Exam 4 Flashcards

Question

__________ facilitates movement by stimulating the muscles to contract. A. Norepinephrine B. Glutamate C. Acetylcholine D. GABA

Answer 1

C. Acetylcholine EPPP-P4-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-11 Answer C is correct. Acetylcholine (ACh) is present in all motor neurons, causes muscles to contract, and is involved in the production of muscle movements.

Answer 2

D. stimulus generalization. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Classical Conditioning-01 Answer D is correct. Watson established a fear reaction to a white rat in Little Albert by pairing presentation of the white rat (the CS) with an unexpected loud noise (the US) that naturally produced a startle response. Albert’s subsequent fear reaction to other white furry objects was the result of stimulus generalization – i.e., elicitation of the conditioned response by stimuli similar to the CS.

Answer 3

B. industry versus inferiority EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-15 Answer B is correct. Freud’s latency stage and Erikson’s industry versus inferiority stage both occur when children are between the ages of six and 11.

Answer 4

A. 7 and 11 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-15 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 states that specific phobia usually begins in childhood, with the median age of onset being between 7 and 11 years of age and the mean being about 10 years of age.

Answer 5

D. Abstract Reasoning EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-05 Answer D is correct. The SB5 provides scores on the following five factors: Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory.

Answer 6

D. the point at which the curve intercepts the y-axis EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-02 Answer D is correct. The various item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on either one, two, or three parameters, with the three parameters being item difficulty, item discrimination, and the probability of guessing correctly. The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the y-axis.

Answer 7

C. phonemes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Language Development-08 Answer C is correct. Phonemes are the smallest distinctive units of sound in a language (e.g., b, d, f, sh), and morphemes are the smallest meaningful units (e.g., un, ed, pre, post).

Answer 8

C. 48%. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Schizophrenia Spectrum/Other Psychotic Disorders-05 Answer C is correct. In his frequently cited review of the research, I. Gottesman reports a concordance rate for schizophrenia of 48% for monozygotic twins (Schizophrenia genesis, New York, W. H. Freeman & Co., 1991).

Answer 9

A. acrostic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-14 Answer A is correct. When using an acrostic to memorize information, a phrase or sentence consisting of familiar words is created, with each word beginning with the first letter of one of the words to be memorized.

Answer 10

A. Overlearning EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-11 Answer A is correct. Overlearning refers to learning or practicing beyond the point of mastery and results in automaticity, which occurs when information can be recalled or a behavior can be performed with little conscious effort or awareness.

Answer 11

A. detouring EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-11 Answer A is correct. Detouring occurs when parents avoid dealing with their own conflicts by focusing on their child and either overprotecting the child or blaming the child for their problems.

Answer 12

B. 50%; has an onset prior to the development of motor symptoms for some patients EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-20 Answer B is correct. About 50% of patients with Parkinson’s disease experience depression at some time during the course of the disease, with depressive symptoms preceding motor symptoms for some patients. See, e.g., M. J. Mentis and D. Delalot, Depression in Parkinson’s disease, in K. E. Anderson, W. J. Weiner, and A. E. Lang (Eds.), Advances in neurology, volume 96: Behavioral neurology of movement disorders (2nd ed., pp. 26-41), Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkens, 2005.

Answer 13

B. 20 to 30 seconds. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-11 Answer B is correct. Estimates for the maintenance of information in short-term memory vary somewhat, but most experts report a maximum duration of 20 to 30 seconds without rehearsal of the information.

Answer 14

B. discontinuous and active. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-181 Answer B is correct. Piaget’s theory proposes discontinuous stages of cognitive development that are characterized by qualitatively different cognitive processes. His theory also proposes that development is an active process in which children interact with the world to construct their own knowledge.

Answer 15

B. see the clients in therapy but seek consultation with a colleague who has relevant experience. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-02 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.01 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards II.6 and II.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.01 requires psychologists to obtain appropriate education, training, and consultation when they want to provide new professional services. Answer A is not the best answer because completing a single continuing education course is not likely to be adequate.

Answer 16

A. It will reduce the patient’s craving for alcohol. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-25 Answer A is correct. Naltrexone reduces the rewarding effects of alcohol (e.g., feelings of euphoria) and cravings for alcohol.

Answer 17

B. self-perception theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-07 Answer B is correct. Subjects in the false and no information groups had no explanation for their physiological arousal and, as predicted by self-perception theory, they looked to their circumstances to find an explanation.

Answer 18

A. underestimates the actual relationship between the variables. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Correlation and Regression-07 Answer A is correct. To determine the true relationship between variables, scores on both variables must be unrestricted in terms of range. When the range is restricted (e.g., when only low scorers are included in sample), the resulting correlation coefficient will underestimate their actual relationship.

Answer 19

C. contact the attorney who issued the subpoena and ask that he be released from it. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-Professional Issues-28 Answer C is correct. When a psychologist receives a subpoena to testify about a client, he/she would ordinarily not want to disclose confidential information without authorization from the client or the client’s legal representative. When the client refuses to provide authorization, a psychologist has several options. Of the options listed, contacting the party who issued the subpoena to see if he/she is willing to withdraw or limit the request is the best one. Trying to convince the client to authorize the release of information by reassuring her that he’ll provide only information that is in her best interests would be coercive and not necessarily possible, so answer A is not the best answer. A psychologist may be legally required to appear as requested by the subpoena but may or may not be required to release information without the client’s authorization, so answer B is not the best answer. And a psychologist cannot refuse to appear as requested by a subpoena even when the client has not signed an authorization, so answer D is not the best answer. (When a psychologist doesn’t have the client’s authorization, he/she would ordinarily appear as requested but assert the privilege on the client’s behalf and then provide information only with the client’s authorization or a court order.)

Answer 20

D. coping skills training. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-04 Answer D is correct. CET is a type of exposure therapy that’s used to treat substance use disorders and involves exposing a patient to cues associated with the problem behavior while prohibiting him/her from engaging in that behavior. It’s effective for many patients when used alone, but there’s evidence that its effectiveness increases when it’s combined with coping skills training. See, e.g., M. D. Spiegler, Contemporary behavior therapy (6th ed.), Boston, Cengage Learning, 2016.

Answer 21

D. behavior intention EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-04 Answer D is correct. According to the theory of planned behavior, a person’s intention to perform a particular behavior is the best predictor of whether or not he or she will engage in the behavior.

Answer 22

A. parent training in behavior management. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-38 Answer A is correct. Evidence-based parent-training in behavior management (PTBM) is considered the first-line treatment for preschool children 4 and 5 years of age. It involves teaching parents to reward children’s positive behaviors and ignore or redirect their negative behaviors. Included in this category are positive parenting program (triple P), parent-child interaction therapy, and incredible years. Pharmacotherapy (answer D) is not recommended for preschool children unless PTBM has not produced a significant change in behavior.

Answer 23

D. appoint a group member to act as “devil’s advocate.” EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Decision-Making-20 Answer D is correct. According to Janis (1982), group leaders can reduce the risk for groupthink by remaining neutral in the beginning of a discussion, encouraging group members to express their opinions, bringing in outside opinions, and appointing a member to play devil’s advocate.

Answer 24

B. differentiation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Career Choice and Development-13 Answer B is correct. Holland proposed that a personality/work environment match is most predictive of job outcomes when the person’s score profile on the Self-Directed Search has a high degree of differentiation – that is, when the person scores high on one personality type and low on the other five types.

Answer 25

D. is more effective for reducing worry than is providing CBT alone, especially for individuals who initially have high worry severity. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder--25 Answer D is correct. The research has consistently found that, for generalized anxiety disorder, the combination of motivational interviewing and CBT is more effective than CBT alone for reducing worry, especially when initial worry is severe. The combination is also more effective for reducing premature dropout rates and increasing the likelihood that patients no longer meet the diagnostic criteria for this disorder (e.g., Westra, Constantino, & Antony, 2016).

Answer 26

D. Requiring students to do so is acceptable when doing so is clearly identified as a requirement in program and admissions materials. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-19 Answer D is correct. This issue is addressed in Standard 7.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and the Values Statement for Standard I and Standard I.8 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 7.04 states that students should not be required to disclose personal information in course- or program-related activities related to psychological treatment except in two circumstances: (a) this requirement has been clearly identified in program and admissions materials or (b) the information is needed to “evaluate or obtain assistance for students whose personal problems could reasonably be judged to be preventing them from performing their training- or professionally related activities in a competent manner or posing a threat to the student or others.”

Answer 27

C. exposure in imagination and psychodynamic techniques. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Classical Conditioning-03 Answer C is correct. When using implosive therapy, the client imagines the feared object or situation and the therapist embellishes the imagined scene with psychodynamic themes (e.g., aggression, guilt, or sexuality).

Answer 28

C. construct a confidence interval around an examinee’s obtained score. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-04 Answer C is correct. The standard error of measurement is used to construct a confidence interval around an obtained score and indicates the range within which an examinee’s true score is likely to fall given his/her obtained score. The standard error of estimate is used to construct a confidence interval around a predicted score (answer D) – i.e., a criterion score that’s predicted from an obtained predictor score.

Answer 29

C. should not be taken with an SSRI because doing so can cause serotonin syndrome. EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-27 Answer C is correct. There is evidence that St. John’s wort increases serotonin levels and is effective for reducing mild to moderate depression. However, taking St. John’s wort with an SSRI or other drug that elevates serotonin levels can cause serotonin syndrome, which has a number of serious symptoms (e.g., confusion, seizures, loss of consciousness) and can be fatal without treatment.

Answer 30

A. their perceptions of the relative fairness of their treatment at work EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Theories of Motivation-22 Answer A is correct. Equity theory (Adams, 1965) predicts that worker motivation is related to a worker’s perception of the relative fairness of how he or she is treated, which is based on comparisons the worker makes between his or her input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of workers doing the same or a similar job. When workers believe they’re not being treated fairly (i.e., when they perceive the ratios to be unequal), this affects their motivation and performance.

Answer 31

B. 16 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Score Interpretation-11 Answer B is correct. For the EPPP, you want to be familiar with the relationship between percentile ranks, T-scores, and z-scores in a normal distribution. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that, in a normal distribution, a T-score of 40 and a percentile rank of 16 are both one standard deviation below the mean.

Answer 32

B. amygdala EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-04 Answer B is correct. Hyperactivity in the amygdala has been linked to PTSD, although there’s some evidence that this is true only for certain symptoms including hypervigilance and hyperarousal. See, e.g., G. L. Forster, R. M. Simons, and L. A. Baugh, Revising the role of the amygdala in posttraumatic stress disorder, in B. Ferry (Ed.), The amygdala – Where emotions shape perception, learning and memories (pp. 113-136), 2017, doi: 10.5772/67585.

Answer 33

C. ethical as long as the columns are clearly identified as paid advertisements. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-14 Answer C is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 5.02(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.02(c) states that “a paid advertisement relating to psychologists’ activities must be identified or clearly recognizable as such.” Columns like the one described in this question would likely be interpreted by many readers as actual columns written by a psychologist hired by the newspaper rather than as advertisements.

Answer 34

A. Autoplastic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-23 Answer A is correct. Autoplastic interventions involve making changes in the individual so he/she can successfully adapt to the environment, while alloplastic interventions involve altering the environment to fit the needs, desires, or other attributes of the individual. Note that interventions that reflect an emic or etic perspective can be either autoplastic or alloplastic – i.e., an intervention that reflects either perspective could involve encouraging the individual to change him/herself or to change his/her situation or environment.

Answer 35

A. AB EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-05 Answer A is correct. The time-series design is a type of within-subjects design that’s essentially a group version of the single-subject AB design. It involves measuring the dependent variable at regular intervals multiple times before and after the independent variable is administered.

Answer 36

C. It is inferred from the behaviors or circumstances of a person. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-209 Answer C is correct. Implied consent is inferred from the circumstances or actions of a person. For example, a patient’s implied consent for treatment is assumed in emergency situations when the patient is incapacitated and unable to provide informed consent, and a student’s implied consent to participate in a class is assumed when the student registers for and attends the class. Answer D is not the best answer because implied consent does not refer only to consent in the circumstance described in that answer.

Answer 37

A. classical conditioning and negative reinforcement. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Operant Conditioning-06 Answer A is correct. Avoidance conditioning is the result of two-factor learning and occurs when a neutral stimulus and a fear-arousing stimulus (the unconditioned stimulus) are presented together so that the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus and signals that the fear-arousing stimulus is about to be applied. The individual then learns that he/she can avoid the fear-arousing stimulus by engaging in an avoidance behavior as soon as the conditioned stimulus is presented. The pairing of the neutral stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning component of avoidance conditioning, and engaging in the avoidance behavior to keep from experiencing fear is the negative reinforcement component.

Answer 38

B. confidentiality EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-09 Answer B is correct. Discussions about the problems associated with the use of Skype to provide psychotherapy focus primarily on HIPAA compliance and confidentiality. As noted by R. S. Palomares in his objection to the use of Skype, “people aren’t thinking about the fact that when they click on ‘I agree’ in these apps, you’re basically agreeing to turn over all transmissions to the parent company … [and] that their sessions could be recorded and released” [quoted in R. A. Clay, How to make the most of telepsychology and steer clear of pitfalls, Monitor on Psychology, 48(5), 2017, p. 30].

Answer 39

A. primary prevention EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-20 Answer A is correct. Primary preventions target groups of people who have not yet developed an undesirable behavior or condition (e.g., stress related to having a first child) by intervening before the behavior or condition occurs.

Answer 40

C. Leiter-3 EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Cognitive Ability-08 Answer C is correct. The Leiter-3 is a nonverbal measure of fluid intelligence and includes subtests that measure attention, memory, visualization, and reasoning.

Answer 41

A. low LPC leaders are task-oriented, while high LPC leaders are person-oriented. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Leadership-18 Answer A is correct. Low LPC leaders are task-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in negative terms because they focus on the coworker’s task performance. In contrast, high LPC leaders are person-oriented and describe their least preferred coworker in positive terms because they separate interpersonal characteristics from task performance.

Answer 42

B. Moro EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-192 Answer B is correct. The Moro reflex is also known as the startle reflex and occurs when babies are startled by a loud noise or movement and, in response, throw their heads back, extend their arms and legs, and then curl their arms and legs inward. The Babinski reflex (answer A) occurs when the sole of a baby’s foot is firmly touched and, in response, the baby’s big toe moves backward toward the top of the foot and the other toes fan out. The rooting reflex (answer C) occurs when, in response to having the corner of their mouths touched, babies turn their heads in the direction of the touch. Plantar reflex (answer D) is another name for the Babinski reflex.

Answer 43

A. Tiedeman’s career decision-making model EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Career Choice and Development-14 Answer A is correct. Tiedeman’s (Miller-Tiedeman & Tiedeman, 1990; Tiedeman & O’Hara, 1963) model distinguishes between two phases of career decision-making: The initial anticipation phase includes the exploration, crystallization, choice, and clarification stages. The subsequent implementation phase includes the induction, reformation, and integration stages.

Answer 44

B. diffusion of responsibility EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Prosocial Behavior and Prejudice/Discrimination-14 Answer B is correct. Social loafing occurs when members of a group exert less effort when working on a task than they would have exerted when working alone. Diffusion of responsibility is used to explain bystander apathy and has also been applied to social loafing – i.e., it predicts that members of a group exert less effort when working on a task because they feel that the responsibility for accomplishing the task is shared with others. See, e.g., B. Latane, The psychology of social impact, American Psychologist, 36, 343-356, 1981.

Answer 45

B. the development of cohesiveness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-14 Answer B is correct. According to Yalom, the formative stage of group therapy consists of three phases: (1) orientation, hesitant participation, search for meaning, and dependency; (2) conflict, dominance, and rebellion; and (3) development of cohesiveness.

Answer 46

C. adopting a decentered position at the first sign of depression. EPPP-P4-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-18 Answer C is correct. MBCT teaches clients with a history of depression to avoid depressive episodes by decentering at the first sign of depressive symptoms. This involves disengaging from and accepting negative thoughts and feelings associated with depression rather than avoiding or fighting them and recognizing that they’re just thoughts and feelings, not reality.

Answer 47

C. ethnography EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Research – Single-Subject and Group Designs-06 Answer C is correct. Participant observation is the primary method of data collection for ethnographic research and involves joining a cultural group and participating in its usual activities.

Answer 48

B. sensitization. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-28 Answer B is correct. In order, the four stages of Troiden’s homosexual identity development model are sensitization, identity confusion, identity assumption, and commitment [R. R. Troiden, Homosexual identity development, Journal of Adolescent Health Care, 9(2), 105-113, 1989].

Answer 49

B. Psychologists may use deception when it’s justified by the study’s prospective value and participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-21 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards III.23, III.24, and III.25 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.07 states that psychologists should not use deception unless it’s justified by the prospective value of the study, alternative procedures are unavailable, participants are debriefed about the true nature of the study as early as is feasible (which may or may not be immediately after participation), and participants are allowed to withdraw their data from the study.

Answer 50

C. generalized reinforcers EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Operant Conditioning-05 Answer C is correct. Generalized reinforcers (e.g., money, tokens) are also known as generalized secondary reinforcers and generalized conditioned reinforcers. They’re less susceptible than primary and secondary reinforcers to satiation because they can be exchanged for a variety of back-up (primary) reinforcers.

Answer 51

C. asomatognosia EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-05 Answer C is correct. Asomatognosia is usually caused by damage to certain areas of the right parietal lobe and is characterized by a lack of recognition or awareness of part of one’s own body. It often involves the left hemiplegic arm and is accompanied by anosognosia (answer D), which is a lack of awareness or denial of one’s illness.

Answer 52

B. excessive self-interest. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-02 Answer B is correct. Knowing that social interest is a key concept in Adler’s personality theory would have helped you identify excessive self-interest (the opposite of social interest) as the correct answer to this question.

Answer 53

D. unethically regardless of how much time passes between the last therapy session and their first date. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-26 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Although both Codes discourage therapists from dating former clients, they also specify conditions in which doing so may be acceptable. Answers A and B are obviously incorrect since it doesn’t matter who suggests that therapy be terminated or if the client has achieved her therapy goals. Answer C is also incorrect. Standard 10.08 specifies that at least two years must pass before a therapist starts dating a former client, but it also states that the therapist must demonstrate that there has been no exploitation in light of several factors including “the circumstances of the termination” and “any statements or actions made by the therapist during the course of therapy suggesting or inviting the possibility of a posttermination sexual or romantic relationship with the client.” In other words, Dr. Moore expressed his feelings toward the client while still seeing her in therapy and therapy is being terminated so he can begin dating the client, which suggests that dating the client even after two years would be exploitative and would, therefore, violate Standard 10.08.

Answer 54

B. tell Betty he cannot see her friend in therapy and offer to give her friend referrals to other mental health professionals. EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-05 Answer B is correct. Seeing the best friend of a client in therapy would constitute an unacceptable multiple relationship as defined in Standard 3.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard III.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics because of the potential adverse effects of doing so. For example, Betty might disclose information about her friend to Dr. Hedges that her friend doesn’t want Dr. Hedges to know.

Answer 55

D. randomly assign participants to different levels of the independent variable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-04 Answer D is correct. It should have been easy to identify the correct answer to this question as long as you remembered that the name of this threat is misleading since it is the result of the way subjects are assigned to treatment groups rather than how they are selected from the population. It threatens a study’s internal validity when subjects in different groups differ in an important way at the beginning of the study, and the best way to control it is to randomly assign subjects to the treatment groups.

Answer 56

B. controls the experimentwise error rate. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-11 Answer B is correct. The experimentwise error rate is the probability of making a Type I error when multiple statistical comparisons are made within a single research study. If an independent variable has three or more levels, several t-tests would have to be conducted because the t-test compares only two means at a time, and this would increase the experimentwise error rate. When using the one-way ANOVA, all possible comparisons between means are made in a way that maintains the experimentwise error rate at the alpha level set by the researcher.

Answer 57

B. solutions. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-74 Answer B is correct. A program logic model is a visual representation of a program’s components and is used to assist with the development, implementation, and evaluation of the program. Although the components may vary, resources, activities, and outputs are common components. Solutions is not identified in the literature as a component of logic models.

Answer 58

A. desire for economic gain EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Theories-15 Answer A is correct. Taylor (1911) believed economic gain is a worker’s primary motivation and advocated using a differential piece-rate system that directly links pay to productivity.

Answer 59

A. is not predictive of later development of significant behavioral or academic achievement problems. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-18 Answer A is correct. Lucas-Thompson and colleagues (2010) found that, overall, children of women who returned to work outside the home during their children’s first 3 years of life (especially during the second or third year) were no more likely to develop significant behavioral or academic achievement problems than were children whose mothers did not return to work.

Answer 60

B. job analysis EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-01 Answer B is correct. Methods of job analysis are categorized as work-oriented or worker-oriented. Work-oriented methods focus on the tasks that must be accomplished to achieve desired job outcomes, while worker-oriented methods focus on the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics (KSAOs) of the worker that are required to accomplish job tasks.

Answer 61

A. the child’s independent performance and the child’s performance with assistance. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-12 Answer A is correct. As defined by L. S. Vygotsky, the zone of proximal development is “the distance between the [child’s] actual developmental level as determined by independent problem-solving and the level of potential development as determined through problem-solving under adult guidance or in collaboration with more capable peers” (Mind in society: The development of higher mental processes, Cambridge, MA, Harvard University Press, 1978, p. 86)

Answer 62

A. first few weeks EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-03 Answer A is correct. According to Mahler, the development of object constancy takes place during three stages: The normal autistic stage occurs during the first few weeks of life and is followed by the normal symbiotic stage and then the separation-individuation stage.

Answer 63

D. actor-observer effect EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Cognition – Causal Attributions-01 Answer D is correct. This question describes a study conducted by K. Saulnier and D. Perlman (The actor-observer bias is alive and well in prison: A sequel to Wells, Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 7, 559-564, 1981). The results of their study provided support for the actor-observer effect, which predicts that actors tend to attribute their own behaviors to situational factors while observers tend to attribute them to dispositional factors.

Answer 64

A. striatum. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-03 Answer A is correct. The striatum consists of the caudate nucleus and putamen. Knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that the basal ganglia facilitate voluntary movement would have allowed you to identify the striatum as the correct answer to this question.

Answer 65

C. introjection EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-05 Answer C is correct. For Gestalt therapists, introjection is a boundary disturbance that occurs when a person adopts the beliefs, standards, and values of others without question or evaluation – for example, when a son pursues the career his father chose for him.

Answer 66

B. 8 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-21 Answer B is correct. The onset of stranger anxiety differs for different children and, as a result, the reported age of onset varies somewhat in the literature. However, most authors report the onset as being between 7 and 9 months or 8 and 10 months.

Answer 67

C. microassault EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-25 Answer C is correct. D. W. Sue and his colleagues distinguish between three types of microaggression: microinvalidation, microinsult, and microassault. They state that microassaults are closest to “old-fashioned” racism and consist of “an explicit racial derogation characterized by a verbal or nonverbal attack meant to hurt the intended victim through name-calling, avoidant behavior, or purposeful discriminatory actions” [Racial microaggressions in everyday life: Implications for clinical practice, American Psychologist, 62(4), 271-286, 2007].

Answer 68

C. more effective than traditional interventions for adults but not necessarily for children and adolescents. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-26 Answer C is correct. Based on their review of the literature, S. Sue, N. Zane, G. C. Nagayama Hall, and L. K. Berger conclude that “the preponderance of evidence shows that culturally adapted interventions provide benefit to intervention outcomes … [but] this added value is more apparent in the research on adults than on children and youths” (The case for cultural competency in psychotherapeutic interventions, Annual Review of Psychology, 60, 525-548, 2009).

Answer 69

C. temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training is more effective than either temperature biofeedback or relaxation training alone. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-21 Answer C is correct. The research has not provided entirely consistent results, but most studies have found that the combination of temperature (thermal) biofeedback and relaxation training (e.g., autogenic training) is more effective than either intervention alone. Note that there’s also evidence that blood-volume pulse feedback is even more effective than the combination of temperature biofeedback and relaxation training. See, e.g., Y. Nestoriuc and A. Martin, Efficacy of biofeedback for migraine: A meta-analysis, Pain, 128, 111-127, 2007.

Answer 70

D. unacceptable because she’s providing inaccurate information to the insurance companies. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-17 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 6.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide accurate information about their professional services. Billing insurance companies for missed appointments without their approval of this practice would be insurance fraud, which is both unethical and illegal.

Answer 71

C. agreeableness and conscientiousness EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Temperament and Personality-17 Answer C is correct. McCrae and his colleagues conclude that, “from age 18 to age 30 there are declines in Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness to Experience, and increases in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness; after age 30 the same trends are found, although the rate of change seems to decrease” [R. R. McCrae, P. T. Costa, F. Ostendorf, A. Angleitner, M. Hrebickova, M. D. Avia, et al., Nature over nurture: Temperament, personality, and life span development, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 78, 173–186, 2000].

Answer 72

B. nonsocial or social. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-22 Answer B is correct. M. B. Parten distinguished between nonsocial and social play, with each type including three subtypes: Nonsocial play includes unoccupied play, solitary play, and onlooker play, while social play includes parallel play, associative play, and cooperative play [Social participation among pre-school children, The Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 27(3), 243-269, 1932].

Answer 73

D. is alert and oriented and can usually function independently but may need extra time or compensatory strategies. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Clinical Tests-11 Answer D is correct. The Rancho Scale of Cognitive Functioning is also known as the Rancho Los Amigos Scale and Rancho Los Amigos Cognitive Scale and is used to assess a patient’s current cognitive functioning following brain injury. Knowing that higher scale values on the Rancho Scale are indicative of higher levels of functioning would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with the revised version which provides two more levels than the original version.

Answer 74

C. psychological reactance EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Influence – Types of Influence-10 Answer C is correct. Psychological reactance occurs when people feel that pressure to behave in a particular way threatens their personal freedom and they respond in ways to regain that freedom. One response is to do the opposite of what has been requested.

Answer 75

D. EPPS EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-02 Answer D is correct. The items included in the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) assess the 15 needs identified in Murray’s theory of needs (e.g., achievement, autonomy, affiliation, dominance).

Answer 76

C. experience a significant decrease in symptoms of gender dysphoria with transgender male patients experiencing somewhat better outcomes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-22 Answer C is correct. The research has generally found that gender confirmation surgery is associated with a decrease in gender dysphoria, high levels of satisfaction, and a low incidence of regret. In addition, there’s some evidence that transgender male patients have somewhat more positive outcomes than transgender female patients do. See, e.g., A. Lawrence, Sex reassignment surgery, in A. Wenzel (Ed.), The SAGE encyclopedia of abnormal and clinical psychology, New York, SAGE, 2017.

Answer 77

C. exosystem. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Early Influences on Development – Nature vs. Nurture-01 Answer C is correct. Bronfenbrenner’s theory distinguishes between five environmental systems that affect a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem. The exosystem consists of elements in the environment that the child may not have direct contact with but affect the child’s immediate environment. It includes the parents’ places of work, community services, and government agencies.

Answer 78

B. affective EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-23 Answer B is correct. Of the three main types of organizational commitment (normative, affective, and continuance), affective commitment most highly and consistently correlates with various job outcomes.

Answer 79

D. any substance use disorder EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Personality Disorders-30 Answer D is correct. The NESARC-III collected information from more than 36,000 adults on the occurrence of DSM-5 disorders within the past year and over the lifetime. Among respondents reporting antisocial personality disorder, past-year and lifetime comorbid associations were highest for any substance use disorder.

Answer 80

B. smaller than .45. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-08 Answer B is correct. When a test is cross-validated on another sample, the criterion-related validity coefficient usually “shrinks” (is smaller) because the unique characteristics of the original sample affected which items were included in the test and the second sample will not have all of the same characteristics. In other words, the test was “custom-made” for the original sample and, as a result, the initial criterion-related validity coefficient overestimates the test’s validity for other samples.

Answer 81

B. 2:6 to 7:7. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-07 Answer B is correct. The WPPSI-IV (Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence, 4th Edition) is appropriate for examinees ages 2:6 to 7:7.

Answer 82

A. prototype/willingness model EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-05 Answer A is correct. According to the prototype/willingness model (Gibbons & Gerrard, 1995), a person’s willingness to engage in a behavior depends on the person’s perceived acceptability of the behavior which, in turn, is determined by the person’s prototype (social image) of people who engage in the behavior. When the prototype is negative, the person is less willing to engage in the behavior, and vice versa. This question describes the results of a study conducted by M. Gerrary, F. X. Gibbons, D. J. Lane, and M. L. Stock [Smoking cessation: Social comparison level predicts success for adult smokers, Health Psychology, 24(6), 623-629, 2005].

Answer 83

B. 7% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-09 Answer B is correct. Estimates of postpartum depression (major depressive disorder with peripartum onset in the DSM-5) vary somewhat. However, this question is asking specifically about the estimate provided in the DSM-5-TR, which states that the “prevalence of a major depressive episode between birth and 12 months postpartum is just below 7%” (American Psychiatric Association, 2022, p. 213).

Answer 84

B. moderator EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-02 Answer B is correct. A moderator variable affects the direction and/or strength of the relationship between two variables. In the situation described in this question, perceived social support moderates (affects) the likelihood that stressful life events will lead to depression and other negative outcomes.

Answer 85

C. 95%; 70% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-06 Answer C is correct. Reported estimates for left-hemisphere dominance for language for right- and left-handed people vary, but most authorities cite percentages in the 90’s for right-handed people and between 50 and 70% for left-handed people. See, e.g., J. E. Mendoza and A. L. Foundas, Clinical neuroanatomy: A neurobehavioral approach, New York, Springer Science+Business Media, Inc., 2008.

Answer 86

C. -1.00 to +1.00. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-01 Answer C is correct. The value of D ranges from -1.0 to +1.0. When D is +1.0, this indicates that all examinees in the high-scoring group answered the item correctly and all examinees in the low-scoring group answered it incorrectly. Conversely, when D is -1.0, this indicates that all examinees in the low-scoring group answered the item correctly and all examinees in the high-scoring group answered it incorrectly.

Answer 87

D. 9% EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-07 Answer D is correct. A factor loading is the correlation between a test and an identified factor and can be interpreted by squaring it to obtain a measure of shared variability. When a factor loading is .30, this means that 9% (.30 squared) of variability in the test is shared with (explained by) variability in the factor.

Answer 88

B. Stevens’s law EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Sensation and Perception-14 Answer B is correct. Stevens’s method of magnitude estimation involved providing subjects with a specific value for the magnitude of one stimulus and asking them to use that value as a reference point when estimating the magnitude of other stimuli. The results of his research led to the development of Stevens’s power law which predicts that there’s an exponential relationship between the magnitude of a physical stimulus and its perceived magnitude, with the exponent varying for different types of stimuli.

Answer 89

B. alcohol EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders-26 Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 identifies seizures as a symptom of alcohol withdrawal (and sedative, hypnotic, or anxiolytic withdrawal) but not withdrawal from cannabis, opioids, or stimulants.

Answer 90

A. below 1 year of age. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-14 Answer A is correct. Data collected by the National Child Abuse and Neglect Data System (NCANDS) has consistently found that the youngest children are at the greatest risk for maltreatment, with the risk being greatest for children under 1 year of age.

Answer 91

B. serotonin EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders-21 Answer B is correct. SSRIs (e.g., paroxetine, dapoxetine, sertraline) and antidepressants that have similar effects as SSRIs have been found to be safe and effective treatments for premature ejaculation.

Answer 92

C. her study included one between-subjects independent variable and one within-subjects independent variable. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Inferential Statistical Tests-12 Answer C is correct. Knowing that the split-plot ANOVA is also known as the mixed ANOVA may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: It is used when data are collected from a study that used a mixed design – i.e., that had at least one between-subjects variable and one within-subjects variable.

Answer 93

D. thalamus and mammillary bodies EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-02 Answer D is correct. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome has been linked to a thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency that’s usually caused by the long-term abuse of alcohol. The amnesia associated with this disorder is due to damage to the thalamus and mammillary bodies.

Answer 94

B. habituation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-10 Answer B is correct. Habituation is one of the reasons why punishment does not usually have good long-term effects – i.e., over time, punishment tends to become less effective because the person habituates (becomes accustomed) to it. Satiation (answer A) is associated with reinforcement, which may lose its reinforcing effects (especially when it’s provided on a continuous schedule) because the person becomes satiated.

Answer 95

B. schizotypal personality disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Personality Disorders-29 Answer B is correct. Adele’s odd beliefs and magical thinking (e.g., her belief that she can read people’s minds), suspiciousness (belief that people try to avoid her), lack of close friends, social anxiety, and constricted affect are characteristic of schizotypal personality disorder.

Answer 96

C. unique outcome EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-13 Answer C is correct. Unique outcomes in narrative therapy are exceptions to the family’s dominant story and are times when a problem didn’t occur or when the family had control over it.

Answer 97

D. as early as is feasible. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 5 & 6-16 Answer D is correct. This is the best answer because it’s closest to the language of Standard 6.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards I.19 and III.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 6.04(a) states that, “as early as is feasible in a professional or scientific relationship, psychologists and recipients of psychological services reach an agreement specifying compensation and billing arrangements.” Often, this will be before or during the first therapy session but there are exceptions – e.g., when the client is experiencing a crisis or additional information is needed about what services are required before the fee can be set.

Answer 98

D. criterion contamination EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-04 Answer D is correct. Criterion contamination occurs when a performance (criterion) measure is affected by factors unrelated to job performance – for example, when a supervisor’s performance ratings of employees are biased by the supervisor’s knowledge of how well employees did on the predictors that were used to hire them.

Answer 99

D. Psychologists should usually avoid accepting contingent fees. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-06 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 3.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code, Paragraph 5.02 of the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, and Standard III.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.06 prohibits psychologists from “taking on a professional role when personal, scientific, professional, legal, financial, or other interests or relationships could reasonably be expected to … impair their objectivity, competence, or effectiveness.” As noted by C. B. Fisher, this prohibition applies to accepting contingent fees when acting as an expert witness since doing so may “exert pressure on psychologists to intentionally or unintentionally modify their reports or testimony in favor of the retaining party” [Decoding the ethics code: A practical guide for psychologists (4th ed.), Los Angeles, SAGE Publications, Inc., 2017, p. 149].

Answer 100

D. may be acceptable as long as the student has had adequate training and will be supervised by Dr. Sholen. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-24 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 9.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards II.7 and II.56 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.07 states that “psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons, except when such use is conducted for training purposes with appropriate supervision.”

Answer 101

C. the viewer used the peripheral route to process the information presented in the infomercial. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Attitudes and Attitude Change-06 Answer C is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, when using the peripheral route, peripheral cues (e.g., the credibility and attractiveness of the person delivering the message) are more influential than the content of the message. In addition, the model predicts that a person is more likely to use the peripheral route when he/she is in a good mood and/or perceives the message to be unimportant.

Answer 102

D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Overview of Inferential Statistics-10 Answer D is correct. According to the central limit theorem, the shape of the sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches a normal shape as the sample size increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores. (The central limit theorem assumes an infinite number of equal-sized samples, and its prediction about the shape of the sampling distribution is based on the size of the samples.)

Answer 103

C. canonical correlation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Correlation and Regression-09 Answer C is correct. Canonical correlation is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more predictors will be used to estimate status on two or more criteria.

Answer 104

B. .4 to .5 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Clinical Tests-09 Answer B is correct. The Halstead-Reitan Impairment Index indicates the proportion of subtests that show evidence of brain damage and ranges from 0 to 1.0. The recommended cutoff score for brain damage depends on the individual’s IQ: For those with an IQ of 100 or higher, the cutoff score is .4; for those with an IQ less than 100, the cutoff is .5. See, e.g., A. M. Horton, The Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological Test Battery: Past, present, and future, A. M. Horton and D. Wedding (Eds.), The neuropsychology handbook (3rd ed., pp. 251-278), New York, Springer Publishing Company, 2008.

Answer 105

D. Informed consents may be written or verbal but should be documented. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-08 Answer D is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 3.10(d) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards I.21 and I.22 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.10(d) states that “psychologists appropriately document written or oral consent, permission, and assent.”

Answer 106

A. frontal and parietal lobes. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-04 Answer A is correct. Studies investigating age-related changes in the adult brain have found that the greatest decrease in volume occurs in the frontal lobes (especially the prefrontal cortex) and parietal lobes. See, e.g., S. M. Resnick et al., Longitudinal magnetic resonance imaging studies of older adults: A shrinking brain, Journal of Neuroscience, 23, 3295-3301, 2003.

Answer 107

C. 1.5 to 3.0 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-10 Answer C is correct. Prior to adolescence, the rates of major depressive disorder are about equal for males and females but, starting in early adolescence, the rate for females increases, with adolescent and adult females having a rate of 1.5 to 3.0 times the rate for males.

Answer 108

B. blocking. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Classical Conditioning-02 Answer B is correct. Blocking occurs when a conditioned stimulus is simultaneously presented with a new neutral stimulus before presenting the unconditioned stimulus. In this situation, the new neutral stimulus will not become a conditioned stimulus and will not elicit a conditioned response when presented alone. This occurs because classical conditioning of the first neutral (conditioned) stimulus blocks classical conditioning of the second neutral stimulus, apparently because the second neutral stimulus does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus.

Answer 109

D. evaluate the leadership potential of participants. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-06 Answer D is correct. The leaderless group discussion is used to evaluate the leadership potential of assessment center participants and involves observing a small group of participants while they work together without an assigned leader to solve a job-related problem.

Answer 110

A. tends to artificially increase EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Item Analysis and Test Reliability-03 Answer A is correct. Consensual observer drift occurs when two or more raters communicate with each other while they’re assigning ratings. It causes increased consistency (but often decreased accuracy) of their ratings and overestimates a measure’s actual inter-rater reliability.

Answer 111

C. unfreezing, changing, and refreezing EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Organizational Change and Development-16 Answer C is correct. Lewin’s model of planned change describes change as involving three phases: unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.

Answer 112

C. trace decay theory EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-13 Answer C is correct. According to trace decay theory, memories create physical changes in the brain that deteriorate over time when the memories are not rehearsed or recalled. Research comparing subjects who slept or stayed awake after learning new information seems to contradict this prediction since it found that people who sleep recall more information than those who stay awake even though the interval of time between learning and recall was the same for all subjects. Note, however, that the Jenkins and Dallenbach study has been criticized on methodological grounds because there is evidence that newly learned information is consolidated during sleep and, therefore, is not decaying. Because their research did not adequately test the predictions of trace decay theory, it neither contradicts nor supports it. (J. G. Jenkins and K. M. Dallenbach, Obliviscence during sleep and waking. The American Journal of Psychology, 35, 605-612, 1924)

Answer 113

C. declarative memory. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-09 Answer C is correct. The medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, parahippocampal cortex, perirhinal cortex, and entorhinal cortex and is important for the formation of long-term declarative (semantic and episodic) memories.

Answer 114

A. assent from each patient and informed consent from each patient’s legal guardian. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 3 & 4-07 Answer A is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 3.10(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard I.35 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 3.10(b) states that, for minors and others not capable of giving informed consent, psychologists obtain their assent and “appropriate permission from a legally authorized person.”

Answer 115

D. deactivate the “suicidal mode.” EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI- Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-109 Answer D is correct. Ghahramanlou-Holloway et al. note that CBT for preventing suicide is based on Beck’s notion of the suicidal mode, which is activated by a combination of cognitive, affective, motivational, and behavioral systems and precedes a suicide attempt. Consequently, the primary goals of therapy are to deactivate the suicidal mode and replace the structure and content of the suicidal mode with a more adaptive mode that promotes the desire to live. [M. Ghahramanlou-Holloway, L. L. Neely, and J. Tucker, A cognitive-behavioral strategy for preventing suicide, Current Psychiatry, 13 (8), 19-28]

Answer 116

D. determine if a selection test is having an adverse impact. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-09 Answer D is correct. The Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures describes the 80% rule (also known as the four-fifths rule) as a method for determining if a selection test or other employment procedure is having an adverse impact.

Answer 117

C. an increase in marital satisfaction after their last children left home and that this was due to the improved quality of the time that they spent with their husbands. EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-25 Answer C is correct. S. M. Gorchoff, O. P. John, and R. Helson found that the “empty nest” was associated with an increase in marital satisfaction for the women in their study and that the increase was due primarily to an increase in the quality (but not the quantity) of the time they spent with their husbands [Contextualizing change in marital satisfaction during middle age: An 18-year longitudinal study, Psychological Science, 19(11), 1194-1200, 2008].

Answer 118

B. group members know that their individual contributions to the group can be identified and evaluated. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Influence – Group Influences-11 Answer B is correct. Social loafing is less likely to occur when a group is small and cohesive and members believe that the task is personally meaningful, that they’ll be punished for poor performance, and that their individual contributions are necessary for a successful outcome and will be identified and evaluated (Karau & Williams, 1993).

Answer 119

D. a medically based condition. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-07 Answer D is correct. As described by J. C. Markowitz and M. M. Weissman, IPT is based on the assumption that “depression is a medical illness, rather than the patient's fault or personal defect; moreover, it is a treatable condition” [Interpersonal psychotherapy: Principles and applications, World Psychiatry, 3(3), 136-139, 2004].

Answer 120

B. the gain-loss effect EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-13 Answer B is correct. Research on the gain-loss effect (Aronson & Linder, 1965) has found that we’re more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds after they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us.

Answer 121

C. repeated acts of aggression EPPP-P4-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders-23 Answer C is correct. Repeated acts of aggression are more characteristic of conduct disorder than oppositional defiant disorder and, of the behaviors listed in the answers, is the only behavior that would suggest the possibility of comorbid conduct disorder. In contrast, emotional dysregulation (which takes the form of an angry and irritable mood), vindictiveness, and refusing to comply with rules are characteristic of oppositional defiant disorder.

Answer 122

C. job enrichment EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Theories of Motivation-21 Answer C is correct. Herzberg’s two-factor theory predicts that, to increase job motivation and satisfaction, workers must be given jobs that provide motivator factors – i.e., opportunities for autonomy, responsibility, and advancement. He used the term “job enrichment” to describe the type of job redesign that involves modifying a job so that it provides motivator factors.

Answer 123

C. scientific EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Interest Inventories-12 Answer C is correct. Holland’s six occupational themes are realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.

Answer 124

A. Tower of London EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Clinical Tests-10 Answer A is correct. Of the tests listed, only the Tower of London is a measure of problem-solving and planning abilities. In addition, poor performance on this test has been linked to autism and several other disorders.

Answer 125

A. negative reinforcement. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Operant Conditioning-07 Answer A is correct. Mrs. Smith’s reprimands are increasing in frequency because Sam stops hitting the dog when Mrs. Smith reprimands him – i.e., her reprimands are being negatively reinforced.

Answer 126

B. face EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Content and Construct Validity-05 Answer B is correct. Face validity refers to the degree to which test items “look like” they measure what the test purports to measure. Face validity can affect test performance (e.g., by affecting a test taker’s motivation to respond to items accurately), but it does not provide information on whether or not the test accurately measures what it was designed to measure.

Answer 127

A. include a loss of consciousness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-22 Answer A is correct. There are two types of generalized onset seizures – generalized onset motor seizures (also known as tonic-clonic seizures) and generalized onset non-motor seizures (also known as absence seizures). Both include a loss of consciousness but, as their names suggest, only generalized onset motor seizures include motor symptoms. Although auras are most associated with focal onset seizures, there is evidence that they occur for some people with generalized onset seizures. See, e.g., P. Dugan et al., Auras in generalized epilepsy, Neurology, 83(16), 1444-1449, 2014.

Answer 128

C. discuss this further with Sonia to determine the best course of action. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-25 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 10.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.1, II.18, and III.32 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 10.04 requires psychologists to “carefully consider the treatment issues and the potential client’s/patient’s welfare” when deciding whether to provide services to individuals who are receiving mental health services from another professional. Dr. Sholen would want to obtain more information from Sonia (e.g., why she wants to see both therapists) before choosing a course of action.

Answer 129

A. disulfiram (Antabuse) EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-57 Answer A is correct. Disulfiram causes nausea and vomiting, shortness of breath, tachycardia, throbbing headache, weakness, dizziness, confusion, shortness of breath, and other unpleasant symptoms when it is taken prior to alcohol consumption. Naltrexone and acamprosate (answers B and C) are opioid antagonists: Naltrexone reduces the pleasurable effects of and cravings for alcohol, while acamprosate just reduces cravings. Topiramate (answer D) is an anti-seizure medication that is used off-label for the treatment of alcohol use disorder and, like naltrexone, reduces alcohol cravings and the pleasurable effects of alcohol.

Answer 130

C. Moral development does not end in late childhood as his theory claims. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Moral Development-188 Answer C is correct. Piaget, not Kohlberg, concluded that moral development ends with the onset of the autonomous stage in late childhood, and this claim has been criticized and challenged by the results of research on moral development during adolescence and adulthood. Answers A, B, and D accurately describe criticisms of Kohlberg’s theory.

Answer 131

C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-20 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.05 of the APA's Ethics Code and Standard I.20 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. It accurately describes one of the exceptions to obtaining an informed consent listed in Standard 8.05. In contrast, answer A is not correct because informed consents are not required in several circumstances besides when deception is used, and answer B is not correct because allowing participants to withdraw from a study at any time is required but does not preclude getting informed consents. Finally, answer D is not the best answer because it’s only partially true: Standard 8.05 states that it’s not necessary to obtain informed consents when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research but only when “disclosure of responses would not place participants at risk of criminal or civil liability or damage their financial standing, employability, or reputation, and confidentiality is protected.”

Answer 132

A. collecting and posting patient-satisfaction ratings on their professional websites EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-Professional Issues-27 Answer A is correct. This situation is not directly addressed in the ethics codes of the American and Canadian Psychological Associations but has been addressed elsewhere. For example, J. Chamberlin identifies the action listed in answer A as an acceptable response to negative evaluations and the actions listed in answers B and C as unacceptable (One-star therapy?, Monitor on Psychology, 2014, www.apa.org/monitor/2014/04/therapy.aspx): Responding directly to negative posts on the website would violate HIPAA privacy laws and the ethical requirement to maintain a client’s confidentiality, and soliciting testimonials from current clients and others who are vulnerable to undue influence would be an ethical violation. In addition, pursuing legal options may not be feasible or may have consequences that are worse than those caused by the postings. In contrast, establishing a positive online presence (e.g., by posting patient-satisfaction ratings or positive evaluations by colleagues and supervisors) is a useful way to counteract negative postings.

Answer 133

A. internal EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Research – Internal/External Validity-03 Answer A is correct. A research study has adequate internal validity when its results allow a researcher to draw accurate conclusions about the effects of an independent variable on a dependent variable. It has adequate external validity when the results can be generalized to other people and conditions.

Answer 134

D. contact EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-27 Answer D is correct. Helms’s White racial identity development model distinguishes between six stages (statuses). In order, these are contact, disintegration, reintegration, pseudo-independence, immersion-emersion, and autonomy. According to this model, people in the initial contact stage have little awareness of racial or cultural issues.

Answer 135

D. hardiness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-25 Answer D is correct. As described by Kobasa (1982), hardy individuals have a sense of control over their own lives, a sense of commitment to family and work, and a tendency to view new experiences as challenges rather than threats.

Answer 136

D. not have the son or aunt act as interpreter. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-04 Answer D is correct. This situation is addressed in Standard 2.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.05 states that psychologists “who use the services of others, such as interpreters, take reasonable steps to … avoid delegating such work to persons who have a multiple relationship with those being served that would likely lead to exploitation or loss of objectivity.” Having the son or aunt act as interpreter could result in conflicts and inaccuracies due to a lack of objectivity.

Answer 137

C. Psychologists may use animal subjects in research that causes them pain or stress when alternative procedures are unavailable and doing so is justified by the study’s prospective value. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-22 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.09 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards II.49, II.51, and II.53 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Answer A can be eliminated because psychologists may use animal subjects in research but must do so only when alternative procedures are unavailable and doing so is justified by the study’s prospective value. Answer B can be eliminated because psychologists may use procedures that cause animals pain or stress when alternative procedures are unavailable and doing so is justified by the study’s prospective value. And answer D can be eliminated because the lives of animal subjects do not have to be terminated but, when they are, the termination must be done rapidly and in ways that minimize pain.

Answer 138

A. Top-down EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Sensation and Perception-15 Answer A is correct. Top-down processing is concept-driven, while bottom-up processing is data driven. In terms of perception, top-down processing begins with the brain’s use of existing knowledge and expectations to interpret incoming sensory information. In contrast, bottom-up processing begins with incoming sensory information and continues upward to the brain where it is perceived, interpreted, and stored.

Answer 139

A. lexical EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-03 Answer A is correct. Lexical research is based on the assumption that universally important personality traits are encoded in the language, and it has led to the identification of five basic personality traits. See, e.g., C. Coulacoglou and D. H. Saklofske, Psychometrics and psychological assessment: Principles and applications, London, Elsevier, 2017.

Answer 140

B. obtain professional consultation to determine the best course of action. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-03 Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 2.06(b) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 2.06(b) states that, “when psychologists become aware of personal problems that may interfere with their performing work-related duties adequately, they take appropriate measures, such as obtaining professional consultation or assistance, and determine whether they should limit, suspend, or terminate their work-related duties.”

Answer 141

C. parietal EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Cerebral Cortex-08 Answer C is correct. The condition described in this question is referred to as tactile agnosia, which is caused by damage to the somatosensory area of the parietal lobe.

Answer 142

C. deviation amplifying. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Family Therapies and Group Therapies-10 Answer C is correct. Positive feedback amplifies deviation from the status quo and promotes change, while negative feedback counteracts (attenuates) deviation and maintains the status quo.

Answer 143

B. medulla oblongata EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-01 Answer B is correct. The medulla oblongata controls respiration and other vital autonomic functions. Opioids produce a dose-dependent effect on respiration by reducing the responsiveness of the medulla’s respiratory center to carbon dioxide.

Answer 144

B. long-term memories but not short-term memories. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Memory and Sleep-16 Answer B is correct. The studies have confirmed that the formation of long-term memories (but not short-term memories) depends on structural changes that strengthen synapses and that these structural changes depend on protein synthesis. Consequently, administration of a drug that blocks protein synthesis during learning affects long-term memory but not short-term memory. See, e.g., M. K. Campbell, S. O. Farrell, and O. M. McDougal, Biochemistry (9th ed.), Boston, Cengage Learning, 2016.

Answer 145

D. increased feelings of hopefulness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-22 Answer D is correct. According to K. I. Howard and his colleagues, improvement in therapy occurs in three phases – remoralization, remediation, and rehabilitation. Remoralization occurs during the first few sessions and is characterized by an increase in hopefulness and sense of well-being [Evaluation of psychotherapy: Efficacy, effectiveness, and patient progress. American Psychologist, 51(10), 1059-106, 1986].

Answer 146

A. 3rd through 8th EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Physical Development-06 Answer A is correct. The effects of prenatal exposure to a teratogen depend on the type and amount of the teratogen and the organ system but, in general, the most severe defects result when exposure occurs during the embryonic period, which extends from the beginning of the third week to the end of the eighth week.

Answer 147

D. protecting the welfare of the supervisee’s client EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-Professional Issues-212 Answer D is correct. Paragraph G.2 of the Guidelines for Clinical Supervision in Health Service Psychology states that “supervisors uphold their primary ethical and legal obligation to protect the welfare of the [supervisee’s] client/patient” and that “the highest duty of the supervisor is protection of the client/patient” (p. 19). In addition, the introduction to Paragraph F states that “supervisors give precedence to protecting the well-being of clients/patients above the training of the supervisee” (p. 17).

Answer 148

C. 18 and 24 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-10 Answer C is correct. The ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present is referred to as deferred imitation. According to Piaget, deferred imitation doesn’t occur until the infant can form enduring mental representations, which happens during the final substage (substage six) of the sensorimotor stage when children are between 18 and 24 months of age.

Answer 149

D. incongruence EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Psychodynamic and Humanistic Therapies-04 Answer D is correct. Rogers’s personality theory is based on the assumptions that (a) incongruence causes anxiety and (b) a person experiences incongruence when there’s a discrepancy between the person’s sense of self and his/her experience. A discrepancy occurs, for example, when parents impose conditions of worth by ignoring or rejecting their child whenever the child expresses anger or frustration and providing approval and affection when the child suppresses his/her anger and frustration.

Answer 150

D. frequency of contact EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-School and Family Influences-23 Answer D is correct. A meta-analysis of the research by P. R. Amato and J. G. Gilbreth (1999) indicated that frequency of paternal contact with children was least related to child outcomes. In contrast, payment of child support was positively related to children’s academic success and negatively related to externalizing problems, while feelings of closeness and authoritative parenting were both positively related to academic success and negatively related to internalizing and externalizing problems (Nonresident fathers and children’s well-being: A meta-analysis, Journal of Marriage and the Family, 61, 557-573, 1999).

Answer 151

C. competent EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Affiliation, Attraction, and Intimacy-12 Answer C is correct. Research on the pratfall effect has found that the attractiveness of a person who is perceived to be competent increases when that person commits a blunder (Aronson, Willerman, & Floyd, 1966).

Answer 152

D. accommodation. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-11 Answer D is correct. As described by Piaget, accommodation occurs when a person creates a new schema or modifies an existing one to fit (accommodate) new information.

Answer 153

D. percentage scores EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Score Interpretation-12 Answer D is correct. Percentage scores are a type of criterion-referenced score that indicates the percent of test items an examinee answered correctly. All of the other scores listed in the answers are norm-referenced scores that compare an examinee’s score to the scores obtained by examinees in the norm (reference) group.

Answer 154

D. over time, people tend to remember the message but forget its source. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Persuasion-08 Answer D is correct. High-credible communicators initially have a greater effect than low-credible communicators on attitude change, but this difference fades over time because people tend to remember the persuasive message but forget its source. This is referred to as the sleeper effect.

Answer 155

B. paralanguage EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-02 Answer B is correct. Paralanguage refers to how something is said rather than to what is said. It is often used to modify the meaning of what is said or to express emotion and includes variations in tone, rhythm, volume, and stress.

Answer 156

A. low K scale score and high F scale score EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-MMPI-2-01 Answer A is correct. A person with a questionable disability claim is likely to attempt to present himself as having more serious pathology than he actually has. On the MMPI-2, low K scale and high F scale scores suggest an attempt to “fake bad.”

Answer 157

D. diffusion tensor imaging EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Neurological and Endocrine Disorders-63 Answer D is correct. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is a special application of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) that is used to detect abnormalities in the brain’s white matter, which consists of myelinated axons that connect different areas of the brain. It does this by identifying the rate and direction of the movement of water molecules along the axons.

Answer 158

D. 71 to 89. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-09 Answer D is correct. The 99% confidence interval for a predicted score is calculated by adding and subtracting three standard errors of estimate to and from the predicted score. In this situation, the applicant’s predicted score is 80 and the standard error of estimate is 3, so the 99% confidence interval is 80 minus and plus 9 (three standard errors), which is 71 to 89.

Answer 159

C. the client’s complaint is valid and Dr. Devlin has previously provided the intern with feedback about his performance. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 7 & 8-18 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 7.06(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to provide supervisees with timely feedback. Although neither Code directly addresses termination of interns, doing so without having provided them with feedback and opportunities to correct undesirable behaviors would violate these standards and the “spirit” of the Codes.

Answer 160

A. during the transition from sleep to wakefulness. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-20 Answer A is correct. People with narcolepsy often experience hypnagogic and/or hypnopompic hallucinations which occur, respectively, during the transition from wakefulness to sleep or from sleep to wakefulness.

Answer 161

A. the current situation and racial centrality. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Identity Development Models-124 Answer A is correct. The multidimensional model of racial identity proposes that there are four dimensions of African American identity: salience, centrality, regard, and ideology. Racial salience is affected by the nature of the person’s current situation and the centrality of race for the person (i.e., the degree to which race defines the person’s identity). For example, being the only African American student in a college classroom is more likely to increase the salience of race for the student when race is central to the student’s identity than when it is not central.

Answer 162

C. MST is about equally effective for African American youth and European youth. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders--19 Answer C is correct. An advantage of MST is that many of the studies evaluating its effectiveness have included African American and other racial/ethnic minority families and families at different levels of socioeconomic status. These studies have found that the benefits of MST are not affected by race or ethnicity or socioeconomic status (e.g., Henggeler & Sheidow, 2012). Outcome similarities for families of different racial/ethnic groups and socioeconomic status have been attributed to the fact that MST procedures can be adjusted to the characteristics of each family.

Answer 163

A. job evaluation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Job Analysis and Performance Assessment-02 Answer A is correct. The point system is a commonly used method of job evaluation. It involves determining the monetary value of a job by assigning points to the job’s compensable factors (e.g., effort, skill, responsibility, work conditions); summing the points to derive a total score; and using the total score to determine the appropriate compensation for the job.

Answer 164

B. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Employee Selection – Evaluation of Techniques-08 Answer B is correct. The Taylor-Russell tables provide an estimate of the increase in decision-making accuracy (incremental validity) that can be expected when a new predictor is used, and the estimate is based on the predictor’s criterion-related validity, the base rate, and the selection ratio. The tables indicate that, even when a predictor’s validity coefficient is low to moderate, it can improve decision-making accuracy as long as the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low.

Answer 165

A. multiple cutoff EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Employee Selection – Techniques-07 Answer A is correct. Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique that requires a job applicant to obtain a score that’s above the cutoff on each predictor to be considered for the job.

Answer 166

D. agranulocytosis EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-24 Answer D is correct. Of the antipsychotics, the atypical drug clozapine is most likely to produce agranulocytosis, which is a rare but potentially fatal blood disorder that’s characterized by an abnormally low level of white blood cells. Consequently, regular blood monitoring is required for people taking this drug. An advantage of clozapine is that it is less likely than many other antipsychotics to produce the side effects listed in answers A, B, and C. See, e.g., L.A. Labbate, J. F. Rosenbaum, M. Fava, and G. W. Arana, Handbook of psychiatric drug therapy, Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.

Answer 167

C. 18 to 24; 36 to 48 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development: Temperament and Personality-177 Answer C is correct. By 18 to 24 months of age, most children pass the mirror self-recognition test. However, children with Down syndrome usually do not pass the test until they are 36 to 48 months of age when their cognitive developmental age is equivalent to the level of younger children who do not have cognitive developmental delays.

Answer 168

D. overvaluation of body weight and shape EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Feeding/Eating, Elimination, and Sleep-Wake Disorders-16 Answer D is correct. Although overvaluation of body weight and shape is present in about 50% of treatment-seeking individuals with binge-eating disorder, it is not a criterion for its diagnosis. The DSM requires the presence of at least three of five characteristic symptoms for the diagnosis. Eating alone because of feeling embarrassed by how much one eats (answer A) and eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry (answer B) are two of the five characteristic symptoms. A lack of control over eating during binge episodes (answer C) is also a diagnostic criterion for this disorder.

Answer 169

A. alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Satisfaction, Commitment, and Stress-24 Answer A is correct. Selye’s general adaptation syndrome (GAS) consists of three stages: alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion.

Answer 170

D. internal working models. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Socioemotional Development – Attachment, Emotions, and Social Relationships-19 Answer D is correct. Bowlby proposed that an infant’s early attachment relationships lead to the development of internal working models that consist of beliefs about the self, others, and the self in relationship to others and that these models affect future relationships.

Answer 171

B. amitriptyline EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Antipsychotics and Antidepressants-23 Answer B is correct. The tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline, nortriptyline) are considered to be the first-line treatment for neuropathic pain. See, e.g., E. M. Aronoff, Medication management of chronic pain: What you need to know, Victoria, Canada, Trafford Publishing, 2017.

Answer 172

C. men 75 years of age and older. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Bipolar and Depressive Disorders-12 Answer C is correct. CDC data for 2000 through 2020 (Garnett, Curtin, & Stone, 2022) indicate that suicide rates have been consistently higher for males than for females. With regard to age, in 2020, the highest rate for males was for those 75 years of age and older (40.5 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people), while the highest rate for females was for those ages 45 to 64 years of age (7.9 suicide deaths for every 100,000 people).

Answer 173

B. face recognition EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders--11 Answer B is correct. Research has confirmed that deficits in face recognition are more common in individuals with autism spectrum disorder than in typically developing individuals. It has also linked these deficits to the social communication and interaction difficulties characteristic of this disorder.

Answer 174

B. prion disease EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders--30 Answer B is correct. The conditions listed in answers A, C, and D can cause neurocognitive disorders that are potentially reversible because these conditions are treatable. Some symptoms of neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease can be temporarily alleviated, but this disorder is not reversible because there is no curative treatment for it.

Answer 175

B. contemplation to the preparation stage. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-09 Answer B is correct. Self-reevaluation is useful strategy for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because it helps them transition to the next stage – i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages of change identified by the transtheoretical model.

Answer 176

C. 9 EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Language Development-196 Answer C is correct. The initial babbling of infants includes sounds of all languages regardless of the language(s) the infant has been exposed to. By about 9 months of age, babbling begins to narrow to the language sounds the infant hears every day.

Answer 177

A. Benzodiazepines that have a shorter half-life are preferred, and tapering should be slow. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Psychopharmacology – Other Psychoactive Drugs-54 Answer A is correct. Increasing age increases the half-life of the benzodiazepines and, consequently, benzodiazepines with a shorter half-life are recommended for older adults. In addition, a slow taper of the drugs over several months is recommended to reduce the risk for and severity of withdrawal symptoms, with the tapering schedule depending on the initial drug dose and duration of treatment.

Answer 178

B. operant extinction EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Interventions Based on Operant Conditioning-08 Answer B is correct. Of the interventions listed in the answers, operant extinction would be the least desirable when the target behavior is harmful to the individual or others because extinction often causes an increase in the behavior (an extinction burst) before the behavior begins to decrease.

Answer 179

B. consultee-centered case consultation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Prevention, Consultation, and Psychotherapy Research-21 Answer B is correct. In this situation, the focus of the consultation is on the consultee (the manager), and the psychologist will be providing the manager with education or training to help him/her identify ways to increase the motivation of a group of employees. Therefore, this is an example of consultee-centered case consultation.

Answer 180

A. acetylcholine EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-27 Answer A is correct. The symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease have been linked to abnormalities in several neurotransmitters. However, memory loss has been most consistently linked to the deterioration of cells that secrete acetylcholine in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cerebral cortex.

Answer 181

A. Verbal Comprehension EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Stanford-Binet and Wechsler Tests-06 Answer A is correct. The WAIS-IV Technical Manual reports the following mean Index scores for examinees with traumatic brain injury: Verbal Comprehension = 92.1, Perceptual Reasoning = 86.1, Working Memory = 85.3, and Processing Speed = 80.5.

Answer 182

A. marginalization EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cross-Cultural Issues – Terms and Concepts-24 Answer A is correct. J. W. Berry’s acculturation model distinguishes between four acculturation strategies based on whether a member of a minority group accepts or rejects his/her own culture and the culture of the dominant (majority) group: integration, assimilation, separation, and marginalization. A person has adopted a marginalization strategy when the person rejects his/her own minority culture and the culture of the dominant group [Conceptual approaches to acculturation, in K. M. Chun, P. Organista, and G. Main (Eds.), Acculturation: Advances in theory, measurement, and applied research (pp. 17-37), Washington, DC, American Psychological Association, 2003].

Answer 183

C. contact the psychologist to discuss her possible violation of ethical requirements. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Overview and Standards 1 & 2-01 Answer C is correct. This situation is addressed in Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards II.43 and II.44 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standards 1.04 and 1.05 require psychologists to attempt to resolve the ethical violations of another psychologist either informally by bringing the behavior to the psychologist’s attention or formally by filing a report against the psychologist with an ethics committee or licensing board. Given that the website only “seems to provide” inaccurate information, an attempt at an informal resolution would be the best initial course of action.

Answer 184

C. illusory correlation EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-SOC-Social Cognition – Errors, Biases, and Heuristics-02 Answer C is correct. An illusory correlation occurs when people overestimate the correlation between two variables that are unrelated or only slightly related. One explanation for the illusory correlation is that people tend to pay more attention to rare or distinctive information (Hamilton & Gifford, 1976).

Answer 185

C. older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks in the morning than they do in the afternoon, while the reverse is true for younger adults. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-13 Answer C is correct. The synchrony effect refers to the benefits of matching task demands and the preferred (optimal) time of day, and research has found that the preferred time differs for older and younger adults: Older adults do better on certain cognitive tasks (especially those that involve ignoring distractions or irrelevant information) in the morning, while younger adults often do better on the same tasks in the late afternoon or evening. Apparently, the synchrony effect is due to age-related differences in circadian rhythms and peak times of arousal. See, e.g., C. P. May and L. Hasher, Synchrony effects in inhibitory control over thought and action, Journal of Experimental Psychology: Human Perception and Performance, 24(2), 363-379, 1998.

Answer 186

C. aphasia EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurocognitive Disorders-28 Answer C is correct. Aphasia is a common symptom of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease and other cortical neurocognitive disorders. The symptoms listed in the other answers are characteristic of subcortical neurocognitive disorders.

Answer 187

A. visual EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders--01 Answer A is correct. Although episodes of hallucinogen persisting perception disorder may involve any type of perceptual disturbance, visual disturbances (e.g., flashes of color, halos around objects, misperception of objects as too large or too small) are most common.

Answer 188

B. elicit change talk. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Brief Therapies-08 Answer B is correct. Even if you’re not familiar with evocative questions, you would have been able to identify answer B as the correct answer as long as you know that practitioners of motivational interviewing use a variety of techniques to elicit and reinforce a client’s “change talk” (statements that move the client toward making positive changes in his/her behavior). Evocative questions are open-ended questions that are designed to elicit change talk – e.g., reasons for changing (“What are some of the advantages of making this change?”) and ability to change (“What makes you think you can change if you decide to change?”).

Answer 189

D. identify and modify automatic thoughts. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-15 Answer D is correct. The Socratic method is also known as Socratic questioning and Socratic dialogue and is an essential technique of Beck’s cognitive behavior therapy. It’s used to help clients identify and test the accuracy of automatic thoughts and core beliefs that are contributing to their presenting problems and consider alternative ways of thinking.

Answer 190

A. provisional tic disorder. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Neurodevelopmental Disorders-04 Answer A is correct. The DSM-5 includes three tic disorders: Tourette’s disorder, persistent (chronic) motor or vocal tic disorder, and provisional tic disorder. The diagnosis of provisional tic disorder requires one or more motor and/or vocal tics that have been present for less than one year and began before the individual’s 18th birthday.

Answer 191

C. obtain the information needed to accurately code the examinee’s responses. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PAS-Other Measures of Personality-04 Answer C is correct. Administration of the Rorschach ordinarily involves two phases: the free association (response) phase and the inquiry phase. During the inquiry phase, the examiner questions the examinee about what parts of the inkblot determined the examinee’s responses to obtain the information needed to code his/her responses.

Answer 192

A. retrieval cues. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LEA-Memory and Forgetting-12 Answer A is correct. According to the encoding specificity hypothesis, retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when the conditions at the time of encoding new information are the same as the conditions at the time of information retrieval – e.g., when the person learns and retrieves information in the same environment or while in the same mood. When this occurs, conditions at the time of recall act as retrieval cues.

Answer 193

A. a fear of being embarrassed or humiliated EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PPA-Anxiety Disorders and Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder-14 Answer A is correct. The DSM diagnosis of social anxiety disorder requires fear or anxiety about one or more social situations in which the person is exposed to the scrutiny of others and will be negatively evaluated by them – e.g., will be humiliated, embarrassed, or rejected.

Answer 194

B. the presence of psychological pain is universal and normal. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-CLI-Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies-17 Answer B is correct. ACT is based on the assumptions “that psychological pain is both universal and normal and is part of what makes us human … [and] that psychological problems are maintained by excessive avoidance of painful experiences (thoughts, feelings, memories, etc.)” [J. Boorman, E. Morris, and J. Oliver, Acceptance and commitment therapy, in C. Feltham, T. Hanley, and L. A. Winter (Eds.), The SAGE handbook of counseling and psychotherapy (pp. 218-223), London, SAGE Publications Ltd., 2017].

Answer 195

D. mesolimbic EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Nervous System, Neurons, and Neurotransmitters-12 Answer D is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is also known as the brain’s reward pathway. Elevated activity in this pathway is responsible for the reinforcing (addictive) effects of cocaine, heroin, and other drugs of abuse that increase dopamine levels.

Answer 196

B. resistance to change. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-LIF-Cognitive Development-03 Answer B is correct. Self-defining memory (SDM) is a component of episodic memory and consists of memories that contribute to the construction and maintenance of one’s personal identity. According to Singer (2005), SDMs have five characteristics: emotional intensity, vividness, high levels of repetition, linkage to similar memories, and connections to enduring concerns or unresolved conflicts.

Answer 197

B. needs analysis. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ORG-Training Methods and Evaluation-10 Answer B is correct. A needs analysis is also known as a needs assessment and is conducted to identify training needs. An initial step in a needs analysis is determining if employee performance problems can be resolved with training.

Answer 198

A. mode; mean EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-RMS-Types of Variables and Data-01 Answer A is correct. Skewed distributions are asymmetrical with most scores “piled up” in one side of the distribution and a few scores in the tail on the opposite side: In a negatively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the negative tail (the low end of the distribution); in a positively skewed distribution, the few scores are in the positive tail (the high end of the distribution) – i.e., the “tail with the few scores tells the tale.” In both types of skewed distributions, the mean, median, and mode do not equal the same value: Instead, the mean is in the tail with the few scores, the median is in the middle, and the mode is in the tail containing most of the scores. Consequently, in a positively skewed distribution, the mean has the highest value, the median has the middle value, and the mode has the lowest value.

Answer 199

B. specificity EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-TES-Test Validity – Criterion-Related Validity-10 Answer B is correct. Determining a test’s sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value are one way of evaluating its validity. A test’s specificity refers to its ability to accurately identify people who do not have disorder or other attribute the test was designed to identify. It’s calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives.

Answer 200

C. provide the scores to him unless you believe that doing so might cause him substantial harm. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-ETH-APA Ethics Code Standards 9 & 10-23 Answer C is correct. This answer is most consistent with the requirements of Standard 9.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard II.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 9.04 states that “psychologists may refrain from releasing test data to protect a client/patient or others from substantial harm or misuse or misrepresentation of the data or the test.” (Note that HIPAA provides a more stringent standard for refusing to release test data and other confidential client information to clients and others, but this question is asking specifically about the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code and Canadian Code of Ethics.)

Answer 201

B. stimulating milk ejection during breastfeeding. EXPLANATION EPPP-P4-PHY-Brain Regions/Functions – Hindbrain, Midbrain, and Subcortical Forebrain Structures-51 Answer B is correct. Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth and milk release (“let-down”) during breastfeeding and is also involved in social bonding and sexual arousal. Melatonin helps regulate the sleep-wake cycle (answer A), thyroxin regulates the body’s metabolic rate (answer C), and growth hormone stimulates cell division, protein synthesis, and bone growth (answer D).

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