Exam 6- Ch. 15-19 Flashcards
1
Q
What is a communicable disease?
A
A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another
2
Q
What is the difference between an epidemic and a pandemic?
A. an epidemic is a spread of disease on a global scale, a pandemic is a spread of disease that exceeded what was expected
B. an epidemic is a spread of disease that exceeded what was expected, a pandemic is a spread of disease on a global scale
C. there is no difference
D. epidemic is what the spread of disease is if it has lasted less than a year, a pandemic is the spread of disease after the one year mark
A
B. an epidemic is a spread of disease that exceeded what was expected, a pandemic is a spread of disease on a global scale
3
Q
__% of people carrying herpes simplex are asymptomatic.
A
80
4
Q
What are signs and symptoms of meningitis? (5)
A
- fever
- headache
- altered mental status
- stiff neck
- red blotches on skin
5
Q
What is the medical term for hives?
A
Urticaria
6
Q
What 3 conditions are the result of an allergic reaction to an inhaled, ingested, or injected substance?
A
Anaphylaxis, Hay Fever, Asthma
7
Q
Your patient is a 9-year old girl (22kg) that is having an allergic reaction. She is having trouble breathing and has hives on her chest and back. What medication are you giving and what dose?
A
Epi, 0.15 mg
8
Q
What is the FAST mnemonic for assessing a stroke?
A
F- facial droop
A- arm drift
S- speech
T- time
9
Q
How can you test A in the FAST mnemonic for a stroke patient?
A
Ask patient to close their ayes and hold their arms out with palms up
10
Q
What is an aneurysm?
A
A swelling or enlarging of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the blood vessel
11
Q
Aphasia means…
A. absent breathing
B. full loss of language
C. a sensation experienced right before a seizure
D. loss of coordination
A
B. full loss of language
12
Q
What is slurred speech?
A. dysphasia
B. dysphagia
C. dysarthria
D. aphasia
A
C. dysarthria
13
Q
What is difficulty speaking?
A
A. dysphasia
14
Q
What is the incubation period of Hepatitis A?
A. 2-6 weeks
B. 4-12 weeks
C. 2-10 weeks
D. 6-8 weeks
A
A. 2-6 weeks
15
Q
What is the incubation period for Hepatitis B?
A. 6-8 weeks
B. 2-6 weeks
C. 4-12 weeks
D. Within hours of exposure
A
C. 4-12 weeks
16
Q
What is the route of infection for Hepatitis A?
A. Blood, sexual contact
B. Blood, sexual contact, saliva, urine, breast milk
C. Fecal-oral, infected food/drinks
D. IV administration
A
C. Fecal-oral, infected food/drinks
17
Q
What is the normal urine output for an adult?
A. 1-2 liters per day
B. 1.5-2 liters per day
C. 2 liters per day
D. 2-2.5 liters per day
A
B. 1.5-2 liters per day
18
Q
Where in the lungs does respiration occur?
A. capillaries
B. alveoli
C. bronchioles
D. bronchi
A
B. alveoli
19
Q
What are the 2 processes that occur during respiration?
A. ventilation and diffusion.
B. inspiration and expiration.
C. diffusion and oxygenation.
D. oxygenation and ventilation.
A
B. inspiration and expiration.
20
Q
In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
A
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
21
Q
The brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of:
A. increased oxygen levels.
B. decreased oxygen levels.
C. increased carbon dioxide levels.
D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.
A
C. increased carbon dioxide levels.
22
Q
When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:
A. the brain stem inhibits respirations.
B. respirations increase in rate and depth.
C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation.
D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.
A
B. respirations increase in rate and depth.
23
Q
What is hypoxic drive?
A
A condition in which chronically low levels of o2 in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; seen in patients with COPD
24
Q
Solid organs bleed more because they are more ___________.
A
Vascular
25
What is the onset of menstruation called?
Menarche
26
What is ileus?
Paralysis of the bowel
27
What are the main organs that lie in the retroperitoneal space?
Kidneys and pancreas
28
What are the 3 major parts of the brain?
Cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem
29
What part of the brain controls basic functions like breathing?
spinal cord
30
What part of the brain controls emotions?
Cerebrum
31
What part of the brain controls vision?
Cerebellum
32
What is one major sign that someone is having a a hemorrhagic stroke?
Severe headache
33
What is the major difference between a TIA and a CVA?
The signs/symptoms of a TIA will resolve within 24 hours
34
What are the 3 things that can mimic a stoke?
- hypoglycemia
- postictal state
- subdural or epidural bleed
35
What is bell's palsy and why is it important in regards to stroke assessments?
Bell's palsy is an unexplained episode of facial weakness of paralysis. Can mimic the facial drooping caused by a stroke
36
When writing a narrative for a patient with chest pain, what should the EMT do?
A. Use the patients own words
B. Underline things said by the patient
C. Paraphrase what the patient said
D. Don't use quotes
A. Use the patients own words
37
Sudden death following an AMI is most often caused by?
A. CHF
B. V-fib
C. V-tach
D. Dissecting aneurysm
B. V-fib
38
What are the 2 processes that happen in respiration?
inspiration and expiration
39
When doing a secondary assessment on a non-traumatic patient with abdominal pain, you should:
A. Make a transport decision
B. Focus on the chief complaint
C. Repeat primary assessment
D. Call ALS
B. Focus on the chief complaint
40
Asthma is a response to what system?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Respiratory
C. Immunologic
D. Endocrine
C. Immunologic
41
What does virulence mean?
The strength or ability of a pathogen to produce a disease
42
Hepatitis B is more __________ than Hepatitis C.
virulent
43
What are the 3 things that the brain needs to survive?
Temp, sugar, oxygen
44
A 40 year old patient without a history of seizures experiences generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:
A. Epilepsy
B. A brain tumor
C. Intracranial bleeding
D. A serious infection
A. Epilepsy
45
What is a generalized seizure?
A seizure that results from abnormal electrical discharges from large areas of the brain, involving both hemispheres; characterized by unconsciousness and a generalized severe twitching of all the body's muscles that last several minutes or longer
46
What is a focal seizure?
A seizure that begins in one part of the brain.
47
Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?
A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
48
What is angina pectoris?
Chest pain caused by the lack of blood and oxygen
49
Where does respiration occur?
Alveoli
50
What is the average SpO2 for COPD patients?
90-94%
51
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy if he or she.
A. Is older than 60 years of age
B. Has bleeding within the brain.
C. Has had a prior heart attack.
D. Has a GCS score that is less than 8.
B. Has bleeding within the brain.
52
Components of the Cincinnati pre-hospital Stroke Scale include:
A. Speech, pupil, and memory
B. Facial droop, speech, and pupil size.
C. Arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
D. Arm drift, memory, and grip strength
C. Arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
53
You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:
a) instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test.
b) repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward.
c) defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.
d) repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself.
d) repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself.
54
Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:
A. Pancreas.
B. Kidneys.
C. Brain.
D. Liver
D. Liver
55
Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum.
C. Cerebrum.
D. Cerebral cortex.
B. Cerebellum.
56
Status epilepticus is characterized by:
A. Profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.
B. An absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura.
C. Prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
D. Generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes.
C. Prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
57
The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:
A. Foramen magnum.
B. Vertebral foramen.
C. Foramen lamina.
D. Cauda equina.
A. Foramen magnum.
58
When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:
A. Respiratory distress.
B. A seizure.
C. An acute stroke.
D. A febrile convulsion.
B. A seizure.
59
Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?
A. Confusion and weakness.
B. Unilateral hemiparesis.
C. Sudden, severe headache.
D. Nasal discharge of blood
C. Sudden, severe headache.
60
Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?
A. Block cerebral artery in the frontal lobe.
B. Ruptured cerebral artery and the occipital lobe.
C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest.
D. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest.
61
Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?
A. Normal level of consciousness.
B. Generalized twitching of all muscles.
C. Absence of breathing.
D. No change in Vision, smell, or taste.
A. Normal level of Consciousness.
62
Which of the following most accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?
A. Rupture of a cerebral artery.
B. Blockage of a cerebral artery.
C. Narrowing of a carotid artery.
D. Acute atherosclerotic disease.
B. Blockage of a cerebral artery.
63
A 58 year-old male presents with confusion, right sided weakness, and slurred speech. His airways patent, and his breathing is adequate. His wife is present and is very upset. Which of the following has the MOST immediate priority?
A. Asking his wife when she noticed the symptoms.
B. Obtaining a complete set of baseline vital signs.
C. Administering glucose to rule out hypoglycemia
D. Documenting all of his current medications
A. Asking his wife when she noticed the symptoms.
64
Law enforcement has summoned you to a nightclub, where a 22 year old female was found unconscious in an adjacent alley. Your primary assessment reveals that her respirations are rapid and shallow and her pulse is rapid and weak. She is wearing a medical alert bracelet that identifies her as an epileptic. There is an empty bottle of vodka next to the patient. You should:
A. Place a Bite Block in her mouth in case she has a seizure and transport at once
B. Apply oxygen via a non rebreathing mask and transport her for a blood alcohol test.
C. Apply oxygen via a non rebreathing mask, Place her on her left side, and transport
D. Assist ventilations, perform a rapid exam, and prepare for immediate transport
D. Assist ventilations, perform a rapid exam, and prepare for immediate transport
65
Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, except:
A. Cerebral vasodilation.
B. An acute arterial rupture.
C. An embolism.
D. A thrombus.
A. Cerebral vasodilation.
66
Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are MOST indicative of:
A. pancreatitis.
B. appendicitis.
C. cholecystitis.
D. gastroenteritis.
B. appendicitis.
67
Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct?
A. In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe.
B. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.
C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely.
B. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.
68
Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?
A. cystitis
B. hepatitis
C. pancreatitis
D. cholecystitis
A. cystitis
69
A strangulated hernia is one that:
A. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.
B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.
C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.
D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.
70
Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:
A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
C. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles
A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
71
30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:
A. protect her airway from aspiration.
B. keep her supine and elevate her legs.
C. rapidly transport her to the hospital.
D. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.
A. protect her airway from aspiration.
72
When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:
A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.
B. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.
C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition.
D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.
A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.
73
A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to:
A. transport him in a supine position.
B. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy.
D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.
B. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
74
A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should:
A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity.
B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.
C. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.
D. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.
B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.
75
You are transporting a 49-year-old male with "tearing" abdominal pain. You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During your reassessment, you determine that the patient's condition has deteriorated significantly. You should:
A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
B. immediately perform a rapid physical examination.
C. continue transporting and alert the receiving hospital.
D. consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.
D. consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.
76
Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?
A. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.
B. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis.
C. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.
D. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.
C. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.
77
Peritonitis, with associated fluid loss, is the result of:
A. abnormal shift of fluid from body tissue into the bloodstream.
B. abnormal shift of fluid from bloodstream into body tissue.
C. normal shift of fluid form body tissue into the bloodstream.
D. normal shift of fluid bloodstream into body tissue.
B. abnormal shift of fluid from bloodstream into body tissue.
78
Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________.
A. associated symptoms
B. field diagnosis
C. medical history
D. nature of illness
D. nature of illness
79
Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________.
A. abdominal pain
B. a fever
C. a low blood glucose level
D. seizures
B. a fever
80
Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses?
A. Whooping cough
B. H1N1
C. MRSA
D. HIV
C. MRSA
81
You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
C. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
D. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
82
The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:
A. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known.
B. after the primary assessment has been completed.
C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.
B. after the primary assessment has been completed.
83
In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?
A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs
B. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away
C. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration
D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes
D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes
84
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
A. contact medical control.
B. take standard precautions.
C. quickly access the patient.
D. notify law enforcement.
B. take standard precautions.
85
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.
B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.
C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.
D. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
D. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
86
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
B. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
C. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
87
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:
A. is less resistant to treatment.
B. is a more contagious type of disease.
C. has a greater ability to produce disease.
D. leads to chronic infection after exposure.
C. has a greater ability to produce disease.
88
You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a:
A. medical emergency.
B. trauma emergency.
C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.
D. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency.
C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.
89
In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:
A. pandemics.
B. epidemics.
C. uncontrolled outbreaks.
D. parasitic infection
A. pandemics.
90
Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:
A. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.
B. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment.
C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
D. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.
C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
91
In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve:
A. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate.
B. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.
C. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused.
D. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time.
B. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.
92
When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should:
A. focus on his or her chief complaint.
B. examine the patient from head to toe.
C. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.
D. prepare the patient for transport first.
A. focus on his or her chief complaint.
93
Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?
A. Jugular venous distention
B. Palpable pain to the epigastrium
C. Unequal breath sounds
D. Use of the accessory muscles
A. Jugular venous distention
94
Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:
A. reviewing all treatment performed.
B. taking another set of vital signs.
C. repeating the primary assessment.
D. reassessing the nature of illness.
C. repeating the primary assessment.
95
Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?
A. acetaminophen.
B. ibuprofen.
C. aspirin.
D. nitrostat.
B. ibuprofen
96
In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis:
A. is a far more transmittable disease.
B. typically does not cause yellow skin.
C. can be prevented with a vaccination.
D. is not a communicable disease.
D. is not a communicable disease.
97
Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia?
A. pleural effusion
B. severe anxiety
C. pulmonary edema
D. prolonged seizures
B. severe anxiety
98
At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:
A. audible stridor.
B. rales and rhonchi.
C. profound cyanosis.
D. expiratory wheezing.
D. expiratory wheezing.
99
A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:
A. albuterol.
B. epinephrine.
C. an antihistamine.
D. a beta-antagonist.
B. epinephrine
100
A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. rupture of the diaphragm
B. exacerbation of his COPD
C. acute pulmonary embolism
D. spontaneous pneumothorax
D. spontaneous pneumothorax
101
A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
A. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
C. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
D. a fluid accumulation inside the lung.
C. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
102
A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations:
A. slow and deep.
B. deep and rapid.
C. slow and shallow.
D. rapid and shallow.
B. deep and rapid
103
Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:
A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream.
C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.
D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.
A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
104
Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
A. altered mental status and bradycardia.
B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech.
C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea.
D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.
105
You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:
A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
B. apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs.
C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
D. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.
A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
106
A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should:
A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing.
B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine.
C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment.
D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.
D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.
107
Albuterol is a generic name for:
A. Alupent.
B. Atrovent.
C. Proventil.
D. Singulair.
D. Proventil.
108
A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:
A. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag.
B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug.
D. position her on her left side and transport at once.
B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
109
A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:
A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing.
B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.
D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.
B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
110
A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?
A. Acute myocardial infarction.
B. Uncontrolled hypertension.
C. Obstructive lung disease.
D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm.
A. Acute myocardial infarction.
111
A patient with atherosclerotic heart diseases experiences chest pain during exertion because:
A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in the myocardial blood flow.
D. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
D. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
112
The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:
A. bundle of His.
B. atrioventricular node.
C. coronary sinus.
D. sinoatrial node.
D. sinoatrial node
113
Angina pectoris occurs when:
A. myocardial oxygen demands exceed supply.
B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
A. myocardial oxygen demands exceed supply.
114
The ______ ___ ___________ is your awareness of and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illnesses
index of suspicion
115
Patients with altered mental status should be considered ______ ________ when determining transport options.
high priority
116
66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:
A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
C. giver her high-flow oxygen, attached the AED, and transport at once.
D. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
D. administer oxygen, giver her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
117
Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
A. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min.
B. Syncope or dizziness.
C. Generalized weakness.
D. A rapid heart rate.
D. A rapid heart rate.
118
A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:
A. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.
B. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.
C. remove the battery from the monitor then remove the vest.
D. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.
C. remove the battery from the monitor then remove the vest.
119
In contrast to an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD), an external defibrillator vest:
A. delivers high-energy shocks, similar to an AED.
B. does not require the EMT to stand clear when it shocks.
C. does not warn when a shock is about to be delivered.
D. will only deliver a shock if ventricular fibrillation occurs.
A. delivers high-energy shocks, similar to an AED.
120
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
A. right atrium.
B. left ventricle.
C. right ventricle.
D. left atrium.
A. right atrium.
121
Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on impedance, which is the:
A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.
B. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.
C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver
D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
122
Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Dependent edema
C. Flat jugular veins
D. Labored breathing
B. Dependent edema
123
The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because:
A. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it.
B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation.
C. its use does not require the presence of advanced life support personnel.
D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy.
B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation.
124
Defibrillator pads are placed on the patient's chest:
A. with one pad to the left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the left nipple.
B. with one pad to the right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the right nipple.
C. with one pad to the left of the upper sternum and the other pad to the right lower chest below the armpit.
D. with one pad to the right of the upper sternum and the other pad to the left lower chest below the armpit.
D. with one pad to the right of the upper sternum and the other pad to the left lower chest below the armpit.
125
Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called:
A. angina pectoris.
B. arteriosclerosis.
C. acute ischemia.
D. atherosclerosis.
D. atherosclerosis.
126
You and your partner have achieved ROSC in a patient who was in cardiac arrest. An ALS unit will arrive in less than 2 minutes. The patient remains unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. Further treatment for this patient should include:
A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min and immediate transport.
B. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway and positioning him on his side.
C. elevation of his lower extremities and covering him with warm blankets.
D. BVM ventilation at 10-12 breaths/min and assessment of oxygen saturation.
D. BVM ventilation at 10-12 breaths/min and assessment of oxygen saturation.
127
A 66-year-old woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 minutes ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive medications. When you assess her, you find that her blood pressure is significantly higher in her left arm than it is in her right arm. What do these signs and symptoms MOST likely indicate?
A. Unstable angina
B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Hypertensive emergency
B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
128
Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output?
A. Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume
B. Decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate
C. Decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume
D. Decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
A. Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume
129
Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?
A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Pulmonary veins
D. Pulmonary veins
130
Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Aspirin
C. Oxygen
D. Metoprolol (Toprol)
B. Aspirin
131
Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet or spray?
A. Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness.
B. Place the medication under the tongue and let it dissolve.
C. Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb.
D. Wait 15 minutes and reassess the patient's blood pressure prior to administering another dose.
B. Place the medication under the tongue and let it dissolve.
132
A patient with a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) tells you that the device's pump flow is continuous. Which of the following should you expect to encounter during your assessment?
A. Absence of a palpable pulse
B. High systolic blood pressure
C. Distention of the jugular veins
D. Low diastolic blood pressure
A. Absence of a palpable pulse
133
You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient's girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes carbamazepine (Tegretol). When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to:
a) determine when he was last seen by his physician.
b) ask her how long the patient has been taking his medication.
c) determine if the patient is a known alcohol abuser.
d) obtain a description of how the seizure developed.
d) obtain a description of how the seizure developed.
134
You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, and is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth. You should:
a) use a bag-mask device to assist her ventilations.
b) insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport.
c) place her on her side and prepare for rapid transport.
d) suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen.
d) suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen.
135
The mental status of a patient who has experienced a typical seizure:
a) typically does not improve, even after several minutes.
b) is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia.
c) is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.
d) progressively worsens over a period of a few hours.
c) is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.
136
Which of the following is NOT an assessment parameter included in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
a) speech
b) memory
c) arm drift
d) facial droop
b) memory
137
The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia:
a) are typically alert and attempt to communicate with health care providers.
b) always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels.
c) do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body.
d) usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.
d) usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.
138
A patient with an altered mental status is:
a) not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
b) completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.
c) typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.
d) usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.
a) not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
139
An absence seizure is also referred to as a:
a) grand mal seizure.
b) petit mal seizure.
c) total body seizure.
d) generalized motor seizure.
b) petit mal seizure.
140
Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?
a) hyperventilation and hypersalivation
b) a gradually decreasing level of consciousness
c) confusion and fatigue
d) a rapidly improving level of consciousness
c) confusion and fatigue
141
A 29-year-old male complains of a severe headache and nausea that has gradually worsened over the past 12 hours. He is conscious, alert, and oriented and tells you that his physician diagnosed him with migraine headaches. He further tells you that he has taken numerous different medications, but none of them seem to help. His blood pressure is 132/74 mm Hg, his pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 20 breaths/min and adequate. In addition to high-flow oxygen, further treatment should include:
a) assisting him with his migraine medication and transporting without lights and siren.
b) applying warm compresses to the back of his neck and transporting with lights and siren.
c) dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren.
d) placing him in a supine position and transporting with lights and siren to a stroke center.
c) dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren.
142
When transporting a stable stroke patient with unilateral paralysis, it is best to place the patient in a:
a) recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.
b) recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
c) sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle.
d) supine position with the legs elevated 6″ to 12″.
recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
b) recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
143
You are treating a patient who is exhibiting slurred speech, facial droop, and an inability to move his left arm. Which neurologic examination emphasizes these possible stroke signs?
(a) Chicago Prehospital Stroke Scale
(b) 3-Item Stroke Severity Scale
(c) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale
(d) Glasgow Coma Scale
(c) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale
144
What is the incubation period for the Ebola virus?
A. 1 to 3 days after exposure
B. 2 to 6 days after exposure
C. 6 to 12 days after exposure
D. 8 to 10 weeks after exposure
C. 6 to 12 days after exposure
145
The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically:
A. 1 to 2 weeks
B. 5 to 10 weeks
C. 4 to 12 weeks
D. 1 to 10 weeks
C. 4 to 12 weeks
146
Vaccinations are NOT available for which form of hepatitis?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. All forms of hepatitis
C. Hepatitis C
147
What is the difference between pulmonary edema and pulmonary effusion?
Pulmonary edema is fluid inside the lungs, pulmonary effusion is fluid outside the lungs (b/w the tissues that line the lungs)
148
The oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange takes place in the:
A. trachea
B. bronchial tree
C. alveoli
D. blood
C. alveoli
149
Why does the rate of breathing increase when carbon dioxide levels increase?
Because the body is trying to get rid of the excess Co2
150
________ is a sign of hypoxia to the brain.
A. altered mental status
B. decreased pulse rate
C. decreased respiratory rate
D. delayed capillary refill time
A. altered mental status
151
An obstruction to the exchange of gases between the alveoli and the capillaries may result from:
A. epiglottis
B. pneumonia
C. a cold
D. croup
B. pneumonia
152
Pulmonary edema can develop quickly after a major:
Heart attack
153
Pulmonary edema may be produced by:
A. cigarette smoking
B. seasonal allergies
C. inhaling toxic chemical fumes
D. carbon monoxide poisoning
C. inhaling toxic chemical fumes
154
The loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli is known as...?
Emphysema
155
What is the most common form of COPD?
Emphysema
156
__________ allows a cardiac muscle cell to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source.
A. Repetition
B. Reactivity
C. Automaticity
D. Autonomy
C. Automaticity
157
The aorta receives its blood supply from the:
A. right atrium
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle
D. left ventricle
158
Blood enters the right atrium from the body through the:
A. vena cava
B. aorta
C. pulmonary artery
D. pulmonary vein
A. vena cava
159
____ ______ ____ carry oxygen to the body's tissues and then remove carbon dioxide
Red blood cells
160
Atherosclerosis can lead to a complete _________ of a coronary artery.
A. occlusion
B. disintegration
C. dilation
D. contraction
A. occlusion
161
Angina pain may be felt in the:
A. epigastrium
B. legs
C. lower back
D. lower abdomen
A. epigastrium (middle part of the upper abdomen, immediately over the stomach)
162
About ____ minutes after blood flow is cut off, some heart muscle cells begin to die.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
C. 30
163
After about how long will 90% of the heart muscle cells be dead after blood flow is cut off?
4-6 hours
164
Cardiogenic shock often occurs soon after a(n):
A. hypertensive emergency
B. AMI
C. aortic aneurysm
D. unstable angina attack
B. AMI
165
Disorganized, ineffective quivering of the ventricles is known as:
V-fib
166
Which of the following changes in heart function occurs in patients with CHF?
A. a decrease in heart rate
B. enlargement of the left ventricle
C. enlargement of the right ventricle
D. a decrease in BP
B. enlargement of the left ventricle
167
What may a patient experience if the battery in their pacemaker wears out?
Syncope, dizziness, and/or weakness
168
_________ usually refers to a state of cardiac arrest despite an organized electrical complex.
A. asystole
B. pulseless electrical activity
C. V-fib
D. V-tach
B. pulseless electrical activity
169
Defibrillation works best if it takes place within ____ minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 10
A. 2
170
Headaches caused by muscle contractions in the head and neck are typically associated with:
A. sinus headaches
B. migraine headaches
C. compression headaches
D. tension headaches
D. tension headaches
171
What is the loss of bowel and bladder control and can be due to a generalized seizure called?
Incontinence
172
__________ commonly produces symptoms about 30 minutes after a particularly fatty meal and usually at night.
A. A peptic ulcer
B. Cholecystitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Pancreatitis
B. Cholecystitis
173
Pregnancy, straining at stool, and chronic constipation cause increased pressure that could result in:
A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Diverticulitis
C. Hemorrhoids
D. Gallstones
C. Hemorrhoids
174
_______ is responsible for the breakdown of starches into sugar
A. insulin
B. bile
C. amylase
D. bicarbonate
C. amylase
175
Distention of the abdomen is gauged by:
A. visualization
B. auscultation
C. palpation
D. all of the above
A. visualization
176
A hernia that returns to its proper body cavity is __________.
reducible
177
A patient who presents with vomiting, signs of shock, and history of eating disorder is likely to be suffering from:
A. diverticulitis
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. appendicitis
D. cholecystitis
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
178
Severe back pain may be associated with which of the following conditions?
A. AAA
B. PID
C. appendicitis
D. cholecystitis
A. AAA
179
_________ can be caused by an obstructing gallstone, alcohol abuse, and other diseases.
A. appendicitis
B. a peptic ulcer
C. pancreatitis
D. diverticulitis
C. pancreatitis
180
________ occur(s) when there is excess pressure within the portal system and surrounding vessel; it may lead to life-threatening bleeding.
A. esophageal rupture
B. esophageal varices
C. esophageal ulcers
D. esophageal reflux
B. esophageal varices
181
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
A. it filters toxic substances
B. it creates glucose stores
C. it acts as a reservoir for bile
D. it produces substances for blood clotting
C. it acts as a reservoir for bile
182
A patient presents with lower quadrant abdominal pain, tenderness above the pubic bone, and frequent urination with urgency. What is the most likely underlying condition?
A. cholecystitis
B. cystitis
C. gastroenteritis
D. diverticulitis
B. cystitis
183
Infected pouches in the lining of the colon are described as ___________.
diverticulitis
184
Diarrhea is the principal symptom in:
A. gastroenteritis
B. esophagitis
C. pancreatitis
D. peptic ulcers
A. gastroenteritis
185
Bowel inflammation, diverticulitis, and hemorrhoids are common causes of bleeding in the:
A. upper GI tract
B. middle GI tract
C. lower GI tract
D. GI tract
C. lower GI tract
186
A patient complains of heartburn, pain with swallowing, and feeling like an object is stuck in the throat. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. esophageal varices
B. esophagitis
C. peptic ulcer
D. gastroenteritis
B. esophagitis
187
If a patient misses a dialysis treatment, weakness and ______ can be the first in a series of conditions that can become progressively more serious
A. diarrhea
B. rhinorrhea
C. hearing loss
D. edema
D. edema
188
________ regulates the amount of glucose in the bloodstream.
A. bicarbonate
B. amylase
C. insulin
D. bile
C. insulin
189
Regulation of acidity and blood pressure is largely attributed to the:
A. liver
B. kidneys
C. gallbladder
D. pancreas
B. kidneys
190
Which of the following organs is part of the lymphatic system and plays a role in the regulation of red blood cells and the immune system?
A. bladder
B. liver
C. spleen
D. pancreas
C. spleen
191
What is the most important aspect of the scene size-up?
ensuring scene safety
192
You should assess PMS in all of the extremities and check for pupillary reactions if you suspect a(n) __________ problem.
A. cardiovascular
B. endocrine
C. neurologic
D. psychological
C. neurologic
193
Which statement regarding HIV is false?
A. it is not easily transmitted in your work environment
B. it is not considered a hazard when deposited on mucous membranes
C. you should always wear gloves when treating a patient with HIV
D. many patients with HIV do not show any symptoms
B. it is not considered a hazard when deposited on mucous membranes
194
Which of the following statements about tuberculosis is false?
A. it is found in open, uncrowded living spaces
B. it can be found in crowded environments with poor ventilation
C. it is spread through air via droplets
D. the primary infection is typically not serious
A. it is found in open, uncrowded living spaces
195
A blood clot lodged in the pulmonary artery is reffered to as a:
A. AMI
B. stroke
C. pulmonary embolism
D. pulmonary edema
C. pulmonary embolism
196
What does PASTE stand for?
Progression
Associated chest pain?
Sputum
Talking tiredness
Exercise tolerance
197
If CO2 levels drop too low, the person automatically breathes?
A. normally
B. rapid and deep
C. slow and less deep
D. fast and shallow
C. slow and less deep
198
If the level of CO2 in the arterial blood rises above normal, the patient breathes:
A. normally
B. rapid and deep
C. slow and less deep
D. fast and shallow
B. rapid and deep
199
Inflammation and swelling of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea resulting in a "seal bark" is typically caused by ______.
croup
200
Which of the following signs and symptoms will help distinguish COPD from CHF?
A. dyspnea
B. dependent edema
C. wheezing
D. skin color changes
B. dependent edema
201
What is a pneumothorax?
partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space
202
Asthma produces a characteristic _________ as patients attempt to exhale through partially obstructed air passages.
A. rhonchi
B. stridor
C. wheezing
D. rattle
C. wheezing
203
Hyperventilation is defined as...
overbreathing to the point that the level of arterial CO2 falls below normal
204
Contraindications for CPAP include:
A. being alert and able to follow commands
B. a pulse ox reading of less than 90%
C. a respiratory rate greater than 26 breaths per minute
D. hypotension
D. hypotension
205
A prolonged asthma attack that is unrelieved by epi may progress into a condition known as:
A. pleural effusion
B. status epilepticus
C. status asthmaticus
D. reactive airway disease
C. status asthmaticus
206
Influenza is a primarily ________ respiratory disease that has mutated to infect ________.
animal; human
207
An acute spasm of the smaller airways associated with excessive mucus production and swelling is a characteristic of:
A. asthma
B. chronic bronchitis
C. emphysema
D. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
A. asthma
208
Normal electrical impulses originate in the sinus node, in the upper part of the right:
A. atrium
B. ventricle
C. superior vena cava
D. aortic arch
A. atrium
209
Dilation of the coronary arteries _______ blood flow.
A. shuts off
B. increases
C. decreases
D. regulates
B. increases
210
The __________ are tiny blood vessels that are approximately one cell thick.
capillaries
211
___________ blood pressure is the max pressure exerted by the left ventricle as it contracts
systolic
212
The lumen of an artery may be partially or completely blocked by the blood-clotting system due to a ______ that exposes the inside of the atherosclerotic wall.
A. tear
B. crack
C. clot
D. rupture
B. crack
213
Tissues downstream from a blood clot will suffer from lack of oxygen. If blood flow is resumed in a short time, the _______ tissues will recover.
A. sclerotic
B. hypoxic
C. necrotic
D. rheumatic
B. hypoxic
214
Risk factors for myocardial infarction include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. male gender
B. high BP
C. stress
D. increased activity level
D. increased activity level
215
The underlying cause of a dissecting aortic aneurysm is:
A. controlled hypertension
B. uncontrolled hypertension
C. transient hypertension
D. benign hypertension
B. uncontrolled hypertension
216
An acute myocardial infarction is more likely to occur in the larger, thick-walled left ventricle, which needs more ________ than the right ventricle.
A. O2 and glucose
B. force to pump
C. blood and O2
D. electrical activity
C. blood and O2
217
Which of the following is not a cause of CHF?
A. chronic hypotension
B. heart valve damage
C. myocardial infarction
D. long-standing high blood pressure
A. chronic hypotension
218
You may find that a pt having an AMI is _____ because of poor cardiac output and loss of perfusion.
gray
219
In addition to angina and myocardial infarction, nitro can be used to treat:
A. CHF
B. cardiogenic shock
C. aortic aneurysm
D. hypertensive emergency
A. CHF
220
In general, a max of __ dose(s) of nitro are given for any one episode of chest pain.
3
221
At each vertebra in the neck and back, ___ nerves, called spinal nerves, branch out from the spinal cord and carry signals to and from the body.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
A. 2
222
Patients with a decreased LOC:
A. should not be given anything by mouth
B. should be given glucose regardless of the underlying condition
C. do not require medical care
D. require immediate assessment of their pupils
A. should not be given anything by mouth
223
Common causes of AMS include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. body temp abnormalities
B. hypoxia
C. unequal pupils
D. hypoglycemia
C. unequal pupils
224
_________ headaches are though to be caused by changes in blood vessel size in the base of the brain.
A. sinus
B. tension
C. migraine
D. compression
C. migraine
225
People with ________ have a higher risk of hemorrhagic stroke.
A. uncontrolled hyperglycemia
B. uncontrolled hypertension
C. high fevers
D. meningitis
B. uncontrolled hypertension
226
The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:
A. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.
B. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.
C. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.
D. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
D. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
227
Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________.
A. address the patient's symptoms
B. reduce the need for transport to the hospital
C. confirm the patient's diagnosis
D. correct the patient's underlying problem
A. address the patient's symptoms
228
Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
A. Depression
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Substance abuse
D. Schizophrenia
C. Substance abuse
229
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?
A. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
B. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity
C. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension
D. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm
A. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
230
When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:
A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.
B. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
C. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.
D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.
B. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
231
When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:
A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.
B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.
C. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.
D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
232
When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?
A. Medical history
B. Primary assessment
C. Index of suspicion
D. Baseline vital signs
A. Medical history
233
List the structures that comprise the airway beginning with the most anatomically superior:
A. diaphragm, alveoli, lungs, bronchi, carina, trachea, epiglottis, cricoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage, larynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx, mouth, nose
B. nose, mouth, mastoid, oropharynx, nasopharynx, epiglottis, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, trachea, carina, bronchi, lungs, alveoli, diaphragm
C. epiglottis, nasopharynx, nose, mouth, oropharynx, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, cricoid cartilage, diaphragm, bronchi, lungs, alveoli
D. nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, trachea, carina, bronchi, lungs, alveoli, diaphragm
D. nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, trachea, carina, bronchi, lungs, alveoli, diaphragm
234
What 3 things should you look for when assessing for adequate breathing?
Rate, rhythm, and quality
235
Which patient would require the most aggressive airway interventions:
A. A 6 month old infant who is breathing at 16 breaths per minute, has a pulse of 76, and is lethargic.
B. A 33 year old woman who is breathing at 18 breaths per minute, a pulse of 76, has audible wheezing and complains of shortness of breath.
C. 170 bpm. Lowered pulse rates are another sign of respiratory distress in children.
D. 50 breath per minute. Normal pulse for an infant is 80
A. A 6 month old infant who is breathing at 16 breaths per minute, has a pulse of 76, and is lethargic.
236
Asthma generally produces ______ sounds and are often auscultated in the ________.
A. wheezing and Cheyne Stokes, lower airway
B. wheezing, upper airway
C. wheezing, lower airway
D. rhonchi, lower airway
C. wheezing, lower airway
237
Inspiration is best described as:
A. a voluntary or involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating negative pressure within the lung.
B. a voluntary or involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating positive pressure within the lung.
C. an exclusively involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating negative pressure within the lung.
D. an exclusively voluntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating positive pressure within the lung.
A. a voluntary or involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating negative pressure within the lung.
