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exam 6 Flashcards

1
Q

The autonomic nervous system is divided into what 2 parts?

A
  1. Sympathetic nervous system

2. Parasympathetic nervous system

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2
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system do?

A

monitors the bodies functions

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3
Q

What is the ideal heart rate for combat performance?

A

115-145 bmp

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4
Q

What is OODA loop?

A
  1. Observe
  2. Orient
  3. Decide
  4. Act
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5
Q

How many sleep cycles does it take for your memory to come back?

A

three

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6
Q

Can you release an ATF firearm to another agency?

A

No, unless SAC approval

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7
Q

If someone is not present for a briefing will they be able to be a part of the operation?

A

No they must be present

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8
Q

What authorizes ATF Special agents to carry firearms, serve subpoenas and warrants?

A

18 U.S.C section 3051

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9
Q

What Supreme Court case established constitutional standards regarding the application of deadly force?

A

Tennessee v. Garner

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10
Q

What Supreme Court case established standards for the use of force application and examination?

A

Graham v. Conner

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11
Q

What is SIRF?

A
  1. Severity of the Crime
  2. Immediacy of the Threat
  3. Actively resisting
  4. Flight
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12
Q

Will an officer be judged on use of force based on 20/20 hindsight?

A

No only on what they knew at the time of the force

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13
Q

an officers use of force must not be perfect, just?

A

reasonable

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14
Q

What standard is use of force judged off of?

A

Objective reasonableness

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15
Q

When should agents use verbal persuasion, warnings or other tatics?

A

when safety, time circumstances and LE priorities reasonably permit it

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16
Q

What is the use of force that is likely to cause death or serious injury?

A

Deadly Force

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17
Q

What is the lowest threshold for using deadly force ?

A

imminent danger of serious physical injury to agent or another person

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18
Q

Can firearms be discharged solely to disable a vehicle?

A

No

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19
Q

what is any weaponless control technique that does not involve striking the suspect and does not result in injury?

A

Minor restraint

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20
Q

If an officer suspect criminal activity is afoot the officer must reasonably suspect that

A
  1. a crime is about to be committed
  2. is being committed
  3. has been committed
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21
Q

can an arrest be made in public without a warrant?

A

yes

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22
Q

When and where can an arrest warrant be executed?

A

24 hours a day 365

anywhere in the US

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23
Q

When can you arrest someone?

A

When you have probable cause to believe they have committed a Federal felony or misdemeanor committed in your presence…

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24
Q

What if the subject of your arrest warrant is at another person’s house can you enter there home?

A

Need an arrest warrant and a search warrant for other person’s house, or consent or hot pursuit.

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25
Q

What are the time constraints on executing a search warrant?

A

6 a.m. until 10 p.m. and 14 days.

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26
Q

What are the time constraints from executing an arrest warrant?

A

There are none

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27
Q

When should you do an S.I.A.?

A

After every arrest

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28
Q

if suspect is in a car can you search it S.I.A?

A

Yes, can search car incident to arrest, but not trunk.

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29
Q

What if suspect is out of car and detained away from his car can you the car S.I.A?

A

No, unless you have reasonable belief evidence of the crime you just arrested him for is in the car.

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30
Q

•

What if suspect arrested in a house can you search the house S.I.A?

A

Yes. Can search areas within grabbing area of place of arrest, and also automatically check rooms and closets adjacent to the place of arrest for accomplices.

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31
Q

What are you looking for in a protective sweep?

A

People who could pose a threat to you.

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32
Q

Where can you look during a protective sweep?

A

Places in the house where a person could be.

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33
Q

Deadly force against fleeing felon -when can you use it?

A

You have reason to believe the subject has committed a felony involving the infliction or threatened infliction of serious injury or death AND the escape of such person would pose an imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

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34
Q

Can you use deadly force against animals?

A

Yes, when necessary for self-defense or defense of others.

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35
Q

Can you use warning shots?

A

No its prohibited

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36
Q

After knock and announce, can you immediately breach the door?

A

NO! You must first wait a reasonable time.

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37
Q

What can happen if arousal becomes too great or overwhelming?

A

Negative states of fight, flight or fixate/freeze

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38
Q

What is hyperviligance?

A

Fight
Flight
Fixate or freeze

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39
Q

What motor skills use fine small muscle groups and require greater eye hand coordination?

A

Fine motor skills

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40
Q

What motor skills require hand- eye coordination, involve tracking or timing and often have multiple components?

A

Complex motor skills

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41
Q

What are the simplest motor skills, that utilize large muscle groups and simple actions?

A

Gross motor skills

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42
Q

At what heart rate do fine and complex motor skills become very difficult, but gross motor skills increases?

A

175+ bpm

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43
Q

What are the 2 types of thinking?

A

Rational

Experiential

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44
Q

What type of thinking gives the individual time to make smart, precise, deliberate, reflective and unhurried decisions?

A

Rational Thinking

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45
Q

What happens when the individual perceives a threat, the SNS activates and the body is at a high state of arousal or excited state?

A

Experiential Thinking

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46
Q

what can cause the body to feel extremely tired or lead to tremors or the “shakes”?

A

PNS backlash

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47
Q

If a person is experiencing PTSD symptoms 30 days after the event is it likely they have

A

PTSD

48
Q

If a person is experiencing PTSD symptoms during the first month following an event it is termed?

A

Acute Stress Disorder

49
Q

the adenosine triphosphate/phosocreatine (ATP/PC) fuel system is how much of your strength and how long does it last?

A
  • Last 10-15 seconds

- 100% of Strength

50
Q

the Lactic Acid fuel system is how much of your strength and how long does it last?

A

30-120 seconds

65% of strength

51
Q

the aerobic fuel system is how much of your strength and how long does it last?

A

active after 90 seconds

30 % of strength

52
Q

Where is the inside position located?

A

directly in front of the suspect

53
Q

where is the “ 1 “ position located?

A

45 degree angle from the front of a suspect

54
Q

where is the “2 “ position located?

A

the side of a suspect

55
Q

where is the 2 1/2 position located?

A

45 degree angle from the rear of a suspect

56
Q

where is the “3” position?

A

directly behind the suspect

57
Q

where is the femoral nerve point located?

A

inside of the thigh between the knee and thigh

58
Q

where is the brachial nerve located?

A

side of the neck

59
Q

who should you report a use of force incident to?

A
  1. field supervisor

2. force review office

60
Q

What is the white zone for mental preparation for combat?

A

individual at rest, unaware of his or her environment, possible even asleep

61
Q

what is the yellow zone of mental preparation for combat?

A

a relaxed level of alertness that perceives danger cues and processes them quickly and accurately

62
Q

What is the orange zone of mental preparation for combat?

A

heightened level of preparedness where a threat is imminent and preparations are being made to fight or flee

63
Q

What mental preparation for combat level should officers remain in?

A

Yellow zone

64
Q

What is the red zone of mental preparation for combat?

A

battle is in progress

65
Q

what is the black zone of mental preparation for combat?

A

the ultimate stage of victimization

66
Q

Which officer is in charge of all the business during an encounter including pat-downs, handcuffing, recovering evidence/contraband and routine communication?

A

Contact officer

67
Q

which officer devotes all of their attention to the suspect, discourages the suspect from being hostile, escaping etc.?

A

Cover officer

68
Q

what training facilitates the reduction of an agents reaction time and ensures that their responses are appropriate and effective and reduces the chance of a panic response?

A

Stress inoculation training

69
Q

what are the 2 types of crucial training for physical preaparation?

A
  1. stress inoculation training

2. Physical conditioning

70
Q

What can help an officer deliver additional power when delivering striking techniques?

A

Strength training

71
Q

what can help enhance an operators platform and decreases the chances of him/her being taken to the ground?

A

Additional leg strength

72
Q

What is key to recovering more quickly from an SNS activation?

A

controlling your heart rate

73
Q

Go vs. No Go factor for patient transport is based of of what factor?

A

Time

74
Q

What is the only true treatment for internal trauma?

A

Surgery

75
Q

What is the deciding factor in many cases in terms of outcome of the patient?

A

Time to Surgery

76
Q

If a suspect is hurt during an ATF operation what may be come an issue?

A

Duty to Act concept

77
Q

If an ATF agent refuses treatment what form needs to be completed and signed?

A

Refusal of Care Form

78
Q

What must an agent receive prior to treating someone if possible?

A

Consent

79
Q

What may be implied if a person is unconscious and otherwise able to communicate?

A

Implied Consent

80
Q

What is verbal, or written communication by a patient that he or she wishes to receive medical care?

A

Expressed Consent

81
Q

What is the acronym THREAT ?

A
  1. Threat suppression
  2. Hemorrhage control
  3. Rapid extraction to safety
  4. Assessment by medical providers
  5. Transport to definitive care
82
Q

What is the TCCC/TMSA Mantra?

A
  1. Combine good medicine with good tactics

2. Right intervention at the right time

83
Q

What is the acronym MARCH?

A
  1. Massive Bleeding
  2. Airway
  3. Respirations
  4. Circulation
  5. Head injury/Hypothermia/ Heat emergencies
84
Q

What shock varies from patient to patient?

A

Compensated and Decompensated shock

85
Q

If EMs has not yet arrived what should you do?

A

Reassess MARCH

86
Q

What can undo all the good you have done with MARCH?

A

moving the body, bumping into furniture, doors etc.

87
Q

Based on the idea of TCCC what is the first medical intervention in the hot zone?

A

Return fire and eliminate the threat

88
Q

What are the 3 zones in TCCC?

A
  1. Hot
  2. Warm
  3. Cold
89
Q

What medical care can be provided in the hot zone?

A

Tourniquet only

90
Q

What medical treatment is provided in the warm zone?

A

MARCH

91
Q

What is an important factor in the warm zone?

A

Security

92
Q

Will EMS enter a warm zone?

A

No

93
Q

What is the most important thing to learn about your casualty prior to dragging or carrying?

A

Can he/she stand with support and help move theirself

94
Q

What are the ATF mission objectives?

A
  1. Preserve life
  2. Ensure public safety
  3. Enforce the laws within ATF’s jurisdiction
  4. Assist with stabilizing the community impacted by the operation or critical incident
95
Q

What are the ATF Safety priorities?

A
  1. Hostages
  2. Uninvolved Civilians
  3. Special Agents/Police Officers
  4. Subjects (Suspects)
96
Q

What are the 5 stages of an ATF Enforcement Operation?

A
  1. Planning
  2. Briefing
  3. Rehearsal
  4. Execution
  5. Debrief/critique
97
Q

What is the most important stage of enforcement operations?

A

Planning stage

98
Q

what is a technique that is designed to divert the subjects’ attention from the actual mission?

A

A ruse

99
Q

What are the 4 basic principles to achieve the goal of safely immobilizing a suspect’s vehicle?

A
  1. Pre-planning
  2. Disposition/location of the suspect vehicle
  3. Command and Control
  4. Suprise
100
Q

At what speed are we making contact with a vehicle to immobilize it?

A

3mph

101
Q

vehicle immobilization is what type of procedure?

A

a deliberate and controlled procedure

102
Q

Where should your hand be placed during vehicle immobilization?

A

the 6 o’clock position of the steering wheel

103
Q

Once contact is made with the vehicle you are immobilizing you should?

A

Keep the vehicle and gear and engage the brake pedal

104
Q

What are the 4 tactical movement principles?

A
  1. Surprise
  2. Diversion
  3. Speed
  4. Command presence
105
Q

What are the 2 types of tactical movement techniques?

A
  1. Deliberate

2. Dynamic

106
Q

What are the 2 ways you can enter a center fed room?

A
  1. Cross

2. Buttonhook

107
Q

What are the 2 ways you can enter a corner fed room?

A
  1. Straight

2. Buttonhook

108
Q

What are the priorities of threats?

A
  1. Armed suspects
  2. unarmed suspects
  3. Open doors/spaces/ L shapes
  4. Closed doors
  5. Hides
109
Q

What is used to telegraph the release of coverage from one angle and assume another angle?

A

Barrel wag

110
Q

What are the 2 types of agent extraction techinques?

A
  1. Known Location

2. Unknown Location

111
Q

What should not be used to breach a window?

A

Weapon muzzle

112
Q

What will rescues from a vehicle always be?

A

a side assault to the last known location of the U/C

113
Q

Tactical movement philosophies

A
  1. Prepare for various contingencies
  2. Team concept
  3. Adoption of techniques compatible to the effects of stress
  4. Consistent tactical movement techniques
114
Q

Define speed for tactical movement?

A

Moving no faster than you can shoot accurately or safely move through an objective

115
Q

Define limited penetration

A

Breaching the entry point and clearing up to a pre-determined point using dynamic movement techniques

SA (7 decks)

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