Exam 5 Flashcards
The experts generally recommend that, for the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders, self-report measures:
A. should not be used because of their limited reliability and validity.
B. are preferred to semistructured interviews because they have higher levels of reliability and validity.
C. are most useful as initial screening devices that are followed by a semistructured interview when they indicate a client has symptoms of a personality disorder.
D. are most useful for obtaining additional information when a semistructured interview indicates that a client has symptoms of a personality disorder.
C. are most useful as initial screening devices that are followed by a semistructured interview when they indicate a client has symptoms of a personality disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-02 Answer C is correct. Self-report measures and semistructured interviews are commonly used by clinicians to assist with the diagnosis of personality disorders. Some investigators suggest that the optimal strategy is to combine the two, with the self-report measure being administered first. For example, T. A. Widiger and D. B. Samuel’s recommendation “is to first administer a self-report inventory to alert oneself to the potential presence of particular maladaptive personality traits followed by a semistructured interview to verify their presence” [Evidence-based assessment of personality disorders, Psychological Assessment, 17(3), pp. 278-287].
Electrical stimulation of certain areas of the _________ elicits responses associated with conditioned fear such as freezing, increased heart rate and blood pressure, and release of stress hormones.
A. medulla
B. amygdala
C. suprachiasmatic nucleus
D. striatum
B. amygdala
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-01 Answer B is correct. The amygdala plays an important role in several aspects of emotion, including the acquisition of conditioned fear responses. Stimulation of certain areas of the amygdala elicits these responses.
Of the dopaminergic pathways, the ________ pathway is known to be most important for emotion and mood, motivation, and reinforcement.
A. mesocortical
B. mesolimbic
C. tuberoinfundibular
D. nigrostriatal
B. mesolimbic
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-08 Answer B is correct. If you’re unfamiliar with the pathways listed in the answers, you may have been able to identify the correct answer (mesolimbic pathway) as long as you recalled that the limbic system is responsible for various aspects of emotion. The mesolimbic pathway is also referred to as the reward circuit because it’s involved in reward-seeking behaviors, including addiction to certain drugs (e.g., nicotine and opiates). The mesocortical pathway is involved in executive cognitive functions; the tuberoinfundibular pathway is involved in hormone regulation; and the nigrostriatal pathway is involved in the production of movement.
An essential feature of schizoid personality disorder is:
A. feeling disconnected from others.
B. distrust and suspiciousness of others.
C. feeling uncomfortable in social situations.
D. fear of disapproval and rejection in interpersonal situations.
A. feeling disconnected from others.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Personality Disorders-29 Answer A is correct. This is the best answer because it’s most consistent with the DSM-5 description of schizoid personality disorder, which states that it involves “a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings” (2013, p. 652).
The involuntary, jerky movements associated with Huntington’s disease are caused by deterioration of cells in which of the following?
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus
B. cerebellum
C. globus pallidus
D. pons
C. globus pallidus
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-21 Answer C is correct. Even if you’re unfamiliar with the specific area of the brain associated with the involuntary, jerky movements characteristic of Huntington’s disease, knowing that Huntington’s disease has been linked to abnormalities in the basal ganglia and that the globus pallidus is one of the basal ganglia structures would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.
When a predictor included in a multiple regression equation has a negative beta weight, this means that:
A. The predictor has a negative correlation with the other predictors.
B. The predictor has a negative correlation with the criterion.
C. The predictor has a statistically significant relationship with the criterion.
D. The predictor does not have a statistically significant relationship with the criterion.
B. The predictor has a negative correlation with the criterion.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-RMS-Correlation and Regression-07 Answer B is correct. Beta weights are standardized regression coefficients, and a predictor’s beta weight indicates the strength of the relationship between the predictor and the criterion. When a predictor’s beta weight is positive, this means there’s a positive relationship between the predictor and criterion (i.e., as scores on the predictor increase, scores on the criterion increase). Conversely, when the beta weight is negative, this means there’s a negative relationship between the predictor and criterion (i.e., as scores on the predictor increase, scores on the criterion decrease).
When using personalized normative feedback (PNF) as an intervention for Jacob, a 21-year-old college student who frequently engages in heavy alcohol use, his therapist will:
A. provide Jacob with information that allows him to compare his daily blood alcohol levels during the course of treatment with the daily blood alcohol levels of other patients who have received the same treatment.
B. have Jacob list and compare the pros and cons of his current drinking with the likely pros and cons of reduced drinking.
C. provide Jacob with information that allows him to compare the frequency of his drinking to the actual average frequency of drinking of other college students.
D. reframe Jacob’s alcohol use in terms of its negative personal, social, and financial consequences.
C. provide Jacob with information that allows him to compare the frequency of his drinking to the actual average frequency of drinking of other college students.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders–28 Answer C is correct. PNF involves providing clients with information that allows them to compare the frequency of their own behavior and perceived frequency of the behavior for a typical person in their peer group to the actual average frequency for people in their peer group. (Although answer C does not mention Jacob’s perceived frequency of alcohol use by a typical person in his peer group, it is the best answer of those provided.)
Which of the following best describes current thinking about no-suicide contracts?
A. They reduce clients’ risk for suicide and provide legal protection for therapists.
B. They reduce clients’ risk for suicide but don’t provide legal protection for therapists.
C. They don’t reduce clients’ risk for suicide but do provide legal protection for therapists.
D. They don’t reduce clients’ risk for suicide or provide legal protection for therapists.
D. They don’t reduce clients’ risk for suicide or provide legal protection for therapists.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-08 Answer D is correct. There’s consensus among experts that no-suicide contracts should not be used or should be used with caution because there’s no empirical evidence that they reduce the risk for suicide or provide legal protection for therapists. In addition, they may have a negative effect by giving therapists a false sense of security about a client’s risk for suicide. See, e.g., L. A. Hoff, Crisis: How to help yourself and others in distress and danger, New York, Oxford University Press, 2015.
According to Ridley (2005), when an African American client of a White therapist is unwilling to disclose personal information due to cultural paranoia, the therapist should:
A. ignore the client’s paranoia unless it interferes with the progress of therapy.
B. interpret the client’s paranoia as transference.
C. discuss the meaning of the client’s paranoia with him/her.
D. determine if the client’s paranoia occurs in other situations.
C. discuss the meaning of the client’s paranoia with him/her.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-26 Answer C is correct. As defined by C. R. Ridley, cultural paranoia refers to “a minority group member’s healthy reaction to racism” [Overcoming unintentional racism in counseling and therapy: A practitioner’s guide to intentional intervention (2nd ed.), Thousand Oaks, CA, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2005, p. 64]. He proposes that, in this situation, the appropriate strategy for a White therapist is to discuss the meaning of the cultural paranoia with the client and encourage the client to distinguish between when it is and is not safe to self-disclose.
Researchers interested in developmental changes in the recognition of facial expressions of emotion have identified a fear bias that involves paying more attention to fearful faces than happy faces. The fear bias usually first occurs when babies are about:
A. 3 months of age.
B. 7 months of age.
C. 12 months of age.
D. 18 months of age.
B. 7 months of age.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-19 Answer B is correct. A consistent finding of the research is that infants show a shift in their attention to particular facial expressions of emotion by 7 months of age: Prior to this age, they give more attention to happy faces, but this changes at about 7 months to more attention to fearful faces.
A person’s tendency to dismiss any information that doesn’t support her current attitude about a controversial issue illustrates which of the following?
A. self-serving bias
B. illusory correlation
C. confirmation bias
D. false consensus effect
C. confirmation bias
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-03 Answer C is correct. The confirmation bias is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and ignore information that refutes them.
The most common comorbid psychiatric disorder for individuals with specific learning disorder is:
A. ADHD.
B. oppositional defiant disorder.
C. language disorder.
D. social anxiety disorder.
A. ADHD.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders–09 Answer A is correct. Studies have consistently found ADHD to be the most frequent comorbid disorder among individuals who have received a diagnosis of specific learning disorder.
A researcher conducts a study to determine if there are gender differences in acceptance as a graduate student into the six largest departments at a university. To analyze the data she collects in this study, the researcher will use which of the following?
A. one-way ANOVA
B. two-way ANOVA
C. single-sample chi-square test
D. multiple-sample chi-square test
D. multiple-sample chi-square test
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-10 Answer D is correct. The first and second steps in identifying the appropriate statistical test are identifying the study’s independent and dependent variables and the scale of measurement of the dependent variable. This study has two variables – gender and department – and gender can be viewed as the independent variable and department as the dependent variable. The dependent variable – department – is a nominal variable. The chi-square test is the appropriate test for analyzing nominal data and, when a study has two or more variables, the multiple-sample chi-square test is used. Keep in mind that, for the chi-square test, you count the total number of variables regardless of whether they’re independent or dependent variables: The multiple-sample chi-square test is used when the study has two or more variables, and the single-sample chi-square test is used when a study is a descriptive study and has only one variable.
Which of the following is most useful for understanding why the elicitation of strong emotions occurs less often in the later (versus earlier) stages of an intimate relationship?
A. Aronson and Linder’s gain-loss effect
B. Berscheid’s emotion-in-relationships model
C. Byrne’s law of attraction
D. Baumeister and Bushman’s mere exposure effect
B. Berscheid’s emotion-in-relationships model
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-12 Answer B is correct. According to Berscheid (1991), strong emotions are elicited in close relationships when a partner engages in an unexpected behavior that interrupts the partners’ usual behavioral routines. It predicts that the elicitation of strong positive or negative emotions occurs less often in the later stages of a close relationship because a partner’s behaviors are less likely to be unexpected.
According to Kirkpatrick’s (1998) evaluation model, ___________ criteria provide the least valuable information about the effects of a training program.
A. results
B. behavior
C. reaction
D. learning
C. reaction
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-10 Answer C is correct. Kirkpatrick’s evaluation model distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation that can be arranged in order from least to most informative: reaction criteria, learning criteria, behavior criteria, and results criteria.
You receive a written request from a former client to send a copy of her file to another psychologist. The client stopped coming to therapy six weeks ago and has not paid for her last two sessions even though you’ve sent her a letter requesting that she do so. Being familiar with ethical guidelines for this situation, you know that withholding a client’s record for nonpayment of fees is:
A. always unethical when the record is needed for the client’s treatment.
B. always unethical when the record is needed for the client’s emergency treatment.
C. ethical only when the client has not responded to multiple requests for payment.
D. ethical if the client was informed of this practice during the informed consent process.
B. always unethical when the record is needed for the client’s emergency treatment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-12 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 6.03 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.1 and II.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 6.03 states that “psychologists may not withhold records under their control that are requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received.” (Note that withholding client records for nonpayment of fees in any situation may be illegal or inconsistent with institutional regulations, but this question is asking specifically about ethical guidelines.)
Based on the results of their meta-analysis of the research, Davidson and Parker (2001) concluded that rapid eye movements do not add to the effectiveness of EMDR and that its effects are actually due to:
A. exposure in imagination.
B. counterconditioning.
C. flooding.
D. latent inhibition.
A. exposure in imagination.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-03 Answer A is correct. Davidson and Parker concluded that rapid eye movements do not add to the effectiveness of EMDR and that its benefits are due to repeated exposure in imagination to the feared event. Note, however, that a more recent meta-analysis by Lee and Cuijpers (2013) found that eye movements do contribute to the beneficial effects of EMDR.
Which of the following best explains the link between maternal overnutrition during pregnancy and her offspring’s increased risk for obesity, metabolic syndrome, and type 2 diabetes mellitus in childhood and adulthood?
A. reaction range
B. fetal-maternal exchange
C. dynamic systems theory
D. fetal programming
D. fetal programming
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development: Nature vs. Nurture-06 Answer D is correct. Fetal programming occurs when exposure to certain events during embryonic and fetal development (e.g., maternal overnutrition) not only affects the offspring’s characteristics at birth but can also have long-term effects on the offspring’s health. Fetal programming, reaction range, and dynamic systems theory are described in the lifespan development content summary. Fetal-maternal exchange is not described in the content summary and refers to the exchange of substances between maternal and fetal blood at the placenta.
According to Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory, an “internal anchor” is:
A. a person’s attitude toward an issue prior to hearing a persuasive message about that issue.
B. the route (central or peripheral) a person uses when listening to a persuasive message.
C. a person’s level of mental discomfort when faced with conflicting attitudes or a conflicting attitude and behavior.
D. the strength of a person’s attitude before being exposed to arguments against his/her position and counterarguments that refute those arguments.
A. a person’s attitude toward an issue prior to hearing a persuasive message about that issue.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-05 Answer A is correct. Social judgment theory is based on the assumption that the effectiveness of a persuasive message depends on a person’s current position (the person’s internal anchor), and it distinguishes between three “latitudes” that represent different degrees of similarity between the person’s position and the position advocated by a persuasive message. If you aren’t familiar with the term “internal anchor,” you may have been able to identify this answer as the correct one using the process of elimination: Central and peripheral routes (answer B) are addressed by the elaboration likelihood model, mental discomfort caused by conflicting attitudes and a conflicting attitude and behavior (answer C) is addressed by cognitive dissonance theory, and providing a person with weak arguments against his/her attitude and counterarguments refuting those arguments (answer D) is relevant to the attitude inoculation hypothesis.
As described by Diana Baumrind and her colleagues, parents with a(n) __________ parenting style enjoy spending time with their children, have high expectations for their children, and provide them with rules that are developmentally appropriate and consistently enforced.
A. authoritarian
B. authoritative
C. democratic
D. nurturing
B. authoritative
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-15 Answer B is correct. Baumrind and her colleagues identified four parenting styles that differ in terms of degree of responsiveness and demandingness: authoritative, authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved. Authoritative parents are high on both dimensions and have warm relationships with their children, have high expectations and standards for their children, provide developmentally appropriate rules, and consistently enforce those rules in a nonpunitive way.
A person whose symptoms meet the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for alcohol withdrawal is least likely to exhibit which of the following?
A. generalized tonic-clonic seizures
B. nystagmus
C. transient hallucinations or illusions
D. autonomic hyperactivity
B. nystagmus
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-24 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of alcohol withdrawal requires the presence of two or more of the following symptoms after cessation or reduction of heavy and prolonged alcohol use: autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, insomnia, nausea or vomiting, transient hallucinations or illusions, psychomotor agitation, anxiety, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Nystagmus is one of the diagnostic criteria for alcohol intoxication.
Research by Patterson and his colleagues at the Oregon Social Learning Center led to the development of an intervention for aggressive, antisocial behavior in children that focuses primarily on:
A. identifying and replacing children’s cognitive biases.
B. teaching children to monitor and control aggressive behaviors.
C. teaching parents effective parenting strategies.
D. improving the social bonds between parents and their children.
C. teaching parents effective parenting strategies.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-23 Answer C is correct. Patterson and his colleagues (e.g., Patterson, Reid, & Dishion, 1992) found that aggression and other antisocial behaviors in children were related to coercive family interactions that become progressively more coercive over time, with parents using increasingly harsh punishments and children becoming more disruptive and aggressive. Their Parent Management Training – Oregon Model (PMTO) was designed to stop this cycle by providing parents with therapy to help them deal better with stress and teaching them effective parenting skills.
The earliest age at which a baby can survive a premature birth is generally considered to be ____ weeks after conception.
A. 19
B. 22
C. 27
D. 32
B. 22
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-04 Answer B is correct. The earliest age at which a baby can survive outside the womb is referred to as the age of viability. Although the age of viability reported by different experts varies somewhat, most agree that it’s between 22 and 26 weeks after conception. See, e.g., L. E. Berk, Child development (9th ed.), Boston, Pearson, 2013.
__________ refers to the body’s ability to adapt to stress and achieve a state of stability through a process of change.
A. Allostasis
B. Equilibration
C. Resistance
D. Epigenesis
A. Allostasis
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Emotions and Stress-17 Answer A is correct. Allostasis “refers to the adaptation processes of the body to stress that help maintain homeostasis – to maintain stability in the face of change” (T. A. Storlie, Person-centered communication with older adults: The professional provider’s guide, London, Academic Press, p. 113, 2015).
The all-or-none law applies to the:
A. release of a neurotransmitter by a presynaptic neuron.
B. reuptake of a neurotransmitter by a postsynaptic neuron.
C. intensity of action potentials.
D. frequency of action potentials.
C. intensity of action potentials.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-10 Answer C is correct. According to the all-or-none law, once a minimum level of stimulation is reached, an action potential occurs within a neuron and its intensity does not vary – i.e., an action potential either occurs or doesn’t occur.
The Strong Interest Inventory (SII) provides scores on all the following general occupational themes except:
A. realistic.
B. social.
C. investigative.
D. creative.
D. creative.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer D is correct. The SII includes several scales including General Occupational Themes, which provides scores on Holland’s six occupational themes: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. (Although creative is a synonym for artistic, creative is the best answer to this question because it’s not identical to the name of the theme assessed by the SII.)
While developing a new test of job knowledge, a test developer administers the test items to a sample of 50 recently hired employees. Based on the results, he eliminates a few items and changes several other items to increase the test’s reliability and validity. When he readministers the test along with a measure of job performance to the same sample, he obtains a criterion-related validity coefficient of .65. If he then administers the test and measure of job performance to a different sample of 50 recently hired employees, he’s most likely to obtain a validity coefficient that is:
A. greater than .65.
B. less than .65.
C. greater or less than .65.
D. equal to .65.
B. less than .65.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you have to recognize that the test developer cross-validated the test when she administered it to a new sample and know that validity coefficients tend to be lower for the cross-validation sample than for the original sample. This is referred to as “shrinkage,” and it occurs because all the chance factors that contributed to the correlation between the job knowledge test (predictor) and measure of job performance (criterion) for the sample that was used to develop the test are not likely to be present in the cross-validation sample.
Conduction aphasia is characterized by:
A. impaired comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition.
B. impaired comprehension, nonfluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition.
C. relatively intact comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition.
D. relatively intact comprehension, nonfluent aphasia, anomia, and unimpaired repetition.
C. relatively intact comprehension, fluent aphasia, anomia, and impaired repetition.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-07 Answer C is correct. Conduction aphasia is characterized by relatively intact comprehension with fluent speech that contains many errors, anomia, and impaired repetition. It’s caused by damage to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Wernicke’s area to Broca’s area.
Martina doesn’t like Julian but loves the car that Julian just bought. According to balance theory, it’s likely that Martina will:
A. decide she likes Julian.
B. decide she doesn’t like the car that Julian bought.
C. decide either that she likes Julian or doesn’t like the car that Julian bought.
D. decide that she likes Julian and doesn’t like the car that Julian bought.
C. decide either that she likes Julian or doesn’t like the car that Julian bought.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-07 Answer C is correct. Heider’s (1958) balance theory focuses on the relationships among three elements: the person (P), another person (O), and an attitude object or event (X). It predicts that the relationships among these elements can be either balanced or unbalanced and that an unbalanced situation causes discomfort, which the person (P) will be motivated to change. The situation described in this question is unbalanced, so Martina will be motivated to establish balance by changing her attitude toward Julian or toward the car that Julian bought. Note that answer D is incorrect because, unlike answer C, it states that Martina will change her attitude toward Julian and toward the car that Julian bought, which would create another unbalanced situation.)
Dr. Ballard, a licensed psychologist, has just started working at a community health center in a small town and is asked to provide therapy to an adult client from an ethnic background that he’s relatively unfamiliar with. However, there are no mental health professionals working at the center or in the community who have more experience than he has, and the client’s presenting problem is one that he’s experienced treating. Dr. Ballard’s best course of action would be to:
A. agree to see the client but seek supervision or consultation by telephone, videoconference, or other means with someone who has experience working with members of this population.
B. agree to see the client only if he’s able to complete an online continuing education course on providing therapy to members of this population.
C. tell the client about his lack of experience and let the client decide if she wants to continue therapy with him.
D. decline the request to see the client since he doesn’t have experience working with members of this population.
A. agree to see the client but seek supervision or consultation by telephone, videoconference, or other means with someone who has experience working with members of this population.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-04 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to obtain consultation, make a referral, or take other appropriate action when they do not have the necessary competence to provide professional services to a client. From the information given in this question, a referral doesn’t seem feasible since there are no mental health professionals in the community who have more experience than Dr. Ballard does (and it’s not given as an alternative answer). In addition, taking a single online continuing education course (answer B) is not likely to be adequate.
A psychologist is developing a reading achievement test for middle school students. She’s likely to obtain the highest reliability for the test if it:
A. contains 50 items and the examinees in her tryout sample are homogeneous with regard to reading ability.
B. contains 50 items and examinees in her tryout sample are heterogeneous with regard to reading ability.
C. contains 25 items and the examinees in her tryout sample are homogeneous with regard to reading ability.
D. contains 25 items and examinees in her tryout sample are heterogeneous with regard to reading ability.
B. contains 50 items and examinees in her tryout sample are heterogeneous with regard to reading ability.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-03 Answer B is correct. Longer tests tend to be more reliable than shorter tests, and reliability coefficients are higher when the range of scores obtained by examinees is unrestricted – i.e., when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute measured by the test.
Studies looking at psychiatric outcomes for the offspring of monozygotic (identical) twins who are discordant for schizophrenia have found that:
A. the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of nonaffected twins is significantly less than the frequency for offspring of affected twins and is nearly identical to the frequency of schizophrenia in the general population.
B. the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of nonaffected twins is significantly less than the frequency for offspring of affected twins but is greater than the frequency of schizophrenia in the general population.
C. the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of nonaffected twins is similar to the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of affected twins, with the frequency for offspring of nonaffected and affected twins being greater than the frequency in the general population.
D. the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of nonaffected twins is similar to the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of affected twins, with the frequency for offspring of nonaffected and affected twins being greater than the frequency in the general population only when one or both parents of the twins had untreated schizophrenia.
C. the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of nonaffected twins is similar to the frequency of schizophrenia in offspring of affected twins, with the frequency for offspring of nonaffected and affected twins being greater than the frequency in the general population.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders–18 Answer C is correct. Research has found that, among monozygotic twins who were discordant for schizophrenia, the frequency of schizophrenia was similar for offspring of affected and nonaffected twins, with the frequencies for the offspring being greater than the frequency of schizophrenia in the general population. (Note that answer D can be eliminated because research on offspring outcomes did not look at the psychiatric status of the parents of the monozygotic twins who were discordant for schizophrenia.)
__________ theory predicts that a worker’s motivation is affected by the worker’s perceptions of the degree to which he/she is being treated fairly compared to other workers.
A. Expectancy theory
B. Equity theory
C. Two-factor theory
D. Contingency theory
B. Equity theory
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-23 Answer B is correct. Equity theory attributes a worker’s level of motivation to social comparisons that involve comparing his/her inputs and outcomes to the inputs and outcomes of workers doing the same or a similar job. When the input/outcome ratios are similar, the worker experiences a state of equity (fairness) and is motivated to maintain his/her current performance level.
A school counselor is working with a middle school student who rarely finishes his homework just because he doesn’t like doing it. To help the student identify a reinforcer that’s likely to motivate him to do his homework, the counselor will use which of the following?
A. differential reinforcement
B. Premack principle
C. response cost
D. overcorrection
B. Premack principle
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-09 Answer B is correct. The Premack principle is a type of positive reinforcement in which a high-frequency behavior (a highly desirable activity) is used as a reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior (an undesirable activity) to increase the low-frequency behavior. Of the techniques listed, it would be most useful for helping a client identify an effective reinforcer since it just requires identifying one of his preferred high-frequency activities.
Cross and Vandiver’s (2001) Black racial identity development model predicts that racial identity has low salience for African American clients in the __________ stage and that these clients may have trouble trusting African American individuals and usually prefer a European American therapist.
A. disintegration
B. conformity
C. encounter
D. pre-encounter
D. pre-encounter
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-28 Answer D is correct. Cross and Vandiver’s model consists of three stages: pre-encounter, immersion-emersion , and internalization. The pre-encounter stage includes three identity subtypes (assimilation, miseducation, and self-hatred) and is characterized by a low salience for race, internalization of negative stereotypes of African Americans, and a distrust of African Americans.
The term “shrinking retrograde amnesia” refers to:
A. the tendency of remote long-term memories to be affected more than recent memories by a head injury.
B. the tendency of recent long-term memories to be affected more than remote memories by a head injury.
C. the return of more recent long-term memories before older long-term memories following a head injury that caused retrograde amnesia.
D. the return of older long-term memories before more recent long-term memories following a head injury that caused retrograde amnesia.
D. the return of older long-term memories before more recent long-term memories following a head injury that caused retrograde amnesia.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-19 Answer D is correct. The recovery of long-term memories following a traumatic brain injury ordinarily involves “shrinking retrograde amnesia” in which more distant (remote) memories return first.
According to Howard et al.’s (1986) dose-effect model, about _____% of therapy clients experience an improvement in symptoms by the eighth therapy session.
A. 15
B. 35
C. 50
D. 75
C. 50
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-19 Answer C is correct. K. I. Howard, M. S. Krause, and D. E. Orlinsky found that about 50% of psychotherapy clients show improvement by the sixth to eighth therapy session, 75% by the 26th session, and 85% after a little over a year (The dose-effect relationship in psychotherapy, American Psychologist, 41, 159-164, 1986).
Gina, age 32, comes to therapy with her husband, who tells you that Gina has always been very enthusiastic about her job as a self-employed interior designer but that, lately, “things have gotten out of hand.” He says that about three weeks ago, Gina began jumping from one project to another and hasn’t finished any of them and, as a result, has been fired by all but one of her clients who is a friend and is trying to be patient. Gina says that “things aren’t that bad” and that she feels happier now than she has in a long time. However, she admits that she’s having trouble with work because her “brain is filled with too many ideas.” She states she hasn’t been sleeping much because of her racing thoughts but that she doesn’t feel tired. Gina also says that, in middle school and high school, she sometimes had trouble finishing her homework. The most likely diagnosis for Gina is:
A. bipolar I disorder.
B. bipolar II disorder.
C. cyclothymic disorder.
D. ADHD.
A. bipolar I disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-06 Answer A is correct. Gina’s symptoms are most suggestive of bipolar I disorder, which is diagnosed when a person has had at least one manic episode that lasted for at least one week. Gina’s elevated mood, increased goal activity (jumping from one project to another), racing thoughts, and decreased need for sleep are characteristic of a manic episode.
A young child uses the word “dog” to refer only to the family dog and not to other dogs. This is an example of which of the following?
A. holophrastic error
B. telegraphic error
C. underextension
D. under-regularization
C. underextension
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Language Development-09 Answer C is correct. Underextension occurs when children apply a word only to a specific person, object, or event rather than to all of the people, objects, or events it applies to. In contrast, overextension occurs when children use a word too broadly – i.e., when they apply it to people, objects, or events it does not apply to.
Which of the following disorders primarily affects females and is caused by a mutation in an X-linked gene?
A. Rett syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. cri-du-chat syndrome
D. Angelman’s syndrome
A. Rett syndrome
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Prenatal Development-03 Answer A is correct. Rett syndrome (RTT) is an X-linked dominant disorder that occurs almost exclusively in females and is usually caused by a mutation in the MECP2 gene. Klinefelter syndrome (answer B) occurs in males and is due to the presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome. Cri-du-chat syndrome (answer C) is caused by a deletion on chromosome 5. Angelman syndrome (answer D) is usually due to a deletion on the maternal chromosome 15.
In a positively skewed distribution of scores, the __________ is the lowest score and the __________ is the highest score.
A. mode; mean
B. mean; mode
C. median; mean
D. mean; median
A. mode; mean
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores “piled up” in one tail of the distribution and a few scores in the other tail: In a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution); in a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution) – i.e., the “tail tells the tale.” In both distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean is the highest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the lowest score. Conversely, in a negatively skewed distribution, the mean is the lowest score, the median is the middle score, and the mode is the highest score.
According to Gaertner and Dovidio (1986), aversive racism is characterized by a:
A. belief that minorities violate traditional American values.
B. desire to maintain the status quo.
C. combination of egalitarian values and anti-minority feelings.
D. combination of personal self-interest and group identity.
C. combination of egalitarian values and anti-minority feelings.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-13 Answer C is correct. Aversive racism is a form of covert (subtle) racism that combines a belief in egalitarian principles and support for racial equality with negative attitudes and emotions toward members of a racial minority group. Note that answer A describes symbolic racism which is another form of covert racism.
Which of the following best describes the most common consequences of divorce for heterosexual couples?
A. Women are more likely to experience transient economic problems, while men are more likely to experience transient health problems.
B. Women are more likely to experience chronic economic problems, while men are more likely to experience chronic health problems.
C. Women are more likely to experience chronic economic problems, while men are more likely to experience transient health problems.
D. Women are more likely to experience transient economic problems, while men are more likely to experience chronic health problems.
C. Women are more likely to experience chronic economic problems, while men are more likely to experience transient health problems.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-School and Family Influences-24 Answer C is correct. The research has found that, following divorce, women are more likely to experience a decline in economic well-being, while men are more likely to experience a decline in health. There is also evidence that the negative economic consequences for women tend to be chronic, while the negative health consequences for men are often transient.
To assess the intelligence of a 12-year-old child, you would administer which of the following?
A. WPPSI-IV
B. WAIS-IV
C. CMMS
D. SB5
D. SB5
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-04 Answer D is correct. The age range for the SB5 is 2:0 to 85+ years, so it’s appropriate for a 12-year-old-child. In contrast, the age range is 2:6 to 7:7 for the WPPSI-IV, 16:0 to 90:11 for the WAIS-IV, and 3:0 to 10:0 for the CMMS.
Dr. Wendy Wundt is supervising an intern, Lloyd L., who has recently not shown up for two of his therapy appointments with clients. In addition, one of the intern’s clients has complained to Dr. Wundt that the intern sometimes seems like he’s not listening to her and has made several sexually suggestive comments during sessions. If Dr. Wundt terminates Lloyd’s internship because of these behaviors:
A. she will have acted ethically because of the serious nature of Lloyd’s unacceptable behaviors.
B. she will have acted ethically if she informs Lloyd of the reasons for the termination.
C. she will have acted ethically only if she has directly observed Lloyd engage in unacceptable behaviors with clients.
D. she will have acted ethically only if she first provides Lloyd with a plan to remediate his unacceptable behaviors and Lloyd continues to engage in those behaviors.
D. she will have acted ethically only if she first provides Lloyd with a plan to remediate his unacceptable behaviors and Lloyd continues to engage in those behaviors.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-19 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 7.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide supervisees with timely feedback. Although neither Code directly addresses the termination of internships, doing so without having provided an intern with feedback and opportunities to correct undesirable behaviors would violate these standards and the “spirit” of the Codes. Note that answer C is not the best answer because, while supervisors should base their evaluations of interns on actual behaviors rather than hearsay (e.g., on behaviors they have actually observed), observation of the behaviors would not be sufficient justification for terminating an internship without providing the intern with feedback and a remediation plan.
Shortly after the death of the family dog six weeks ago, five-year-old Jessie became uncharacteristically clingy and unwilling to go anywhere without her mother. Since then, she’s complained of having a “bad stomach ache” to get out of going to school, wants to sleep with her parents at night, and has a tantrum whenever her mother or father leaves the house. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. adjustment disorder.
B. separation anxiety disorder.
C. social anxiety disorder.
D. reactive attachment disorder.
B. separation anxiety disorder.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-11 Answer B is correct. Jessie’s fear of being separated from her parents is characteristic of separation anxiety disorder which may be triggered by a life stress, such as the death of a pet.
You have been seeing 14-year-old Jamie in therapy with the consent of her parents. During her fourth session, Jamie admits that she has been binging and purging regularly for over two months and that she can’t seem to stop. She adamantly states that she doesn’t want you to tell her parents. You’re concerned about the potential harm Jamie is doing to herself and believe the best course of action would be to breach confidentiality and contact her parents. With regard to ethical requirements, the best course of action is to:
A. contact Jamie’s parents and suggest that they accompany her to her next session.
B. discuss with Jamie the need to share information about her binging and purging with her parents before contacting them.
C. inform Jamie about the need to share information about her binging and purging with her parents and ask her to bring them to the next therapy session.
D. maintain Jamie’s confidentiality but encourage her to discuss her binging and purging with her parents.
B. discuss with Jamie the need to share information about her binging and purging with her parents before contacting them.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-10 Answer B is correct. This is the best answer of those given because Jamie is engaging in potentially harmful behavior and, to protect her, you would want to breach confidentiality and discuss this with her parents. Breaching confidentiality to protect a client from harm is permitted by Standard 4.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards I.45 and II.42. In addition, as noted by S. H. Behnke and E. Warner, “regardless of whether an adolescent assents to have information disclosed to a parent, it makes both clinical and ethical sense to tell the adolescent – beforehand, if possible – what information will be shared, and when” [Confidentiality in the treatment of adolescents, APA Monitor, 33(3), 4]. Note that answer C is not the best answer because asking Jamie to bring her parents to the next session places too much responsibility on Jamie.
In vivo exposure is most effective when it’s paired with applied tension rather than relaxation for which of the following anxiety disorders?
A. panic disorder
B. agoraphobia
C. specific phobia, animal type
D. specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type
D. specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-12 Answer D is correct. As noted in the DSM-5, in contrast to people with other types of specific phobia, people with the blood-injection-injury type often experience vasovagal fainting, which involves an “initial brief acceleration of heart rate and elevation of blood pressure followed by a deceleration of heart rate and drop in blood pressure” (p. 199). Consequently, exposure for this type is most effective when it’s combined with applied tension, which involves repeatedly tensing and relaxing the body’s large muscle groups to increase blood pressure and prevent fainting.
Fred and Ethel can expect that their newborn infant will begin each sleep period with active sleep, which is most similar to ________ sleep in adults.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stages 3 and 4
D. REM
D. REM
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PHY-Memory and Sleep-15 Answer D is correct. Newborn infants sleep longer than older children and adults do, spend more time in active (REM) sleep, and begin the sleep period with active sleep that’s followed by quiet (non-REM) sleep.
In the context of classical conditioning, blocking occurs when:
A. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented with a new US.
B. a previously conditioned CS is repeatedly presented after the US.
C. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS are presented together after presentation of the US.
D. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS are presented together before presentation of the US.
D. a new neutral stimulus and a previously conditioned CS are presented together before presentation of the US.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer D is correct. Blocking occurs when a new neutral stimulus is simultaneously presented with a previously conditioned stimulus (CS) before presenting the unconditioned stimulus (US). In this situation, the new neutral stimulus will not become a conditioned stimulus and will not elicit a conditioned response when presented alone. This occurs because classical conditioning of the first neutral (conditioned) stimulus blocks classical conditioning of the second neutral stimulus, apparently because the second neutral stimulus does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus.
Your client, who has received a diagnosis of binge-eating disorder, is not responding to treatment as well as you expected, and you decide to consult with a colleague who has experience treating clients with eating disorders. Which of the following best describes the provisions of the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations regarding consultation?
A. Psychologists must always obtain a client’s authorization before discussing the client’s case with a consultant.
B. Psychologists do not have to obtain a client’s authorization before discussing the client’s case with a consultant if the consultant is a licensed mental health professional.
C. Psychologists do not have to obtain a client’s authorization before discussing the client’s case with a consultant if they can disguise the client’s identity while doing so.
D. Psychologists do not have to obtain a client’s authorization before discussing the client’s case with a consultant if they share only the minimum amount of information necessary to achieve the purpose of the consultation.
C. Psychologists do not have to obtain a client’s authorization before discussing the client’s case with a consultant if they can disguise the client’s identity while doing so.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-11 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 4.06 of the APA Ethics Code states that, when consulting with a colleague about a client, psychologists do not disclose confidential information “that reasonably could lead to the identification of a client/patient … unless they have obtained the prior consent of the person.” And Standard I.45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that psychologists “share confidential information with others only to the extent reasonably needed for the purpose of sharing, and only with the informed consent of those involved, or in a manner that the individuals and groups … involved cannot be identified.”
The main goal of frame-of-reference training is to:
A. train raters how to develop and evaluate employee performance measures.
B. train raters how to use a new rating scale to rate employee performance.
C. help raters identify rater biases and errors that affect their employee performance ratings.
D. help raters distinguish between different levels of employee performance.
D. help raters distinguish between different levels of employee performance.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer D is correct. As its name suggests, frame-of-reference (FOR) training is used to help raters adopt a common frame of reference when rating employee performance. This involves ensuring that trainees understand the multidimensional nature of job performance and can distinguish between different levels of performance. Frame-of-reference training has been found to be more effective than training that focuses on rater biases.
Among first-degree relatives who share 50% of their genes, when one person has schizophrenia, his/her relative has a _____% chance of also receiving the diagnosis.
A. 6 to 17
B. 15 to 28
C. 25 to 34
D. 46 to 50
A. 6 to 17
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-03 Answer A is correct. I. I. Gottesman reports that, when a person has schizophrenia, the chance that a first-degree relative who shares 50% of that person’s genes is 6% for a biological parent, 9% for a biological sibling, 13% for a child, and 17% for a dizygotic twin. In contrast, the chance is 48% for monozygotic twins who share 100% of their genes (Schizophrenia genesis: The origins of madness, New York, W. H. Freeman and Company, 1991).
Dr. Willard encountered a former intern whom she had not seen for at least two years at a party. After talking to the intern for most of the evening, Dr. Willard realized that she was very attracted to the intern and that the feeling was mutual. Dr. Willard and her former intern began dating and eventually became sexually involved. With regard to ethical guidelines, Dr. Willard’s relationship with the former intern is:
A. clearly unacceptable.
B. acceptable since more than two years have passed since Dr. Willard was the intern’s supervisor.
C. acceptable if it’s not likely that Dr. Willard will have evaluative authority over the former intern in the future.
D. acceptable if they discussed the potential conflicts before becoming sexually involved.
C. acceptable if it’s not likely that Dr. Willard will have evaluative authority over the former intern in the future.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-17 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 7.07 of the APA Ethics Code and Standard II.29 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.07 states that “psychologists do not engage in sexual relationships with students or supervisees who are in their department, agency, or training center or over whom psychologists have or are likely to have evaluative authority,” and Standard II.29 provides a similar prohibition. Note that answer D is not the best answer because, while discussing potential conflicts may be desirable, it’s not required by ethical guidelines.
Juvenile bipolar disorder and ADHD share several characteristics but also have symptoms that are useful for distinguishing between them. With regard to hypersexuality, the studies have found that it is:
A. useful for distinguishing between the two disorders because it is more common for youth with ADHD than for those with bipolar disorder.
B. useful for distinguishing between the two disorders because it is more common for youth with bipolar disorder than for those with ADHD.
C. not useful for distinguishing between the two disorders because it is characteristic of both juvenile ADHD and juvenile bipolar disorder.
D. not useful for distinguishing between the two disorders because it is not associated with either juvenile ADHD or juvenile bipolar disorder.
B. useful for distinguishing between the two disorders because it is more common for youth with bipolar disorder than for those with ADHD.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders–14 Answer B is correct. Geller et al. (2002) propose that consideration of mania symptoms that do not overlap with symptoms of ADHD can help avoid over- or under-diagnosing bipolar disorder in children and adolescents. One of these symptoms is hypersexuality, which is more common in youth with bipolar disorder than in those with ADHD.
As described by proponents of Gestalt therapy, the resistance known as __________ occurs when a person uncritically accepts and adopts the beliefs and values of others.
A. retroflection
B. confluence
C. introjection
D. transference
C. introjection
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-01 Answer C is correct. Gestalt therapists distinguish between five boundary disturbances: projection, retroflection, confluence, deflection, and introjection. Even if you didn’t know that the boundary disturbances are also referred to as resistances, you may have been able to identify the correct answer to this question by (a) recognizing that three of the answers are boundary disturbances and (b) knowing that introjection occurs when a person adopts the beliefs, standards, and values of others without evaluation.
The DSM-5 diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) requires an onset of symptoms before _____ years of age and a duration of symptoms for at least _____ months.
A. 9; 3
B. 9; 6
C. 12; 6
D. 12; 9
C. 12; 6
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-02 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of characteristic symptoms in at least two settings (e.g., at home and at school) with symptoms having an onset before 12 years of age and a duration of at least six months.
Research participants are asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then recall the words in any order after a brief delay. Most likely, the subjects will recall:
A. words from the beginning of the list better than words from the middle or end of the list.
B. words from the end of the list better than words from the beginning or middle of the list.
C. words from the beginning and end of the list about equally well and better than words from the middle of the list.
D. words from the middle and end of the list about equally well and better than words from the beginning of the list.
A. words from the beginning of the list better than words from the middle or end of the list.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-12 Answer A is correct. The serial position effect occurs when a person is asked to memorize a list of unrelated words and then asked to recall as many words as possible in any order either immediately or after a brief delay. When asked to recall the words immediately, a person is likely to exhibit both primacy and recency effects – i.e., to recall more words at the beginning and end of the list than words in the middle of the list. In contrast, when asked to recall the words after a brief delay, the person will exhibit only a primacy effect.
As described by Bowen, __________ refers to a family member’s ability to experience connectedness and intimacy with other family members while maintaining independence from them.
A. individuation
B. differentiation
C. boundary making
D. extrication
B. differentiation
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-12 Answer B is correct. For practitioners of Bowen’s extended family systems therapy, differentiation (also known as differentiation of self) is both intrapsychic and interpersonal. It refers to a person’s ability to separate his/her own emotional and intellectual functioning which, in turn, helps ensure the person can maintain meaningful connections with other people without becoming emotionally fused with them.
A psychologist conducts a study to evaluate the effects of three different work shifts (day, swing, and graveyard) on the average number of errors, absences, and accidents of assembly line workers during a six-month period. To minimize the probability of making a Type I error, the psychologist will use which of the following to analyze the data she collects?
A. one-way ANOVA
B. three-way ANOVA
C. ANCOVA
D. MANOVA
D. MANOVA
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-12 Answer D is correct. The MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is used when a study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. An advantage of conducting a single MANOVA rather than separate ANOVAs for each dependent variable is that doing so reduces the probability of making a Type I error – i.e., it reduces the experimentwise error rate. The study described in this question has one independent variable (work shift) and three dependent variables that are all measured on a ratio scale (number of errors, absences, and accidents). Therefore, the MANOVA can be used to analyze the data collected in this study.
Which of the following is ordinarily one of the last self-conscious emotions to emerge?
A. guilt
B. embarrassment
C. jealousy
D. empathy
A. guilt
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer A is correct. Embarrassment, envy (jealousy), and empathy are the first self-conscious emotions to emerge at about 18 to 24 months of age. These emotions are followed by pride, shame, and guilt at about 30 to 36 months of age.
Which of the following tests would be useful for assessing the cognitive abilities of a 7-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder and has limited language abilities?
A. Cognitive Assessment System
B. Cognitive Abilities Test
C. Bayley-4
D. Leiter-3
D. Leiter-3
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-08 Answer D is correct. The Leiter-3 is a nonverbal measure of cognitive abilities for individuals 3 to 75+ years of age who have cognitive delays, speech or hearing impairments, autism spectrum disorder, or limited English proficiency. It can be administered without verbal instructions and requires examinees to match a set of response cards to corresponding illustrations.
A better prognosis for individuals with autism spectrum disorder has been linked to which of the following?
A. the development of functional language skills by age 5.
B. the development of social reciprocity by age 9.
C. an onset of symptoms after age 5.
D. an absence of physical abnormalities.
A. the development of functional language skills by age 5.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-01 Answer A is correct. A better prognosis for autism spectrum disorder is associated with an absence of intellectual disability, language impairment, and other mental health problems. With regard to language, the DSM-5 notes that a good prognostic sign is the development of functional language skills by age five.
In Albert Ellis’s A-B-C model, A refers to:
A. antecedent events.
B. automatic thoughts.
C. affective state.
D. anticipatory thoughts and feelings.
A. antecedent events.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-18 Answer A is correct. In Ellis’s model, A is the antecedent event, B is the person’s belief about the event, and C is the person’s emotional or behavioral consequences of that belief.
An accumulation of neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala is associated with which of the following?
A. neurocognitive disorder due to HIV infection
B. neurocognitive disorder due to Parkinson’s disease
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
D. frontotemporal neurocognitive disorder
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer C is correct. Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to a progressive accumulation of extracellular amyloid-predominant neuritic plaques and intracellular tau-predominant neurofibrillary tangles in the areas of the brain listed in this question.
You work at a community health center that employs three licensed psychologists, several physicians, and a marriage and family therapist. You overhear two members of the clerical staff complaining about the behavior of one of the licensed psychologists, and it sounds like her behavior violates ethical guidelines. Assuming that client confidentiality is not an issue and that you are not legally required to report the psychologist’s behavior to appropriate authorities, your best course of action is to:
A. discuss the possible ethical violation with the psychologist.
B. advise the staff members of their options.
C. do nothing unless you have reason to believe the psychologist will repeat the behavior in the future.
D. do nothing unless you have reason to believe the psychologist’s behavior has caused substantial harm.
A. discuss the possible ethical violation with the psychologist.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.43 and II.44 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to take action when they believe another psychologist has acted unethically as long as doing so does not violate client confidentiality. Consequently, of the answers given, this is the best one.
Dr. Wallace’s new clients are a married couple and their three children, ages 9, 13, and 17. The family moved to the United States from Croatia four years ago. The children are fluent in both Croatian and English, but the parents have limited English skills and prefer to speak Croatian. Dr. Wallace does not speak Croatian, but the oldest daughter says she often acts as interpreter for her parents and is willing to do that in therapy. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Wallace should:
A. allow the daughter to act as interpreter if she’s sufficiently fluent in English and Dr. Wallace believes that family therapy is an appropriate form of therapy.
B. allow the daughter to act as interpreter if she’s sufficiently fluent in English and the parents and other children agree to this arrangement.
C. explain to the family why the daughter cannot act as interpreter and obtain the services of a professional interpreter.
D. refer the family to a therapist who speaks Croatian but, if that’s not possible, obtain the assistance of a professional interpreter.
D. refer the family to a therapist who speaks Croatian but, if that’s not possible, obtain the assistance of a professional interpreter.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-05 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 2.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.05 states that psychologists “who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to … avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity.” In other words, it would not be appropriate to have the daughter act as a translator. In addition, Guideline 6 of the APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations states that, when a psychologist’s language does not match the language of a client, the psychologist refers “the client to a mental health professional who is competent to interact in the language of the client” or, if that’s not possible, the psychologist offers “the client a translator with cultural knowledge and an appropriate professional background” (2013, p. 796).
Dr. Lisa Linden’s new client is Raymond R., who says he gets a lot of complaints about his temper. He tells Dr. Linden that he’s “always had a short fuse” and that the only way he deals with his anger is to leave the situation. Further questioning suggests that Raymond gets angry fairly easily but that his anger has never led to physical aggression and doesn’t seem to be related to depression or other disorder. Raymond says he’s heard that meditation is useful for reducing anger and would like to try that first. Dr. Linden, a practitioner of cognitive therapy, has never used meditation in her practice, but she attended a two-hour workshop on mindfulness meditation several months ago. To be consistent with ethical requirements, Dr. Linden should:
A. inform Raymond of her limited experience with meditation and let Raymond decide if he wants to continue seeing her in therapy.
B. inform Raymond of her lack of experience with meditation, discuss Raymond’s options with him, and give him a referral if he continues to want training in meditation.
C. advise Raymond that it’s more important at this point for him to understand how the way he thinks about things affect his anger and suggest he start cognitive therapy with her.
D. accept Raymond as a client and include mindfulness meditation in the client’s treatment plan.
B. inform Raymond of her lack of experience with meditation, discuss Raymond’s options with him, and give him a referral if he continues to want training in meditation.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-01 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 2.01(c) of the APA Ethics Code and Standards II.6 and II.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide professional services that are within their boundaries of competence. Psychologists often want to expand their professional services by using new therapeutic techniques, but a two-hour workshop on mindfulness meditation is not sufficient to qualify a psychologist to provide this intervention to clients.
The predictions made by McGregor (1960) about Theory X and Theory Y managers is most consistent with which of the following?
A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect
B. Hawthorne effect
C. self-serving bias
D. ultimate attribution error
A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Theories-13 Answer A is correct. According to McGregor, a supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates’ work-related attitudes and behaviors determine how the supervisor acts toward subordinates which, in turn, affects how subordinates behave. In other words, the supervisor’s beliefs about subordinates have a self-fulfilling prophecy effect on their job performance.
Use of which of the following techniques to alter a child’s undesirable behavior may require providing the child with verbal instructions and/or physical guidance?
A. response cost
B. Premack principle
C. overcorrection
D. differential reinforcement
C. overcorrection
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-10 Answer C is correct. Overcorrection is used to eliminate and replace an undesirable behavior and usually includes two phases: restitution and positive practice. When using this technique, verbal instructions and/or physical guidance may be necessary to help ensure the individual performs the desired behaviors.
According to expectancy theory, an employee’s motivation is determined by several factors including “expectancy,” which refers to the employee’s beliefs about:
A. the desirability of the rewards he/she will receive for performing the job successfully.
B. the degree to which his/her work-related goals match the company’s goals.
C. the likelihood that successful job performance will allow him/her to obtain certain outcomes.
D. the likelihood that exerting effort on-the-job will result in successful job performance.
D. the likelihood that exerting effort on-the-job will result in successful job performance.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Theories of Motivation-24 Answer D is correct. Expectancy theory describes job motivation as the result of three factors: (a) the worker’s belief that effort will lead to successful performance (expectancy); (b) the worker’s belief that successful performance will result in certain outcomes (instrumentality); and (c) the value of those outcomes for the worker (valence).
Which of the following best describes ethical requirements regarding the provision of therapy to former sexual partners?
A. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is acceptable only in the “most unusual circumstances.”
B. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is acceptable only when at least two years have passed since the end of the sexual relationship.
C. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is acceptable if the therapist determines that the former relationship will not adversely affect the therapeutic relationship.
D. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is unacceptable under any circumstances.
D. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is unacceptable under any circumstances.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-23 Answer D is correct. Providing therapy to former sexual partners is directly addressed in Standard 10.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed in Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.07 states that “psychologists do not accept as therapy clients/patients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies.”
When using the method of loci:
A. words in a list are organized into a set of categories.
B. each word in a list is visually linked to a familiar site or object.
C. pairs of related words are combined into a single image.
D. each word in a list is paired with a different word in a phrase or rhyme.
B. each word in a list is visually linked to a familiar site or object.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-11 Answer B is correct. The method of loci uses a visual image to help encode and recall a list of unrelated words. It involves choosing a familiar location and visually placing each word in a different place in that location. For example, to remember a shopping list, you might visualize your kitchen and place each item in the list in a different place – on the stove, on the counter next to the stove, next to the coffee maker on the counter, etc. Then, to recall the items, you visually “walk through” the kitchen.
According to Donn Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction, we’re most likely to be attracted to people who:
A. are competent after they’ve committed a small blunder.
B. initially dislike us but change their minds once they get to know us.
C. are familiar because we encounter them frequently.
D. provide us with more reinforcement than punishment.
D. provide us with more reinforcement than punishment.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-11 Answer D is correct. Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction proposes that we’re attracted to people who provide us with more reinforcement than punishment. It also predicts that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction since interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates our views and produces good feelings.
Which of the following measures of personality was derived from Jung’s personality typology?
A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
B. NEO Personality Inventory
C. Thematic Apperception Test
D. Edwards Personal Preference Schedule
A. Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-03 Answer A is correct. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is based on Jung’s personality typology and provides information on four bipolar personality dimensions: introversion-extraversion (I, E), sensing-intuition (S, N), thinking-feeling (T, F), and judging-perceiving (J, P).
As described by Baddeley (2000), the __________ is responsible for integrating information in working memory with information in long-term memory.
A. phonological loop
B. sensory register
C. visuo-spatial sketchpad
D. episodic buffer
D. episodic buffer
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-13 Answer D is correct. A. D. Baddeley’s multi-component model of working memory describes it as consisting of a central executive and three subcomponents – the phonological loop, visuo-spatial sketchpad, and episodic buffer. The episodic buffer is a temporary storage system that’s responsible for combining new verbal and visual information from the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad and integrating that information with information that’s already stored in long-term memory (The episodic buffer: A new component of working memory, Trends in Cognitive Science, 4, 417-423, 2000).
During the first session with a family consisting of a mother, father, and their 11-year-old son, the mother says they came to therapy because of their son’s “anger problem.” The therapist, a practitioner of Milan systemic family therapy, asks the mother and father to describe how she/he usually responds to the boy’s anger. The therapist’s response to the mother’s statement is an example of which of the following?
A. process question
B. circular question
C. reframing
D. unbalancing
B. circular question
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-13 Answer B is correct. Circular questions are an essential technique of Milan systemic therapy and are used to “(a) assess and (b) make overt the overall dynamics and interactive patterns in the system, thereby reframing the problem for all participants without the therapist having to verbally provide a reframe” [D. R. Gehart, Mastering competencies in family therapy: A practical approach to theories and clinical case documentation (2nd ed.), Belmont, CA, Brooks/Cole, 2014, p. 89]. By asking the mother and father how they react to their son’s anger, the therapist will obtain information about how the parents interact with their son when he’s angry. Note that, even if you’re unfamiliar with the nature or purpose of circular questions, as long as you know that Milan systemic family therapists use circular questions, you would have been able to identify the correct answer to this question.
A child who has received a diagnosis of ADHD will likely obtain the lowest score on the WISC-V’s:
A. Working Memory Index.
B. Visual Spatial Index.
C. Processing Speed Index.
D. Verbal Comprehension Index.
C. Processing Speed Index.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-05 Answer C is correct. Children with ADHD included in the WISC-V standardization sample obtained the lowest mean score on the Processing Speed Index followed by, in order from lowest to highest score, the Working Memory, Fluid Reasoning, Visual Spatial, and Verbal Comprehension Indexes (D. Wechsler, WISC-V: Technical and interpretive manual supplement, Bloomington, MN, PsychCorp, 2014).
A primary focus of process consultation is determining:
A. the best way to redesign jobs so they provide employees with more responsibility, challenge, and opportunities for advancement.
B. the best way to select and train employees so they can perform their jobs in the most efficient ways.
C. how groups of employees discuss problems, make decisions, and achieve work-related goals.
D. how employee attitudes and perceptions affect individual and organizational effectiveness.
C. how groups of employees discuss problems, make decisions, and achieve work-related goals.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-15 Answer C is correct. As its name suggests, process consultation focuses on clarifying and, when appropriate, modifying group processes – e.g., how group members communicate, diagnose and resolve problems, and make decisions.
A job applicant’s score on a job knowledge test is used to predict what her future score on a measure of job performance will be if she’s hired. If the applicant’s predicted job performance score is 75, the measure of job performance has a standard deviation of 6, and the standard error of estimate is 4, the 95% confidence interval for the applicant’s predicted score of 75 is:
A. 69 to 81.
B. 63 to 87.
C. 71 to 79.
D. 67 to 83.
D. 67 to 83.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-08 Answer D is correct. The 95% confidence interval for a predicted score is calculated by adding and subtracting two standard errors of estimate to and from the predicted score. In this situation, the applicant’s predicted score is 75 and the standard error of estimate is 4, so the 95% confidence interval is 75 minus and plus 8 (two standard errors), which is 67 to 83.
In the context of Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) theory of work adjustment, a worker’s job satisfaction is determined by the correspondence between the worker’s:
A. interests and the characteristics of the job.
B. vocational identity and ego identity.
C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job.
D. skills and the skill requirements of the job.
C. needs and the reinforcers provided by the job.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Career Choice and Development-12 Answer C is correct. Dawis and Lofquist distinguish between satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction refers to the employee’s satisfaction with the job and is affected by the match between the employee’s needs and the reinforcers provided by the job. Satisfactoriness refers to the employer’s satisfaction with the employee and is affected by how well the employee’s skills match the skill requirements of the job.
A practitioner of which of the following is most likely to encourage clients to adopt the “sick role”?
A. motivational interviewing
B. personal construct therapy
C. interpersonal therapy
D. solution-focused therapy
C. interpersonal therapy
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Brief Therapies-07 Answer C is correct. During the initial stage of interpersonal therapy (IPT), clients are assigned the “sick role” to allow them to be ill without blaming themselves for their symptoms and to help them view their illnesses as temporary and treatable.
One of the questions included in a survey asks employees to rate the degree to which the processes used by the company to make decisions about employee raises, bonuses, and promotions are fair. This question assesses employees’ perceptions about which of the following?
A. distributive justice
B. procedural justice
C. normative justice
D. interactional justice
B. procedural justice
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer B is correct. A distinction is made between three types of organizational justice: distributive, procedural, and interactional. Procedural justice refers to the fairness of the procedures and processes used to determine outcomes.
As described by Vygotsky, the acquisition of knowledge depends primarily on:
A. individual construction.
B. social interactions.
C. reinforcement.
D. information processing.
B. social interactions.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-10 Answer B is correct. Knowing that Vygotsky’s theory is referred to as sociocultural theory would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. As its name suggests, it emphasizes the impact of social interactions and cultural influences on cognitive development.
Which of the following would be most useful for determining whether your client’s symptoms are more indicative of acute stress disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder?
A. the severity of the traumatic event that precipitated the symptoms
B. the duration of the symptoms
C. the degree of distress or impairment of functioning caused by the symptoms
D. the length of time between the traumatic event and the onset of the symptoms
B. the duration of the symptoms
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Trauma/Stressor-Related, Dissociative, and Somatic Symptom Disorders-13 Answer B is correct. The primary difference between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder is the duration of symptoms: The DSM-5 diagnosis of acute stress disorder requires a duration of three days to one month after exposure to a traumatic event, while the diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder requires a duration of more than one month.
In Ainsworth’s (Ainsworth et al., 1978) “strange situation,” an infant with a(n) ____________ attachment pattern clings to his/her mother, is very upset when she leaves, and is angry and rejects her when she returns. Mothers with this attachment pattern are usually ____________.
A. resistant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating
B. resistant; inconsistent in their caregiving
C. avoidant; rejecting/unresponsive or intrusive/overstimulating
D. avoidant; inconsistent in their caregiving
B. resistant; inconsistent in their caregiving
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-20 Answer B is correct. A baby with insecure/resistant (ambivalent) attachment stays close to his/her mother, is distressed when she leaves, and may be angry and resist her attempts at contact when she returns. Mothers of these children are inconsistent in their caregiving.
Your new client, Alicia, has come to therapy at the urging of her sister who is concerned that Alicia “hasn’t been herself” for the last three or four weeks. In response to your questions, Alicia tells you that she’s been having trouble concentrating and making decisions at work, has less energy than usual, has lost her appetite, and feels tired all the time even though she’s sleeping more than usual. The presence of which of the following will confirm a diagnosis of major depressive disorder for Alicia?
A. recurrent suicidal ideation or a suicide attempt
B. feelings of worthlessness or inappropriate guilt
C. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities
D. psychomotor agitation or retardation
C. a loss of interest or pleasure in most activities
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-07 Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of major depressive disorder requires the presence of at least five characteristics symptoms with at least one symptom being a depressed mood or a loss of interest or pleasure in usual activities. Feelings of worthlessness or guilt, suicidal ideation or a suicide attempt, and psychomotor agitation or retardation are symptoms of this disorder, but their presence is not required for the diagnosis.
Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt’s (2002) meta-analysis of the research found that, of the Big Five personality traits, ___________ is the best predictor of leader effectiveness.
A. openness to experience
B. extraversion
C. conscientiousness
D. agreeableness
B. extraversion
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-ORG-Organizational Leadership-20 Answer B is correct. Judge, Bono, Ilies, and Gerehardt’s meta-analysis found that extraversion and conscientiousness have the largest correlation coefficients with leader effectiveness (.31 and .28, respectively). (Note that this question is asking specifically about the personality trait that’s most predictive of leader effectiveness. If it asked about the best predictor of job performance across different jobs and performance criteria, the correct answer would have been conscientiousness.)
The sentences “The mouse was chased by the cat” and “The cat chased the mouse” have the same meaning but differ in terms of:
A. pragmatics.
B. semantics.
C. syntax.
D. paralanguage.
C. syntax.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-LIF-Cognitive Development-14 Answer C is correct. Syntax refers to rules that determine how words can be combined into phases or sentences. For example, words can be arranged so that a sentence is in the passive voice (“The mouse was chased by the cat”) or the active voice (“The cat chased the mouse”).
Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) meta-analysis of 475 psychotherapy outcome studies produced a mean effect size of:
A. .95.
B. .85.
C. .75.
D. .55.
B. .85.
EXPLANATION
EPPP-F1-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-20 Answer B is correct. Smith, Glass, and Miller’s (1980) meta-analysis produced a mean effect size of .85, which means that the average patient who received psychotherapy was “better off” than 80% of patients who did not receive psychotherapy.
