Exam 6- Ch. 15-19

Question 1

What is a communicable disease?

Answer 1

A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another

Question 2

What is the difference between an epidemic and a pandemic?

A. an epidemic is a spread of disease on a global scale, a pandemic is a spread of disease that exceeded what was expected
B. an epidemic is a spread of disease that exceeded what was expected, a pandemic is a spread of disease on a global scale
C. there is no difference
D. epidemic is what the spread of disease is if it has lasted less than a year, a pandemic is the spread of disease after the one year mark

Answer 2

B. an epidemic is a spread of disease that exceeded what was expected, a pandemic is a spread of disease on a global scale

Question 3

__% of people carrying herpes simplex are asymptomatic.

Answer 3

80

Question 4

What are signs and symptoms of meningitis? (5)

Answer 4

• fever
• headache
• altered mental status
• stiff neck
• red blotches on skin

Question 5

What is the medical term for hives?

Answer 5

Urticaria

Question 6

What 3 conditions are the result of an allergic reaction to an inhaled, ingested, or injected substance?

Answer 6

Anaphylaxis, Hay Fever, Asthma

Question 7

Your patient is a 9-year old girl (22kg) that is having an allergic reaction. She is having trouble breathing and has hives on her chest and back. What medication are you giving and what dose?

Answer 7

Epi, 0.15 mg

Question 8

What is the FAST mnemonic for assessing a stroke?

Answer 8

F- facial droop
A- arm drift
S- speech
T- time

Question 9

How can you test A in the FAST mnemonic for a stroke patient?

Answer 9

Ask patient to close their ayes and hold their arms out with palms up

Question 10

What is an aneurysm?

Answer 10

A swelling or enlarging of a blood vessel that results from weakening of the blood vessel

Question 11

Aphasia means…

A. absent breathing
B. full loss of language
C. a sensation experienced right before a seizure
D. loss of coordination

Answer 11

B. full loss of language

Question 12

What is slurred speech?

A. dysphasia
B. dysphagia
C. dysarthria
D. aphasia

Answer 12

C. dysarthria

Question 13

What is difficulty speaking?

Answer 13

A. dysphasia

Question 14

What is the incubation period of Hepatitis A?

A. 2-6 weeks
B. 4-12 weeks
C. 2-10 weeks
D. 6-8 weeks

Answer 14

A. 2-6 weeks

Question 15

What is the incubation period for Hepatitis B?

A. 6-8 weeks
B. 2-6 weeks
C. 4-12 weeks
D. Within hours of exposure

Answer 15

C. 4-12 weeks

Question 16

What is the route of infection for Hepatitis A?
A. Blood, sexual contact
B. Blood, sexual contact, saliva, urine, breast milk
C. Fecal-oral, infected food/drinks
D. IV administration

Answer 16

C. Fecal-oral, infected food/drinks

Question 17

What is the normal urine output for an adult?

A. 1-2 liters per day
B. 1.5-2 liters per day
C. 2 liters per day
D. 2-2.5 liters per day

Answer 17

B. 1.5-2 liters per day

Question 18

Where in the lungs does respiration occur?

A. capillaries
B. alveoli
C. bronchioles
D. bronchi

Answer 18

B. alveoli

Question 19

What are the 2 processes that occur during respiration?

A. ventilation and diffusion.
B. inspiration and expiration.
C. diffusion and oxygenation.
D. oxygenation and ventilation.

Answer 19

B. inspiration and expiration.

Question 20

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Answer 20

D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Question 21

The brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of:

A. increased oxygen levels.
B. decreased oxygen levels.
C. increased carbon dioxide levels.
D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.

Answer 21

C. increased carbon dioxide levels.

Question 22

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:
A. the brain stem inhibits respirations.
B. respirations increase in rate and depth.
C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation.
D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.

Answer 22

B. respirations increase in rate and depth.

Question 23

What is hypoxic drive?

Answer 23

A condition in which chronically low levels of o2 in the blood stimulate the respiratory drive; seen in patients with COPD

Question 24

Solid organs bleed more because they are more ___________.

Answer 24

Vascular

Question 25

What is the onset of menstruation called?

Answer 25

Menarche

Question 26

What is ileus?

Answer 26

Paralysis of the bowel

Question 27

What are the main organs that lie in the retroperitoneal space?

Answer 27

Kidneys and pancreas

Question 28

What are the 3 major parts of the brain?

Answer 28

Cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem

Question 29

What part of the brain controls basic functions like breathing?

Answer 29

spinal cord

Question 30

What part of the brain controls emotions?

Answer 30

Cerebrum

Question 31

What part of the brain controls vision?

Answer 31

Cerebellum

Question 32

What is one major sign that someone is having a a hemorrhagic stroke?

Answer 32

Severe headache

Question 33

What is the major difference between a TIA and a CVA?

Answer 33

The signs/symptoms of a TIA will resolve within 24 hours

Question 34

What are the 3 things that can mimic a stoke?

Answer 34

• hypoglycemia
• postictal state
• subdural or epidural bleed

Question 35

What is bell’s palsy and why is it important in regards to stroke assessments?

Answer 35

Bell’s palsy is an unexplained episode of facial weakness of paralysis. Can mimic the facial drooping caused by a stroke

Question 36

When writing a narrative for a patient with chest pain, what should the EMT do?
A. Use the patients own words
B. Underline things said by the patient
C. Paraphrase what the patient said
D. Don’t use quotes

Answer 36

A. Use the patients own words

Question 37

Sudden death following an AMI is most often caused by?
A. CHF
B. V-fib
C. V-tach
D. Dissecting aneurysm

Answer 37

B. V-fib

Question 38

What are the 2 processes that happen in respiration?

Answer 38

inspiration and expiration

Question 39

When doing a secondary assessment on a non-traumatic patient with abdominal pain, you should:
A. Make a transport decision
B. Focus on the chief complaint
C. Repeat primary assessment
D. Call ALS

Answer 39

B. Focus on the chief complaint

Question 40

Asthma is a response to what system?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Respiratory
C. Immunologic
D. Endocrine

Answer 40

C. Immunologic

Question 41

What does virulence mean?

Answer 41

The strength or ability of a pathogen to produce a disease

Question 42

Hepatitis B is more __________ than Hepatitis C.

Answer 42

virulent

Question 43

What are the 3 things that the brain needs to survive?

Answer 43

Temp, sugar, oxygen

Question 44

A 40 year old patient without a history of seizures experiences generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:

A. Epilepsy
B. A brain tumor
C. Intracranial bleeding
D. A serious infection

Answer 44

A. Epilepsy

Question 45

What is a generalized seizure?

Answer 45

A seizure that results from abnormal electrical discharges from large areas of the brain, involving both hemispheres; characterized by unconsciousness and a generalized severe twitching of all the body’s muscles that last several minutes or longer

Question 46

What is a focal seizure?

Answer 46

A seizure that begins in one part of the brain.

Question 47

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver.
B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated.
C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

Answer 47

C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.

Question 48

What is angina pectoris?

Answer 48

Chest pain caused by the lack of blood and oxygen

Question 49

Where does respiration occur?

Answer 49

Alveoli

Question 50

What is the average SpO2 for COPD patients?

Answer 50

90-94%

Question 51

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy if he or she.

A. Is older than 60 years of age
B. Has bleeding within the brain.
C. Has had a prior heart attack.
D. Has a GCS score that is less than 8.

Answer 51

B. Has bleeding within the brain.

Question 52

Components of the Cincinnati pre-hospital Stroke Scale include:

A. Speech, pupil, and memory
B. Facial droop, speech, and pupil size.
C. Arm drift, speech, and facial droop.
D. Arm drift, memory, and grip strength

Answer 52

C. Arm drift, speech, and facial droop.

Question 53

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should:

a) instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test.
b) repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward.
c) defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.
d) repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself.

Answer 53

d) repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient’s arms into position yourself.

Question 54

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:

A. Pancreas.
B. Kidneys.
C. Brain.
D. Liver

Answer 54

D. Liver

Question 55

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum.
C. Cerebrum.
D. Cerebral cortex.

Answer 55

B. Cerebellum.

Question 56

Status epilepticus is characterized by:

A. Profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity.
B. An absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura.
C. Prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.
D. Generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes.

Answer 56

C. Prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.

Question 57

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

A. Foramen magnum.
B. Vertebral foramen.
C. Foramen lamina.
D. Cauda equina.

Answer 57

A. Foramen magnum.

Question 58

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:

A. Respiratory distress.
B. A seizure.
C. An acute stroke.
D. A febrile convulsion.

Answer 58

B. A seizure.

Question 59

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?

A. Confusion and weakness.
B. Unilateral hemiparesis.
C. Sudden, severe headache.
D. Nasal discharge of blood

Answer 59

C. Sudden, severe headache.

Question 60

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?

A. Block cerebral artery in the frontal lobe.
B. Ruptured cerebral artery and the occipital lobe.
C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest.
D. Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere

Answer 60

C. Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest.

Question 61

Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?

A. Normal level of consciousness.
B. Generalized twitching of all muscles.
C. Absence of breathing.
D. No change in Vision, smell, or taste.

Answer 61

A. Normal level of Consciousness.

Question 62

Which of the following most accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?

A. Rupture of a cerebral artery.
B. Blockage of a cerebral artery.
C. Narrowing of a carotid artery.
D. Acute atherosclerotic disease.

Answer 62

B. Blockage of a cerebral artery.

Question 63

A 58 year-old male presents with confusion, right sided weakness, and slurred speech. His airways patent, and his breathing is adequate. His wife is present and is very upset. Which of the following has the MOST immediate priority?

A. Asking his wife when she noticed the symptoms.
B. Obtaining a complete set of baseline vital signs.
C. Administering glucose to rule out hypoglycemia
D. Documenting all of his current medications

Answer 63

A. Asking his wife when she noticed the symptoms.

Question 64

Law enforcement has summoned you to a nightclub, where a 22 year old female was found unconscious in an adjacent alley. Your primary assessment reveals that her respirations are rapid and shallow and her pulse is rapid and weak. She is wearing a medical alert bracelet that identifies her as an epileptic. There is an empty bottle of vodka next to the patient. You should:

A. Place a Bite Block in her mouth in case she has a seizure and transport at once
B. Apply oxygen via a non rebreathing mask and transport her for a blood alcohol test.
C. Apply oxygen via a non rebreathing mask, Place her on her left side, and transport
D. Assist ventilations, perform a rapid exam, and prepare for immediate transport

Answer 64

D. Assist ventilations, perform a rapid exam, and prepare for immediate transport

Question 65

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, except:

A. Cerebral vasodilation.
B. An acute arterial rupture.
C. An embolism.
D. A thrombus.

Answer 65

A. Cerebral vasodilation.

Question 66

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are MOST indicative of:

A. pancreatitis.
B. appendicitis.
C. cholecystitis.
D. gastroenteritis.

Answer 66

B. appendicitis.

Question 67

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct?

A. In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe.
B. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.
C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome.
D. Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely.

Answer 67

B. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.

Question 68

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men?

A. cystitis
B. hepatitis
C. pancreatitis
D. cholecystitis

Answer 68

A. cystitis

Question 69

A strangulated hernia is one that:

A. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention.
B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs.
C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours.
D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

Answer 69

D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

Question 70

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.
B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent.
C. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position.
D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles

Answer 70

A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen.

Question 71

30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to:

A. protect her airway from aspiration.
B. keep her supine and elevate her legs.
C. rapidly transport her to the hospital.
D. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.

Answer 71

A. protect her airway from aspiration.

Question 72

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should:

A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.
B. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area.
C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition.
D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.

Answer 72

A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful.

Question 73

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours’ duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to:

A. transport him in a supine position.
B. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.
C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy.
D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.

Answer 73

B. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock.

Question 74

A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should:

A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity.
B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.
C. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once.
D. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.

Answer 74

B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport.

Question 75

You are transporting a 49-year-old male with “tearing” abdominal pain. You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During your reassessment, you determine that the patient’s condition has deteriorated significantly. You should:

A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
B. immediately perform a rapid physical examination.
C. continue transporting and alert the receiving hospital.
D. consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.

Answer 75

D. consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.

Question 76

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?

A. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.
B. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis.
C. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.
D. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.

Answer 76

C. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness.

Question 77

Peritonitis, with associated fluid loss, is the result of:

A. abnormal shift of fluid from body tissue into the bloodstream.
B. abnormal shift of fluid from bloodstream into body tissue.
C. normal shift of fluid form body tissue into the bloodstream.
D. normal shift of fluid bloodstream into body tissue.

Answer 77

B. abnormal shift of fluid from bloodstream into body tissue.

Question 78

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________.

A. associated symptoms
B. field diagnosis
C. medical history
D. nature of illness

Answer 78

D. nature of illness

Question 79

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________.

A. abdominal pain
B. a fever
C. a low blood glucose level
D. seizures

Answer 79

B. a fever

Question 80

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses?

A. Whooping cough
B. H1N1
C. MRSA
D. HIV

Answer 80

C. MRSA

Question 81

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:

A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
C. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
D. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

Answer 81

B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

Question 82

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:

A. once the patient’s baseline vital signs are known.
B. after the primary assessment has been completed.
C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

Answer 82

B. after the primary assessment has been completed.

Question 83

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?

A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs
B. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away
C. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days’ duration
D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

Answer 83

D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

Question 84

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

A. contact medical control.
B. take standard precautions.
C. quickly access the patient.
D. notify law enforcement.

Answer 84

B. take standard precautions.

Question 85

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:

A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.
B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.
C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.
D. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

Answer 85

D. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

Question 86

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:

A. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
B. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
C. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

Answer 86

D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

Question 87

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

A. is less resistant to treatment.
B. is a more contagious type of disease.
C. has a greater ability to produce disease.
D. leads to chronic infection after exposure.

Answer 87

C. has a greater ability to produce disease.

Question 88

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a:

A. medical emergency.
B. trauma emergency.
C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.
D. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency.

Answer 88

C. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

Question 89

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:

A. pandemics.
B. epidemics.
C. uncontrolled outbreaks.
D. parasitic infection

Answer 89

A. pandemics.

Question 90

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient’s circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:

A. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.
B. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment.
C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.
D. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.

Answer 90

C. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

Question 91

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve:

A. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate.
B. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.
C. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused.
D. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time.

Answer 91

B. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.

Question 92

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should:

A. focus on his or her chief complaint.
B. examine the patient from head to toe.
C. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.
D. prepare the patient for transport first.

Answer 92

A. focus on his or her chief complaint.

Question 93

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?

A. Jugular venous distention
B. Palpable pain to the epigastrium
C. Unequal breath sounds
D. Use of the accessory muscles

Answer 93

A. Jugular venous distention

Question 94

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

A. reviewing all treatment performed.
B. taking another set of vital signs.
C. repeating the primary assessment.
D. reassessing the nature of illness.

Answer 94

C. repeating the primary assessment.

Question 95

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?

A. acetaminophen.
B. ibuprofen.
C. aspirin.
D. nitrostat.

Answer 95

B. ibuprofen

Question 96

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis:

A. is a far more transmittable disease.
B. typically does not cause yellow skin.
C. can be prevented with a vaccination.
D. is not a communicable disease.

Answer 96

D. is not a communicable disease.

Question 97

Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia?

A. pleural effusion
B. severe anxiety
C. pulmonary edema
D. prolonged seizures

Answer 97

B. severe anxiety

Question 98

At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:

A. audible stridor.
B. rales and rhonchi.
C. profound cyanosis.
D. expiratory wheezing.

Answer 98

D. expiratory wheezing.

Question 99

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him 100% oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

A. albuterol.
B. epinephrine.
C. an antihistamine.
D. a beta-antagonist.

Answer 99

B. epinephrine

Question 100

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. rupture of the diaphragm
B. exacerbation of his COPD
C. acute pulmonary embolism
D. spontaneous pneumothorax

Answer 100

D. spontaneous pneumothorax

Question 101

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
A. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
C. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
D. a fluid accumulation inside the lung.

Answer 101

C. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

Question 102

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations:

A. slow and deep.
B. deep and rapid.
C. slow and shallow.
D. rapid and shallow.

Answer 102

B. deep and rapid

Question 103

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:

A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.
B. dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream.
C. the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases.
D. slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide.

Answer 103

A. blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing.

Question 104

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:
A. altered mental status and bradycardia.
B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech.
C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea.
D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

Answer 104

D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

Question 105

You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should:

A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.
B. apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs.
C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
D. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.

Answer 105

A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Question 106

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should:

A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing.
B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine.
C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment.
D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

Answer 106

D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

Question 107

Albuterol is a generic name for:

A. Alupent.
B. Atrovent.
C. Proventil.
D. Singulair.

Answer 107

D. Proventil.

Question 108

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:

A. have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag.
B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.
C. request a paramedic to give her a sedative drug.
D. position her on her left side and transport at once.

Answer 108

B. provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.

Question 109

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:

A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing.
B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.
C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.
D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.

Answer 109

B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.

Question 110

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?

A. Acute myocardial infarction.
B. Uncontrolled hypertension.
C. Obstructive lung disease.
D. Thoracic aortic aneurysm.

Answer 110

A. Acute myocardial infarction.

Question 111

A patient with atherosclerotic heart diseases experiences chest pain during exertion because:

A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
C. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in the myocardial blood flow.
D. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

Answer 111

D. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

Question 112

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

A. bundle of His.
B. atrioventricular node.
C. coronary sinus.
D. sinoatrial node.

Answer 112

D. sinoatrial node

Question 113

Angina pectoris occurs when:

A. myocardial oxygen demands exceed supply.
B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

Answer 113

A. myocardial oxygen demands exceed supply.

Question 114

The ______ ___ ___________ is your awareness of and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illnesses

Answer 114

index of suspicion

Question 115

Patients with altered mental status should be considered ______ ________ when determining transport options.

Answer 115

high priority

Question 116

66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours’ duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
C. giver her high-flow oxygen, attached the AED, and transport at once.
D. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

Answer 116

D. administer oxygen, giver her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

Question 117

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?

A. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min.
B. Syncope or dizziness.
C. Generalized weakness.
D. A rapid heart rate.

Answer 117

D. A rapid heart rate.

Question 118

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:

A. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.
B. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.
C. remove the battery from the monitor then remove the vest.
D. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.

Answer 118

C. remove the battery from the monitor then remove the vest.

Question 119

In contrast to an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD), an external defibrillator vest:

A. delivers high-energy shocks, similar to an AED.
B. does not require the EMT to stand clear when it shocks.
C. does not warn when a shock is about to be delivered.
D. will only deliver a shock if ventricular fibrillation occurs.

Answer 119

A. delivers high-energy shocks, similar to an AED.

Question 120

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

A. right atrium.
B. left ventricle.
C. right ventricle.
D. left atrium.

Answer 120

A. right atrium.

Question 121

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on impedance, which is the:

A. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.
B. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.
C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver
D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

Answer 121

D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

Question 122

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Dependent edema
C. Flat jugular veins
D. Labored breathing

Answer 122

B. Dependent edema

Question 123

The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because:

A. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it.
B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation.
C. its use does not require the presence of advanced life support personnel.
D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy.

Answer 123

B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation.

Question 124

Defibrillator pads are placed on the patient’s chest:

A. with one pad to the left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the left nipple.
B. with one pad to the right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the right nipple.
C. with one pad to the left of the upper sternum and the other pad to the right lower chest below the armpit.
D. with one pad to the right of the upper sternum and the other pad to the left lower chest below the armpit.

Answer 124

D. with one pad to the right of the upper sternum and the other pad to the left lower chest below the armpit.

Question 125

Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called:

A. angina pectoris.
B. arteriosclerosis.
C. acute ischemia.
D. atherosclerosis.

Answer 125

D. atherosclerosis.

Question 126

You and your partner have achieved ROSC in a patient who was in cardiac arrest. An ALS unit will arrive in less than 2 minutes. The patient remains unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. Further treatment for this patient should include:

A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min and immediate transport.
B. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway and positioning him on his side.
C. elevation of his lower extremities and covering him with warm blankets.
D. BVM ventilation at 10-12 breaths/min and assessment of oxygen saturation.

Answer 126

D. BVM ventilation at 10-12 breaths/min and assessment of oxygen saturation.

Question 127

A 66-year-old woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 minutes ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive medications. When you assess her, you find that her blood pressure is significantly higher in her left arm than it is in her right arm. What do these signs and symptoms MOST likely indicate?

A. Unstable angina
B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Hypertensive emergency

Answer 127

B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm

Question 128

Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output?
A. Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume
B. Decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate
C. Decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume
D. Decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate

Answer 128

A. Increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

Question 129

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary arteries
C. Inferior vena cava
D. Pulmonary veins

Answer 129

D. Pulmonary veins

Question 130

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger?

A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Aspirin
C. Oxygen
D. Metoprolol (Toprol)

Answer 130

B. Aspirin

Question 131

Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet or spray?

A. Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness.
B. Place the medication under the tongue and let it dissolve.
C. Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb.
D. Wait 15 minutes and reassess the patient’s blood pressure prior to administering another dose.

Answer 131

B. Place the medication under the tongue and let it dissolve.

Question 132

A patient with a left ventricular assist device (LVAD) tells you that the device’s pump flow is continuous. Which of the following should you expect to encounter during your assessment?

A. Absence of a palpable pulse
B. High systolic blood pressure
C. Distention of the jugular veins
D. Low diastolic blood pressure

Answer 132

A. Absence of a palpable pulse

Question 133

You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient’s girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes carbamazepine (Tegretol). When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to:

a) determine when he was last seen by his physician.
b) ask her how long the patient has been taking his medication.
c) determine if the patient is a known alcohol abuser.
d) obtain a description of how the seizure developed.

Answer 133

d) obtain a description of how the seizure developed.

Question 134

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, and is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth. You should:

a) use a bag-mask device to assist her ventilations.
b) insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport.
c) place her on her side and prepare for rapid transport.
d) suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen.

Answer 134

d) suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen.

Question 135

The mental status of a patient who has experienced a typical seizure:

a) typically does not improve, even after several minutes.
b) is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia.
c) is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.
d) progressively worsens over a period of a few hours.

Answer 135

c) is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes.

Question 136

Which of the following is NOT an assessment parameter included in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?

a) speech
b) memory
c) arm drift
d) facial droop

Answer 136

b) memory

Question 137

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia:

a) are typically alert and attempt to communicate with health care providers.
b) always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels.
c) do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body.
d) usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

Answer 137

d) usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

Question 138

A patient with an altered mental status is:

a) not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.
b) completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli.
c) typically alert but is confused as to preceding events.
d) usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus.

Answer 138

a) not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

Question 139

An absence seizure is also referred to as a:

a) grand mal seizure.
b) petit mal seizure.
c) total body seizure.
d) generalized motor seizure.

Answer 139

b) petit mal seizure.

Question 140

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure?

a) hyperventilation and hypersalivation
b) a gradually decreasing level of consciousness
c) confusion and fatigue
d) a rapidly improving level of consciousness

Answer 140

c) confusion and fatigue

Question 141

A 29-year-old male complains of a severe headache and nausea that has gradually worsened over the past 12 hours. He is conscious, alert, and oriented and tells you that his physician diagnosed him with migraine headaches. He further tells you that he has taken numerous different medications, but none of them seem to help. His blood pressure is 132/74 mm Hg, his pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 20 breaths/min and adequate. In addition to high-flow oxygen, further treatment should include:

a) assisting him with his migraine medication and transporting without lights and siren.
b) applying warm compresses to the back of his neck and transporting with lights and siren.
c) dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren.
d) placing him in a supine position and transporting with lights and siren to a stroke center.

Answer 141

c) dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren.

Question 142

When transporting a stable stroke patient with unilateral paralysis, it is best to place the patient in a:

a) recumbent position with the paralyzed side up.
b) recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.
c) sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle.
d) supine position with the legs elevated 6″ to 12″.
recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.

Answer 142

b) recumbent position with the paralyzed side down.

Question 143

You are treating a patient who is exhibiting slurred speech, facial droop, and an inability to move his left arm. Which neurologic examination emphasizes these possible stroke signs?

(a) Chicago Prehospital Stroke Scale
(b) 3-Item Stroke Severity Scale
(c) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale
(d) Glasgow Coma Scale

Answer 143

(c) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

Question 144

What is the incubation period for the Ebola virus?

A. 1 to 3 days after exposure
B. 2 to 6 days after exposure
C. 6 to 12 days after exposure
D. 8 to 10 weeks after exposure

Answer 144

C. 6 to 12 days after exposure

Question 145

The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically:

A. 1 to 2 weeks
B. 5 to 10 weeks
C. 4 to 12 weeks
D. 1 to 10 weeks

Answer 145

C. 4 to 12 weeks

Question 146

Vaccinations are NOT available for which form of hepatitis?

A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. All forms of hepatitis

Answer 146

C. Hepatitis C

Question 147

What is the difference between pulmonary edema and pulmonary effusion?

Answer 147

Pulmonary edema is fluid inside the lungs, pulmonary effusion is fluid outside the lungs (b/w the tissues that line the lungs)

Question 148

The oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange takes place in the:

A. trachea
B. bronchial tree
C. alveoli
D. blood

Answer 148

C. alveoli

Question 149

Why does the rate of breathing increase when carbon dioxide levels increase?

Answer 149

Because the body is trying to get rid of the excess Co2

Question 150

________ is a sign of hypoxia to the brain.

A. altered mental status
B. decreased pulse rate
C. decreased respiratory rate
D. delayed capillary refill time

Answer 150

A. altered mental status

Question 151

An obstruction to the exchange of gases between the alveoli and the capillaries may result from:

A. epiglottis
B. pneumonia
C. a cold
D. croup

Answer 151

B. pneumonia

Question 152

Pulmonary edema can develop quickly after a major:

Answer 152

Heart attack

Question 153

Pulmonary edema may be produced by:

A. cigarette smoking
B. seasonal allergies
C. inhaling toxic chemical fumes
D. carbon monoxide poisoning

Answer 153

C. inhaling toxic chemical fumes

Question 154

The loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli is known as…?

Answer 154

Emphysema

Question 155

What is the most common form of COPD?

Answer 155

Emphysema

Question 156

__________ allows a cardiac muscle cell to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source.

A. Repetition
B. Reactivity
C. Automaticity
D. Autonomy

Answer 156

C. Automaticity

Question 157

The aorta receives its blood supply from the:

A. right atrium
B. left atrium
C. right ventricle
D. left ventricle

Answer 157

D. left ventricle

Question 158

Blood enters the right atrium from the body through the:

A. vena cava
B. aorta
C. pulmonary artery
D. pulmonary vein

Answer 158

A. vena cava

Question 159

____ ______ ____ carry oxygen to the body’s tissues and then remove carbon dioxide

Answer 159

Red blood cells

Question 160

Atherosclerosis can lead to a complete _________ of a coronary artery.

A. occlusion
B. disintegration
C. dilation
D. contraction

Answer 160

A. occlusion

Question 161

Angina pain may be felt in the:

A. epigastrium
B. legs
C. lower back
D. lower abdomen

Answer 161

A. epigastrium (middle part of the upper abdomen, immediately over the stomach)

Question 162

About ____ minutes after blood flow is cut off, some heart muscle cells begin to die.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

Answer 162

C. 30

Question 163

After about how long will 90% of the heart muscle cells be dead after blood flow is cut off?

Answer 163

4-6 hours

Question 164

Cardiogenic shock often occurs soon after a(n):

A. hypertensive emergency
B. AMI
C. aortic aneurysm
D. unstable angina attack

Answer 164

B. AMI

Question 165

Disorganized, ineffective quivering of the ventricles is known as:

Answer 165

V-fib

Question 166

Which of the following changes in heart function occurs in patients with CHF?

A. a decrease in heart rate
B. enlargement of the left ventricle
C. enlargement of the right ventricle
D. a decrease in BP

Answer 166

B. enlargement of the left ventricle

Question 167

What may a patient experience if the battery in their pacemaker wears out?

Answer 167

Syncope, dizziness, and/or weakness

Question 168

_________ usually refers to a state of cardiac arrest despite an organized electrical complex.

A. asystole
B. pulseless electrical activity
C. V-fib
D. V-tach

Answer 168

B. pulseless electrical activity

Question 169

Defibrillation works best if it takes place within ____ minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 10

Answer 169

A. 2

Question 170

Headaches caused by muscle contractions in the head and neck are typically associated with:

A. sinus headaches
B. migraine headaches
C. compression headaches
D. tension headaches

Answer 170

D. tension headaches

Question 171

What is the loss of bowel and bladder control and can be due to a generalized seizure called?

Answer 171

Incontinence

Question 172

__________ commonly produces symptoms about 30 minutes after a particularly fatty meal and usually at night.

A. A peptic ulcer
B. Cholecystitis
C. Appendicitis
D. Pancreatitis

Answer 172

B. Cholecystitis

Question 173

Pregnancy, straining at stool, and chronic constipation cause increased pressure that could result in:

A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
B. Diverticulitis
C. Hemorrhoids
D. Gallstones

Answer 173

C. Hemorrhoids

Question 174

_______ is responsible for the breakdown of starches into sugar

A. insulin
B. bile
C. amylase
D. bicarbonate

Answer 174

C. amylase

Question 175

Distention of the abdomen is gauged by:

A. visualization
B. auscultation
C. palpation
D. all of the above

Answer 175

A. visualization

Question 176

A hernia that returns to its proper body cavity is __________.

Answer 176

reducible

Question 177

A patient who presents with vomiting, signs of shock, and history of eating disorder is likely to be suffering from:

A. diverticulitis
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. appendicitis
D. cholecystitis

Answer 177

B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome

Question 178

Severe back pain may be associated with which of the following conditions?

A. AAA
B. PID
C. appendicitis
D. cholecystitis

Answer 178

A. AAA

Question 179

_________ can be caused by an obstructing gallstone, alcohol abuse, and other diseases.

A. appendicitis
B. a peptic ulcer
C. pancreatitis
D. diverticulitis

Answer 179

C. pancreatitis

Question 180

________ occur(s) when there is excess pressure within the portal system and surrounding vessel; it may lead to life-threatening bleeding.

A. esophageal rupture
B. esophageal varices
C. esophageal ulcers
D. esophageal reflux

Answer 180

B. esophageal varices

Question 181

Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

A. it filters toxic substances
B. it creates glucose stores
C. it acts as a reservoir for bile
D. it produces substances for blood clotting

Answer 181

C. it acts as a reservoir for bile

Question 182

A patient presents with lower quadrant abdominal pain, tenderness above the pubic bone, and frequent urination with urgency. What is the most likely underlying condition?

A. cholecystitis
B. cystitis
C. gastroenteritis
D. diverticulitis

Answer 182

B. cystitis

Question 183

Infected pouches in the lining of the colon are described as ___________.

Answer 183

diverticulitis

Question 184

Diarrhea is the principal symptom in:

A. gastroenteritis
B. esophagitis
C. pancreatitis
D. peptic ulcers

Answer 184

A. gastroenteritis

Question 185

Bowel inflammation, diverticulitis, and hemorrhoids are common causes of bleeding in the:

A. upper GI tract
B. middle GI tract
C. lower GI tract
D. GI tract

Answer 185

C. lower GI tract

Question 186

A patient complains of heartburn, pain with swallowing, and feeling like an object is stuck in the throat. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A. esophageal varices
B. esophagitis
C. peptic ulcer
D. gastroenteritis

Answer 186

B. esophagitis

Question 187

If a patient misses a dialysis treatment, weakness and ______ can be the first in a series of conditions that can become progressively more serious

A. diarrhea
B. rhinorrhea
C. hearing loss
D. edema

Answer 187

D. edema

Question 188

________ regulates the amount of glucose in the bloodstream.

A. bicarbonate
B. amylase
C. insulin
D. bile

Answer 188

C. insulin

Question 189

Regulation of acidity and blood pressure is largely attributed to the:

A. liver
B. kidneys
C. gallbladder
D. pancreas

Answer 189

B. kidneys

Question 190

Which of the following organs is part of the lymphatic system and plays a role in the regulation of red blood cells and the immune system?

A. bladder
B. liver
C. spleen
D. pancreas

Answer 190

C. spleen

Question 191

What is the most important aspect of the scene size-up?

Answer 191

ensuring scene safety

Question 192

You should assess PMS in all of the extremities and check for pupillary reactions if you suspect a(n) __________ problem.

A. cardiovascular
B. endocrine
C. neurologic
D. psychological

Answer 192

C. neurologic

Question 193

Which statement regarding HIV is false?

A. it is not easily transmitted in your work environment
B. it is not considered a hazard when deposited on mucous membranes
C. you should always wear gloves when treating a patient with HIV
D. many patients with HIV do not show any symptoms

Answer 193

B. it is not considered a hazard when deposited on mucous membranes

Question 194

Which of the following statements about tuberculosis is false?
A. it is found in open, uncrowded living spaces
B. it can be found in crowded environments with poor ventilation
C. it is spread through air via droplets
D. the primary infection is typically not serious

Answer 194

A. it is found in open, uncrowded living spaces

Question 195

A blood clot lodged in the pulmonary artery is reffered to as a:

A. AMI
B. stroke
C. pulmonary embolism
D. pulmonary edema

Answer 195

C. pulmonary embolism

Question 196

What does PASTE stand for?

Answer 196

Progression
Associated chest pain?
Sputum
Talking tiredness
Exercise tolerance

Question 197

If CO2 levels drop too low, the person automatically breathes?

A. normally
B. rapid and deep
C. slow and less deep
D. fast and shallow

Answer 197

C. slow and less deep

Question 198

If the level of CO2 in the arterial blood rises above normal, the patient breathes:

A. normally
B. rapid and deep
C. slow and less deep
D. fast and shallow

Answer 198

B. rapid and deep

Question 199

Inflammation and swelling of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea resulting in a “seal bark” is typically caused by ______.

Answer 199

croup

Question 200

Which of the following signs and symptoms will help distinguish COPD from CHF?

A. dyspnea
B. dependent edema
C. wheezing
D. skin color changes

Answer 200

B. dependent edema

Question 201

What is a pneumothorax?

Answer 201

partial or complete accumulation of air in the pleural space

Question 202

Asthma produces a characteristic _________ as patients attempt to exhale through partially obstructed air passages.

A. rhonchi
B. stridor
C. wheezing
D. rattle

Answer 202

C. wheezing

Question 203

Hyperventilation is defined as…

Answer 203

overbreathing to the point that the level of arterial CO2 falls below normal

Question 204

Contraindications for CPAP include:

A. being alert and able to follow commands
B. a pulse ox reading of less than 90%
C. a respiratory rate greater than 26 breaths per minute
D. hypotension

Answer 204

D. hypotension

Question 205

A prolonged asthma attack that is unrelieved by epi may progress into a condition known as:

A. pleural effusion
B. status epilepticus
C. status asthmaticus
D. reactive airway disease

Answer 205

C. status asthmaticus

Question 206

Influenza is a primarily ________ respiratory disease that has mutated to infect ________.

Answer 206

animal; human

Question 207

An acute spasm of the smaller airways associated with excessive mucus production and swelling is a characteristic of:

A. asthma
B. chronic bronchitis
C. emphysema
D. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

Answer 207

A. asthma

Question 208

Normal electrical impulses originate in the sinus node, in the upper part of the right:

A. atrium
B. ventricle
C. superior vena cava
D. aortic arch

Answer 208

A. atrium

Question 209

Dilation of the coronary arteries _______ blood flow.

A. shuts off
B. increases
C. decreases
D. regulates

Answer 209

B. increases

Question 210

The __________ are tiny blood vessels that are approximately one cell thick.

Answer 210

capillaries

Question 211

___________ blood pressure is the max pressure exerted by the left ventricle as it contracts

Answer 211

systolic

Question 212

The lumen of an artery may be partially or completely blocked by the blood-clotting system due to a ______ that exposes the inside of the atherosclerotic wall.

A. tear
B. crack
C. clot
D. rupture

Answer 212

B. crack

Question 213

Tissues downstream from a blood clot will suffer from lack of oxygen. If blood flow is resumed in a short time, the _______ tissues will recover.

A. sclerotic
B. hypoxic
C. necrotic
D. rheumatic

Answer 213

B. hypoxic

Question 214

Risk factors for myocardial infarction include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. male gender
B. high BP
C. stress
D. increased activity level

Answer 214

D. increased activity level

Question 215

The underlying cause of a dissecting aortic aneurysm is:

A. controlled hypertension
B. uncontrolled hypertension
C. transient hypertension
D. benign hypertension

Answer 215

B. uncontrolled hypertension

Question 216

An acute myocardial infarction is more likely to occur in the larger, thick-walled left ventricle, which needs more ________ than the right ventricle.

A. O2 and glucose
B. force to pump
C. blood and O2
D. electrical activity

Answer 216

C. blood and O2

Question 217

Which of the following is not a cause of CHF?

A. chronic hypotension
B. heart valve damage
C. myocardial infarction
D. long-standing high blood pressure

Answer 217

A. chronic hypotension

Question 218

You may find that a pt having an AMI is _____ because of poor cardiac output and loss of perfusion.

Answer 218

gray

Question 219

In addition to angina and myocardial infarction, nitro can be used to treat:

A. CHF
B. cardiogenic shock
C. aortic aneurysm
D. hypertensive emergency

Answer 219

A. CHF

Question 220

In general, a max of __ dose(s) of nitro are given for any one episode of chest pain.

Answer 220

3

Question 221

At each vertebra in the neck and back, ___ nerves, called spinal nerves, branch out from the spinal cord and carry signals to and from the body.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 221

A. 2

Question 222

Patients with a decreased LOC:

A. should not be given anything by mouth
B. should be given glucose regardless of the underlying condition
C. do not require medical care
D. require immediate assessment of their pupils

Answer 222

A. should not be given anything by mouth

Question 223

Common causes of AMS include all of the following EXCEPT:

A. body temp abnormalities
B. hypoxia
C. unequal pupils
D. hypoglycemia

Answer 223

C. unequal pupils

Question 224

_________ headaches are though to be caused by changes in blood vessel size in the base of the brain.

A. sinus
B. tension
C. migraine
D. compression

Answer 224

C. migraine

Question 225

People with ________ have a higher risk of hemorrhagic stroke.

A. uncontrolled hyperglycemia
B. uncontrolled hypertension
C. high fevers
D. meningitis

Answer 225

B. uncontrolled hypertension

Question 226

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:

A. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.
B. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.
C. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.
D. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

Answer 226

D. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

Question 227

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________.

A. address the patient’s symptoms
B. reduce the need for transport to the hospital
C. confirm the patient’s diagnosis
D. correct the patient’s underlying problem

Answer 227

A. address the patient’s symptoms

Question 228

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

A. Depression
B. Alzheimer disease
C. Substance abuse
D. Schizophrenia

Answer 228

C. Substance abuse

Question 229

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?

A. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
B. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity
C. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension
D. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm

Answer 229

A. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

Question 230

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:

A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.
B. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
C. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.
D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.

Answer 230

B. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

Question 231

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:

A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.
B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.
C. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.
D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

Answer 231

D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

Question 232

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?

A. Medical history
B. Primary assessment
C. Index of suspicion
D. Baseline vital signs

Answer 232

A. Medical history

Question 233

List the structures that comprise the airway beginning with the most anatomically superior:

A. diaphragm, alveoli, lungs, bronchi, carina, trachea, epiglottis, cricoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage, larynx, oropharynx, nasopharynx, mouth, nose
B. nose, mouth, mastoid, oropharynx, nasopharynx, epiglottis, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, trachea, carina, bronchi, lungs, alveoli, diaphragm
C. epiglottis, nasopharynx, nose, mouth, oropharynx, nasopharynx, larynx, trachea, cricoid cartilage, diaphragm, bronchi, lungs, alveoli
D. nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, trachea, carina, bronchi, lungs, alveoli, diaphragm

Answer 233

D. nose, mouth, nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, thyroid cartilage, cricoid cartilage, epiglottis, trachea, carina, bronchi, lungs, alveoli, diaphragm

Question 234

What 3 things should you look for when assessing for adequate breathing?

Answer 234

Rate, rhythm, and quality

Question 235

Which patient would require the most aggressive airway interventions:

A. A 6 month old infant who is breathing at 16 breaths per minute, has a pulse of 76, and is lethargic.
B. A 33 year old woman who is breathing at 18 breaths per minute, a pulse of 76, has audible wheezing and complains of shortness of breath.
C. 170 bpm. Lowered pulse rates are another sign of respiratory distress in children.
D. 50 breath per minute. Normal pulse for an infant is 80

Answer 235

A. A 6 month old infant who is breathing at 16 breaths per minute, has a pulse of 76, and is lethargic.

Question 236

Asthma generally produces ______ sounds and are often auscultated in the ________.

A. wheezing and Cheyne Stokes, lower airway
B. wheezing, upper airway
C. wheezing, lower airway
D. rhonchi, lower airway

Answer 236

C. wheezing, lower airway

Question 237

Inspiration is best described as:

A. a voluntary or involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating negative pressure within the lung.
B. a voluntary or involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating positive pressure within the lung.
C. an exclusively involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating negative pressure within the lung.
D. an exclusively voluntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating positive pressure within the lung.

Answer 237

A. a voluntary or involuntary contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles, creating negative pressure within the lung.