Exam 5 Flashcards

Question

The all-or-none law applies to the: A. release of a neurotransmitter by a presynaptic neuron. B. reuptake of a neurotransmitter by a postsynaptic neuron. C. intensity of action potentials. D. frequency of action potentials.

Answer 1

C. intensity of action potentials. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-10 Answer C is correct. According to the all-or-none law, once a minimum level of stimulation is reached, an action potential occurs within a neuron and its intensity does not vary – i.e., an action potential either occurs or doesn’t occur.

Answer 2

D. creative. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer D is correct. The SII includes several scales including General Occupational Themes, which provides scores on Holland’s six occupational themes: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. (Although creative is a synonym for artistic, creative is the best answer to this question because it’s not identical to the name of the theme assessed by the SII.)

Answer 3

B. less than .65. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that the test developer cross-validated the test when she administered it to a new sample and know that validity coefficients tend to be lower for the cross-validation sample than for the original sample. This is referred to as “shrinkage,” and it occurs because all the chance factors that contributed to the correlation between the job knowledge test (predictor) and measure of job performance (criterion) for the sample that was used to develop the test are not likely to be present in the cross-validation sample.

Answer 4

C. relatively intact comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-07 Answer C is correct. Conduction aphasia is characterized by relatively intact comprehension with fluent speech that contains many errors, anomia, and impaired repetition. It’s caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area.

Answer 5

C. decide either that she likes Julian or doesn’t like the car that Julian bought. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-07 Answer C is correct. Heider’s (1958) balance theory focuses on the relationships among three elements: the person (P), another person (O), and an attitude object or event (X). It predicts that the relationships among these elements can be either balanced or unbalanced and that an unbalanced situation causes discomfort, which the person (P) will be motivated to change. The situation described in this question is unbalanced, so Martina will be motivated to establish balance by changing her attitude toward Julian or toward the car that Julian bought. Note that answer D is incorrect because, unlike answer C, it states that Martina will change her attitude toward Julian and toward the car that Julian bought, which would create another unbalanced situation.)

Answer 6

A. agree to see the client but seek supervision or consultation by telephone, videoconference, or other means with someone who has experience working with members of this population. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-04 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to obtain consultation, make a referral, or take other appropriate action when they do not have the necessary competence to provide professional services to a client. From the information given in this question, a referral doesn’t seem feasible since there are no mental health professionals in the community who have more experience than Dr. Ballard does (and it’s not given as an alternative answer). In addition, taking a single online continuing education course (answer B) is not likely to be adequate.

Answer 7

B. contains 50 items and examinees in her tryout sample are heterogeneous with regard to reading ability. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-03 Answer B is correct. Longer tests tend to be more reliable than shorter tests, and reliability coefficients are higher when the range of scores obtained by examinees is unrestricted – i.e., when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute measured by the test.

Answer 8

C. the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of nonaffected twins is similar to the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of affected twins, with the frequency for offspring of nonaffected and affected twins being greater than the frequency in the general population. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders--18 Answer C is correct. Research has found that, among monozygotic twins who were discordant for schizophrenia, the frequency of schizophrenia was similar for offspring of affected and nonaffected twins, with the frequencies for the offspring being greater than the frequency of schizophrenia in the general population. (Note that answer D can be eliminated because research on offspring outcomes did not look at the psychiatric status of the parents of the monozygotic twins who were discordant for schizophrenia.)

Answer 9

B. Equity theory EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-23 Answer B is correct. Equity theory attributes a worker’s level of motivation to social comparisons that involve comparing his/her inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of workers doing the same or a similar job. When the input/outcome ratios are similar, the worker experiences a state of equity (fairness) and is motivated to maintain his/her current performance level.

Answer 10

B. Premack principle EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-09 Answer B is correct. The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high-frequency behavior (a highly desirable activity) is used as a reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior (an undesirable activity) to increase the low-frequency behavior. Of the techniques listed, it would be most useful for helping a client identify an effective reinforcer since it just requires identifying one of his preferred high-frequency activities.

Answer 11

D. pre-encounter EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-28 Answer D is correct. Cross and Vandiver’s model consists of three stages: pre-encounter, immersion-emersion , and internalization. The pre-encounter stage includes three identity subtypes (assimilation, miseducation, and self-hatred) and is characterized by a low salience for race, internalization of negative stereotypes of African Americans, and a distrust of African Americans.

Answer 12

D. the return of older long-term memories before more recent long-term memories following a head injury that caused retrograde amnesia. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-19 Answer D is correct. The recovery of long-term memories following a traumatic brain injury ordinarily involves “shrinking retrograde amnesia” in which more distant (remote) memories return first.

Answer 13

C. 50 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-19 Answer C is correct. K. I. Howard, M. S. Krause, and D. E. Orlinsky found that about 50% of psychotherapy clients show improvement by the sixth to eighth therapy session, 75% by the 26th session, and 85% after a little over a year (The dose-effect relationship in psychotherapy, American Psychologist, 41, 159-164, 1986).

Answer 14

A. bipolar I disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-06 Answer A is correct. Gina’s symptoms are most suggestive of bipolar I disorder, which is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic episode that lasted for at least one week. Gina’s elevated mood, increased goal activity (jumping from one project to another), racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep are characteristic of a manic episode.

Answer 15

C. underextension EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Language Development-09 Answer C is correct. Underextension occurs when children apply a word only to a specific person, object, or event rather than to all of the people, objects, or events it applies to. In contrast, overextension occurs when children use a word too broadly – i.e., when they apply it to people, objects, or events it does not apply to.

Answer 16

A. Rett syndrome EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-03 Answer A is correct. Rett syndrome (RTT) is an X-linked dominant disorder that occurs almost exclusively in females and is usually caused by a mutation in the MECP2 gene. Klinefelter syndrome (answer B) occurs in males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome. Cri-du-chat syndrome (answer C) is caused by a deletion on chromosome 5. Angelman syndrome (answer D) is usually due to a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15.

Answer 17

A. mode; mean EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores “piled up” in one tail of the distribution and a few scores in the other tail: In a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution); in a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution) – i.e., the “tail tells the tale.” In both distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the highest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the lowest score. Conversely, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is the lowest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the highest score.

Answer 18

C. combination of egalitarian values and anti-minority feelings. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-13 Answer C is correct. Aversive racism is a form of covert (subtle) racism that combines a belief in egalitarian principles and support for racial equality with negative attitudes and emotions toward members of a racial minority group. Note that answer A describes symbolic racism which is another form of covert racism.

Answer 19

C. Women are more likely to experience chronic economic problems, while men are more likely to experience transient health problems. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-School and Family Influences-24 Answer C is correct. The research has found that, following divorce, women are more likely to experience a decline in economic well-being, while men are more likely to experience a decline in health. There is also evidence that the negative economic consequences for women tend to be chronic, while the negative health consequences for men are often transient.

Answer 20

D. SB5 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-04 Answer D is correct. The age range for the SB5 is 2:0 to 85+ years, so it’s appropriate for a 12-year-old-child. In contrast, the age range is 2:6 to 7:7 for the WPPSI-IV, 16:0 to 90:11 for the WAIS-IV, and 3:0 to 10:0 for the CMMS.

Answer 21

D. she will have acted ethically only if she first provides Lloyd with a plan to remediate his unacceptable behaviors and Lloyd continues to engage in those behaviors. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-19 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 7.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide supervisees with timely feedback. Although neither Code directly addresses the termination of internships, doing so without having provided an intern with feedback and opportunities to correct undesirable behaviors would violate these standards and the “spirit” of the Codes. Note that answer C is not the best answer because, while supervisors should base their evaluations of interns on actual behaviors rather than hearsay (e.g., on behaviors they have actually observed), observation of the behaviors would not be sufficient justification for terminating an internship without providing the intern with feedback and a remediation plan.

Answer 22

B. separation anxiety disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-11 Answer B is correct. Jessie’s fear of being separated from her parents is characteristic of separation anxiety disorder which may be triggered by a life stress, such as the death of a pet.

Answer 23

B. discuss with Jamie the need to share information about her binging and purging with her parents before contacting them. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-10 Answer B is correct. This is the best answer of those given because Jamie is engaging in potentially harmful behavior and, to protect her, you would want to breach confidentiality and discuss this with her parents. Breaching confidentiality to protect a client from harm is permitted by Standard 4.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards I.45 and II.42. In addition, as noted by S. H. Behnke and E. Warner, “regardless of whether an adolescent assents to have information disclosed to a parent, it makes both clinical and ethical sense to tell the adolescent – beforehand, if possible – what information will be shared, and when” [Confidentiality in the treatment of adolescents, APA Monitor, 33(3), 4]. Note that answer C is not the best answer because asking Jamie to bring her parents to the next session places too much responsibility on Jamie.

Answer 24

D. specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-12 Answer D is correct. As noted in the DSM-5, in contrast to people with other types of specific phobia, people with the blood-injection-injury type often experience vasovagal fainting, which involves an “initial brief acceleration of heart rate and elevation of blood pressure followed by a deceleration of heart rate and drop in blood pressure” (p. 199). Consequently, exposure for this type is most effective when it’s combined with applied tension, which involves repeatedly tensing and relaxing the body’s large muscle groups to increase blood pressure and prevent fainting.

Answer 25

D. REM EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-15 Answer D is correct. Newborn infants sleep longer than older children and adults do, spend more time in active (REM) sleep, and begin the sleep period with active sleep that’s followed by quiet (non-REM) sleep.

Answer 26

D. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS are presented together before presentation of the US. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer D is correct. Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus is simultaneously presented with a previously conditioned stimulus (CS) before presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US). In this situation, the new neutral stimulus will not become a conditioned stimulus and will not elicit a conditioned response when presented alone. This occurs because classical conditioning of the first neutral (conditioned) stimulus blocks classical conditioning of the second neutral stimulus, apparently because the second neutral stimulus does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus.

Answer 27

C. Psychologists do not have to obtain a client’s authorization before discussing the client’s case with a consultant if they can disguise the client’s identity while doing so. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-11 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 4.06 of the APA Ethics Code states that, when consulting with a colleague about a client, psychologists do not disclose confidential information “that reasonably could lead to the identification of a client/patient … unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person.” And Standard I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists “share confidential information with others only to the extent reasonably needed for the purpose of sharing, and only with the informed consent of those involved, or in a manner that the individuals and groups … involved cannot be identified.”

Answer 28

D. help raters distinguish between different levels of employee performance. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to help raters adopt a common frame of reference when rating employee performance. This involves ensuring that trainees understand the multidimensional nature of job performance and can distinguish between different levels of performance. Frame-of-reference training has been found to be more effective than training that focuses on rater biases.

Answer 29

A. 6 to 17 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-03 Answer A is correct. I. I. Gottesman reports that, when a person has schizophrenia, the chance that a first-degree relative who shares 50% of that person’s genes is 6% for a biological parent, 9% for a biological sibling, 13% for a child, and 17% for a dizygotic twin. In contrast, the chance is 48% for monozygotic twins who share 100% of their genes (Schizophrenia genesis: The origins of madness, New York, W. H. Freeman and Company, 1991).

Answer 30

C. acceptable if it’s not likely that Dr. Willard will have evaluative authority over the former intern in the future. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-17 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 7.07 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.29 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.07 states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority,” and Standard II.29 provides a similar prohibition. Note that answer D is not the best answer because, while discussing potential conflicts may be desirable, it’s not required by ethical guidelines.

Answer 31

B. useful for distinguishing between the two disorders because it is more common for youth with bipolar disorder than for those with ADHD. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders--14 Answer B is correct. Geller et al. (2002) propose that consideration of mania symptoms that do not overlap with symptoms of ADHD can help avoid over- or under-diagnosing bipolar disorder in children and adolescents. One of these symptoms is hypersexuality, which is more common in youth with bipolar disorder than in those with ADHD.

Answer 32

C. introjection EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-01 Answer C is correct. Gestalt therapists distinguish between five boundary disturbances: projection, retroflection, confluence, deflection, and introjection. Even if you didn’t know that the boundary disturbances are also referred to as resistances, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question by (a) recognizing that three of the answers are boundary disturbances and (b) knowing that introjection occurs when a person adopts the beliefs, standards, and values of others without evaluation.

Answer 33

C. 12; 6 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-02 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two settings (e.g., at home and at school) with symptoms having an onset before 12 years of age and a duration of at least six months.

Answer 34

A. words from the beginning of the list better than words from the middle or end of the list. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-12 Answer A is correct. The serial position effect occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then asked to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay. When asked to recall the words immediately, a person is likely to exhibit both primacy and recency effects – i.e., to recall more words at the beginning and end of the list than words in the middle of the list. In contrast, when asked to recall the words after a brief delay, the person will exhibit only a primacy effect.

Answer 35

B. differentiation EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-12 Answer B is correct. For practitioners of Bowen’s extended family systems therapy, differentiation (also known as differentiation of self) is both intrapsychic and interpersonal. It refers to a person’s ability to separate his/her own emotional and intellectual functioning which, in turn, helps ensure the person can maintain meaningful connections with other people without becoming emotionally fused with them.

Answer 36

D. MANOVA EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-12 Answer D is correct. The MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is used when a study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. An advantage of conducting a single MANOVA rather than separate ANOVAs for each dependent variable is that doing so reduces the probability of making a Type I error – i.e., it reduces the experimentwise error rate. The study described in this question has one independent variable (work shift) and three dependent variables that are all measured on a ratio scale (number of errors, absences, and accidents). Therefore, the MANOVA can be used to analyze the data collected in this study.

Answer 37

A. guilt EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer A is correct. Embarrassment, envy (jealousy), and empathy are the first self-conscious emotions to emerge at about 18 to 24 months of age. These emotions are followed by pride, shame, and guilt at about 30 to 36 months of age.

Answer 38

D. Leiter-3 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-08 Answer D is correct. The Leiter-3 is a nonverbal measure of cognitive abilities for individuals 3 to 75+ years of age who have cognitive delays, speech or hearing impairments, autism spectrum disorder, or limited English proficiency. It can be administered without verbal instructions and requires examinees to match a set of response cards to corresponding illustrations.

Answer 39

A. the development of functional language skills by age 5. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-01 Answer A is correct. A better prognosis for autism spectrum disorder is associated with an absence of intellectual disability, language impairment, and other mental health problems. With regard to language, the DSM-5 notes that a good prognostic sign is the development of functional language skills by age five.

Answer 40

A. antecedent events. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-18 Answer A is correct. In Ellis’s model, A is the antecedent event, B is the person’s belief about the event, and C is the person’s emotional or behavioral consequences of that belief.

Answer 41

C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer C is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to a progressive accumulation of extracellular amyloid-predominant neuritic plaques and intracellular tau-predominant neurofibrillary tangles in the areas of the brain listed in this question.

Answer 42

A. discuss the possible ethical violation with the psychologist. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.43 and II.44 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has acted unethically as long as doing so does not violate client confidentiality. Consequently, of the answers given, this is the best one.

Answer 43

D. refer the family to a therapist who speaks Croatian but, if that’s not possible, obtain the assistance of a professional interpreter. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-05 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 2.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.05 states that psychologists “who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to … avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity.” In other words, it would not be appropriate to have the daughter act as a translator. In addition, Guideline 6 of the APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations states that, when a psychologist’s language does not match the language of a client, the psychologist refers “the client to a mental health professional who is competent to interact in the language of the client” or, if that’s not possible, the psychologist offers “the client a translator with cultural knowledge and an appropriate professional background” (2013, p. 796).

Answer 44

B. inform Raymond of her lack of experience with meditation, discuss Raymond’s options with him, and give him a referral if he continues to want training in meditation. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-01 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 2.01(c) of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.6 and II.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide professional services that are within their boundaries of competence. Psychologists often want to expand their professional services by using new therapeutic techniques, but a two-hour workshop on mindfulness meditation is not sufficient to qualify a psychologist to provide this intervention to clients.

Answer 45

A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Theories-13 Answer A is correct. According to McGregor, a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates’ work-related attitudes and behaviors determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, affects how subordinates behave. In other words, the supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect on their job performance.

Answer 46

C. overcorrection EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-10 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to eliminate and replace an undesirable behavior and usually includes two phases: restitution and positive practice. When using this technique, verbal instructions and/or physical guidance may be necessary to help ensure the individual performs the desired behaviors.

Answer 47

D. the likelihood that exerting effort on-the-job will result in successful job performance. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-24 Answer D is correct. Expectancy theory describes job motivation as the result of three factors: (a) the worker’s belief that effort will lead to successful performance (expectancy); (b) the worker’s belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes (instrumentality); and (c) the value of those outcomes for the worker (valence).

Answer 48

D. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is unacceptable under any circumstances. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-23 Answer D is correct. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is directly addressed in Standard 10.07 of the APA's Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.07 states that “psychologists do not accept as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies.”

Answer 49

B. each word in a list is visually linked to a familiar site or object. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-11 Answer B is correct. The method of loci uses a visual image to help encode and recall a list of unrelated words. It involves choosing a familiar location and visually placing each word in a different place in that location. For example, to remember a shopping list, you might visualize your kitchen and place each item in the list in a different place – on the stove, on the counter next to the stove, next to the coffee maker on the counter, etc. Then, to recall the items, you visually “walk through” the kitchen.

Answer 50

D. provide us with more reinforcement than punishment. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-11 Answer D is correct. Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction proposes that we’re attracted to people who provide us with more reinforcement than punishment. It also predicts that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction since interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates our views and produces good feelings.

Answer 51

A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-03 Answer A is correct. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is based on Jung’s personality typology and provides information on four bipolar personality dimensions: introversion-extraversion (I, E), sensing-intuition (S, N), thinking-feeling (T, F), and judging-perceiving (J, P).

Answer 52

D. episodic buffer EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-13 Answer D is correct. A. D. Baddeley’s multi-component model of working memory describes it as consisting of a central executive and three subcomponents – the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is a temporary storage system that’s responsible for combining new verbal and visual information from the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad and integrating that information with information that’s already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).

Answer 53

B. circular question EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-13 Answer B is correct. Circular questions are an essential technique of Milan systemic therapy and are used to “(a) assess and (b) make overt the overall dynamics and interactive patterns in the system, thereby reframing the problem for all participants without the therapist having to verbally provide a reframe” [D. R. Gehart, Mastering competencies in family therapy: A practical approach to theories and clinical case documentation (2nd ed.), Belmont, CA, Brooks/Cole, 2014, p. 89]. By asking the mother and father how they react to their son’s anger, the therapist will obtain information about how the parents interact with their son when he’s angry. Note that, even if you’re unfamiliar with the nature or purpose of circular questions, as long as you know that Milan systemic family therapists use circular questions, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question.

Answer 54

C. Processing Speed Index. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-05 Answer C is correct. Children with ADHD included in the WISC-V standardization sample obtained the lowest mean score on the Processing Speed Index followed by, in order from lowest to highest score, the Working Memory, Fluid Reasoning, Visual Spatial, and Verbal Comprehension Indexes (D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014).

Answer 55

C. how groups of employees discuss problems, make decisions, and achieve work-related goals. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-15 Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, process consultation focuses on clarifying and, when appropriate, modifying group processes – e.g., how group members communicate, diagnose and resolve problems, and make decisions.

Answer 56

D. 67 to 83. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-08 Answer D is correct. The 95% confidence interval for a predicted score is calculated by adding and subtracting two standard errors of estimate to and from the predicted score. In this situation, the applicant’s predicted score is 75 and the standard error of estimate is 4, so the 95% confidence interval is 75 minus and plus 8 (two standard errors), which is 67 to 83.

Answer 57

C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-12 Answer C is correct. Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.

Answer 58

C. interpersonal therapy EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Brief Therapies-07 Answer C is correct. During the initial stage of interpersonal therapy (IPT), clients are assigned the “sick role” to allow them to be ill without blaming themselves for their symptoms and to help them view their illnesses as temporary and treatable.

Answer 59

B. procedural justice EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer B is correct. A distinction is made between three types of organizational justice: distributive, procedural, and interactional. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the procedures and processes used to determine outcomes.

Answer 60

B. social interactions. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-10 Answer B is correct. Knowing that Vygotsky’s theory is referred to as sociocultural theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As its name suggests, it emphasizes the impact of social interactions and cultural influences on cognitive development.

Answer 61

B. the duration of the symptoms EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-13 Answer B is correct. The primary difference between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder is the duration of symptoms: The DSM-5 diagnosis of acute stress disorder requires a duration of three days to one month after exposure to a traumatic event, while the diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder requires a duration of more than one month.

Answer 62

B. resistant; inconsistent in their caregiving EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-20 Answer B is correct. A baby with insecure/resistant (ambivalent) attachment stays close to his/her mother, is distressed when she leaves, and may be angry and resist her attempts at contact when she returns. Mothers of these children are inconsistent in their caregiving.

Answer 63

C. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-07 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires the presence of at least five characteristics symptoms with at least one symptom being a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in usual activities. Feelings of worthlessness or guilt, suicidal ideation or a suicide attempt, and psychomotor agitation or retardation are symptoms of this disorder, but their presence is not required for the diagnosis.

Answer 64

B. extraversion EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-20 Answer B is correct. Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt’s meta-analysis found that extraversion and conscientiousness have the largest correlation coefficients with leader effectiveness (.31 and .28, respectively). (Note that this question is asking specifically about the personality trait that’s most predictive of leader effectiveness. If it asked about the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and performance criteria, the correct answer would have been conscientiousness.)

Answer 65

C. syntax. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-14 Answer C is correct. Syntax refers to rules that determine how words can be combined into phases or sentences. For example, words can be arranged so that a sentence is in the passive voice (“The mouse was chased by the cat”) or the active voice (“The cat chased the mouse”).

Answer 66

B. .85. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-20 Answer B is correct. Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) meta-analysis produced a mean effect size of .85, which means that the average patient who received psychotherapy was “better off” than 80% of patients who did not receive psychotherapy.

Answer 67

B. relaxation and sleepiness EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-25 Answer B is correct. GABA agonists are drugs that mimic or increase the effects of GABA and include benzodiazepines and barbiturates. These drugs produce sleepiness, relaxation, and calmness.

Answer 68

C. subjects are randomly assigned to treatment groups. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-05 Answer C is correct. True experimental research is distinguished from quasi-experimental research by two main characteristics. The researcher can (a) manipulate the independent variable(s) – i.e., decide which groups receive different levels of the variable(s) and (b) randomly assign subjects to the different groups.

Answer 69

B. convergence EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-13 Answer B is correct. Binocular cues depend on both eyes and include retinal disparity and convergence. Monocular cues depend on one eye and include the relative size of objects, the overlap (interposition) of objects, linear perspective, texture gradients, and the relative motion of objects (motion parallax).

Answer 70

C. higher rates of false positives for African Americans and Hispanic Americans than for European Americans. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Clinical Tests-09 Answer C is correct. In their frequently cited study, M. Bohnstedt, P. J. Fox, and N. D. Kohatsu found that older European American adults obtained MMSE scores less indicative of neurocognitive disorder than did older African American and Hispanic American adults even when education level, occupation, age, sex, and other variables were controlled. However, there were no differences among these groups when diagnoses were made by clinicians [Correlates of Mini-Mental Status Examination scores among elderly demented patients: The influence of race-ethnicity, Journal of Clinical Epidemiology, 47(12), 1381-1387, 1994].

Answer 71

B. parietal lobe EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer B is correct. Carl’s symptoms are characteristic of contralateral neglect, which is caused by damage to the parietal lobe (most often the right parietal lobe). A person with this disorder neglects the side of his/her body opposite the location of the damage and is unaware of objects on that side of his/her body.

Answer 72

B. bilateral vision loss EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-20 Answer B is correct. Symptoms of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery often include those listed in answers A, C, and D. Vision loss is associated with strokes that involve the posterior cerebral artery, which supplies blood to the occipital lobe (i.e., the lobe that contains the visual cortex).

Answer 73

A. detouring EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. Structural family therapists distinguish between three rigid triangles: detouring, stable coalition, and triangulation. Detouring occurs when two family members avoid their conflicts by focusing on a third family member. Often, it’s the parents who avoid conflict by focusing on a child by supporting or scapegoating the child.

Answer 74

B. appear in court but assert the privilege on behalf of the client and provide the information only with authorization from the client or a court order. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-Professional Issues-26 Answer B is correct. When a psychologist receives a valid subpoena requesting that he/she appear in court to provide information about a current or former client but doesn’t have the client’s authorization to do so, the psychologist would ordinarily appear as requested by the subpoena but assert (claim) the privilege on the client’s behalf and then provide information only with the client’s authorization or a court order.

Answer 75

D. antisocial and histrionic personality disorders EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Personality Disorders-30 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 notes that antisocial and histrionic personality disorders “share a tendency to be impulsive, superficial, excitement seeking, reckless, seductive, and manipulative” (p. 662).

Answer 76

A. conjunctive EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-10 Answer A is correct. Steiner (1972) distinguished between five types of group tasks: additive, compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, and discretionary. When working on a conjunctive task, all group members must contribute to the task, and the performance of the entire group (e.g., the group’s ability to meet a deadline) is limited by the contribution of the least capable member.

Answer 77

D. sensitivity EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-07 Answer D is correct. A test’s sensitivity refers to its ability to accurately identify the people who have the disorder or other attribute the test was designed to measure, and it’s calculated using the method described in this question – i.e., sensitivity = TP/(TP + FN) where TP is the number of true positives and FN is the number of false negatives.

Answer 78

A. increasing generalization of behavioral skills. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Personality Disorders--04 Answer A is correct. The primary goals of telephone coaching are to (a) increase generalization of behavioral skills the client acquired during therapy to everyday situations and crises and (b) repair the therapeutic relationship (i.e., decrease any conflicts with or feelings of alienation or distance from the therapist).

Answer 79

D. basal ganglia EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-02 Answer D is correct. Knowing that abnormalities in the basal ganglia have been linked to both ADHD and Tourette’s disorder would have helped you to identify the correct answer even if you’re unfamiliar with the specific research addressed in this question. While the research is not entirely consistent, there’s some evidence that the caudate nucleus and other structures of the basal ganglia are smaller in individuals with comorbid Tourette’s disorder and ADHD than they are in individuals with Tourette’s disorder only. See, e.g., B. S. Peterson, Neuroimaging studies of Tourette syndrome: A decade of progress. Advances in Neurology, 85, 179-196, 2001.

Answer 80

A. determine to what extent subordinates should be allowed to participate in decision-making. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-19 Answer A is correct. The decision tree requires a supervisor to answer a series of questions to identify the best leadership style for the situation, with the styles ranging from highly autocratic (make the decision alone) to highly democratic (let group members make the decision).

Answer 81

B. Taylor’s scientific management EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Theories-14 Answer B is correct. Taylor (1911), the founder of scientific management, identified several management practices that he believed would maximize organizational efficiency and productivity. One of these is using scientific methods (e.g., time-and-motion studies) to determine the best way to do a job.

Answer 82

D. perseverative behavior EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-26 Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 identifies the symptoms listed in answers A, B, and C as the core diagnostic features of neurocognitive disorder with Lewy bodies. Perseverative, stereotyped, or compulsive/ritualistic behavior is a diagnostic criterion for frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder.

Answer 83

D. A male expresses the trait whether it’s due to a recessive or a dominant allele. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-01 Answer D is correct. An X-linked trait can be dominant or recessive. When a male inherits an X-linked recessive allele from his mother, the trait carried by that allele is always expressed because males have only one X-chromosome and there’s no corresponding dominant allele. In contrast, females have two X chromosomes and, consequently, express the trait only when they have inherited the X-linked recessive allele from both parents.

Answer 84

B. negative feedback EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-09 Answer B is correct. Negative feedback corrects deviations in family functioning so the family can return to its previous state of stability (homeostasis). In contrast, positive feedback promotes deviation.

Answer 85

D. clozapine EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-22 Answer D is correct. Agranulocytosis is a potential side effect of several antipsychotics but most often occurs with clozapine use. See, e.g., W. Austin and M. A. Boyd, Psychiatric and mental health nursing for Canadian practice (2nd ed.), Philadelphia, Wolters Kluwer/Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.

Answer 86

C. acceptable if she provides the client with referrals to other mental health professionals. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-08 Answer C is correct. Standard 3.01 of the APA Ethics Code prohibits psychologists from unfairly discriminating on the basis of age, gender, ethnicity, sexual orientation, or other basis proscribed by law. And Standard I.9 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists do “not practice, condone, facilitate, or collaborate with any form of unjust discrimination.” Neither Code requires psychologists to accept all individuals seeking their services, however, and seeing a client they know they prefer not to work with for personal reasons would not be in a client’s best interests. The best course of action would be to provide the client with referrals, but it’s not necessary to tell him why she’s doing so.

Answer 87

C. may be acceptable if the psychologist clearly specifies her usual hourly fee and the purpose of the first session. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-15 Answer C is correct. There’s no clear consensus among the experts regarding the acceptability of offering a first therapy session for free to new clients. However, there is some agreement that it’s acceptable when special precautions are taken, including making sure the person understands the limited purpose of the session (to help the person decide if he/she wants to work with the therapist) and is made aware of the subsequent fee before the first session. See, e.g., R. Miranda Jr. and B. P. Marx, Fees and financial arrangements, in W. O’Donohue and K. Ferguson (Eds.), Handbook of professional ethics for psychologists: Issues, questions, and controversies (pp.135-146), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, Inc, 2003.

Answer 88

B. Fluid intelligence begins to decline at about 30 to 40 years of age, while crystallized intelligence continues to increase and peaks at 60 to 70 years of age. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-06 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you just need to know that fluid intelligence begins to decrease at an earlier age in adulthood than does crystallized intelligence.

Answer 89

B. incremental validity. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-08 Answer B is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables are used to obtain an estimate of a predictor’s incremental validity for various combinations of criterion-related validity coefficients, base rates, and selection ratios.

Answer 90

B. schizophreniform disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-05 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophreniform disorder requires the presence of at least two characteristic symptoms for at least one month but less than six months, with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech. Raymond is having visual hallucinations and is exhibiting avolition (apathy) and possibly alogia (a relative absence of speech), which are characteristic negative symptoms, and his symptoms have lasted for a little over three months.

Answer 91

C. treatment effects plus error. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer C is correct. The F-ratio is calculated by dividing the mean square between (MSB) by the mean square within (MSW). MSB is a measure of variability due to a combination of treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only. When MSB is divided by MSW, this produces the F-ratio which provides an estimate of treatment effects.

Answer 92

C. accepts the offer but makes sure that callers understand that, by taking their calls, she has not established a professional relationship with them. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-14 Answer C is correct. This situation is directly addressed in Standard 5.04 of the APA Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Standard III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. In this situation, the psychologist would want to make sure that callers understand that a professional therapeutic relationship is not established when she responds to their questions and that the advice or opinions she provides do not constitute therapy.

Answer 93

C. temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-18 Answer C is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results, but most studies have found that the combination of temperature (thermal) biofeedback and relaxation training (e.g., autogenic training) is more effective than either intervention alone. Note that there’s also evidence that blood-volume pulse feedback is even more effective than the combination of temperature biofeedback and relaxation training. See, e.g., Y. Nestoriuc and A. Martin, Efficacy of biofeedback for migraine: A meta-analysis, Pain, 128, 111-127, 2007.

Answer 94

C. bedtime snacking EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Physical Development-07 Answer C is correct. According to Carskadon (2011), adolescent sleep deprivation is the result of a “perfect storm” that is created by a combination of biological, societal, and psychosocial factors: The main biological factor is a circadian phase delay (delayed sleep onset) that accompanies puberty as the result of changes in the secretion of melatonin. The primary societal factor is an early start time for school that limits the available time for sleep, while the psychosocial factors are greater autonomy over bedtimes, increased academic pressures, and excessive screen time (use of screen-based media) in the evening.

Answer 95

A. employee involvement. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-16 Answer A is correct. The primary emphases of TQM are continuous improvement, total employee involvement, customer satisfaction, and data-driven decision-making.

Answer 96

D. diagnostic overshadowing EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-25 Answer D is correct. Diagnostic overshadowing occurs when a clinician attributes a client’s mental or physical symptoms to a salient characteristic or condition without considering that the symptoms could be due to a disorder that’s unrelated to that characteristic or condition. Cultural/racial overshadowing is a type of diagnostic overshadowing that occurs when a clinician assumes that a client’s presenting problem is due to the client’s cultural or racial background and doesn’t consider the possibility that it’s due to an unrelated factor. See, e.g., N. N. Singh (Ed.), Handbook of evidence-based practices in intellectual and developmental disabilities (pp. 11-40), Switzerland, Springer International, 2016.

Answer 97

C. Dr. Morten and Dr. Chang are both responsible for the appropriate treatment of animal subjects. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-21 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standards 2.05 and 8.09 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.56 and III.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.09(b) states that "psychologists trained in research methods and experienced in the care of laboratory animals supervise all procedures involving animals and are responsible for ensuring appropriate consideration of their comfort, health, and humane treatment." And Standard 2.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.56 and III.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics similarly state that psychologists are responsible for the professional activities that they designate to others.

Answer 98

D. initiating structure and consideration. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-18 Answer D is correct. Ohio State University researchers found that leader behaviors represent two independent dimensions: Leaders high in initiating structure are task-oriented and focus on achieving performance goals, while leaders high in consideration are person-oriented and focus on fostering the trust and respect of subordinates.

Answer 99

C. do EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Language Development-08 Answer C is correct. Morphemes are the smallest units of language that have meaning and cannot be broken down into smaller parts. They include free morphemes that can stand alone as a word (e.g., do, dog) and bound morphemes that must be combined with at least one other morpheme to form a word (e.g., ing, er). Phonemes (e.g., sh, d) are the smallest units of sound that can be understood in a language.

Answer 100

B. skills and knowledge that will be used infrequently on-the-job. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-09 Answer B is correct. Overlearning refers to learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery and results in automaticity, which occurs when information is recalled or a behavior is performed with little conscious effort or awareness. Automaticity is especially important for tasks that are performed relatively infrequently and when correct performance is essential because errors can have serious negative consequences.

Answer 101

B. It may be acceptable to administer the test to members of that group when alternative measures are unavailable and the possible limitations of test’s results are specified. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-24 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.02(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.02(b) states that, when the reliability and validity of the tests they use haven’t been established for members of the population being tested, psychologists “describe the strengths and limitations of test results and interpretations.” And Standard III.8 requires psychologists to acknowledge the limitations of their findings.

Answer 102

C. pseudo-independence EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-27 Answer C is correct. The first phase of Helms’s model consists of the contact, disintegration, and reintegration statuses, and its second phase begins with the pseudo-independence status, which is followed by the immersion/emersion and autonomy statuses.

Answer 103

B. reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-05 Answer B is correct. A realistic job preview (RJP) involves informing job applicants about the positive and negative aspects of the job to reduce the risk for turnover after they’re hired by ensuring they have realistic job expectations.

Answer 104

B. biological father absence/stepfather presence EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Physical Development-12 Answer B is correct. According to Ellis and Garber’s mediational model, the association between maternal mood disorder and early onset puberty in girls is mediated by two factors: biological father absence with stepfather presence and stressful family relationships. They also propose that the pheromones emitted by an unrelated male adult (stepfather) accelerate the onset of puberty in young girls.

Answer 105

A. nonverbal cognitive abilities of a 10-year-old child with limited English proficiency. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-07 Answer A is correct. The Standard Progressive Matrices is a version of Raven’s Progressive Matrices for individuals 6 years of age and older. Like the other versions, it assesses nonverbal intelligence and, because instructions are simple and can be pantomimed if necessary, it’s useful for individuals who are hearing-impaired or non-English speakers.

Answer 106

A. The client has persistent thoughts about the seriousness of her symptoms. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-16 Answer A is correct. A characteristic that distinguishes somatic symptom disorder from illness anxiety disorder is that a person with somatic symptom disorder is preoccupied with one or more somatic symptoms (answer A), while a person with illness anxiety disorder is preoccupied with having or acquiring a serious illness (answer B). People with both disorders often engage in excessive health-related behaviors (answer D), and people with body dysmorphic disorder are preoccupied with a perceived defect or flaw in their physical appearance (answer C).

Answer 107

D. individuation EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-03 Answer D is correct. The primary goal of Jung’s analytical psychotherapy is to bring unconscious material into consciousness to facilitate the process of individuation, which involves achieving individual “wholeness” (being a unique unified person) by becoming conscious of and harmonizing the various parts of the psyche.

Answer 108

B. medulla. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-03 Answer B is correct. The medulla controls respiration and other vital autonomic functions. Opioids and opioid agonists produce respiratory depression by reducing the responsiveness of the medulla’s respiratory center to carbon dioxide.

Answer 109

C. Socratic questions EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-17 Answer C is correct. Socratic questioning is also referred to as Socratic dialogue and the Socratic method. It’s an essential component of Beck’s cognitive behavior therapy and involves asking a client questions that help the client identify his/her distorted patterns of thinking and the effects of that thinking on his/her emotions and behaviors.

Answer 110

A. helping the client recognize that performance failures are due to skill deficits EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-15 Answer A is correct. Stress inoculation training (SIT) consists of three phases (conceptualization, skill acquisition and rehearsal, and application and follow-through), and helping clients recognize that performance failures are due to skill deficits is one of the tasks of the initial conceptualization phase. This is a difficult question but knowing that skill acquisition and rehearsal is the second phase of SIT would have helped you identify the correct answer: It makes sense that, before learning new skills, a client would have to recognize that his/her inability to adequately cope with stress is due to skill deficits. See, e.g., D. Meichenbaum and R. Cameron, Stress inoculation training: Toward a paradigm for training coping skills, in D. Meichenbaum and M. E. Jaremko (Eds.), Stress reduction and prevention (pp. 115-154), New York, Plenum Press, 1983.

Answer 111

B. contempt EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-School and Family Influences-22 Answer B is correct. Gottman and Levenson found that, of the four behaviors listed in the answers to this question, contempt (which is characterized by hostility, disrespect, and disgust) is the most damaging to a couple’s relationship and is the single best predictor of divorce.

Answer 112

C. microinvalidation EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-24 Answer C is correct. D. W. Sue and his colleagues distinguish between three types of microaggression: microinvalidation, microinsult, and microassault. Microinvalidations “are characterized by communications that exclude, negate, or nullify the psychological thoughts, feelings, or experiential reality of a person of color” [Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62 (4), 271-286, 2007].

Answer 113

C. 40 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-06 Answer C is correct. For the exam, keep in mind that a factor loading is interpreted by squaring it to determine the amount of variability in test scores that is explained by ONE factor, while a communality is interpreted directly as the amount of variability explained by ALL of the identified factors: When a test’s communality is .40, this means that the identified factors explain 40% of the variability in test scores.

Answer 114

A. exception EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Brief Therapies-06 Answer A is correct. Exception questions are used by solution-focused therapists to help clients identify times when their problems did not exist or were less intense.

Answer 115

C. James-Lange theory EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-16 Answer C is correct. The facial feedback hypothesis predicts that the facial expressions associated with different emotions produce those emotions – e.g., that smiling can make someone feel happy. This is consistent with James-Lange theory, which proposes that a physical reaction elicited by an external event precedes the experience of emotion – e.g., people cry in response to an external event and then feel sad because they’re crying.

Answer 116

C. Spearman EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-06 Answer C is correct. Knowing that “Spearman” refers to the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As its name suggests, it’s used to determine the correlation between rank-ordered data.

Answer 117

D. crisis and choice. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-18 Answer D is correct. Marcia identified four identity statuses (diffusion, moratorium, foreclosure, and achievement) that describe identity development in adolescence, with a person’s status being determined by whether or not the person has experienced an identity crisis and made choices with regard to his/her identity (e.g., has chosen a career).

Answer 118

B. arbitrary inference EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-16 Answer B is correct. Beck described arbitrary inference as a cognitive distortion that occurs when a person draws a conclusion based on inadequate evidence.

Answer 119

B. self-verification theory EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-04 Answer B is correct. Self-verification theory predicts that, regardless of whether people have positive or negative self-concepts, they seek feedback from and prefer to spend time with others who confirm their self-concepts.

Answer 120

D. unethically. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-16 Answer D is correct. Billing an insurance company for a reimbursable form of therapy instead of the non-reimbursable form that’s actually being provided is insurance fraud and is both illegal and unethical.

Answer 121

A. prevent rehearsal of the list of words. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-14 Answer A is correct. The procedure described in this question is used to assess the effects of retroactive interference. Subjects in Group B engage in a distracting task to keep them from rehearsing the list of words so that poorer recall by Group A subjects can be attributed to retroactive interference rather than to the fact that Group B subjects had more time to memorize the list of words.

Answer 122

B. establishing pay equivalencies for different jobs performed primarily by men or women. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-02 Answer B is correct. Comparable worth is the principle that workers performing different jobs that require the same skills and responsibilities or that are of comparable value to the employer should be paid the same and has been applied primarily to the gender gap in wages. Comparable worth procedures are often used to establish pay equity across different jobs that require similar abilities but have traditionally been performed by men or by women.

Answer 123

B. the night alarm EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-17 Answer B is correct. The night alarm is also known as the moisture alarm, enuresis alarm, and bell-and-pad and is considered the first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis. (Note that desmopressin is comparable to the night alarm in terms of short-term effects. However, relapse rates are high when the drug is stopped, and the night alarm has a lower relapse rate and better long-term effects.)

Answer 124

D. she must tell participants about the true purpose of the study as early as feasible and allow them to withdraw their data. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-18 Answer D is correct. The use of deception in research is covered in Standard 8.07 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07(c) states that “psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection, and permit participants to withdraw their data.”

Answer 125

C. intimacy. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-04 Answer C is correct. The five basic innate needs identified by choice theory are love and belonging, power, fun, freedom, and survival. Although “intimacy” might be considered a substitute for “love and belonging,” it’s not the correct answer because the other three answers are identical to the language associated with choice theory and reality therapy.

Answer 126

B. important for peripheral vision. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-12 Answer B is correct. Cones and rods are the two types of photoreceptors in the eye. Cones work best in bright light and are responsible for visual acuity (sharpness and precise detail) and the perception of color. Rods do not perceive color but are most important for peripheral vision and are responsible for vision in dim light.

Answer 127

A. shaping. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-08 Answer A is correct. Shaping is also known as successive approximation conditioning because it involves reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior until the desired behavior is established.

Answer 128

C. expertise and trustworthiness EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Persuasion-08 Answer C is correct. Research by Hovland, Janis, and Kelley (1953) found that the credibility of the source of a persuasive message is affected primarily by the source’s level of expertise and trustworthiness.

Answer 129

B. compare the selection test and job performance scores obtained by older and younger workers in the validation sample. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-06 Answer B is correct. As defined by the EEOC, “test unfairness” occurs when members of one group consistently obtain lower scores on a selection test or other employment procedure but the score difference is not reflected in differences in scores obtained by different groups on a measure of job performance.

Answer 130

B. conventional EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-16 Answer B is correct. The two stages of Kohlberg’s conventional level are (a) the “good boy/good girl” stage, during which the acceptability of a behavior depends on whether or not it’s socially approved of or liked by others, and (b) the law and order orientation stage, during which the acceptability of a behavior depends on whether or not it violates laws and rules that have been established by legitimate authorities. Morgan’s response indicates that he’s in the first stage of the conventional level.

Answer 131

D. the test’s standard deviation and reliability coefficient EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. A test’s standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s obtained score. It’s calculated by multiplying the test’s standard deviation times the square root of 1 minus its reliability coefficient.

Answer 132

C. lack of remorse or guilt. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-23 Answer C is correct. The four diagnostic categories for conduct disorder identified in the DSM-5 are aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violation of rules. Lack of remorse or guilt is a specifier for this disorder.

Answer 133

A. a structured questionnaire that provides the information needed to compare worker activities for different jobs. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-01 Answer A is correct. The Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) is a structured worker-oriented job analysis questionnaire that addresses six categories of work activity: information input, mental processes, work output, relationships with other people, job context, and other characteristics. Because these activities are general, the PAQ can be used for a variety of jobs, and it allows an employer to compare activities across different jobs.

Answer 134

A. discuss the situation further with Marie to determine the best course of action. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-22 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.1, II.18, and III.32 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.04 requires psychologists to “carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client’s/patient’s welfare” when deciding whether to provide services to individuals who are receiving mental health services from another professional. Dr. Tolvardson would want to obtain more information from Marie (e.g., what she means by “things aren’t going well”) before choosing a course of action.

Answer 135

A. confirming the diagnosis of intellectual disability for a 6-year-old child. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Clinical Tests-11 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of intellectual disability requires deficits in both intellectual and adaptive functioning. The Vineland-3 is a measure of adaptive functioning that’s often used to assist in the diagnosis of this disorder.

Answer 136

A. a 70-year-old woman EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-23 Answer A is correct. The risk for tardive dyskinesia is related to age and gender with older adults and women being at the greatest risk. Therefore, of the people listed in the answers, a 70-year-old woman is most likely to develop this disorder when taking an antipsychotic drug. See, e.g., B. Fadem and S. Simring, Psychiatry recall (2nd ed.), Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2004.

Answer 137

D. Psychologists may prioritize ethical responsibilities or legal requirements, depending on the nature of the situation. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-03 Answer D is correct. Unresolvable conflicts between ethical responsibilities and legal requirements are addressed in Standard 1.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Both require psychologists to make a reasonable effort to resolve a conflict in a way that’s consistent with ethical responsibilities but do not require psychologists to abide by ethical responsibilities in all situations. As noted by C. B. Fisher, “when reasonable actions taken by psychologists do not resolve the conflict, they are permitted to make a conscientious decision to comply with the legal or regulatory authority under circumstances in which their actions cannot be used to justify or defend violating human rights” (Decoding the Ethics Code: A practical guide for psychologists, Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2017, p. 59). Note that answer C is not the best answer because of its inclusion of the word “should.”

Answer 138

D. signals that a behavior will be reinforced. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-05 Answer D is correct. A positive discriminative stimulus signals that reinforcement will be delivered following the performance of a particular behavior, while a negative discriminative stimulus signals that reinforcement will not be delivered.

Answer 139

B. person-centered therapy EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Brief Therapies-08 Answer B is correct. Motivational interviewing focuses on helping clients overcome ambivalence about changing their behaviors and incorporates elements of Rogers’s person-centered therapy, Prochaska and DiClemente’s transtheoretical model, Bandura’s concept of self-efficacy, and Festinger’s notion of cognitive dissonance.

Answer 140

A. increases statistical power and the probability of making a Type I error. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-09 Answer A is correct. Increasing alpha from .01 to .05 increases the likelihood that the null hypothesis will be rejected. Consequently, if the null hypothesis is true, this increases the probability that a true null hypothesis will be rejected – i.e., it increases the likelihood that a Type I error will occur. Or, if the null hypothesis is false, this increases the probability that a false null hypothesis will be rejected – i.e., it increases statistical power.

Answer 141

D. population standard deviation decreases and sample size increases. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-08 Answer D is correct. The standard error of the mean is the standard deviation of the sampling distribution of means and is used to determine how well a sample mean estimates a population mean. It’s calculated by dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of the sample size, and it decreases in magnitude as the population standard deviation decreases and the sample size increases, and vice versa.

Answer 142

D. cognitive dissonance theory EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-06 Answer D is correct. The results of the E. Aronson and J. Mills study confirmed the prediction of cognitive dissonance theory that subjects would justify the suffering they endured to be accepted into a group by deciding that the group was worth the suffering [The effect of severity of initiation on liking for a group, The Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 59(2), 17-181, 1959].

Answer 143

B. to help relieve the distress of the victims of the disaster. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-14 Answer B is correct. This is a difficult question because it refers to a specific study without naming the study. However, if you know that the empathy-altruism hypothesis for prosocial behavior has been found to be more accurate than the negative state relief model, you may have been able to make an “educated guess.” The previous research mentioned in the question was conducted by R. L. Piferi, R. L. Jobe, and W. H. Jones. They found that subjects in their study gave several reasons for donating money or providing other assistance to victims of 9/11 but the altruistic motivation (helping to improve the victims’ well-being) was most predictive of future donations and assistance [Giving to others during national tragedy: The effects of altruistic and egoistic motivations in long-term giving, Journal of Social and Personal Relationships, 23(1), 171-184, 2006].

Answer 144

A. T score = 40 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-12 Answer A is correct. In a normal distribution, a stanine score of 5 is equivalent to raw scores that equal the mean or are slightly above or below the mean, a z-score of 1.0 and a percentile rank of 84 are equivalent to the raw score that’s one standard deviation above the mean, and a T-score of 40 is equivalent to the raw score that’s one standard deviation below the mean.

Answer 145

A. carbamazepine and divalproex EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-24 Answer A is correct. Carbamazepine and divalproex are anticonvulsant drugs, which are considered alternatives to lithium as first-line treatments for the manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. See, e.g., J. C. Chou, Review and update of the American Psychiatric Association practice guideline for bipolar disorder, Primary Psychiatry, 11(9), 73-84, 2004.

Answer 146

A. occur during the transition from sleep to wakefulness. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-19 Answer A is correct. People with narcolepsy often experience hypnagogic and/or hypnopompic hallucinations which occur, respectively, during the transition from wakefulness to sleep or from sleep to wakefulness.

Answer 147

C. the monetary costs and benefits of using a new selection technique EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-07 Answer C is correct. Utility analysis is used to obtain information on the monetary value (return on investment) of a selection test, training program, or other employment practice.

Answer 148

D. seek consultation to help determine the best course of action. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-09 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 3.05(b) of the APA Ethics Code and Standards III.31 and III.32 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.05(b) states that, “if a psychologist finds that, due to unforeseen factors, a potentially harmful multiple relationship has arisen, the psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code.” The question does not describe the nature of the multiple relationship and it may or may not be necessary for the psychologist to terminate the relationship with the client or the relative. Consequently, of the answers given, seeking consultation best meets the requirement to take “reasonable steps.”

Answer 149

D. the influence of shared factors on intelligence decreases beginning in adolescence, while the influence of nonshared factors is relatively stable throughout the lifespan. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-05 Answer D is correct. Environmental factors that influence intelligence (and other traits) are categorized as shared or non-shared. Shared factors have a large influence on intelligence until adolescence when their influence begins to decrease and then sharply decreases in adulthood. In contrast, nonshared factors have a relatively stable influence throughout the lifespan. (Note that, contrary to what might be expected, the contribution of genetics to intelligence increases over the lifespan.)

Answer 150

C. sea slugs EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-14 Answer C is correct. Kandel and his associates (e.g., Kandel, 1976) used sea slugs (Aplysia) as subjects for their research on neuronal changes associated with learning and memory because sea slugs have a simple nervous system that consists of a small number of large neurons.

Answer 151

A. at or soon after the birth of their babies. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-17 Answer A is correct. Mothers and fathers tend to perceive and treat boys and girls differently on the basis of sex as soon as their children are born. For example, parents often describe newborn boys as “strong” and “big” and handle them more firmly and describe newborn girls as “delicate” and “little” and handle them more gently.

Answer 152

C. negligence EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-Professional Issues-28 Answer C is correct. Four conditions are required for a claim of malpractice: (a) The psychologist must have had a professional relationship with the client that established the psychologist’s duty to conform to a professional standard of care. (b) There was a dereliction or breach of the duty on the part of the psychologist. (c) The client suffered injury or harm as a result of this dereliction or breach. (d) The psychologist’s dereliction or breach of duty was the direct or proximate cause of the person’s harm or injury. Negligence (answer C) is a possible cause of a breach of duty (answer D) but it’s not required for a claim of malpractice because a breach of duty can be due other factors.

Answer 153

C. .80. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-09 Answer C is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that a predictor’s criterion-related validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of its reliability coefficient. When the predictor’s reliability coefficient is .64, this means it’s validity coefficient can be no larger than the square root of .64, which is .80. Note that, on the EPPP, if you have to determine the square root of a number, it will be an “easy” number like .81, .64, or .49. You do NOT have to know how to calculate a square root.

Answer 154

C. may conduct therapy via telephone for this client if he’s received adequate training in telepsychology. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-06 Answer C is correct. This situation is directly addressed in Standard 2.01(e) of the APA Ethics Code and APA’s Guidelines for the Practice of Telepsychology and indirectly addressed in Standard II.18 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Guideline 1 of the Guidelines for the Practice of Telepsychology states that “psychologists who provide telepsychology services strive to take reasonable steps to ensure their competence with both the technologies used and the potential impact of the technologies on clients/patients.” In addition, the discussion of the application of Guideline 1 states the lack of empirical evidence for providing therapy via telephone or other telecommunication format “in and of itself, may not be grounds to deny providing the service to a client/patient” (2013, pp. 793-794).

Answer 155

D. pretesting EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-03 Answer D is correct. Administering a pretest as a part of a research study can threaten the internal and external validity of the study. The Solomon four-group design allows a researcher to determine if the apparent effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable are due to the independent variable or due, at least in part, to exposure to the pretest (i.e., to determine if the study has internal validity). It also allows the researcher to determine if the effects of the independent variable generalize to situations in which a pretest is not administered (i.e., to determine if the study has external validity).

Answer 156

D. send the client the requested information by email if she has been informed of the potential limits on confidentiality and the information in the email is encrypted. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-07 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standards 4.01 and 4.02 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards I.41 and I.23 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to maintain the confidentiality of client information and to discuss the limits of confidentiality with clients during the informed consent process. It’s also consistent with guidelines for the use of technology: For example, Guideline 4 of the APA’s Guidelines for the Practice of Telepsychology states that “psychologists who provide telepsychology services make reasonable efforts to protect and maintain the confidentiality of the data and information relating to their clients/patients and inform them of the potentially increased risks of loss of confidentiality inherent in the use of the telecommunication technologies, if any” (2013, p. 4). Encryption is a recommended method for protecting the confidentiality of emails.

Answer 157

D. self-concepts. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-11 Answer D is correct. Self-concept is a central concept in Super’s theory and refers to how people perceive themselves and their situations. According to Super, a person’s self-concept influences and is influenced by his/her career development process and is the major determinant of the person’s career decisions.

Answer 158

D. not provide an opinion unless ordered to do so by the judge. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-Professional Issues-27 Answer D is correct. Knowing that fact witnesses testify only about facts (what they have observed) while expert witnesses offer opinions would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. If asked to provide an opinion when testifying as a fact witness, the best course of action for a psychologist is to state that he/she is not qualified to offer an opinion and then provide an opinion only if ordered to do so by the judge. See, e.g., T. P. Remley, Preparing for court appearances, ACA legal series (vol. 1), Alexandria, VA, American Counseling Association, 1991.

Answer 159

C. discordance between one’s experienced and assigned gender. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-21 Answer C is correct. This is the best answer because it’s closest to the DSM-5’s description of gender dysphoria, which states that it’s characterized by “marked incongruence between one’s experienced/expressed gender and assigned gender” (p. 452).

Answer 160

B. self-liberation EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Brief Therapies-05 Answer B is correct. Clients in the precontemplation or contemplation stage benefit from consciousness raising, dramatic relief, and environmental manipulation. In addition, self-reevaluation is useful for helping people in the contemplation stage transition to the preparation stage. Self-liberation is useful for helping people in the preparation stage transition to the action stage.

Answer 161

B. job satisfaction EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-17 Answer B is correct. Research on the compressed workweek has found that it has a strong positive effect on job satisfaction and a positive but weaker effect on job productivity (Baltes et al., 1999). However, its effects on absenteeism and turnover are unclear because there’s limited research on these outcomes and the existing research has provided mixed results.

Answer 162

D. experiential avoidance EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-14 Answer D is correct. From the perspective of ACT, experiential avoidance occurs when a person is unwilling to stay in contact with unwanted thoughts, feelings, physical sensations, and/or other internal experiences and, as a result, engages in counterproductive behaviors to avoid or control them. While experiential avoidance may be temporarily useful, as a long-term strategy “it limits psychological flexibility, takes time and energy away from leading a valued life, and generates what is commonly referred to in ACT as dirty pain.” Dirty pain is also known as dirty discomfort and refers to “emotional distress and discomfort that results from unsuccessful attempts to control unwanted psychological experiences” (R. D. Zettle, ACT for depression: A clinician’s guide to using acceptance and commitment therapy in treating depression, Oakland, CA, New Harbinger Publications, Inc., 2007, p. 14).

Answer 163

C. flat (rectangular). EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Score Interpretation-11 Answer C is correct. Percentile rank distributions are always flat regardless of the shape of the raw score distribution because percentile ranks are evenly distributed throughout the range of scores: The same number of scores fall between the percentile ranks of 1 and 10, 11 and 20, 21 and 30, etc.

Answer 164

C. children and adolescents ages 3 to 18 years who have experienced sexual abuse. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-15 Answer C is correct. TF-CBT was originally developed for children and adolescents ages 3 to 18 to address problems related to child sexual abuse. It has subsequently been used to treat children and adolescents who have been exposed to other types of traumatic events.

Answer 165

B. encourages each group member to express his/her opinion during group meetings. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-21 Answer B is correct. Janis proposes that group leaders can reduce the risk for groupthink by remaining neutral in the beginning of a discussion, encouraging members to express their opinions, appointing a member to play devil’s advocate, and bringing in outside opinions.

Answer 166

B. exosystem. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-02 Answer B is correct. Ecological theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that impact a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the environment that the child is not in direct contact with but affect the child’s immediate environment. These elements include the parents’ places of work, the extended family, neighbors, mass media, and community health services.

Answer 167

B. enemies into friends. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-09 Answer B is correct. Sherif’s (1966) Robbers Cave study and several other studies have confirmed that introducing superordinate goals (goals that can be achieved only when hostile groups work together cooperatively) can reduce intergroup hostility – i.e., can turn enemies into friends.

Answer 168

B. orthogonal. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-04 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you do NOT need to be familiar with varimax rotation: You just need to know that, in the context of factor analysis, orthogonal factors are uncorrelated while oblique factors are correlated. (Varimax is one of several methods of factor rotation that produces orthogonal factors.)

Answer 169

D. depression EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-School and Family Influences-25 Answer D is correct. Several studies (e.g., Danese & Tan, 2014) have found that depression mediates the relationship between childhood maltreatment (especially physical and sexual abuse) and adult obesity. In other words, childhood maltreatment increases the risk for depression, and depression then increases the risk for obesity.

Answer 170

D. sexual minority individuals utilize mental health services at higher rates than heterosexual individuals do, with bisexual men and women having the highest rates. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-22 Answer D is correct. This answer is consistent with the results of the 2013, 2014, and 2015 National Health Interview Surveys (Platt, Wolf, & Scheitle, 2018), which found that sexual minority individuals utilized mental health services at higher rates than heterosexual individuals did, with bisexual men and women having the highest utilization rates.

Answer 171

B. parental alienation syndrome EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-MMPI-2-01 Answer B is correct. Several studies have found that parents undergoing child custody evaluations who have symptoms of parental alienation syndrome are more likely than those without symptoms to respond defensively to the MMPI-2 as evidenced by higher-than-normal scores on the L and K scales and lower-than-normal scores on the F scale. See, e.g., R. M. Gordon, R. Stoffey, and J. Bottenelli, MMPI-2 findings of primitive defenses in alienating parents, The American Journal of Family Therapy, 36, 211-228, 2008.

Answer 172

C. aversive counterconditioning EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-04 Answer C is correct. Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy that’s conducted in imagination rather than in vivo (with real stimuli). Aversion therapy is also known as aversive counterconditioning.

Answer 173

A. denial or distortion EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-02 Answer A is correct. According to Rogers, people often react to incongruence between self and experience defensively by denying that the experience occurred or distorting the experience so it’s more consistent with the self.

Answer 174

A. assimilation EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-13 Answer A is correct. In this situation, the child is assimilating the apparent movement of the moon into what he already knows – i.e., things that move with you are following you. Even if his mother tries to explain why it appears that the moon is following them, the child is too young to understand (accommodate) this new information. (Note that the child’s explanation is also an example of animism, but that’s not given as an answer to this question.)

Answer 175

A. unethical. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-13 Answer A is correct. Bartering is addressed in Standard 6.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which both prohibit bartering when it’s “clinically contraindicated.” In the bartering arrangement described in this question, you would be acting as both therapist and employer, and it would be clinically contraindicated since doing so could affect your objectivity and the therapeutic relationship if you’re dissatisfied with the client’s work.

Answer 176

B. top-down processing EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Sensation and Perception-11 Answer B is correct. The ability to read and understand text that contains multiple errors is attributable to top-down processing which occurs when the brain uses pre-existing knowledge and expectations to interpret perceptual information. When reading text with typographical errors, you may not even notice the errors because you unconsciously and automatically correct them while reading.

Answer 177

D. is acceptable if the client will be temporarily residing in the same jurisdiction and may be acceptable if he will be residing in a different jurisdiction. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-Professional Issues-25 Answer D is correct. When you’re licensed in a jurisdiction (state or province), providing professional services to a client who is outside that jurisdiction is essentially practicing without a license. (The location of the client, not the psychologist, determines where professional services are being provided.) However, some jurisdictions allow psychologists to provide services outside the jurisdiction(s) where they’re licensed; however, for most jurisdictions, this is only for a brief period of time. See, e.g., J. E. Barnett and K. Kolmes, Avoiding a disconnect from telemental health, Monitor on psychology, 47(5), 48-55, 2016, retrieved from http://www.apa.org/monitor/2016/05/ce-corner.aspx

Answer 178

D. How long has the depression been controlling your life? EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-10 Answer D is correct. Externalizing the problem is an essential strategy of narrative family therapy and involves “reframing the problem from an internal deficiency or pathological condition in the individual to an objectified external and unwelcome narrative with a will of its own to dominate their lives” [H. Goldenberg and I. Goldenberg, Family therapy: An overview (8th ed.), Belmont, CA, 2012, p. 403]. Of the questions listed in the answers, a narrative family therapist is most likely to ask how long the depression has been controlling the client’s life since this would help externalize and objectify the depression.

Answer 179

A. primary EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-21 Answer A is correct. Primary preventions target groups of people (e.g., older members of a community) who have not yet developed an undesirable behavior or condition (isolation) by intervening before the behavior or condition occurs.

Answer 180

B. referred to as behavioral contrast. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-06 Answer B is correct. Behavioral contrast occurs when two behaviors are reinforced and reinforcement for one behavior is stopped. In this situation, the behavior that’s still being reinforced increases in frequency, while the behavior that’s no longer being reinforced decreases.

Answer 181

C. time constraints and limited cognitive abilities. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-22 Answer C is correct. Simon’s bounded rationality model proposes that rational decision-making is limited by time restrictions, insufficient information, and the cognitive limitations of the decision maker. As a result, decision makers often satisfice – i.e., consider alternatives only until a “good enough” alternative is found rather than identify and consider all possible alternatives before choosing one.

Answer 182

C. 15 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PAS-Clinical Tests-10 Answer C is correct. When using the Glasgow Coma Scale to assess level of consciousness following a traumatic brain injury, the patient is rated on his/her best eye opening, verbal, and motor responses. The total rating ranges from 3 to 15, with 3 indicting deep coma or brain death and 15 indicating the patient is fully awake and aware.

Answer 183

D. acetylcholine EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-09 Answer D is correct. Knowing that acetylcholine is important for movement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with the effects of curare. Curare is a poison that acts as an antagonist at acetylcholine (cholinergic) receptors at neuromuscular junctions and causes muscle paralysis by blocking the effects of acetylcholine.

Answer 184

A. lacks adequate convergent validity. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-05 Answer A is correct. The monotrait-heteromethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the test being evaluated for construct validity and a measure of the same trait (monotrait) using a different method of measurement (heteromethod). For example, if the multitrait-multimethod matrix is being used to assess the construct validity of a self-report measure of assertiveness, a monotrait-heteromethod coefficient might be the correlation between the self-report measure of assertiveness and a teacher report measure of assertiveness. If this coefficient is small, this indicates that the assertiveness test may lack adequate convergent validity because it doesn’t have a high correlation with a test it should correlate with. (A measure’s construct validity is demonstrated when it has adequate levels of both convergent and divergent validity.)

Answer 185

C. She says that, for the last six months, she’s stayed in the house a lot because she started having anxiety attacks whenever she leaves the house without a friend or family member. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-10 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of agoraphobia requires the presence of marked anxiety related to at least two of five situations – using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being in a crowd, and being outside of the home alone. Learning that Sonia has anxiety attacks not only when she uses public transportation but also when she goes outside her house alone would help confirm this diagnosis.

Answer 186

C. thinning. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Operant Conditioning-07 Answer C is correct. Reducing the amount of positive reinforcement is referred to as thinning.

Answer 187

D. Paroxetine EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-20 Answer D is correct. SSRIs (e.g., paroxetine, fluoxetine, sertraline) and antidepressants that have similar effects as SSRIs (especially clomipramine) have been found to be safe and effective treatments for premature ejaculation. Propranolol (answer A) is a beta-blocker that’s used to treat hypertension, essential tremor, and the physical symptoms associated with anxiety. Buspirone (answer B) is used to treat generalized anxiety disorder and other anxiety disorders. And flibanserin (answer C) is used to treat female sexual interest/arousal disorder in women.

Answer 188

B. colorism EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-23 Answer B is correct. Colorism is a form of internalized racism and is also known as color consciousness. It refers to “discrimination within a racial group based primarily on skin hue or color and may also include other physical characteristics such as hair texture and eye color .... [In the United States and other countries, this involves] preferences for lighter skin over darker skin within a community of color” [Racism within the race: Light skin versus dark skin, in K. Lomotey (Ed.), Encyclopedia of African American education (vol. 1), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2010, p. 529].

Answer 189

C. personal identity formation EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-11 Answer C is correct. The “reminiscence bump” has been attributed to several factors including identity formation – i.e., it occurs because adolescence and early adulthood are critical periods for the formation and establishment of an adult identity. From this perspective, “memories of autobiographical events from this period receive preferential encoding and retention given their relevance to the consolidation of the self and the formation of enduring personal self-goals” (Q. Wang, The autobiographical self in time and culture, New York, Oxford University Press, 2013, p. 160).

Answer 190

B. mediator EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-02 Answer B is correct. Mediator variables are also known as intervening variables and explain the relationship between two other variables. Kaczynski et al. found that the relationship between marital conflict and child adjustment was explained (mediated) by parenting style. In others, they found that parenting style was a mediating variable. [K. J. Kaczynski, K. M. Lindahl, N. M. Malik, and J. Laurenceau, Marital conflict, maternal and paternal parenting, and child adjustment: A test of mediation and moderation, Journal of Family Psychology, 20, 199-208, 2006.]

Answer 191

B. fundamental attribution error EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-01 Answer B is correct. Despite knowing that the topic was assigned to the student, most students in the class assumed that the position the student advocated in his speech reflects his actual position. Their assumption is predicted by the fundamental attribution error, which is the tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors and underestimate the role of situational factors when making attributions about the behaviors of other people.

Answer 192

C. frontal lobe EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-05 Answer C is correct. Perseveration (repetition of the same or similar actions) can be caused by damage to any of the four lobes of the cerebral cortex, but it’s most likely to be supramodal (to be apparent in a variety of situations and on a variety of tasks) when it’s due to frontal lobe damage.

Answer 193

C. .20 EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-01 Answer C is correct. The item difficulty index (p) ranges from 0 to 1.0, with 0 indicating a very difficult item (none of the examinees in the tryout sample answered it correctly) and 1.0 indicating a very easy item (all examinees in the tryout sample answered it correctly). Therefore, to increase the difficulty of a test, you’d want to add items that have p values close to 0 – e.g., .20.

Answer 194

D. be more certain that the treatment is responsible for any observed change in the subject’s behavior. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-04 Answer D is correct. When using the single-subject ABAB design, the study includes two baseline (A) phases and two treatment (B) phases, and the study begins with a baseline (no treatment) phase that’s followed by application of the treatment, a second baseline phase in which the treatment is withdrawn, and a second treatment phase in which the same treatment is applied. If the target behavior changes in the predicted way during both treatment phases and the second baseline phase, a researcher can be fairly confident that a change in the behavior was due to the treatment.

Answer 195

D. adolescent-onset conduct disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-22 Answer D is correct. T. Moffitt distinguished between two types of antisocial behavior in youth: Her life-course persistent type corresponds to the childhood-onset type of conduct disorder, while her adolescence-limited type corresponds to the adolescent-onset type. According to Moffitt, the life-course persistent type is the more serious disorder and is due to inherited or acquired neurobiological and neuropsychological factors, while the adolescence-limited type is due to a “maturity gap,” which is the gap between an adolescent’s biological and social maturity (Adolescence-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior: A taxonomy, Psychological Review, 100, 674-701, 1993).

Answer 196

B. unacceptable if they’re likely to coerce participation. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-20 Answer B is correct. Offering inducements to potential research participants is addressed in Standard 8.06 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards I.27 and III.29 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.06 states that “psychologists make reasonable efforts to avoid offering excessive or inappropriate financial or other inducements for research participation when such inducements are likely to coerce participation.” Note that answer D is not the best answer because deceiving potential participants about the study might be coercive in some circumstances, but there are other reasons why coercion may occur.

Answer 197

D. critical incident technique EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-03 Answer D is correct. Knowing that behavioral anchors are descriptions of specific job behaviors that represent good, average, and poor performance would have helped you identify the critical incident technique as being most useful for developing BARS. Note that, while the critical incident technique is ordinarily used to identify extreme behaviors (i.e., very successful and very unsuccessful behaviors), the terms “critical incident” and “critical incident technique” are sometimes used more generally to refer to descriptions of specific job-related behaviors.

Answer 198

B. treatment-resistant depression. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders--25 Answer B is correct. Of the disorders listed in the answers, ketamine has been found to be an effective treatment only for treatment-resistant depression (TRD). Definitions of TRD vary, but it is often defined as involving an inadequate response to at least two antidepressants from different classes.

Answer 199

C. illusory control EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-02 Answer C is correct. Illusory control is the belief that one can control or influence events that are outside one’s control and has been used to explain why people engage in superstitious behaviors – e.g., wearing a “lucky shirt” to increase the chance of winning while gambling.

Answer 200

B. a neutral stimulus is paired with the CS. EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-02 Answer B is correct. Higher-order conditioning involves treating the initial conditioned stimulus as an unconditioned stimulus and pairing it with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a conditioned response when presented alone. Note that, when higher-order conditioning involves a second conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as second-order conditioning; and, when it involves a third conditioned stimulus, it’s also referred to as third-order conditioning.

Answer 201

A. ventromedial prefrontal cortex EXPLANATION EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-04 Answer A is correct. For the EPPP, you want to be familiar with the symptoms associated with damage to the three regions of the prefrontal cortex listed in answers A, B, and C. The symptoms listed in this question are characteristic of damage to the ventromedial prefrontal cortex. Damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (answer B) is likely to produce deficits in working memory, impaired judgment and insight, and poor planning ability, while damage to the orbitofrontal cortex (answer C) is likely to cause impulsivity, aggressive and antisocial behaviors, social inappropriateness, and emotional lability. The parietodorsal cortex (answer D) is not a region of the prefrontal cortex.

Exam 5 Flashcards

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