs and SNRIs are both generally viewed as first-line pharmacological treatments for major depressive disorder [e.g., E. Dale, B. Bang-Andersen, and C. Sanchez, Emerging mechanisms and treatments for depression beyond SSRIs and SNRIs, Biochemical Pharmacology, 95(2), 81-97, 2015]. SNRIs are more effective than SSRIs when neuropathic pain is comorbid with depression, but answer D can be eliminated because SNRIs aren’t prescribed only in this situation.

Answer 119

A. cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy EPPP-P6-PPA-Feeding/Eating and Sleep-Wake Disorders--010 Answer A is correct. The adaptations of cognitive-behavioral therapy and interpersonal therapy for eating disorders are evidence-based treatments for binge-eating disorder and are recommended by the American Psychological Association’s Society of Clinical Psychology (https://div12.org/treatments).

Answer 120

A. cerebellum and basal ganglia EPPP-P6-PHY-Memory and Sleep-021 Answer A is correct. Knowing that implicit memories include memories of learned skills and actions (procedural memory) and conditioned responses would have helped you identify the cerebellum and basal ganglia as the correct answer since these areas of the brain mediate motor responses. The prefrontal cortex and hippocampus are responsible for explicit memory.

Answer 121

C. Delay EPPP-P6-LEA-Classical Conditioning-001 Answer C is correct. Delay conditioning is a type of forward conditioning in which presentation of the conditioned stimulus precedes and overlaps presentation of the unconditioned stimulus. Of the methods for presenting the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli, delay conditioning produces the fastest acquisition of the conditioned response.

Answer 122

C. an information filter. EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-018 Answer C is correct. As described by Janis (1982), self-appointed mindguards shield group members from disconfirming or problematic information that might have an adverse effect on the group’s cohesiveness. In other words, they act as an information filter.

Answer 123

D. IQ EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-017 Answer D is correct. Frontal lobe damage often has an adverse effect on motivation, judgment, and memory but not on IQ test scores. One explanation for this is that frontal lobe damage seems to have a negative impact on divergent thinking but not on convergent thinking which is what is measured by standard IQ tests [B. Kolb and I. Q. Whishaw, Fundamentals of human neuropsychology (6th ed.), New York, Worth Publishers, 2009].

Answer 124

B. numerical reasoning. EPPP-P6-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-010 Answer B is correct. Crystallized intelligence (Gc) depends on prior learning and experience, is affected by cultural experiences, and is important for tasks that require the application of acquired knowledge and skills – e.g., general information, vocabulary, and numerical reasoning (which is the ability to understand and apply numerical information). In contrast, fluid intelligence (Gf) does not depend on prior learning or experience, is fairly culture-free, and is important for tasks that involve inductive and deductive reasoning, the ability to solve novel problems, and encode short-term memories.

Answer 125

C. peripheral vision. EPPP-P6-PHY-Sensation and Perception-019 Answer C is correct. The cones work best in bright light and are responsible for visual acuity (sharpness and precise detail) and the perception of color. The rods do not perceive color but are most important for peripheral vision and, because they’re more sensitive to light, are responsible for vision in dim light.

Answer 126

A. will continue dating Susie only if she’s the sister of a former (not current) client of his. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-008 Answer A is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual intimacies with individuals they know to be close relatives, guardians, or significant others of current clients/patients … [and they] do not terminate therapy to circumvent this standard.” This answer is also consistent with the requirements of Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Answer 127

B. larger than .75. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-011 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that the magnitude of a test’s reliability coefficient (or any correlation coefficient) is affected by several factors, including the range (heterogeneity) of scores: All other things being equal, the greater the range of scores, the larger the reliability coefficient will be. Because the second sample has a larger range of GPA scores than the first sample did, the reliability coefficient for the second sample will most likely be larger than .75.

Answer 128

D. may terminate therapy with Bonnie with or without providing her with pretermination counseling and referrals. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-010 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Principle II of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.10(b) states that psychologists may terminate therapy with clients when they’re “threatened or otherwise endangered by the client/patient or another person with whom the client/patient has a relationship.” And Standard 10.10(c) states that, “except where precluded by the actions of clients/patients or third-party payors, prior to termination psychologists provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, Standard 10.10(c) applies when a psychologist terminates therapy with a client because he/she is endangered by the client or someone involved in a relationship with the client [Decoding the ethics code (4th ed.), Los Angeles, SAGE, 2017].

Answer 129

B. scores on one or more explanatory variables are highly correlated with scores on one or more of the other explanatory variables. EPPP-P6-RMS-Correlation and Regression-005 Answer B is correct. The term multicollinearity is used in the context of multiple regression and similar multivariate techniques to describe high correlations between predictors, which means that the predictors are providing redundant (rather than unique) information about the factors that contribute to performance on the criterion. Even if you’re familiar with multicollinearity, this may have been a difficult question because it uses unfamiliar terms – i.e., explanatory variable instead of predictor and response variable instead of criterion. Unfortunately, exam questions sometimes contain unfamiliar or unexpected language; however, as long as you’re sufficiently familiar with the concept that’s being asked about, you should be able to identify the correct answer.

Answer 130

B. universal EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-019 Answer B is correct. The three types of prevention listed in answers A, B, and C were described by Gordon (1983). Universal prevention programs are aimed at a designated population or specific members of that population regardless of their level of risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all pregnant women in a community). Selective prevention programs (answer C) are aimed at members of a subgroup of a designated population who are known to be at above-average risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women in a community). Indicated prevention programs (answer A) are aimed at individuals who are known to have a characteristic that puts them at high risk for a disorder or condition (e.g., all low-income pregnant women who have had a miscarriage or whose newborns had problems that were due to inadequate prenatal care). Another method for describing prevention programs is to classify them as primary, secondary, or tertiary. Secondary prevention programs (answer D) are aimed at specific individuals who have been identified as being at elevated risk for a disorder or condition.

Answer 131

D. does not apply in this situation and the appropriate actions for the therapist and client depend on state or provincial laws. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-017 Answer D is correct. The original Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn” an intended victim of a therapy client, but this was changed in a 1976 rehearing of the case to a “duty to protect” an intended victim by warning him or her directly, notifying the police, or taking other appropriate action (e.g., hospitalizing the client). Many experts agree that Tarasoff isn’t relevant in situations like the one described in this question because (a) it doesn’t apply to past behavior, (b) it applies only when potential victim(s) are identifiable (it’s not clear if the client’s partners are identifiable), and (c) the risk for harm does not necessarily rise to the level of foreseeable harm (dangerousness) required by Tarasoff since unsafe sex involves risk but not certainty that HIV will be transmitted. Note that there are other options in this situation – e.g., educating clients about safe-sex practices and encouraging clients to inform sexual partners of their HIV status, possibly with the assistance of the therapist. In addition, it’s important for psychologists to be familiar with state and provincial laws that address the actions that should be taken in situations involving HIV (e.g., partner notification laws). See, e.g., T. Chenneville, Tarasoff and HIV: Some considerations for therapists, Focus, 22(5), 5-8, 2007.

Answer 132

A. T score = 65 EPPP-P6-TES-Test Score Interpretation-004 Answer A is correct. In a normal distribution, a stanine score of 5 is equivalent to raw scores that equal the mean or are slightly above or below the mean, a z-score of 1.0 and a percentile rank of 84 are equivalent to the raw score that is one standard deviation above the mean, and a T-score of 65 is equivalent to the raw score that is one and one-half standard deviations above the mean.

Answer 133

D. ECT EPPP-P6-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders--001 Answer D is correct. Research has shown that ECT produces remission within 1 to 3 weeks compared to 6 to 10 weeks for IPT or CBT and 4 to 12 weeks for antidepressant medications (Rush et al., 2006).

Answer 134

A. solution-focused EPPP-P6-CLI-Brief Therapies-024 Answer A is correct. Each session of solution-focused therapy is structured and involves asking questions, providing feedback, and assigning a task to complete before the next session. For example, the formula first session task is assigned at the end of the first session and requires clients to identify something in their lives that they want to continue.

Answer 135

B. sodium oxybate EPPP-P6-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-025 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question because all of the drugs listed in the answers are used to treat narcolepsy. However, only sodium oxybate has been found to be effective for reducing daytime sleepiness, improving nighttime sleep, and reducing cataplexy. Modafinal, methylphenidate, and other stimulant drugs are useful for reducing daytime sleepiness, while antidepressants (e.g., fluoxetine) are useful for reducing cataplexy. See, e.g., S. V. Kothare and J. Kaleyias, Pharmacotherapy of narcolepsy: Focus on sodium oxybate, Clinical medical insights: Therapeutics, 2, 37-52, 2010.

Answer 136

C. cluster sampling EPPP-P6-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-011 Answer C is correct. Cluster sampling is a type of random (probability) sampling that can involve one or two stages: One-stage cluster sampling involves dividing the population of interest into clusters (groups) and then using simple random sampling to select clusters from the population and including all individuals in the selected clusters to participate in the research study. Two-stage cluster sampling begins in the same way as one-stage cluster sampling but ends with randomly selecting individuals from each of the selected clusters to participate in the research study. The other sampling techniques listed in the answers are nonrandom (non-probability) sampling techniques: Convenience sampling (answer A) involves including any individuals in the study who are available and meet specified criteria (e.g., all clients in a clinic who have received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder). When using quota sampling (answer B), the researcher identifies the major groups of interest, determines the number of participants to include from each group, and then selects convenience samples of the desired size from each group. When using snowball sampling, participants are obtained by asking the first person who is located or volunteers for the study to identify other possible participants who meet specified criteria, then asking those people to identify other possible participants, and so on until a sufficient number of participants is obtained. This method is useful when it’s difficult to locate members of a special population (e.g., homeless individuals, gang leaders).

Answer 137

A. ingroup favoritism and outgroup derogation. EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-012 Answer A is correct. According to infrahumanization theory, people tend to humanize members of ingroups by attributing secondary emotions to them (pride, compassion, remorse and other emotions that are unique to humans) which, in turn, elicits empathy and prosocial behaviors toward them. In contrast, people tend to dehumanize members of outgroups by attributing fewer secondary emotions to them which, in turn, elicits less empathy toward and acceptance of them (J. P. Leyens, A. Rodriguez-Perez, R. Rodriguez-Torres, R. Gaunt, P. M. Paladino, J. Vaes, and S. Demoulin, Psychological essentialism and the differential attribution of uniquely human emotions to ingroups and outgroups, European Journal of Social Psychology, 31, 359-411, 2001).

Answer 138

D. Rothbart and Derryberry EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-013 Answer D is correct. Rothbart and Derryberry (1981) describe temperament as “constitutional differences in reactivity and self-regulation, with ‘constitutional’ seen as the relatively enduring biological makeup of the organism influenced over time by heredity, maturation, and experience” (p. 37).

Answer 139

C. Level V EPPP-P6-PAS-Clinical Tests-006 Answer C is correct. Ratings on the Rancho Scale range from Level I to Level X. A patient who receives a rating of Level V (Confused/Inappropriate Nonagitated) is confused but nonagitated; responds to simple, familiar commands; is not oriented to person, place, or time; has difficulty learning new information; and may wander randomly with a vague intention of going home.

Answer 140

C. because the victims were suffering EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-004 Answer C is correct. R. L. Piferi, R. L. Jobe, and W. H. Jones’s study found that altruistic motivation for helping victims of a tragedy (helping to improve the victims’ well-being) was more predictive than egoistic motivation (helping to alleviate one’s own suffering) for predicting future helping [Giving to others during national tragedy: The effects of altruistic and egoistic motivations in long-term giving, Journal of Social and Personal Relationships, 23(1), 171-184, 2006].

Answer 141

A. psychological hardiness EPPP-P6-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-013 Answer A is correct. As long as you have Kobasa linked with the concept of hardiness, you would have been able to easily identify the correct answer to this question. The phrase “to successfully cope with stress” may have acted as a cue to help you recall this link if the name Kobasa didn’t immediately help you identify the correct answer. Note that, even if you do not know that Kobasa’s concept of hardiness is also known as psychological hardiness, you would want to choose answer A because, of the answers given, it comes closest to what you know.

Answer 142

D. may use an interpreter who is fluent in both Spanish and English and has appropriate training and must indicate the possible limitations of the test results in his report. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-013 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 9.03(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles I.24, I.27, and III.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.03(c) states that “psychologists using the services of an interpreter obtain informed consent from the client/patient to use that interpreter, ensure that confidentiality of test results and test security are maintained, and include in their recommendations, reports, and diagnostic or evaluative statements … discussion of any limitations on the data obtained.” Answers A and B are not the best answers because available Spanish-language versions of tests and culture-fair tests may not be adequate for the purposes of Dr. Bernstein’s evaluations and because ethical guidelines do not state that psychologists MUST use these tests when evaluating children with limited English skills. Answer C is not the best answer because it does not include the requirement to discuss the possible limitations of the test data in recommendations.

Answer 143

C. recognizes the differences between cultural groups. EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-022 Answer C is correct. A psychologist who has an emic perspective believes that behavior is affected by culture and, as a result, views the causes and manifestations of and optimal interventions for psychological disorders as being affected by a person’s cultural background. In contrast, a psychologist who has an etic perspective does not consider the impact of culture and views the causes and manifestations of and optimal interventions for psychological disorders as being essentially the same for members of all cultures. Answers D describes an etic perspective. Answers A and B refer to autoplastic and alloplastic interventions, respectively.

Answer 144

D. .10; .50 EPPP-P6-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-007 Answer D is correct. Regardless of the size of a test’s validity coefficient, the test will have the greatest incremental validity when the selection ratio is low (e.g., .10) and the base rate is moderate (e.g., .50).

Answer 145

B. repeats behaviors that elicit a response from a person or object. EPPP-P6-LIF-Cognitive Development-003 Answer B is correct. As described by Piaget, the substages of the sensorimotor stage involve different types of circular reactions, which are actions that are performed to repeat an event that first occurred by chance. Substage 3 occurs between four and eight months of age and is characterized by secondary circular reactions, which are goal-directed actions that elicit a response from a person or object. For example, an infant might repeatedly kick the mobile hanging over his crib to make it move.

Answer 146

D. work with tools and machinery. EPPP-P6-ORG-Career Choice and Development-015 Answer D is correct. People who obtain the highest score on Holland’s realistic scale prefer to work with things (e.g., tools and machinery) rather than people. People who obtain the highest score on the conventional scale prefer jobs that involve following set procedures and routines (answer A). Those who obtain the highest score on the enterprising scale like to lead and persuade people (answer B), and those who obtain the highest score on the investigative scale prefer to work with ideas and solve problems (answer C).

Answer 147

D. consider the nature of your therapeutic relationship with Maggie and the potential effect on her of your acceptance or refusal of her invitation before deciding whether or not to accept the invitation. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-019 Answer D is correct. Standard 3.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code prohibits multiple relationships that “could be reasonably expected to impair the psychologist’s objectivity, competence, or effectiveness … or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person.” And Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics requires psychologists to “avoid dual relationships … that are not justified by the nature of the activity, by cultural or geographic factors, or where there is a lack of reasonably accessible alternatives.” Neither document prohibits all types of multiple relationships; and, in the situation described in this question, your first action would be to consider the nature of your therapeutic relationship with Maggie and the possible effects on that relationship of accepting or refusing her invitation. Discussing potential conflicts with Maggie (answer C) isn’t a better answer because it implies that you would accept her invitation regardless of the outcome of that discussion.

Answer 148

A. predicts the effects of two or more concurrent schedules of reinforcement on the behaviors that are being reinforced. EPPP-P6-LEA-Operant Conditioning-004 Answer A is correct. According to the matching law, the relative rate of responding to two or more stimuli is equal to the relative rate of reinforcement received for responding. For example, if a pigeon is reinforced with a food pellet after every 20 pecks on key #1 and is concurrently reinforced with a food pellet after every 10 pecks on key #2, the pigeon will peck key #2 twice as often as it pecks key #1.

Answer 149

A. It’s raised in less than 1% of all felony cases and leads to acquittal only about 25% of the time. EPPP-P6-ETH-Professional Issues-025 Answer A is correct. The not guilty by reason of insanity defense is relatively rare in felony cases and is usually unsuccessful. The rates of occurrence vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, overall, the insanity defense is raised in less than 1% of all felony cases and is successful only about 25% of the time. See, e.g., C. R. Bartol and A. M. Bartol, Psychology and law: Research and practice (2nd ed.), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2019.

Answer 150

C. levodopa EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-022 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that Mr. Wolf’s symptoms are characteristic of Parkinson’s disease and know that Parkinson’s is caused by a decrease in dopamine levels and that levodopa (also known as L-dopa) is a useful treatment in the beginning stages of this disorder because it increases dopamine levels. Rivastigmine (answer A) is a cognition-enhancing drug that’s used to treat Alzheimer’s disease and other neurocognitive disorders. Carbamazepine (answer B) is an anticonvulsant drug that’s used to treat seizures and bipolar disorder. Buspirone (answer D) is used to treat anxiety disorders.

Answer 151

A. suprachiasmatic nucleus EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-003 Answer A is correct. The suprachiasmatic nucleus is located in the hypothalamus and controls the body’s circadian rhythms (24-hour cycles), which include the sleep-wake cycle and daily changes in core body temperature and the secretion of several hormones.

Answer 152

B. instrumentality EPPP-P6-ORG-Theories of Motivation-016 Answer B is correct. Expectancy theory proposes that work motivation is affected by three beliefs: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Instrumentality is the belief that one’s job performance will be rewarded. In the situation described in this question, Jill’s excellent job performance has not been rewarded with regular raises, which were promised to her when she was hired. Valence (answer A) refers to a worker’s beliefs about the value of the rewards he/she receives. Expectancy (answer D) refers to a worker’s belief that effort will lead to successful job performance. And predictability (answer C) is not one of the determinants of motivation identified by expectancy theory.

Answer 153

D. transfer of information from short- to long-term memory. EPPP-P6-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-009 Answer D is correct. The serial position effect occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then asked to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay. Research on the serial position effect suggests that the ability to recall items from the beginning of the list of words (primacy effect) is due to the transfer of the words from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items from the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that the words are still present in short-term memory.

Answer 154

C. the organization’s primary values, goals, and strategies. EPPP-P6-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-008 Answer C is correct. Competency modeling is similar to job analysis but focuses on the core competencies that are required to successfully perform all jobs or a subset of jobs within an organization and are linked to the organization’s values, goals and strategies. Therefore, specifying these values, goals, and strategies is an initial step when using competency modeling.

Answer 155

B. Deception is never acceptable when a study’s procedures may cause participants physical pain or severe emotional distress. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-006 Answer B is correct. This situation is covered in Standard 8.07(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards I.20 and III.23 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07(b) states that “psychologists do not deceive prospective participants about research that is reasonably expected to cause physical pain or severe emotional distress.”

Answer 156

A. transfer the intern to another rotation. EPPP-P6-ETH-Professional Issues-015 Answer A is correct. Of the answers given, this is the best choice because the intern’s problems are limited to a specific rotation and are probably time-limited since he’s reacting to his grandmother’s recent diagnosis. Although the intern may want to seek therapy to help deal with his grandmother’s diagnosis (answer B), this isn’t the best answer because it doesn’t address the intern’s current ability to provide patients with Alzheimer’s disease with appropriate services.

Answer 157

D. Down syndrome. EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-015 Answer D is correct. Genetic causes account for about 45% of all cases of intellectual disability with an identifiable cause and include chromosomal abnormalities, single gene disorders, mitochondrial disorders, and multifactorial disorders that involve an interaction between the environment and the actions of multiple genes. Down syndrome is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability and is due to a chromosomal abnormality. Fragile X syndrome is the second most common genetic cause and is an abnormality on a single gene. Note that, if the question asked which disorder is the most common inherited genetic cause of intellectual disability, fragile X syndrome (answer C) would be the correct answer because Down syndrome is not inherited. Phenylketonuria (answer A) is a rare inherited disorder which, if untreated, can cause intellectual disability and a number of serious health problems. Tay Sachs disease is also a rare inherited disorder. Its symptoms include loss of motor skills, vision and hearing loss, seizures, and delays in mental and social development. See, e.g., M. L. Batshaw, N. J. Roizen, and G. R. Lotrecchiano, Children with disabilities: A medical primer (7th ed.), Baltimore, Brookes, 2013.

Answer 158

C. A friend tends to attribute his own behaviors to situational factors but the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors. EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-001 Answer C is correct. The actor-observer bias is an attributional bias and refers to the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational (external) factors and the behavior of other people to dispositional (internal) factors.

Answer 159

B. criterion contamination EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-001 Answer B is correct. Criterion contamination occurs when ratings on a criterion (performance) measure are affected by factors unrelated to the individual’s actual performance – for example, when a supervisor’s performance ratings for an employee are affected by the rater’s knowledge of how well the employee did on the selection tests that were used to hire the employee.

Answer 160

C. CS preexposure EPPP-P6-LEA-Classical Conditioning-013 Answer C is correct. Latent inhibition occurs when pre-exposure to the intended CS alone on multiple occasions prior to conditioning trials reduces the likelihood that the intended CS will actually become a CS and elicit a CR after it’s subsequently paired with the US. In other words, preexposure to the intended CS alone inhibits or disrupts learning the association between the intended CS and the US.

Answer 161

C. send the counselor only information you believe is relevant to Tyler’s problems at school. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-003 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code, which requires psychologists to “include in written and oral reports and consultations only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made.” It’s also consistent with the requirements of Standards I.37 and I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Because Tyler’s mother has signed an authorization to release information, it would be acceptable to provide the counselor with information relevant to Tyler’s problems at school.

Answer 162

C. Chemotherapy and cranial irradiation are both associated with deficits in neurocognitive functioning. EPPP-P6-LIF-Cognitive Development-012 Answer C is correct. Research has found that, when used to treat ALL, chemotherapy and cranial irradiation are both associated with subsequent neurocognitive deficits and problems related to academic achievement [e.g., A. Kingma, L. A. Rammeloo, A. van Der Does-van den Berg, L. Rekers-Mombarg, and A. Postma. Academic career after treatment for acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Archives of disease in childhood, 82(5), 353–357, 2000]. Note that this is an example of the very difficult questions you’ll encounter on the exam. Fortunately, there won’t be very many of these and, when you encounter them, you won’t want to spend too much time trying to determine the correct answer if you’re unfamiliar with what is being asked about.

Answer 163

C. elaborative rehearsal EPPP-P6-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-010 Answer C is correct. Elaborative rehearsal involves making new information meaningful by, for example, relating it to something you already know or generating personally meaningful examples. Of the memory techniques, it’s considered the best way to ensure that new information is transferred to and can be retrieved from long-term memory.

Answer 164

C. agree to see Emiko in therapy until her crisis has passed and then provide her with a referral to a colleague if she needs additional therapy sessions. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-027 Answer C is correct. This situation is not directly addressed in ethical guidelines. However, this answer is most consistent with the “spirit” of the guidelines because it’s the response that best addresses Emiko’s welfare (see, e.g., Standard 10.09 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.35 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). Answers A and B are not the best answers because Emiko seems to need immediate assistance due to her suicidal ideation, and starting therapy with a new therapist (who may not be able to see her right away) would not be adequate. And answer D is not the best answer because Emiko may or may not be capable of or motivated to follow through on the suggestion to have someone take her to the hospital if she starts feeling like she can’t control the impulse to attempt suicide.

Answer 165

A. the population standard deviation increases and the sample size decreases. EPPP-P6-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-002 Answer A is correct. The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the mean and is calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size. Consequently, as the population standard deviation (the numerator) increases and the sample size (the denominator) decreases, the standard error of the mean increases.

Answer 166

A. basic innate needs EPPP-P6-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-001 Answer A is correct. Glasser proposed that five basic innate needs act as the primary sources of motivation: survival, freedom, love and belonging, power, and fun.

Answer 167

D. simultaneously analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables. EPPP-P6-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-003 Answer D is correct. The MANOVA is used to simultaneously analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Answer 168

B. Withholding a client’s record for nonpayment of fees is always unethical when it’s needed for the client’s emergency treatment. EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-005 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 6.03 of the APA’s Ethics Code. It states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” This answer is also consistent with the Preamble and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. (Note that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with laws or institutional regulations, but this question is asking specifically about ethical requirements.)

Answer 169

B. identity vs. role confusion EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-023 Answer B is correct. Erikson (1963) identified moratorium as a characteristic of his identity vs. role confusion stage of development and described it as follows: “The adolescent mind is essentially the mind of the moratorium, a psychosocial stage between childhood and adulthood, between the morality learned by the child, and the ethics to be developed by the adult” [E. H. Erikson, Childhood and society (2nd ed.), New York, Norton, 1963, p. 263]. If you’re unfamiliar with Erikson’s use of the term, knowing that Marcia (1966) expanded Erikson’s ideas about adolescent identity to describe four identity statuses (moratorium, diffusion, foreclosure, and achievement) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer 170

C. has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction, a weaker positive effect on job productivity, and an unclear effect on absenteeism. EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-010 Answer C is correct. The research results are not entirely consistent, but the best conclusion is that the compressed workweek has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction, a positive but weaker effect on job productivity, and unclear effects on absenteeism.

Answer 171

B. ambiguous and difficult. EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-006 Answer B is correct. Informational influence occurs when people conform to the judgments of others because they think others know more than they do and, consequently, is stronger than normative influence when the task is ambiguous and difficult.

Answer 172

C. phonological dyslexia EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-027 Answer C is correct. There are several types of dyslexia, and different experts use different names for them. The three types listed in answers A, B, and C are developmental forms of dyslexia. Phonological dyslexia is the most common type and is also known as dysphonic, dysphonetic, and auditory dyslexia. People with phonological dyslexia cannot sound out words very well and, as a result, have trouble pronouncing new words and pseudowords. Individuals with surface dyslexia have trouble reading words that have irregular pronunciations (e.g., chalk, steak); and individuals with deep dyslexia have trouble with function words (e.g., read “at” for “in”), and they often substitute words that have similar meanings or are related in some other way to the printed word (e.g., read “man” for “boy” and “comb” for “brush”). Alexia is an acquired type of reading disorder that’s caused by brain pathology. It’s also known as acquired dyslexia and is characterized by an inability to read normally (e.g., to read very slowly) and to understand written language.

Answer 173

B. Schachter-Singer EPPP-P6-PHY-Emotions and Stress-010 Answer B is correct. According to Schachter and Singer’s cognitive arousal theory (also known as two-factor theory), the experience of emotion is the result of physiological arousal elicited by an event followed by an attribution (“cognitive label”) for that arousal. The James-Lange theory (answer A) proposes that exposure to an event causes a physiological reaction that, in turn, is perceived as an emotion and that the physiological states associated with different emotions are distinct from one another. Like the Schachter-Singer theory, Cannon-Bard theory (answer C) views all emotions as involving similar physiological arousal, but it proposes that the physiological reaction and subjective emotional reaction to an event occur simultaneously and independently. There is no Lazarus-Papez theory (answer D), but Lazarus developed the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion which predicts that physiological arousal follows the cognitive appraisal of an event and Papez was among the first to link emotions to specific areas of the brain.

Answer 174

B. involves greater collaboration between parents and the affected adolescent. EPPP-P6-PPA-Feeding/Eating and Sleep-Wake Disorders--006 Answer B is correct. FB-BN and FB-AN differ somewhat in terms of procedures. For example, FB-BN involves greater collaboration between parents and the affected adolescent in the initial stages of therapy because, in contrast to adolescents with anorexia, those with bulimia often experience their symptoms as distressing and ego-dystonic and, as a result, are more motivated to change. Answer A is incorrect because psychiatric comorbidity rates are higher for bulimia than anorexia and must be addressed to ensure that comorbid symptoms do not interfere with the treatment of bulimia. Answer C is incorrect because challenging cognitive distortions is not a focus of either FB-BN or FB-AN. Answer D is incorrect because skills are addressed in FB-BN and FB-AN, but the focus is on communication, problem-solving, and relapse prevention skills. Although tolerating distress may be addressed, it is not emphasized more in FB-BN than in FB-AN. In addition, helping clients acquire radical acceptance and other distress tolerance skills is a primary focus of dialectical behavior therapy.

Answer 175

D. directed masturbation EPPP-P6-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders--004 Answer D is correct. Behavioral and cognitive-behavioral techniques have been found effective for treating FOD. Of these, directed masturbation is the most empirically supported technique (especially for lifelong FOD) and is considered to be the first-line treatment for this disorder.

Answer 176

C. clozapine EPPP-P6-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders--026 Answer C is correct. Clozapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that has been found to be the most effective antipsychotic for treatment-resistant (refractory) schizophrenia. As defined in the American Psychiatric Association’s Practice Guidelines for the Treatment of Patients with Schizophrenia, treatment-resistant schizophrenia occurs when “a patient’s symptoms have shown no response or partial or suboptimal response to two antipsychotic medication trials of at least 6 weeks each at an adequate dosage of medication” (2021, p. 88).

Answer 177

C. being adopted by high-SES parents had a positive effect on children’s IQs and being adopted by low-SES parents had a negative effect on children’s IQs regardless of the SES of their biological parents. EPPP-P6-LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-002 Answer C is correct. Capron and Duyme found that children born into low- or high-SES families and adopted soon after birth by high-SES families later obtained higher average IQs than children adopted by low-SES families. Conversely, children born into low- or high-SES families and adopted soon after birth by low-SES families later obtained lower average IQs than children adopted by high-SES families.

Answer 178

B. identifying the relevant client(s) for addressing the organization’s problems. EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-025 Answer B is correct. T. G. Cummings and C. G. Worley’s (2009) general model of planned change distinguishes between the following phases: entering and contracting, diagnosing, planning and implementing change, and evaluating and institutionalizing change [Organization development and change (9th ed.), Mason, OH, South-Western Cengage Learning, 2009]. As described by these investigators, an OD practitioner’s initial tasks during the entering and contracting phase include clarifying the organization’s problems, determining the relevant clients (organizational members) for addressing the problems, and establishing a collaborative relationship with those individuals. Identifying the causes and consequences of the organization’s problems and best practices (answer A) occurs during the diagnosing phase and helps determine the most appropriate interventions. Specifying how the OD practitioner and client(s) will work together (answer C) is a final step in the contracting process, not an initial step in the entering and contracting phase. Fostering clients’ readiness for change and overcoming resistance to change (answer D) are part of the planning and implementing change phase.

Answer 179

C. A supervisee’s participation in setting goals is not always necessary for his/her commitment to goals but is important when a supervisee is not likely to accept assigned goals. EPPP-P6-ORG-Theories of Motivation-005 Answer C is correct. Goal-setting theory predicts (a) that a supervisee’s acceptance of goals is most important for ensuring that the supervisee will be committed to achieving those goals and (b) that participation in goal-setting is not always necessary for ensuring a supervisee’s commitment to goals but is useful when the supervisee is high in need for achievement and/or is not likely to accept goals assigned by the supervisor.

Answer 180

D. rational responses to their automatic thoughts EPPP-P6-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-013 Answer D is correct. When using the Dysfunctional Thought Record, clients initially record each situation that preceded an unpleasant emotion, the negative automatic thought that occurred in response to the situation, and the nature of the emotion and its intensity. As therapy progresses, clients also record a rational response to each negative automatic thought and the outcomes of the rational response.

Answer 181

D. increase the likelihood that participants will engage in future criminal behaviors. EPPP-P6-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-019 Answer D is correct. A. Petrosino, C. Turpin-Petrosino, M. E. Hollis-Peel, and J. G. Lavenberg’s (2013) meta-analysis of the research found that Scared Straight programs have harmful effects – i.e., they increase the likelihood that juvenile offenders and at-risk juveniles will engage in criminal behavior in the future. The analysis also found that confrontational and nonconfrontational approaches have similar negative effects and that the programs may have even worse outcomes for seriously delinquent youths (“Scared Straight” and other juvenile awareness programs for preventing juvenile delinquency, Cochrane Data Base of Systematic Reviews, Issue 4, Article No. CD002796).

Answer 182

C. benzodiazepines that are used to treat anxiety and insomnia. EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-016 Answer C is correct. Diazepan (Valium), alprazolam (Xanax), and lorazepam (Ativan) are benzodiazepines and are one type of sedative-hypnotics (barbiturates are another type). The benzodiazepines increase GABA activity and are used to treat anxiety, insomnia, seizures, and alcohol withdrawal.

Answer 183

C. embarrassment and envy. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-021 Answer C is correct. Children’s early emotions can be divided into two types: Primary emotions include joy, surprise, sadness, fear, disgust, and anger and are apparent before 6 months of age. Secondary emotions are also referred to as self-conscious emotions and include embarrassment, envy, empathy, pride, shame, and guilt. Secondary emotions do not appear until after a child develops self-awareness, which occurs at about 18 months of age and can be assessed with the mirror self-recognition test. Of the secondary emotions, embarrassment, envy, and empathy occur first at about 18 to 24 months of age and are followed by pride, shame, and guilt at 30 to 36 months of age.

Answer 184

B. cingulate cortex. EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-025 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question. However, even if you’re not familiar with the meta-analysis being asked about, you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you know that the cingulate cortex has been linked to depression or, if not, know that the cingulate cortex is part of the limbic system and, therefore, seems like it would be accurate to describe it as an emotional processing area of the brain. The study referred to in this question found that, following cognitive-behavior therapy, patients with major depressive disorder showed decreased activation in the left precentral gyrus (an area in the prefrontal cortex) and, following cognitive-behavior therapy or psychodynamic psychotherapy, increased activation in the left rostral anterior cingulate cortex (A. Sankar, A. Melin, V. Lorenzetti, P. Horton, S. G. Costafreda, and C. H. Y. Fu, A systematic review and meta-analysis of the neural correlates of psychological therapies in major depression, Psychiatry Research: Neuroimaging, 30, 31-39, 2018).

Answer 185

B. disinterest in or rejection of one’s own racial/ethnic identity EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-018 Answer B is correct. The models of racial/ethnic identity development differ somewhat with regard to the nature of each stage. However, for most models, the initial stage is characterized by the person’s lack of acceptance and/or awareness of his/her own culture as an element of his/her identity. You may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question even if you’re familiar with only one or two models. For example, the first stage in Atkinson, Morten, and Sue’s (1998) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model is the conformity stage. During this stage, individuals have either neutral or negative attitudes toward members of their own minority group and other minority groups and positive attitudes toward members of the majority group.

Answer 186

B. understanding humor and sarcasm. EPPP-P6-LIF-Language Development-025 Answer B is correct. Pragmatics refers to the understanding and use of verbal and nonverbal language in different social contexts. Among other difficulties, people who struggle with pragmatic language often have trouble understanding idioms, metaphors, humor, sarcasm, and other non-literal language.

Answer 187

D. ethological theory. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-010 Answer D is correct. Bowlby’s attachment theory was influenced by the work of Lorenz, Harlow, and other ethologists who studied animal behaviors in natural environments and viewed behavior as evolutionarily adaptive. In contrast to learning theories (answer A) that describe attachment as a learned behavior acquired through classical and/or operant conditioning, Bowlby proposed that caregiver-infant attachment is an innate, adaptive process that helps ensure the survival of the infant.

Answer 188

C. locus coeruleus EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-029 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that the term “ground zero” is used to refer to the starting point of an event and that the locus coeruleus (an area in the brain stem) has been identified as the first area of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer’s disease (Mather & Harley, 2016). As the disorder progresses, many other areas of the brain are affected including the amygdala, thalamus, and corpus callosum.

Answer 189

A. Infants EPPP-P6-PHY-Memory and Sleep-018 Answer A is correct. Infants spend about 16 to 20 hours each day sleeping, with about 50% of this time in REM sleep. The proportion of REM sleep drops to about 25% by age five and continues at that level during the rest of childhood, adolescence, and adulthood [D. M. Kaufman, H. L. Geyer, and M. J. Milstein, Kaufman’s clinical neurology for psychiatrists (8th ed.), Philadelphia, Elsevier, 2017].

Answer 190

B. the extent to which the examinee’s response matches the stimulus properties of the inkblot EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-009 Answer B is correct. Form quality is a measure of perceptual accuracy and indicates the extent to which the examinee’s response corresponds to the actual shape of the inkblot. Determinants indicates the characteristic(s) of the inkblot (e.g., form or color) that determined the examinee’s response (answer A). Content indicates the category (e.g., whole human, human detail, whole animal, animal detail, landscape, food) to which the examinee’s response belongs (answer C). And popularity indicates the extent to which the examinee’s response is similar to responses given by other examinees (answer D).

Answer 191

D. high in growth-need strength. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Theories of Motivation-021 Answer D is correct. According to Hackman and Oldham, the effects of the five core job characteristics on job outcomes are moderated by an employee’s growth-need strength: Workers with high growth-need strength (those who seek to fulfill higher-order needs) are more likely than those with low growth-need strength to be positively affected by a job that provides the five core characteristics (skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and feedback). Self-monitoring (answers A and B) is not identified by Hackman and Oldham as a characteristic related to their job characteristics model. It refers to the extent to which people rely on internal or external cues to guide their behaviors: People low in self-monitoring rely on their own attitudes, beliefs, and feelings to determine how to act in social situations and, therefore, act similarly in different social situations. In contrast, people who are high in self-monitoring are concerned about the impressions that others have of them and adapt their actions to fit the emotions and behaviors of other people. As a result, they may act differently in different social situations.

Answer 192

C. job performance EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PAS-Interest Inventories-012 Answer C is correct. Research evaluating the validity of interest inventories has found that they are good predictors of job choice, satisfaction, and persistence. However, they are less valid than intelligence tests for predicting academic and job performance, apparently because performance depends more on ability than interests.

Answer 193

A. onset and course of the disorder and rate of remission EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-017 Answer A is correct. Studies of patients who have received a diagnosis of schizophrenia have found that patients residing in non-Western developing countries are more likely than those residing in Western industrialized countries to experience an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter course of the disorder, and a higher rate of remission (e.g., Hopper & Wanderling, 2000).

Answer 194

D. when performance errors are likely to be costly. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-009 Answer D is correct. Overlearning is learning or practicing a task beyond the point of mastery, and it produces automaticity, which occurs when information is recalled or a behavior is performed with little conscious effort or awareness. It’s particularly important when the task will be performed infrequently or when performance errors are costly in terms of safety or other factors (e.g., for responses to emergencies).

Answer 195

A. increasing the strength of diffuse boundaries or the flexibility of rigid boundaries EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-026 Answer A is correct. The primary goal of structural family therapy is to resolve the family’s presenting problem by altering the family’s structure. An initial step is to achieve agreement between the therapist and family members that the goal of therapy is to eliminate the problem, which is followed by the use of strategies that alter the structural elements that are maintaining the problem. Depending on the nature of the problem, this may include using strategies that create clear boundaries between family members and subsystems by increasing the strength of diffuse boundaries or the flexibility of rigid boundaries. Increasing the differentiation of all family members (answer B) is a goal of extended family systems therapy. Helping family members perceive their problems in alternative ways (answer C) is a goal of Milan systemic family therapy. Replacing problem-saturated stories with alternative, more satisfying ones (answer D) is the primary goal of narrative family therapy.

Answer 196

D. age and gender have little or no consistent impact on psychotherapy outcomes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-023 Answer D is correct. Studies investigating the effects of age and gender on psychotherapy outcomes have not produced entirely consistent results, but the best overall conclusion is that age and gender have little or no impact on outcomes and that apparent differences are actually due to other factors. For example, one study found that, when the initial severity of symptoms was controlled, the age of clients explained essentially none of the variance in psychotherapy outcomes. See, e.g., J. F. Boswell, M. J. Constantino, and L. M. Anderson, Potential obstacles to treatment success in adults: Client characteristics, in S. Maltzman (Ed.), The Oxford handbook of treatment processes and outcomes in psychology: A multidisciplinary biopsychosocial approach (pp. 183-205), New York, Oxford University Press , 2016.

Answer 197

C. alarm reaction EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-006 Answer C is correct. Selye’s general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. During the initial alarm reaction stage, the hypothalamus activates the sympathetic nervous system and stimulates (a) the adrenal medulla to release epinephrine and norepinephrine and (b) the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) which, in turn, stimulates the adrenal cortex to release cortisol. Elevated levels of epinephrine, norepinephrine, and cortisol cause the physical changes that allow the body to response to a stressor with a fight-or-flight response.

Answer 198

C. negligence EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-022 Answer C is correct. A tort is a civil wrongdoing that results from a negligent breach of duty that results in injury or harm to a patient. Torts can be intentional or unintentional. Conversion (theft of or damage to personal property), infliction of emotional distress, and fraud/deceit are types of intentional torts. Unintentional torts (e.g., malpractice) involve negligence and are also known as negligence torts. Being familiar with the four conditions required for a claim of malpractice would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: (a) The psychologist must have had a professional relationship with the patient that established the psychologist’s duty to conform to a professional standard of care. (b) There was a breach of the duty (i.e., negligence) on the part of the psychologist. (c) The patient suffered injury or harm as a result of this breach. (d) The psychologist’s breach of duty was the direct or proximate cause of the patient’s harm or injury.

Answer 199

B. depolarization occurs as positively charged sodium ions enter the neuron. EXPLANATION EPPP-P6-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-023 Answer B is correct. In its resting state, the fluid inside a neuron is negatively charged relative to fluid outside the neuron. However, when the dendrites of a neuron are sufficiently stimulated, channels in the membrane of the neuron open, allowing positively charged sodium ions to enter the neuron, which causes it to become depolarized (less negative). When stimulation reaches a minimum threshold, complete depolarization occurs and triggers an action potential, which is an electrical impulse that travels through the neuron. After an action potential occurs, the neuron returns to its resting state.