Exam #5 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the main 3 functions of the kidney

A

Maintain fluid balance
Maintain acid base balance
Excretion of metabolic wastes

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2
Q

What are the secondary functions of the kidney (3)

A

Secrete erythropoietin when hypoxia (tells bone marrow to make more RBC)
Secretes renin (secreted by juxtaglomerular cells) when BP is low and when dehydrated
Converts vitamin D into calcitriol when Ca+ is low

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3
Q

What are the 4 classes and actions of dietetics

A

Loos diuretics
Thiazide diuretics
Potassium sparing diuretics
Osmotic diuretics

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4
Q

Filling pressure/ preload

A

Diastole

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5
Q

Pressure pushing out/after load

A

Systole

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6
Q

What medication acts in the ascending limb of the loop of henle
How much reabsorption does it block

A

Loop diuretics: furosemide (Lasix)
20% block

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7
Q

This medication is used to manage Hypertension (not 1st line and decrease edema in hf, liver and renal disease

A

Furosemide (loop diuretic)

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8
Q

This medication dislates blood vessels and lowers preload, afterload, and blood pressure

A

Furosemide (loop diuretic) lasix

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9
Q

3 adverse effects of Furosemide

A

Hypotension
Sodium, potassium and other electrolyte depletion
Possible hyperglycemia

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10
Q

This medication acts in the DCT to block reabsorption

A

Thiazide diuretics (Hydrocholorthiazide)
10% Weak diuretic

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11
Q

This medication relaxes arterioles and decreases preload, afterload, and blood pressure

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

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12
Q

This medication is a first-line treatment for HTN and manages Tamils to moderate HTN, it is also an adjunct treatment for HF and liver disease

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

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13
Q

This medication has the following adverse effects:
Electrolyte imbalance. Hyopkalemia, possibly hyperglycemia

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

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14
Q

What secretes aldosterone

A

Adrenal gland on the kidney

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15
Q

Where does aldosterone act and what does it do

A

It acts on the DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb sodium and water (to increase BP) and excrete K+

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16
Q

Which medication is an aldosterone antagonist and blocks the reabsorption of sodium and water while retaining K+

A

Spiranolactone

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17
Q

Which mediation acts in the DCT and collecting ducts

A

Spiranolactone

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18
Q

What are the indications for Spiranolactone and adverse effects

A

Not first line management of HTN
Edema d/t HF, liver and renal disease
Counter acts K+ loss caused by other diuretics (often used with furosemide)
Hyperkalemia

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19
Q

Which medication acts in the PCT and descending limb

A

Mannitol

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20
Q

This medication inhibits H20 reabsorption mainly, produces rapid diuresis and has the adverse effect of dehydration

A

Mannitol

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21
Q

Which diuretic us used to treat edema and increase intracranial pressure

A

Mannitol

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22
Q

What is the recommended time of day to take diuretics
What are the adverse effects (6)
What is the precaution if taking multiple diuretics or anti-HTN

A

AM
Dizziness, lightheadedness, Orthostatic hypotension, dehydration, constipation, F&E imbalances

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23
Q

Nursing implications for diuretics

A

D: diet (ie. K+ intake)
I= I/O monitoring, daily weight
U= unbalances F&E
R= ready for dynamic changes (light-headed es, VS, heart breath sound, cardiac rhythm etc)
E= no evening doses
T= take in AM
I= increased risk for Orthostatic hypotension
C= consider age, other meds that increase risk of F&R imbalance and BP changes

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24
Q

What are the 3 steps in hemostasis

A

Vasoconstriction, formation of platelet plug, clotting cascade

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25
Q

This is the first stage in hemostasis in which an endothelial injury occurs and the body reacts by reducing blood flow and surface pressure

A

Vasoconstriction (first 20-30 mins)

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26
Q

What exposure trigger the platelet plug and what happens after it is exposed

A

collagen exposure, activates platelets to secrete stimulators and begin the clotting cascade

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27
Q

What triggers the clotting cascade
What are the 2 pathways for this cascade
What is the overall goal

A

Clotting factors (plasma proteins)
Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways
Stabilizes clot

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28
Q

This changes the shape and aggregates platelets (activated platelets)

A

ADP adenosine diphosphate

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29
Q

This induces platelets aggregation to encourage more platelets to be drawn into the plug

A

Thromboxane A2

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30
Q

This medication prevents the formation of TXA2 and prevents platelet aggregation

A

Antiplatelet: aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid ASA)

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31
Q

This medication is used to stroke and MI prophylaxis
The adverse effects are GI bleeding and dyspepsia
- may give enteric coated to patients with an increased risk of GI bleeds

A

Aspirin

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32
Q

This medication is an ADP inhibitor, it alters platelets membrane and prevents signals to aggregate

A

Clopidogrel (Clavix)

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33
Q

Which 2 meds are given together for CVD

A

Aspirin and clopidogrel

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34
Q

Clopidogrel other factor

A

Highly bound to protein (duration of 5 days)
(94-95% bound to protein)
- which is why it is advised to stop blood thinners before a surgery

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35
Q

True of false:
Discontinue ALL anti-platelet mediations 5-7 days before a surgical procedure

A

TRUE

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36
Q

Food and drug interactions for anti-platelets

A

Chamomile, feverfew and 3 Gs
Garlic, ginger, gingko

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37
Q

Intrinsic pathway is activated when

A

Collagen is exposed

38
Q

Extrinsic pathway is activated when

A

Tissue factor is released (injury to tissue)

39
Q

Which medication is an X inhibitor and prevents new clots from forming (no effects on already formed clots)

A

Rivaroxaban (xarleto) and apixaban (eliquis)

40
Q

What is the antidote for Ricaroxoban and apixaban

41
Q

Which medication inhibits the action of clotting factors by inactivating clotting factors 2,7,9 and 10)

42
Q

Does warfarin dissolve already formed clots

A

NO, both anticoagulants do not affect already formed clots

43
Q

What is the onset of action for warfarin,
how many days does it take to reach therapeutic range
What is recommended to be used during the days it takes to reach therapeutic range
Antidote?
If the antidote is given how many days of resistance does warfarin have

A

36-72 hours
3-5 days
Bridge therapy is needed (usually heparin
Vitamin K
7days

44
Q

Which factors are vitamin K responsible for hepatic synthesis

A

Factor 2,7,9,10

45
Q

What is the difference between Pt and INR
What are the ranges
Therapeutic ranges?
How are they used together

A

PT: measures the time it takes for a clot to form in the blood
INR: standardized system to interpret PT

PT: 12-15 seconds, TR: 1.5-2
INR: 0.8-1.2 TR: >2-3.5

INR is used to interpret PT

46
Q

These 7 foods will increase the risk of bleeding on a patient who is taking warfarin

A

Gingko, garlic, ginger, chamomile, cranberries, black licorice, green tea

47
Q

The vitamin K rich foods will antagonize the warfarin effect if not eaten consistently

A

Asparagus, broccoli, cabbage, cauliflower, kale
Consistency is key

48
Q

Chronic pain persists longer than ______

49
Q

What receptors are responsible for opioid binding in the CNS
How do they work

A

MU and kappa major major recap to rights
Activation alters perception of pain

50
Q

What 2 medications are used for opioid induced constipation and how do they work

A

Naloxegol (Movantik) and Methylnatrexone (relistor) bind to the GI Mu receptors to prevent constipation

51
Q

Which medication can develop a tolerance and comes in short acting and long acting
What is the long acting used for (2)

A

Morphine, morphine ER
Used for chronic pain and opioid tolerant patients

52
Q

This medication causes the most nausea out of all the opioids

53
Q

This medication medication has a 6.7 greater potency than morphine

A

Hydromorphone (diuladid)

54
Q

Hydromorphoen has increased risk for (3)
And caused ______ nausea than morphine

A

Orthostatic hypotension
Urinary retention
Respiratory depression
Less

55
Q

This medication is used to relieve cough and is used in combo with guaifenesin
What special effect does it have
What does that mean

A

Codeine
Ceiling effect
Increasing dose does not increase the relief, it only increases the risk for adverse effects

56
Q

This medication is a semi-synthetic opioid

A

Hydrocodone

57
Q

This medication is for opioid tolerant patients for the management of breakthrough cancer pain and chronic persistent pain

58
Q

How much more potent is fentanyl compared to morphine

59
Q

How long does a fentanyl patch take to reach a steady state
How often should the patch be changed

A

6-12 hours
Every 72 hours

60
Q

Which medication is used (short acting) for breakthrough pain

61
Q

This medication is used for opioid tolerant patietns to reduce or quit heroin/ opiates

62
Q

Does methadone cure dependence

63
Q

Consider holding opiates if RR<___ breaths/ min
Respiratory depression if RR <___10/min
Unresponsive to ____ and _____

A

12
10
Verbal cues
Painful stimuli

64
Q

Opioid antagonist for opioid overdose

A

Nalaxone (Narcan)

65
Q

IV acetaminophen
Antiinflammatory properties?
Maximum daily dose
Maximum daily dose in _____ patients

A

Ofirmev
No
4000mg
2-3g

66
Q

These 2 medications inhibits cox1 and cox2
What are cox 1 and cox 2 responsible for

A

Aspirin and Ibuprofen
Cox 1- inhibits acid secretion and generates thromboxane A2
Cox2- promotes pain and inflammation

67
Q

This medication is a selective cox 2 inhibitor that lowers the risk of GI bleeds and ulcer formation
What is is used for
Is it an anticoagulant?

A

Celecoxib
Used for OR, RA, acute pain and dysmenorrhea
No

68
Q

NSAID neurological (2), Cardiovascular (1) and Gi adverse effects

A

Neuro: assess for stroke symptoms (except ASA)
All may cause tinnitus
Cardio: assess for MI (except ASA)
GI: assess for GI bleeds all (except celecoxib)

69
Q

Other primary classification of adjuvant analgesic therapy
How does it help pain
Dosing schedule?
AE compared to high opioid doses?
Treats which 3 types of pain

A

Muscle relaxants
Antidepressants
Anti seizure
Corticosteroids
Helps achieve and improve pain relief
Routine (sometimes with smaller opioid doses)
Decreased risk of AE compared to opioid doses
Refractory pain (pain that continues after treatment) neuropathic pain and nerve compression

70
Q

Muscle relaxants (common ones) (3)
How do they work

Benzodiazepines (2 common)
How do they work

A

Carisoprodol, cyclobenzaprine, lioresal (baclofen)
Decrease muscle spams dust to injury or musculoskeletal conditions (muscle spasms cause pain and stiffness)

Diazepam and lorazepam
CNA depressant and potentiate GABA (slows down transmission of nerve cells)

71
Q

What adjuvant therapy is common in back surgery or back pain

A

Muscle relaxants

72
Q

What are the 3 types of antidepressants

A

Tricyclic, selective serotonin re uptake inhibitors and Serotinin- nurepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)

73
Q

What kind of pain are antidepressants used for (2)

A

Neuropathic and chronic pain

74
Q

Block norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake in presynaptic nerve terminals

A

Tricyclic- amitriptyline

75
Q

How do anti-depressants act to relieve pain

A

More transmitters available in synaptic cleft, inhibit transmission of pain signals

Block reuptake transporter
(Pain signals are blocked and cannot enter the synaptic cleft and elicit a pain response)

76
Q

What are the 2 most common anti-seizure medications

A

Gabapentin and pregabalin

77
Q

How do gabapentin and pregabalin work
What are they used for overall (4 and which medication is used for which condition)

A

Gabapentin mechanism is unknown (used for neuropathic pain)
Pregabalin: calcium channel modulation to decrease hyper excitability caused by nerve injury
Management of neuropathic pain including:
Fibromyalgia (pregabalin)
Post hepatic neuralgia (pain after shingles), migraines and restless leg syndrome (Gabapentin)

78
Q

Adverse effects of anti-seizure medications (5)

A

Suicidal through, depression, drowsiness, impaired attention, difficulty concentrating

79
Q

This medication is used to acute and chronic cancer pain
It is used for spinal cord compression, inflammatory joint pain syndromes (ie. Rheumatoid arthritis)

A

Corticosteroids

80
Q

How do corticosteroids work
What are 2 common ones

A

Suppresses inflammation and immune response
Prednisone and dexamethasone

81
Q

What are potential adverse effects with long term therapy of corticosteroids (8)

A

Fluid retention (similar to aldosterone effects), hyperglycemia, impaired immune response, peptic ulcers, GIB, osteoporosis, bruising, Hypokalemia

82
Q

Elderly Physiologic changes like concientice impairment and decreased ability to assess pain with dementia and delirium can lead to
(3)

A

Worsening health, inadequate assessment and treatment of pain

83
Q

Decreased cardiac output in the elderly can affect medication _____ and ______

A

Absorption and distribution

84
Q

Decreased muscle strength in the lungs results in (2)

A

Decreased lung expansion and decreased response to hypoxia

85
Q

Decreased liver perfusion in the hepatic system can lead to (3)

A

Decreased metabolism of drugs
Prolonged duration of action of drugs and accumulation
Increased risk of adverse effects and drug toxicity

86
Q

Decreased renal system function leads to (2)

A

prolonged duration of action and accumulation
Increased risk of AE and drug toxicity

87
Q

Chinese people may believe pain results from an imbalance between

A

Yin and yang

88
Q

Some beliefs may be that _______ pain ____ to improve standing in life after death

A

Enduring, bravely

89
Q

People may not want to take pain medication because they believe ____ is a sign of ____ towards ______

A

Pain, progress, recovery

90
Q

What are the 2 corticosteroids mentioned in lecture

A

Prednisone, dexamethasone

91
Q

What 2 things are corticosteroids recommended for

A

Spinal cord compression and inflammatory joint pain syndromes like RA