E 6 Flashcards
Which of the following best describes the provisions of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations regarding sexual relationships with students?
A. Sexual relationships with students over whom psychologists have evaluative authority are prohibited.
B. Sexual relationships with students are acceptable only in the “most unusual circumstances.”
C. Sexual relationships with current and former students are prohibited under any circumstances.
D. Sexual relationships with current (but not former) students are prohibited.
A. Sexual relationships with students over whom psychologists have evaluative authority are prohibited.
Which of the following neuroimaging techniques is most useful for distinguishing between neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and other neurocognitive disorders?
A. MRI
B. CT
C. fMRI
D. FDG-PET
D. FDG-PET
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding the use of automated and other professional test scoring and interpretation services?
A. Psychologists should ordinarily avoid using these services.
B. Psychologists should use only services that have been approved by the APA or other professional organization.
C. Psychologists may use these services only for tests that are objectively scored.
D. Psychologists may use these services but the psychologists are responsible for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of tests.
D. Psychologists may use these services but the psychologists are responsible for the appropriate application, interpretation, and use of tests.
Elevated levels of dopamine in the __________ pathway of the brain are responsible for the reinforcing effects of alcohol, psychostimulants, and opiates.
A. mesolimbic
B. nigrostriatal
C. cortico-striatal
D. cortico-accumbens
A. mesolimbic
Providing adults with training on a demanding working memory task is likely to:
A. have no effect on their fluid intelligence.
B. improve their fluid intelligence only when the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.
C. improve their fluid intelligence even when the working memory task is not similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.
D. improve their fluid intelligence whether or not the working memory task is similar in format to the fluid intelligence task but only for individuals with initially low levels of fluid intelligence.
C. improve their fluid intelligence even when the working memory task is not similar in format to the fluid intelligence task.
Community-based participatory research (CBPR) is best described as a type of:
A. historical research.
B. action research.
C. ethnographic research.
D. developmental research.
B. action research.
Based on the results of their meta-analysis of the research, Shockley and her colleagues (2018) concluded that:
A. men and women experience similar levels of work-family conflict.
B. women experience significantly more work-family conflict than men do.
C. men and women both experience significantly greater family interference with work than work interference with family.
D. men and women both experience significantly greater work interference with family than family interference with work
A. men and women experience similar levels of work-family conflict.
Research by Lickel et al. (2014) found that experiencing which of the following self-conscious emotions elicits the greatest motivation to change oneself?
A. embarrassment
B. shame
C. regret
D. guilt
B. shame
Epigenetics is concerned with how:
A. DNA sequences in a person’s genes are passed from one generation to the next.
B. genes affect the development and functioning of the nervous system.
C. environmental and developmental factors affect how a gene is expressed.
D. environmental and developmental factors change a person’s genotype.
C. environmental and developmental factors affect how a gene is expressed.
With regard to factors that affect the moral development of children:
A. Piaget and Kohlberg both viewed the influence of peers as more important than the influence of parents.
B. Piaget and Kohlberg both viewed the influence of parents as more important than the influence of peers.
C. Piaget viewed the influence of peers as more important, but Kohlberg viewed the influence of parents as more important.
D. Piaget viewed the influence of parents as more important, but Kohlberg viewed the influence of peers as more important.
A. Piaget and Kohlberg both viewed the influence of peers as more important than the influence of parents.
To evaluate the validity of a new aptitude test that will be used to facilitate the college admissions process, a test developer administers the test to a sample of high school juniors and seniors who are admitted to college without use of their aptitude test scores. She then obtains the GPAs of the same students at the end of their second year of college and calculates a correlation coefficient for the students’ aptitude test scores and GPAs, which provides information about the test’s ________ validity.
A. concurrent
B. incremental
C. divergent
D. predictive
D. predictive
Consumption of alcohol by pregnant women is most likely to cause major birth defects in their offspring when drinking occurs during which of the following periods of prenatal development?
A. fetal
B. gestational
C. antenatal
D. embryonic
D. embryonic
Elena, a 22-year-old college student, has come to therapy at the insistence of her parents. She tells you she doesn’t really know who she is and frequently changes her mind about her opinions, future goals, religious and political beliefs, and even the clothes she likes to wear. She says her mood often changes at unexpected times and that she sometimes gets very angry when there doesn’t seem to be any reason for doing so. Elena says that she often thinks about suicide and that she deliberately drove her mother’s car into a tree when she was 19. She also states that she’s afraid of being abandoned by her friends and constantly seeks reassurance from them and looks for signs that they’re going to leave her and that she becomes very angry whenever she thinks one of them is avoiding her. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Elena is ________ personality disorder.
A. borderline
B. histrionic
C. dependent
D. narcissistic
A. borderline
Conduction aphasia involves:
A. nonfluent (slow, halting) speech, relatively intact comprehension, some impairment in repetition and naming.
B. fluent (normal) speech, relatively intact comprehension, intact repetition, and impaired naming.
C. fluent (but paraphasic) speech, relatively intact comprehension, poor word repetition, and impaired naming.
D. fluent (but paraphasic) speech, impaired comprehension, and severely impaired word repetition and naming.
C. fluent (but paraphasic) speech, relatively intact comprehension, poor word repetition, and impaired naming.
There’s evidence that, for some patients, depressive symptoms can be alleviated by either a placebo or an antidepressant and that a placebo and antidepressants affect the same area of the brain. More specifically, the research has found that:
A. a placebo and antidepressants both produce increased activity in the prefrontal cortex.
B. a placebo and antidepressants both produce decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex.
C. a placebo produces decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce increased activity.
D. a placebo produces increased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce decreased activity.
D. a placebo produces increased activity in the prefrontal cortex while antidepressants produce decreased activity.
In the context of research, between-methods triangulation involves:
A. including two or more qualitative methods to collect data.
B. including both qualitative and quantitative methods to collect data.
C. using multiple theories to interpret research results.
D. collecting data at different times, in different places, or from different people.
B. including both qualitative and quantitative methods to collect data.
African American therapy clients are most likely to prefer:
A. a collaborative, client-centered, nondirective approach.
B. an authoritative, educational/informational approach.
C. an egalitarian, problem-focused, time-limited approach.
D. a nondirective, insight-oriented approach.African American therapy clients are most likely to prefer:
C. an egalitarian, problem-focused, time-limited approach.
Research evaluating guided internet-delivered cognitive behavior therapy (iCBT) as a treatment for social anxiety disorder has found that iCBT is:
A. significantly less effective than in-person CBT for reducing symptoms.
B. equivalent to in-person CBT for reducing symptoms.
C. equivalent to in-person CBT for reducing symptoms but only for individuals with mild symptoms.
D. equivalent to in-person CBT in terms of short-term (but not long-term) effects on symptoms.
B. equivalent to in-person CBT for reducing symptoms.
The “in-basket test” is most likely to be included as part of which of the following?
A. cross-training
B. vestibule training
C. assessment center
D. job evaluation
C. assessment center
Research suggests that ____________ is most useful for understanding the “testing effect.”
A. interference theory
B. the encoding specificity principle
C. the mediator effectiveness hypothesis
D. the levels of processing model
C. the mediator effectiveness hypothesis
The internal validity of a research study is threatened by statistical regression when:
A. more participants with average scores on the pretest dropped out of the study than did participants with high or low scores.
B. more participants with average scores responded favorably to the independent variable than did other participants.
C. participants were chosen for inclusion in the study because they obtained extremely low scores on a pretest.
D. participants were chosen for inclusion in the study because they obtained average scores on a pretest.
C. participants were chosen for inclusion in the study because they obtained extremely low scores on a pretest.
The ______ gene variant has been identified as a high risk factor for neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease.
A. APOE4
B. APOE3
C. APOE2
D. APOE1
A. APOE4
During your second session with Anita A., she says she wants to tell you something she hasn’t told anyone else. After a few moments of silence, she reveals that she’s been seeing another therapist for three months but started seeing you because she’s concerned about his behavior. She tells you that, in her last few sessions with that therapist, he touched her inappropriately and said he was doing so to help her deal with her fear of physical and sexual intimacy. As an ethical psychologist, you should:
A. convince Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and then help her work through her feelings about what has happened.
B. encourage Anita to terminate therapy with the other therapist immediately and file a complaint against him with the ethics committee.
C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation.
D. tell Anita you’re ethically required to file a complaint against the other therapist because of the seriousness of her allegation.
C. explain to Anita the seriousness of her allegation and discuss the options she has in this situation.
As defined by George Kelly (1963), personal constructs are:
A. essential determinants of a person’s style of life.
B. mental representations that are used to interpret and predict events.
C. comparable to Jung’s archetypes.
D. comparable to Glasser’s basic innate needs.
B. mental representations that are used to interpret and predict events.
When test scores represent an interval or ratio scale and the distribution of scores is skewed, the best measure of central tendency for the distribution is usually which of the following?
A. mode
B. mean
C. median
D. minuend
C. median
Dr. Maddox has been in private practice for nearly 25 years, and her specialty has been treating depression in adolescents and young adults. Now that she’s turned 50, she has more interest in working with older adults. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Maddox should:
A. see older adults in therapy only if alternative mental health services for members of this population are unavailable in her community.
B. take a relevant APA-approved continuing education course before accepting older adults as clients.
C. see older adults in therapy if she’s able to obtain consultation while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with members of this population.
D. see older adults in therapy but closely monitor her effectiveness and obtain consultation or additional education if she encounters any problems.
C. see older adults in therapy if she’s able to obtain consultation while doing so with a colleague who has experience working with members of this population.
A practitioner of which of the following would encourage a new client who is depressed to adopt the “sick role”?
A. reality therapy
B. personal construct therapy
C. interpersonal therapy
D. motivational interviewing
C. interpersonal therapy
Which of the following is most useful for explaining racial/ethnic disparities in mental and physical health?
A. cultural encapsulation
B. minority stress theory
C. diagnostic overshadowing
D. social identity theory
B. minority stress theory
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding in-person solicitation of business?
A. Psychologists must never engage in in-person solicitation of business.
B. Psychologists must never engage in uninvited in-person solicitation of business.
C. Psychologists must not engage in in-person solicitation of business from current therapy clients who are vulnerable to undue influence.
D. Psychologists must not engage in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from current or potential therapy clients or others who are vulnerable to undue influence.
D. Psychologists must not engage in uninvited in-person solicitation of business from current or potential therapy clients or others who are vulnerable to undue influence.
Which of the following questions is most likely to be included in a covert integrity test?
A. Do your friends ever steal from their employers?
B. Would your friends describe you as impulsive?
C. How often do you tell the truth?
D. Do you think it’s stealing to take small items home from work?
B. Would your friends describe you as impulsive?
The point at which an item characteristic curve intercepts the Y (vertical) axis provides information about which of the following?
A. the ability of the item to discriminate between examinees with high and low ability
B. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing
C. the item’s difficulty level
D. the degree to which the item correlates with other items in the test
B. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing
In their study comparing the effects of age-based stereotype threat and self-stereotyping on memory performance, O’Brien and Hummert (2006) found that late middle-aged adults ages 48 through 62 who had:
A. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.
B. a youthful (vs. older) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults.
C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.
D. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of younger (vs. older) adults.
C. an older (vs. youthful) identity did more poorly on a memory task when they were told their performance would be compared to the performance of older (vs. younger) adults.
Prader-Willi syndrome is most often caused by:
A. an extra chromosome 21.
B. an extra chromosome 15.
C. deletion of a segment on maternal chromosome 21.
D. deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15.
D. deletion of a segment on paternal chromosome 15.
The ASPPB’s Supervision Guidelines for Education and Training Leading to Licensure as a Health Service Provider states that a psychology intern’s primary supervisor:
A. must be a licensed psychologist.
B. must be a licensed psychologist or a board certified psychiatrist.
C. may be a licensed psychologist or other licensed mental health professional.
D. may be a licensed psychologist or other licensed mental health professional designated by a licensed psychologist.
A. must be a licensed psychologist.
A Cohen’s d of .60 indicates a _________, and it’s interpreted in terms of __________.
A. medium correlation; shared variability
B. medium effect; standard deviation units
C. large correlation; shared variability
D. large effect; standard deviation units
B. medium effect; standard deviation units
Complaints of memory loss are common in criminal cases, with defendants claiming they have no memory of committing the crime. When determining whether a defendant’s memory loss is genuine or feigned, genuine memory loss is more likely when:
A. the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are both sudden and the defendant is unable to recall any events that occurred during that period.
B. the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are both sudden and the defendant can recall fragments of some events that occurred during that period.
C. the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are both gradual and blurred and the defendant is unable to recall any events that occurred during that period.
D. the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are both gradual and blurred and the defendant can recall fragments of some events that occurred during that period.
D. the beginning and end of the period of memory loss are both gradual and blurred and the defendant can recall fragments of some events that occurred during that period.
Aversion therapy makes use of which of the following?
A. positive reinforcement
B. negative reinforcement
C. extinction
D. counterconditioning
D. counterconditioning
When conducting research to evaluate the outcomes of a new treatment for a mental disorder:
A. efficacy studies that maximize internal validity are usually conducted first and effectiveness studies that maximize external validity are conducted next.
B. effectiveness studies that maximize internal validity are usually conducted first and efficacy studies that maximize internal validity are conducted next.
C. efficacy studies that maximize external validity are usually conducted first and effectiveness studies that maximize internal validity are conducted next.
D. effectiveness studies that maximize external validity are usually conducted first and efficacy studies that maximize internal validity are conducted next.
A. efficacy studies that maximize internal validity are usually conducted first and effectiveness studies that maximize external validity are conducted next.
The item difficulty index ranges from __________, with 0 indicating a __________.
A. 0 to +1.0; very difficult item
B. 0 to +1.0; very easy item.
C. -10 to +10; moderately difficult item
D. -1.0 to +1.0; moderately difficult item
A. 0 to +1.0; very difficult item
When forming a work team to complete an important project, it’s important to keep in mind that social loafing is most likely to have a negative effect on the team’s performance when:
A. the team is large and only the total group performance will be assessed.
B. the team is small and only the total group performance will be assessed.
C. the team is large and individual and group performance will be assessed.
D. the team is small and individual and group performance will be assessed.
A. the team is large and only the total group performance will be assessed.
Baddeley’s (2000) multi-component model describes working memory as consisting of a central executive and three subsystems. Which of the following is not one of the three subsystems?
A. phonological loop
B. episodic buffer
C. semantic register
D. visuo-spatial sketchpad
C. semantic register
Fiedler’s contingency model proposes that the optimal leadership style depends on which of the following?
A. the employee’s work-related level of motivation and ability to perform the job
B. the levels of skill variety, autonomy, and feedback provided by the job
C. the leader’s expertise, the employees’ expertise, and the importance of the employees’ commitment to the chosen course of action
D. the leader’s position power, the nature of the relationships between the leader and the employees, and the task structure
D. the leader’s position power, the nature of the relationships between the leader and the employees, and the task structure
The MMPI-2’s _____ scale consists of infrequently endorsed items.
A. FB
B. S
C. TRIN
D. VRIN
A.FB
The best conclusion about the results of research on the use of pharmacological treatments for cocaine addiction (substance use disorder in the DSM-5) is which of the following?
A. The studies have confirmed that pharmacological treatment, especially with an antidepressant or mood stabilizer, is the treatment-of-choice.
B. The studies have confirmed that pharmacological treatment is an effective approach as long as the choice of medications is tailored to an individual patient’s circumstances.
C. The studies have found that pharmacological and psychosocial treatments are equally effective for this disorder and that combining them does not produce an increase in effectiveness.
D. The studies have not yet identified a pharmacological treatment that is consistently effective for this disorder.
D. The studies have not yet identified a pharmacological treatment that is consistently effective for this disorder.
A two-point code of 4-9 on the MMPI-2 is most associated with which of the following?
A. impulsivity, antisocial tendencies, and low frustration tolerance
B. passive-aggressive behavior, anger, and poor insight
C. emotional turmoil, psychosis, and pessimism
D. excessive worry, depression, and physical complaints
A. impulsivity, antisocial tendencies, and low frustration tolerance
Research investigating age and gender differences in self-esteem has found that:
A. females have higher levels of self-esteem than males do beginning in late childhood and persisting into late adulthood.
B. males have higher levels of self-esteem than females do beginning in late childhood and persisting into late adulthood.
C. females have higher levels of self-esteem than males do in late childhood and adolescence, but males have higher levels of self-esteem in adulthood.
D. males have higher levels of self-esteem than females do in late childhood and adolescence, but females have higher levels of self-esteem in adulthood.
B. males have higher levels of self-esteem than females do beginning in late childhood and persisting into late adulthood.
A middle school student receives a full-scale IQ score of 105 on an intelligence test that has a mean of 100, standard deviation of 15, and standard error of measurement of 3. The 95% confidence interval for this student’s score is:
A. 102 to 108.
B. 99 to 111.
C. 96 to 114.
D. 94 to 106.
B. 99 to 111.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-003 Answer B is correct. To construct a 95% confidence interval, two standard errors of measurement are added to and subtracted from the examinee’s obtained score. The standard error of measurement for this test is 3, so the 95% confidence interval is calculated by adding and subtracting 6 (2 x 3) to and from the examinee’s obtained score of 105: 105 minus 6 is 99 and 105 plus 6 is 111. Therefore, the 95% confidence interval for this student is 99 to 111.
Which of the following tests is best described as a measure of response inhibition?
A. Tower of London
B. Stroop Color-Word Association Test
C. Vineland-II
D. Bender-Gestalt II
B. Stroop Color-Word Association Test
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PAS-Clinical Tests-004 Answer B is correct. The Stroop Color-Word Association Test presents an examinee with a list of color names that are printed in a different color ink (e.g., the word “green” might be printed in red ink). The examinee is asked to state the color of the ink rather than read the word. Because the prepotent response is to read the word, the examinee has to suppress (inhibit) the prepotent response in order to do so.
Development of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator was based on which of the following?
A. Eysenck’s theory of personality traits
B. Friedman and Rosenman’s personality types
C. Jung’s theory of psychological types
D. Murray’s concepts of “needs” and “press”
C. Jung’s theory of psychological types
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-003 Answer C is correct. Development of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) was based on Jung’s theory of psychological types and the personality research of Isabel Briggs Myers and Katherine Cook Briggs. It categorizes personality in terms of four bipolar dimensions – extraversion/introversion, sensing/intuition, thinking/feeling, and judging/perceiving.
The presence of which of the following core and suggestive features would help confirm a DSM-5 diagnosis of probable major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies?
A. absence seizures and concurrent non-REM sleep behavior disorder
B. absence seizures and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder
C. visual hallucinations and concurrent non-REM sleep behavior disorder
D. visual hallucinations and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder
D. visual hallucinations and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-013 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of probable major or mild neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies requires that (a) the patient meet the criteria for major or mild neurocognitive disorder, (b) the patient’s symptoms had an insidious onset and gradual progression, and (c) the patient’s symptoms include at least two core features or one core feature and one suggestive feature. Visual hallucinations are a core feature and concurrent REM sleep behavior disorder is a suggestive feature. Absence seizures are not a core or suggestive feature of this disorder.
Nisbett (1993) uses the “culture of honor” to help explain:
A. why homicide rates for White males are higher in America’s Southern states than in its Northern states.
B. why it’s acceptable in some patriarchal societies for females who bring shame to the family to be murdered by a relative.
C. why members of collectivist cultures place more value on “saving face” than members of individualist cultures do.
D. why, in certain circumstances, individuals are likely to exhibit altruism toward members of an ingroup but hostility toward members of an outgroup.
A. why homicide rates for White males are higher in America’s Southern states than in its Northern states.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-011 Answer A is correct. R. E. Nisbett notes that the homicide rates for White southern males are substantially higher than those for White northern males (especially in rural areas), and he attributes the difference to a culture of honor in the South. According to Nisbett, “the South has a culture of honor with historical roots that underlies its preferences for violence … [with violence being viewed] as an appropriate response to insults, as a means of self-protection, and as a socialization tool in training children” [Violence and U.S. regional culture, American Psychologist, 48(4), 441-449, 1993].
The manual for a test of fluid intelligence reports that, for the standardization sample, Cronbach’s alpha was .93. This suggests that the test has adequate:
A. incremental validity.
B. construct validity.
C. inter-rater reliability.
D. internal consistency reliability.
D. internal consistency reliability.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-001 Answer D is correct. Cronbach’s alpha is also known as coefficient alpha, and it provides information on a test’s internal consistency reliability.
To decrease an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific alternative desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally, you would use which of the following?
A. DRL
B. DRA
C. DRO
D. DRI
B. DRA
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-008 Answer B is correct. DRA (differential reinforcement for alternative or appropriate behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase one or more specific desirable behaviors that already occur at least occasionally. It involves removing all reinforcement (e.g., attention) following the undesirable behavior and providing reinforcement whenever a specified alternative behavior occurs. DRL (differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior) is used to reduce a behavior to a more acceptable level by providing reinforcement only when the behavior occurs at or below that level. It does not involve reinforcing alternative behaviors. DRO (differential reinforcement of other behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior by providing reinforcement after specified intervals of time only when the individual hasn’t engaged in the undesirable behavior during each interval. In contrast to DRA, DRO does not require the individual to engage in any specific alternative behaviors during each interval, only that he/she doesn’t engage in the undesirable behavior. DRI (differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior) is used to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior and increase a desirable and physically incompatible behavior (i.e., a behavior that cannot be performed at the same time as the undesirable behavior is performed). Because the question doesn’t mention that the desirable behaviors are incompatible with the undesirable behavior, this is not the best answer.
Cognitive processing therapy (CPT) is a research supported treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder that combines which of the following?
A. challenging problematic cognitions related to the trauma and writing and reading a detailed description of the trauma
B. challenging dysfunctional thoughts related to the trauma and stress inoculation training
C. reality testing dysfunctional thoughts related to the trauma and prolonged exposure using an anxiety hierarchy
D. bilateral eye movements with cognitive processing of traumatic memories
A. challenging problematic cognitions related to the trauma and writing and reading a detailed description of the trauma
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-005 Answer A is correct. CPT has received considerable research support as a treatment for PTSD and combines cognitive therapy with exposure. The cognitive therapy component focuses on identifying and challenging negative beliefs (“stuck points”) that keep the person from recovering from the trauma. The exposure component involves writing a detailed description of the traumatic event and reading it aloud to the therapist.
An initial step in choosing the appropriate function-based intervention for a child is identifying:
A. the goal(s) of the child’s problematic behavior.
B. risk and protective factors related to the child’s problematic behavior.
C. appropriate quality-of-life measures.
D. evidence-based options.
A. the goal(s) of the child’s problematic behavior.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-014 Answer A is correct. Function-based interventions are based on the assumption that disruptive behaviors and other undesirable behaviors are performed to achieve certain goals – e.g., to gain something or to avoid or escape from something. Once the goal(s) of a child’s undesirable behavior are identified from the results of a functional behavioral assessment, the next step is to create conditions in which the child’s goals can be met without engaging in the undesirable behavior. For example, if a child engages in disruptive behavior in the classroom because doing so allows him to get attention from the teacher, the teacher would stop paying attention to the child when he’s disruptive and, instead, pay attention to him whenever he engages in desirable behaviors (e.g., participates in classroom activities).
The tendency to believe that the personal attitudes of a member of a group are similar to the personal attitudes of all members of the group is referred to as the:
A. fundamental attribution error.
B. false consensus error.
C. ultimate attribution error.
D. group attribution error.
D. group attribution error.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-009 Answer D is correct. For the exam you want to be sure you know the difference between the ultimate attribution error and the group attribution error, which are sometimes confused because they both address attributions made about groups rather than individuals. The ultimate attribution error occurs when the negative behaviors of members of one’s own in-group are attributed to situational factors while the negative behaviors of members of out-groups are attributed to dispositional factors, and vice versa for positive behaviors. The group attribution error occurs when people believe that an individual group member’s beliefs, attitudes, and preferences are the same as those of all members of the group. Note that the false consensus error (answer B) is actually known as the false consensus effect and is not an attributional bias. It refers to the tendency to overestimate the extent to which other people share our opinions, values, and beliefs.
McGuire’s (1973) attitude inoculation hypothesis addresses the usefulness of __________ for increasing resistance to persuasion.
A. forewarning
B. reactance
C. a supportive defense
D. a refutational defense
D. a refutational defense
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-SOC-Persuasion-002 Answer D is correct. McGuire’s attitude inoculation hypothesis is based on the medical model of immunization and proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to “immunize” people against attempts to change their attitudes. This involves providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments (i.e., a refutational defense) before they’re exposed to a persuasive message.
A structural family therapist is using which of the following techniques when he listens attentively to a family’s communications and then adopts the content of their communications to facilitate his ability to join the family and foster changes in the family structure?
A. mimesis
B. tracking
C. enactment
D. maintenance
B. tracking
EPPP-P6-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-009 Answer B is correct. Tracking, mimesis, and maintenance are methods used by structural family therapists to facilitate joining. Tracking involves adopting the content of a family’s communications; mimesis involves adopting the family’s communication, affective, and behavioral style; and maintenance involves providing the family with support.
Risperidone and other second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic drugs are:
A. serotonin agonists and dopamine antagonists.
B. serotonin antagonists and dopamine agonists.
C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists.
D. serotonin and dopamine agonists.
C. serotonin and dopamine antagonists.
EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-013 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question you have to know (a) that second-generation antipsychotics exert their effects by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors and (b) that an antagonist blocks the effects of a neurotransmitter and an agonist increases or mimics the effects of a neurotransmitter.
Balancing on one foot for three seconds, catching a ball with stiff arms, and pedaling a tricycle are skills that are usually first evident when toddlers are between ________ months of age.
A. 18 and 23
B. 24 and 30
C. 31 and 36
D. 37 and 42
C. 31 and 36
EPPP-P6-LIF-Physical Development-011 Answer C is correct. Reported ages at which gross motor milestones are first evident vary somewhat from author to author, but most identify the skills listed in this question as being acquired when a child is between 31 and 36 months of age.
You have developed a new selection test for your client, the Acme Company, to help the company make better hiring decisions. After administering the test to samples of job applicants and current employees, you decide to raise the test’s cutoff score. Doing so will have which of the following effects?
A. It will increase the number of false negatives and true positives.
B. It will decrease the number of false negatives and false positives.
C. It will increase the number of true positives and decrease the number of false negatives.
D. It will decrease the number of false positives and increase the number of true negatives.
D. It will decrease the number of false positives and increase the number of true negatives.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-008 Answer D is correct. This is a difficult question and, to identify the correct answer, you need to know that raising the predictor (selection test) cutoff score will result in fewer applicants being hired. This decreases the number of true and false positives (which eliminates answers A and C) and increases the number of true and false negatives (which eliminates answer B).
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease ordinarily has an:
A. insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
B. insidious onset that’s followed by a gradual progression of impairment.
C. acute onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
D. acute onset that’s followed by a gradual progression of impairment.
A. insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-009 Answer A is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is categorized in DSM-5 as neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease. Like other neurocognitive disorders due to prion disease, it typically has an insidious onset that’s followed by a rapid decline in functioning.
The most likely diagnosis for your new client is schizotypal personality disorder if the client:
A. says he has few friends because he’s concerned about being abandoned or betrayed by other people.
B. says he doesn’t gain any pleasure from spending time with people and he seems to prefer being alone.
C. says he’d like to have friends but he’s very uncomfortable around people and he seems uninterested in taking steps to develop friendships.
D. says he “has lots of friends” but he can’t name any friends or describe any social events that he participates in.
C. says he’d like to have friends but he’s very uncomfortable around people and he seems uninterested in taking steps to develop friendships.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Personality Disorders-008 Answer C is correct. As described in the DSM-5, people with schizotypal personality disorder have a “pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as by cognitive distortions and eccentricities of behavior” (p. 655). The DSM-5 also notes that people with this disorder may express unhappiness about not having friends but their behavior indicates a lack of interest in developing friendships.
Penfield (1974) found that electrical stimulation of certain areas of the __________ lobes elicited memories of events that were so vivid that patients felt they were actually experiencing the events.
A. frontal
B. occipital
C. parietal
D. temporal
D. temporal
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-004 Answer D is correct. Penfield discovered the effects of electrical stimulation of certain areas of the temporal lobes while performing surgery on patients to control their severe epilepsy. The memories elicited by this stimulation were vivid and highly detailed, and the same memory could be repeatedly elicited by stimulating the same area.
Physical and psychological fidelity are associated with which of the following?
A. the principle of identical elements
B. the principle of equipotentiality
C. time and motion studies
D. overlearning
A. the principle of identical elements
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-Training Methods and Evaluation-ORG-017 Answer A is correct. According to the principle of identical elements, the more similar the training and work situations are, the greater the transfer of training. Identical elements is also known as physical and psychological fidelity: Physical fidelity refers to the extent to which the physical training and work conditions are similar, while psychological fidelity refers to the degree to which training addresses the KSAOs (knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics) needed to perform the job satisfactorily. [The principle of equipotentiality (answer B) is another name for the principle of multifinality and predicts that systems can achieve dissimilar outcomes when they have the same starting point.]
It’s common for children of immigrants to act as language brokers. Research on the effects of language brokering has found that it has:
A. positive effects on the child but negative effects on the parent-child relationship.
B. negative effects on the child but positive effects on the parent-child relationship.
C. positive effects on the child and the parent-child relationship.
D. both positive and negative effects on the child and the parent-child relationship.
D. both positive and negative effects on the child and the parent-child relationship.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-Language Development-015 Answer D is correct. As defined by A. Morales, O. F. Yakushko, and A. J. Castro, language brokering “is the act of translating and interpreting within immigrant families by children and adolescents for their parents, other family members, and other adults” [Language brokering among Mexican-immigrant families in the Midwest: A multiple case study, The Counseling Psychologist, 40(4), 520-553, 2012]. Studies on the effects of language brokering have produced mixed results. For example, with regard to the parent-child relationship, language brokering has been linked to a greater sense of connection between the child and his/her parents but also to role reversals within the family that force the parents to become overly dependent on the child [e.g., A. J. Umana-Taylor, Language brokering as a stressor for immigrant children and their families, in M. Coleman and L. Ganong (Eds.), Points and counterpoints: Controversial relationship and family issues in the 21st century (pp. 157-159), Los Angeles, Roxbury, 2002].
A therapist asks clients what they want and desire and what they’re doing to fulfill their wants and desires and then helps them evaluate the effectiveness of their behaviors and develop a plan of action. This therapist is a practitioner of which of the following?
A. reality therapy
B. Gestalt therapy
C. personal construct therapy
D. acceptance and commitment therapy
A. reality therapy
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-008 Answer A is correct. R. Wubbolding developed the WDEP system to describe the cycle of reality therapy. This system consists of four components: wants, doing, evaluation, and plan (Using reality therapy, New York, Harper & Row, 1988).
According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, __________ appraisal occurs when a person determines what resources he or she has to cope with a stressful event.
A. central
B. peripheral
C. primary
D. secondary
D. secondary
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Emotions and Stress-005 Answer D is correct. Cognitive appraisal theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal: primary appraisal, secondary appraisal, and reappraisal. It proposes that the immediate response to an external event is primary appraisal, which involves determining if the event is relevant and, if so, whether it’s nonstressful or stressful. If the event is stressful, the person then engages in secondary appraisal, which involves determining what personal and environmental resources he/she has to help cope with the event.
Overcorrection consists of restitution and positive practice, which can be used alone or together. Positive practice is most similar to which of the following?
A. chaining
B. negative punishment
C. discrimination training
D. habit reversal training
D. habit reversal training
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-002 Answer D is correct. Positive practice involves having the individual practice appropriate behaviors that are alternatives to his or her inappropriate behavior. Habit reversal training similarly involves eliminating an undesirable behavior by having the individual practice an alternative, usually incompatible, behavior.
For members of cultural groups that emphasize high-context communication:
A. knowledge is transferable and nonverbal messages are most important.
B. knowledge is transferable and verbal messages are most important.
C. knowledge is situational and nonverbal messages are most important.
D. knowledge is situational and verbal messages are most important.
C. knowledge is situational and nonverbal messages are most important.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-021 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, for members of cultural groups that emphasize high-context communication, knowledge depends largely on the nature of the situation and communication relies primarily on nonverbal messages. In contrast, for members of cultural groups that emphasize low-context communication, knowledge depends less on the situation and, instead, is viewed as something that is easily transferred from one person to another. In addition, communication relies primarily on verbal messages. (Even if the statements about knowledge are unfamiliar or confusing, a good “guess” would have been to choose answer C because “situational” seems compatible with the importance of the context for high-context communications.)
The studies suggest that children exhibit the greatest number of internalizing and externalizing behaviors and other problems when their divorced parents remarry when the children are:
A. between five and eight years old.
B. between nine and 12 years old.
C. in early adolescence.
D. in late adolescence.
C. in early adolescence.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-006 Answer C is correct. The research has found that children’s adjustment to parental remarriage is affected by several factors including the child’s age, with the poorest adjustment occurring when children are in early adolescence at the time a parent remarries. Note that there’s also evidence that, with regard to gender, girls often exhibit more adjustment problems than boys do following the remarriage of their parents. See, e.g., E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage: A focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology, 7, 39-56, 1993.
A person whose primary symptom is psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (PNES) is most likely to receive which of the following diagnoses?
A. dissociative fugue
B. phencyclidine use disorder
C. functional neurological symptom disorder
D. obstructive sleep apnea
C. functional neurological symptom disorder
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders–014 Answer C is correct. Functional neurological symptom disorder (formerly conversion disorder) is characterized by one or more symptoms that involve a disturbance in voluntary motor or sensory functioning, with symptoms being incompatible with any known neurological or medical condition. It can involve psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES) that resemble true epileptic seizures in terms of behavioral symptoms but are not accompanied by the brain electrical activity associated with true epileptic seizures. [Note that obstructive sleep apnea can trigger seizures, but these seizures (unlike PNES) are true seizures that are associated with abnormal brain electrical activity.]
A barrier to using cost benefit analysis is that:
A. it’s often difficult to express the outcomes of mental health programs in monetary terms.
B. it doesn’t permit comparisons of programs that have different types of costs.
C. it’s often difficult to obtain the information needed to calculate quality of adjusted life-years (QALYs).
D. it cannot be used when the outcomes of the programs being compared are not directly comparable.
A. it’s often difficult to express the outcomes of mental health programs in monetary terms.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-015 Answer A is correct. When using cost benefit analysis to compare two or more programs, a cost/benefit ratio is calculated for each program and the ratios are compared. This means that the costs and benefits (outcomes) of the programs must be expressed in monetary terms, which is often difficult to do. For example, it would be difficult to assign a dollar value to life satisfaction. Answer B can be eliminated because cost benefit analysis can be used when programs have different types of costs because the total monetary (dollar) cost – not the types of costs – is used to calculate a cost-benefit ratio for each program being evaluated. Answer C can be eliminated because cost benefit analysis does not require the calculation of QALYs. Therefore, the inability to calculate QALYs is not a barrier to its use. (Cost utility analysis is useful for comparing the effects of two or more interventions on QALYs). Answer D can be eliminated because the outcomes of the programs being compared are converted to monetary (dollar) values, which are directly comparable.
A test developer is calculating a test’s __________ when she divides the number of true positives identified by the test by the number of true positives plus false negatives.
A. sensitivity
B. specificity
C. positive predictive value
D. negative predictive value
A. sensitivity
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-007 Answer A is correct. Sensitivity is the proportion of people with a disorder who are identified by a test as having the disorder. It’s calculated by dividing the true positives identified by the test by the true positives plus the false negatives (TP/TP + FN).
The initial session of strategic family therapy consists of four stages, the first of which involves:
A. describing the nature of strategic family therapy to family members.
B. welcoming family members and helping members feel comfortable.
C. joining with the family and accommodating to its style.
D. eliciting each family member’s view of the family’s problems.
B. welcoming family members and helping members feel comfortable.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-025 Answer B is correct. Answers B and D describe the first and second stages, respectively, of strategic family therapy and are referred to as the social stage and problem stage. The third and fourth stages are the interactional stage (during which the therapist has family members discuss the family’s problem to determine how they interact when doing so) and the goal-setting stage (during which the therapist helps family members agree on a definition of the family’s problem and on concrete therapy goals that target the problem). Describing the nature of strategic family therapy to family members (answer A) is not part of the social stage of strategic family therapy. The three main phases of structural family therapy are joining the family and accommodating to its style (answer C), evaluating the family’s structure to make a structural diagnosis, and intervening to transform the family’s structure.
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements about denying tenure or promotion to employees who have made or are the subjects of an ethics complaint?
A. Psychologists may deny tenure or promotion to an employee who is the complainant or respondent in a pending ethics complaint.
B. Psychologists may deny tenure or promotion to an employee who is the respondent (but not the complainant) in a pending ethics complaint.
C. Psychologists may deny tenure or promotion to an employee who is the respondent (but not the complainant) in a pending ethics complaint as long as they reconsider the tenure or promotion decision if the employee is acquitted.
D. Psychologists may not deny tenure or promotion to an employee solely because that employee is the complainant or respondent in a pending ethics complaint.
D. Psychologists may not deny tenure or promotion to an employee solely because that employee is the complainant or respondent in a pending ethics complaint.
EPPP-P6-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-001 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed by Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 1.08 prohibits psychologists from denying a person employment, tenure, or promotion solely because the person has filed or is the subject of an ethics complaint.
Changing alpha from .01 to .05 has which of the following effects?
A. It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false.
B. It decreases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and increases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false.
C. It decreases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is false and increases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is true.
D. It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is false and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is true.
A. It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-007 Answer A is correct. A change in alpha from .01 to .05 is an increase in alpha, and an increase in alpha makes it easier to reject the null hypothesis whether it’s actually true or false. When this occurs, a researcher is more likely to make a Type I error (reject a true null hypothesis) and, conversely, less likely to make a Type II error (retain a false null hypothesis).
Data collected from the U.S. Medicare Outcome Survey (Jia & Lubetkin, 2020) confirmed that, for individuals between 65 and 95 years of age, the estimated life expectancy in years was longest for:
A. married women.
B. married men.
C. never married women.
D. never married men.
A. married women.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LIF-School and Family Influences-020 Answer A is correct. The longitudinal U.S. Medicare Health Outcome Survey (HOS) confirmed the results of other studies that have found that women tend to live longer than men do and that, for both genders, married people tend to live longer than never married people do. For example, the HOS found that, for people 65 years of age, the life expectancy for married women was 21.1 years, for never married women was 19.3 years, for married men was 18.6 years, and for never married men was 16.2 years.
As described by Helms (1995), each stage of White racial identity development involves a different information processing strategy (IPS). For example, the IPS for the __________ status is suppression of information and ambivalence.
A. contact
B. pseudoindependence
C. immersion/emersion
D. disintegration
D. disintegration
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-011 Answer D is correct. Helms’s model of White racial identity development distinguishes between six identity statuses, and each status is characterized by a different information processing strategy (IPS). Disintegration is the second status in this model, and its IPS is suppression of information and ambivalence [J. E. Helms, An update of Helms’s White and people of color racial identity models, in J. G. Ponterotto, J. M. Casas, L. A. Suzuki, and C. M. Alexander (Eds.), Handbook of multicultural counseling (pp. 181-191), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE, 1995].
Which of the following is not included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of a panic attack?
A. a sense of that one’s feelings and thoughts do not belong to oneself
B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli
C. concern about losing control of one’s mental functions
D. tingling or other abnormal dermal sensation
B. increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-028 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to notice that it’s asking which symptom is not included in the DSM-5 as a symptom of a panic attack. The symptoms listed in answers A, C, and D are all included in DSM-5, albeit with slightly different language – i.e., the symptoms listed in DSM-5 include depersonalization (being detached from oneself), fear of losing control or “going crazy,” and paresthesias (numbness or tingling sensations). Increased sensitivity to environmental stimuli is not listed as a characteristic symptom of a panic attack.
An employee of the Acme Company always orders inventory as soon as the level of inventory falls below a specified point. This is an example of:
A. a programmed decision.
B. a nonprogrammed decision.
C. an allocentric decision.
D. an idiocentric decision.
A. a programmed decision.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-019 Answer A is correct. Organizational decisions can be categorized as programmed or nonprogrammed: Programmed decisions are repetitive and routine and are governed by rules, policies, and procedures, while nonprogrammed decisions are non-repetitive and complex and rely on the decision-maker’s judgment and problem-solving skills. Automatically ordering inventory when the level of inventory falls below a certain point is an example of a programmed decision. The terms allocentric and idiocentric (answers C and D) are not relevant to decision-making but are applied to several phenomena including personality: A person with an allocentric personality is group centered, while a person with an idiocentric personality is self-centered.
Leader-member exchange (LMX) theory is based on the assumption that:
A. leaders who ensure that each subordinate’s job satisfies the subordinate’s prepotent needs are the most effective leaders.
B. leaders who adopt a relations-oriented (participative) leadership style are the most effective leaders.
C. leaders adopt different behaviors with different subordinates and these behaviors depend on the quality of the leader-subordinate relationship.
D. leaders adopt different behaviors with different subordinates and these behaviors are determined by the subordinate’s willingness to be a “team player.”
C. leaders adopt different behaviors with different subordinates and these behaviors depend on the quality of the leader-subordinate relationship.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-Organizational Leadership-ORG-011 Answer C is correct. LMX theory is based on the assumption that leaders treat different subordinates differently, depending on the quality of the interactions between the leader and each subordinate. More specifically, it proposes that subordinates are treated as in-group or out-group members based on whether or not the leader perceives them as being competent, trustworthy, and willing to assume responsibility: In-group members have high-quality relationships with their leaders, while out-group members have low-quality relationships with their leaders.
Damage to the __________ is often fatal because of its role in the regulation of breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, and other vital functions.
A. globus pallidus
B. caudate nucleus
C. medulla oblongata
D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
C. medulla oblongata
EPPP-P6-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-002 Answer C is correct. The medulla oblongata is part of the hindbrain. Because it regulates a number of vital life functions, damage can result in death.
Some college students without ADHD take methylphenidate and other stimulant drugs to improve their attention and concentration while studying and thereby improve their grades. Research on the nonmedical use of stimulant drugs by students without ADHD suggests that they have:
A. positive effects on attention, mood, and GPA.
B. positive effects on attention and mood but no beneficial effects on GPA.
C. no effects on attention and mood but a beneficial effect or no effect on GPA.
D. no effects on attention, mood, or GPA.
B. positive effects on attention and mood but no beneficial effects on GPA.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-012 Answer B is correct. The research is not entirely consistent, but the best conclusion that can be drawn from the existing research is that, for college students who do not have ADHD and take psychostimulants to improve their cognitive functioning, these drugs have positive effects on attention and mood but no beneficial effect on GPA. See, e.g., A. M. Arria et al., Do college students improve their grades by using prescription stimulants nonmedically?, Addictive Behaviors, 65, 245-249, 2017; L. L. Weyandt, et al., Neurocognitive, autonomic, and mood effects of Adderall: A pilot study of healthy college students, Pharmacy, 6(3), 58, 2018.
In a factor matrix, a communality indicates the proportion of variability:
A. in multiple tests that’s accounted for by a single identified factor.
B. in multiple tests that’s accounted for by all of the identified factors.
C. in a single test that’s accounted for by a single identified factor.
D. in a single test that’s accounted for by all of the identified factors.
D. in a single test that’s accounted for by all of the identified factors.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-012 Answer D is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to know that a communality indicates the amount of variability in each test included in the factor analysis that’s explained by all of the identified factors. Alternatively, knowing that each test in a factor matrix has its own communality would have helped you eliminate answers A and B. Then, knowing that it’s a factor loading (not a communality) that indicates the proportion of variability in a single test that’s accounted for by a single factor would have helped you eliminate answer C.
Which of the following is not one of the factors identified by the Health Belief Model as contributing to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk that he/she will develop a disorder?
A. self-efficacy
B. perceived barriers
C. behavioral norms
D. cues to action
C. behavioral norms
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-007 Answer C is correct. The Health Belief Model identifies the following factors as contributors to the likelihood that a person will engage in behaviors that reduce the risk for developing a disorder: perceived susceptibility to the disorder, perceived severity of the consequences of having the disorder, perceived benefits of taking action, perceived barriers to taking action, self-efficacy, and cues to action.
Based on a review of psychotherapy outcome studies, Hans Eysenck (1952) concluded that:
A. 72% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment.
B. 66% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment.
C. 72% of patients with neuroses who received psychoanalytic psychotherapy can be expected to show little or no improvement in symptoms.
D. 66% of patients with neuroses who received eclectic psychotherapy can be expected to show little or no improvement in symptoms.
A. 72% of patients with neuroses can be expected to experience spontaneous recovery without treatment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-004 Answer A is correct. Based on his review of 24 psychotherapy outcome studies, Eysenck concluded that 72% of untreated patients, 66% of patients receiving eclectic psychotherapy, and 44% of patients receiving psychoanalytic psychotherapy experienced a substantial decrease in symptoms. In other words, many untreated patients were better off than the treated patients, and he attributed the improvement of untreated patients to spontaneous recovery.
When visual or auditory hints or cues that are used to help students recall information are gradually reduced, this is referred to as:
A. thinning.
B. fading.
C. shaping.
D. chaining.
B. fading.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-LEA-Operant Conditioning-011 Answer B is correct. Fading is sometimes confused with thinning (answer A): However, the gradual removal of visual or auditory hints or cues (prompts) is referred to as fading, while the reduction of reinforcers is referred to as thinning.
Ridley’s (1984) concept of “healthy cultural paranoia” is useful for understanding:
A. why a Black high school student deliberately tries to get low grades.
B. why a Black high school student puts in extra work to ensure she gets the highest grades in all of her classes.
C. why a Black therapy client resists disclosing personal information to a White therapist.
D. why a Black therapy client prefers to see a White therapist than a Black therapist.
C. why a Black therapy client resists disclosing personal information to a White therapist.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-005 Answer C is correct. Ridley proposed that the unwillingness of Black therapy clients to disclose personal information to a White therapist is an adaptive coping mechanism (“healthy cultural paranoia”) when it’s due to cultural distrust that’s based on past experiences with prejudice and discrimination.
According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is usually between the ages of:
A. 4 and 6 years.
B. 6 and 8 years.
C. 8 and 10 years.
D. 10 and 12 years.
A. 4 and 6 years.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-P6-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-016 Answer A is correct. According to the DSM-5, the onset of tics is typically between 4 and 6 years of age, with the severity of tics ordinarily peaking between 10 and 12 years of age.
