Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

In the current health care system, client teaching is not only an ___ but an ____ and legal requirement

A

expectation

ethical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ help track when the teaching standards recommended by ____ and ___ are met

A

Electronic health records (EHRs)

TJC and IOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The IOM suggests that education should be ___ and ___ to each client and should keep the client in control with freely shared info

A

Continuous

Customized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The ___ better enables clients to increase their own level of ___ for their health care and gives them a higher level of info about their illnesses and possible treatments

A

internet

responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The internet can also lead clients to ___ themselves online and come in requesting expensive tests or inappropriate medications for themselves or their family members

A

diagnose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Using ___ in teaching, it may be acceptable to look info up on the internet to better teach your patients about meds, treatments, or disease processes. The main concern is ensuring that the information you are finding is from a ___ source

A

technology

reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TJCs website, www.jointcommision.org has a ___ that can help find reliable ____ from the internet

A

tool

sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Good ____ skills and the ability to establish a caring relationship are essential to an effective ___

A

communication

educator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

After surviving a serious illness, surgery, or injury, clients must work their way through the stages of ___ and may even display a type of PTSD response. Unless the nurse is able to understand what grief stage clients are in and to empathize with them, teaching will only fall on deaf ear

A

grief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

With the trend to very short hospital stays and one-day procedures, time for client education has become extremely short. ____ what is most important for clients to know when they get home and giving hem that info in a succinct and memorable way is key to education success

A

Assessing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Keep in mind that the vast majority of clients whom nurses teach are ___ learners. They bring with them a lifetime of knowledge and info, and sometimes misinformation.

A

adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or false: adult learners CANNOT be taught in the same way a child is taught

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

___ ____: if the nurse is unable to communicate ___ in the client’s language, then attempting to teach them will be fruitless

A

Language assessment

fluently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In conducting a language assessment, the nurse must determine the client’s ____ in the primary as well as the secondary language

A

fluency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ in the client’s language may be a teaching option but all not clients are able to ___

A

Brochures

read

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Brochures that have been translated from English into another language may not covey message or words may not be familiar to patient. In that case, a medical ___ who speaks the client’s particular dialect is needed

A

interpreter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

___ clients may have hearing or vision deficits that can interfere with their ability to take in information

A

Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The higher a person’s ___ level the more likely that person is to have received some formal health education and typically the higher that person’s motivation to learn

A

emotional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Before attempting to teach a client the nurse should determine the following info

  • what is the client’s level of ___ to learn
  • what factors will ___ the client to learn healthy behaviors
A

motivation

motivate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

in assessing learner characteristics and learning readiness, nurses should pay attention to the client’s ___ background, health ___, ___ level, age, and ___

A

Cultural
Literacy
Education
Gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

On the other hand, don’t presume that a highly educated client understands ___ concepts because they might think they know but they might misinterpret the nurses teaching session

A

medical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A thorough assessment of a client’s learning needs focuses on finding out four basic ___

  1. what the does the pt. already know
  2. what does the pt. want/need to learn
  3. what is the pt. able to learn
  4. preferred learning style and the best teaching methods for that style
A

needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Finding out what the client ___ knows is important because it can help in planning what needs to be taught so that unneeded basic info is not repeated

A

already

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Second, the nurses needs to find out what the client ___ and ___ to learn to help them in dealing with their illness or injury

A

wants

needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Third, uncovering what the client is ___ to learn involves finding out his or her comprehension and general ____ level

A

able

intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The fourth bit of info to determine is the client’s preferred learning ___ and the best teaching methods for that ___ of learning

A

style

style

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

___ of specific individualized needs the nurse needs to analyze the data and organize it to formulate a ____ or statement of the client’s learning needs

A

Identification

Diagnose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Development of a ___ ___ through goals and ____ is what defines planning

A

teaching plan

objectives (planning)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

___ are generally defined as broad, general statements about what the client needs and wants to learn

A

Goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

___ ___ are derived from the client’s goals and more specifically guide the teaching plan of the client

A

Learning objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Learning objectives are ___ in their formation; that is they emphasize what the learner is supposed to be able to ___ when learning have occured

A

behavioral

do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Objectives describe the learning outcomes in clear and understandable language; achievement of the objective or progress toward it can be ___

A

measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Well developed behavioral objectives should also have a __ ___ for when they are expected to be accomplished

A

time limit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

key points to keep in mind when developing behaviors objectives include the following
-always start the objective with an ___ ___ that specifies the behavior that will demonstrate that client learning has occurred

A

action verb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

key points to keep in mind when developing behaviors objectives include the following
-always focus the objective on how the learner is to ___ or complete a behavior; the only way the behavior or action can be observed and measured is if it can be ___, ___, or ___ by the nurse

A

perform
seen
felt
heard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

key points to keep in mind when developing behaviors objectives include the following
-limit each objective to only __ specific learning outcome
one of the purposes of assessment particularly if an outcome is not achieved, is to determine what caused the lack of achievement
multiple outcome objectives make that determination very difficult

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Objectives can fall within 3 domains ___, ___, and ___

A

Affective
cognitive
psychomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Different ways of measuring outcomes are used for each learning domain
____ domain objectives center on ___ and ___ such as interests, values, attitudes, appreciation, and methods of adjustment necessary for a positive effect on the client’s life

A

affective
feelings
emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Example of an affective domain objective for a pt. with increased stress may state: reduce the client’s stress by ____ him to verbalize his feelings openly

A

encouraging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

___ domain objectives focus on the ____ outcomes such as ___, ____ and __ skills the client needs

A
Cognitive
intellectual 
knowledge 
understanding 
thinking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Example of cognitive domain objective is increasing the client’s ___ level concerning the complications of DM by the end of the shift

A

knowledge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

___ domain objectives includes ___ and ___ the skills clients will need for self-care;

A

psychomotor
demonstrating
modeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Psychomotor objectives assess learning __ skills such as giving self-injections, using mobility devices correctly, using eating utensils after a stroke, or changing colostomy bag and changes in diet for weight loss

A

motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

there are a number of __ strategies and not all work on every individual so its important to remember we all learn differently and therefore we need to plan our ___ strategies to match with the learning style of our patient

A

teaching

teaching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

this type of teaching style is helpful in problem solving

A

demonstration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

this type of teaching style is verbal communication of ideas with participation by both teacher and learner

A

discussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

this type of teaching style is useful in the clinical setting, one on one with the client, or with a small group
allows for assessment of values and knowledge of the topic
elicits decision making regarding a situation or piece of info

A

discussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

this type of teaching style is a formal presentation by the teacher, useful for larger groups with same problem, best if oral presentation is accompanied by handout

A

lecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

this type of teaching style is useful for increasing motor-skill development, discussing a particular topic, or assessing comprehension of content
useful in clinical setting

A

visual aids, computer instruction pictures, paintings, posters, PP, internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

this type of teaching style is teaching by example; learners observe the teacher’s behavior and then attempt to repeat the behavior

A

teach back/modeling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

this type of teaching style is learning by experience, used sometimes when the learner has little knowledge of content or of a situation
this is time consuming and frustrating to learners and should be minimized

A

trial and error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

this type of teaching style is acting the part of another person followed by discussion of perceptions of feelings and provides a change in perspective

A

role playing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

with implementation is always important for the nurse to separate what the clients __ to know how to do to improve or maintain their health and what might be ___ for them to know

A

need

nice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The most effective learning occurs when the client is ___ involved in the learning process along with their family

A

actively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

___ learning is when the learner is treated like a receptacle for new info, doesn’t change behaviors or attitudes and therefore yield poorer outcomes

A

passive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The implementation of a successful teaching plan will include the following

  • ___ ___
  • ___ ___
A

visual aids

increasing motivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

___ is the last and in some ways the most important phase of the teaching-learning process the purpose of this is to determine whether clients have learned what was taught

A

evaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The only way to make sure clients understand the info is to ask them to repeat it or to show the nurse how the procedure is done
This technique is called ___-___ or ___ ___

A

teach-back

return demonstration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The teach back methods provides the nurse a concrete ___ of the effectiveness of their teaching

A

measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is a disaster?
a ___ event that leads to major property damage, a large number of injuries, displaced individuals, or major loss of life

A

catastrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

the ___ defines a disaster as a “sudden, calamitous event that seriously disrupts the functioning of a community or society and causes human, material and economic or environmental losses that exceeds the community’s ability to cope using its own resources

A

American red cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the four steps in preparing for a disaster

A
  1. get informed
  2. make a plan
  3. assemble a kit
  4. update the plan and kit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

When getting informed to prepare for a disaster the local emergency management or local ___ ___ ___ chapter is a good place to start the search for info

A

American Red Cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

When getting informed to prepare for a disaster you also want to find out what ___ the community has experience in the past

A

disasters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the first step in planning for any type of disaster is to make a list of important ___

A

contacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

__-___-___ contact person would most likely be a friend or relative who lives a considerable distance from the community

A

out-of-town

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

when making a plan it is important to select a ___ for everyone to meet at that is centrally located and likely to survive the disaster

A

location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

when making a plan it is important that all ___ info for all family members at any time be easily accessible

A

contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

when making a plan it is important to know ___ routes and safe places

A

escape

70
Q

When making a plan know the locations of the ___ shut off points especially gas and electricity

A

utility

71
Q

When making a plan you need to know at least __ ways to exit each room and recommended that emergency evacuation drills are conducted at least __ times a year and whenever any changes are made in the escape plan

A

2

2

72
Q

When making a plan to include disabled family members you need to have items necessary for ___ and be kept in the same place all the time so that they’re easy to get to

A

mobility

73
Q

When making a plan to include disabled family members it is also important to have several day __ of important medications and other routinely used items set aside that can be taken with client

A

supply

74
Q

when making a plan it is important to check ___ coverage and to sit down with an agent every ___ to ___ years and discuss what is actually covered in the policy

A

insurance
1
2

75
Q

Homeowner insurance doesn’t cover flood damage and most home insurance doesn’t routinely cover ___ either

A

earthquake

76
Q

When making a plan it is important to take an ___ of all home possessions

A

inventory

77
Q

When making a kit is important to protect ___ records and documents

A

important

78
Q

Important documents include photocopies of all

  • credit cards
  • home titles
  • birth and marriage certificates
  • social security cards
  • passports
  • wills
  • deeds and financial info such as checking___ numbers, insurance policies and immunizations records
A

account

79
Q

Ideally, important documents should be kept in a ___-___ box but fire and waterproof home safes and strongboxes can provide adequate protection and are more convenient to access

A

safe-deposit

80
Q

You want to update your plan and your kit every __ months and check for expiration dates and ensure clothing still fits

A

6

81
Q

Disasters can be divided into 3 basic phases

A
  • preimpact
  • impact
  • postimpact
82
Q

___ phase: the focus is on ___ for the aftereffects of the event. the primary purpose for having disaster drills in health care facilities and by first responders is to build the skills and knowledge disaster responders must have to meet the needs of the population

A

preimpact

preparation

83
Q

___phase: when the actual disaster strikes. The goal during the this phase is to ___ to the disaster, ___ the emergency response and reduce the long-term effects of the disaster as much as possible

A

impact
respond
activate

84
Q

___ phase: may begin as little as __ hours after the disaster and in some cases may last considerably longer. The activities focus on ___, ___. and ____. One vital step during this phase is the evaluation of the disaster preparations and of how rescue and recovery efforts could be improved

A
postimpact 
2
recovery 
rehabilitation 
rebuilding
85
Q

These are __ term responsibilities of the disaster nurse

  1. Performs triage at the scene or in the emergency department.
  2. Provides emergency medical assistance at the scene or in the emergency department. Special attention is given to vulnerable groups, such as people with disabilities, children, and elderly persons.
  3. Provides assistance in the mobilization of necessary resources such as food, shelter, medication, and water.
  4. Works in collaboration with existing disaster organizations and uses available resources.
A

short

86
Q

These are ___ term responsibilities of the disaster nurse

  1. Provides assistance with resettlement programs and psychological, economic, and legal needs.
  2. Partners with independent, objective media; local and national branches of government; international agencies; and nongovernmental organizations.
  3. Warns clients to be aware that many scam artists are present after any disaster and advises clients of factors to consider in detecting a scam
A

long

87
Q

The ___ ___ ___ (MDR) system was designed to quickly evaluate and classify victims immediately after a disaster who can’t be evacuated for a period of time

A

Medical Disaster Response

88
Q

The MDR system is based on the traditional “simple triage and rapid treatment (____)” method but is modified to use palpation of the the ___ pulse in place of capillary refill along with ___ rate and neuro assessment (can pt. respond to commands)

A

START
radial
respiratory

89
Q

The MDR system places all victims into one of 3 categories

A

category 1
category 2
category 3

90
Q

Category 1: those who will ___ anyway, no matter what resources are used to help them

A

die

91
Q

Category 2: those who will ___ whether or not they are treated

A

survive

92
Q

Category 3: those who can be ___ and will gain long-term benefit from intervention and use of resources

A

helped

93
Q

The key to the success of the system is to identify and treat those who fall into category ___ as quickly as possible

A

3

94
Q

the first and second category victims will receive only ____ care

A

palliative

95
Q

Those who need no treatment are given __ tags

A

white

96
Q

Category 1 are given a ___ tag (expectant) are used for the fatalities and for those whose injuries are so extensive that they will not be able to ___ given the care that is available

A

black

survive

97
Q

Category 2 are given a ___ tag (wait) are reserved for the “__ ___” who will need medical care at some point after more critical injuries have been treated; these are the victims who are able to get up and walk around and require minimal or no treatment to save life or limb

A

green

walking wounded

98
Q

category 3 will receive a __ or ___ tag

A

red or yellow

99
Q

___ (category 3-immediate) are used to label those who can’t survive without ____ treatment but who have a chance of survival

A

RED

100
Q

This is an example of a red tag (category 3)
Victims who require help ____ or assistance with their airwards or whose respiratory rate is greater than 30 breaths per minute
also included in this group are clients who are breathing but have no ___ pulse and victims who are unable to respond to commands

A

breathing

radial

101
Q

___ (category 3-nonurgent) for those who require observation; these victims will still need hospital care and would be treated immediately under normal circumstances. Victims who don’t meet the criteria for the red category but are not able to walk

A

yellow

102
Q

this is the use of microorganisms with the deliberate intent of causing infection to achieve military or political goals

A

bioterrorism

103
Q

Biological weapons: biological agents can be spread through the ___, through ___ or in ___. It is also possible to use robotic delivery of agents by remote control devices such as drones. Biological agents can also be spread by “___ ___” who have purposely been given the disease and who spread it from person to person in a crowded space such as a subway or airport

A

air
water
food
suicide coughers

104
Q

After being released, microorganisms can go undetected for an extended period because their effects are not immediate and the initial symptoms are often nonspecific or _____ - ______. Person-to-person transmission may continue for days or even weeks before the source is detected and a specific disease-causing organism is identified.

A

flu-like

105
Q

for nurses and other clinicians, the key to an effective response is early ___

A

recognition

106
Q

some biological agents can be detected in the environment using high-tech detection devices (___)

A

sniffers

107
Q

biological agents are most often identified by specific ___ ___ and cultures or the report of the HCP of a particular set of symptoms indicative of a particular disease

A

blood tests

108
Q

category __ possess the highest immediate risk for use as biological weapons

A

A

109
Q

category ___ agents pose the ___ highest risk

A

B

next

110
Q

Category __ agents have a potential for use but are not considered an immediate risk as biological weapons

A

C

111
Q

It is important for the nurse to know which ___ a substance belongs to because the categories indicate which organisms are most likely to be used in a bioterrorist attack

A

category

112
Q

____ ____ are generally defined as devices that use any one of a number of chemicals mixed in such a way as to inflict death or harm to human beings

A

Chemical weapons (CWs)

113
Q

The 3 major groups of CW are

A
  1. nerve agents
  2. blister agents
  3. chocking agents
114
Q

Chemical weapons are generally dispensed as ___, ___, or ____ that enter the body through the eyes, lungs, or skin. There are also ___ agents which are inhaled

A

aerosols
liquids
vapors
blood

115
Q

Although symptoms of CW agents vary depending on the class of agent, some general symptoms to look for include immediate failure of the ___ or ____ system (paralysis), severe skin irritations and blisters, HA, irregular heartbeat or palpitations, vomiting and convulsions

A

respiratory

nervous

116
Q

___ agents among the most toxic of all CWs.

A

nerve

117
Q

Nerve agents work by inhibiting the production ____ throughout the nervous system and causing paralysis of smooth muscles

A

acetylcholinesterase

118
Q

Nerve agents work by inhibiting the production ____ throughout the nervous system and causing paralysis of smooth muscles

A

acetylcholinesterase

119
Q

Although respiratory symptoms are generally the first to appear after inhalation of nerve agent vapors, ____ symptoms usually are the first to appear if the agent is ingested

A

gastrointestinal

120
Q

The early symptoms seen with nerve agents often mimic a ___ ___ manifesting with tightness in the chest, SOB, elevated BP, and abnormal heart rhythms

A

heart attack

121
Q

As the effect of the nerve agents toxin becomes becomes more systemic, the victim experiences increased ___ and generalized weakness, which increases with activity. Soon after, involuntary muscular twitching, scattered involuntary muscle contractions, and intermittent muscle cramps develop. The skin may be pale due to vasoconstriction.

A

fatigue

122
Q

If left untreated or treated too late, nerve agents lead to __ __, complete shutdown of the nervous system and __

A

organ failure

death

123
Q

The primary treatment for nerve agents is immediate ____ and the administration of ___ ___ IV as soon as possible

A

decontamination

atropine sulfate

124
Q

Another medication for nerve agents includes ___ ___; it belongs to a family of compounds called oximes that binds to organophosphate-inactivated acetylcholinesterase, thereby regenerating or reactivating acetylcholinesterase and allowing the synapses to function again

A

pralidoxime chloride

125
Q

The combination injection ___ (administered via an antidote treatment nerve agent, auto injector) includes both ___ and ____
if treated early, the serious s/s of nerve agent toxicity rarely lasts more than a couple of hours

A

DuoDote
atropine
pralidoxime chloride

126
Q

___ agents sometimes called vesicants, burn and blister the exposed skin or any part of the body they contact

A

blister

127
Q

Exposed skin is usually the first area of the body affected, blister agents also can cause major damage to the ___, ___ ___ linings of the lungs and blood-forming organs (thymus, bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes). In addition, if ingested, they cause vomiting and diarrhea.

A

eyes

mucous membranes

128
Q

The most feared and oldest of the blister agents is ___ gas

A

mustard

129
Q

Initial treatment of blister agents is immediate ___

A

decontamination

130
Q

There is no practical drug treatment available for preventing the internal effects of ___ gas (blister agent)

A

mustard

131
Q

___ or ___ agents work by attacking the tissues of the lungs and produce massive ___ edema

A

Choking
respiratory
pulmonary

132
Q

The most dangerous of this group of toxins (choking) is ___ which is the one that terrorists are more likely to use

A

phosgene

133
Q

Initial symptoms of choking agents include ___, choking, a feeling of tightness in the chest, nausea and occasionally vomiting, HA, and excessive tear production

A

coughing

134
Q

There is no specific treatment or antidote for choking agents; Respiratory support by ___ with positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP) can usually maintain adequate oxygenation of the body
use of osmotic ___ can reduce the fluid load in the lungs

A

ventilation

diuretics

135
Q

first responders and ED personnel are at serious risk for exposure to chemically contaminated areas (known as ___ ____) If first responders are unprotected, direct contact with the CW or inhalation of vapors automatically makes them victims as well. If a liquid chemical agent was used, handling the skin and clothing of victims exposes rescue personnel to the same chemical.

A

hot zones

136
Q

Full level ___ ___ material (___) suits should be worn until the source of contamination has been completely eliminated

A

D hazardous

Hazmat

137
Q

This is the physical and chemical removal of toxic agents from people’s skin, clothing, equipment, and any environmental surfaces where the agents were disseminated.

A

decontamination

138
Q

Hazardous chemicals remaining on clothing, skin surfaces, and even in the respiratory system can be a source of exposure to others, this is called _________ _________.

A

secondary exposure

139
Q

Immediate _____________________ is a major treatment priority for those with CW exposure.

A

decontamination

140
Q

Immediate decontamination should include the following
o Removing all contaminated _________ and _________ from the victim and washing the unclothed body thoroughly with warm water and soap.
o Avoiding the use of very hot water and _________ _________ because these may actually force more of the chemical into the skin.
o Decontaminating all victims who have been exposed
o Decontaminating victims as close as possible to the site of exposure.

A

clothes and jewelry

vigorous scrubbing

141
Q

This involves, at all times, looking around you where you are, being observant, and noticing any unusual or suspicious objects, people or behavior

A

Situational awareness

142
Q

The transition from nursing student to RN is often referred to as ___ ___ (transition shock)

A

reality shock

143
Q

___ ___ sometimes called role ambiguity exists when a person is unable to integrate the 3 distinct aspects of a given role

A

role conflict

144
Q

What are the 3 distinct aspects of a role

A

ideal
perceived
performed

145
Q

__ role projects society’s ____ of a nurse

A

ideal

expectations

146
Q

Ideal role clearly delineates obligations and responsibilities as well as the rights and privileges that those in the role can claim. Although the ideal role presents a clear image of what is expected, it is often somewhat _________ to believe that everyone in this role will follow this pattern of behaviors.

A

unrealistic

147
Q

___ role is an individuals own ___ of the role, often more ___ than the ideal role

A

Perceived
definition
realistic

148
Q

When individuals define their own roles, they may reject or modify some of the norms and expectations of society that were used to establish the ideal role. Intentionally or unintentionally, though, the ideal role is often used as the _________ _________ against which the perceived role is measured. The perceived role is the role with which the nursing student often _________ .

A

intellectual yardstick

graduates

149
Q

___ role is defined as what the practitioner of the role ___ does

A

Performed

actually

150
Q

___ ___ occurs when the ideal or perceived role comes into conflict with the performed role

A

reality shock

151
Q

The difference between expectation and reality can produce what is called ___ ___ in many new graduate nurses; they know what they should do and how they should do it, yet the circumstances do not allow them to carry it out

A

cognitive dissonance

152
Q

The end result of cognitive dissonance is increased apprehension. High levels of anxiety, left unrecognized or unresolved, can lead to various physical and emotional symptoms. When these symptoms become severe enough, a condition called _________ _________ may result.

A

burnout syndrome

153
Q

How do we decrease the “reality shock”?

o _________ clinical rotations: A student who works with a preceptor is assigned to one RN for supervision for most of the semester. The student experiences the role of the RN by working the same hours and on the same unit as the nurse to whom he or she is assigned.

A

preceptor

154
Q

How do we decrease the “reality shock”?
o The IOM has recommended that _________ _________ (NR) programs be established
Researchers have calculated that it takes ____ or more years for new graduates to master the skills necessary to be successful in their position.

A

nurse residency

1

155
Q

Resume: is often the institution’s first contact with the nurse seeking employment, and it has a substantial effect on the whole hiring process. The goal of a résumé is to provide the hospital with a complete _________ of the prospective employee in as _________ space as possible. It should be easy to read and visually appealing and have flawless grammar and spelling.

A

picture

little

156
Q

A cover letter should be sent with every _________ résumé . The letter should be written in a _________ letter format, left justified, with 1-inch margins on the top, bottom, and sides. If at all possible, the letter should be addressed to a specific person. Letters beginning with “To Whom It May Concern” or “Dear Sir or Madam” do not make as favorable an impression.

A

mailed

business

157
Q

Interviews:
_________ business clothes that are clean, neat, and well pressed are an absolute necessity. If you are still dressing in the waiting room, it is likely to have a negative impression on the employer. A conservative hairstyle and limited accessories, jewelry, and makeup produce the best impression. Depending on the facility’s policies and the part of the country in which you are planning to work, visible body piercings, particularly in the nose septum, eyebrows, and lips, could be an issue. The same goes for visible tattoos and ear gauges.

A

Conservative

158
Q

Mental preparation is as important to a successful interview as physical preparation. A quick review just before the interview is helpful so that you are familiar with the information contained in the _________ or _________ .

A

resume

portfolio

159
Q

There are a number of personal topics that prospective employers are not legally supposed to discuss, but they sometimes do anyway. These include questions about _________ orientation or habits, age , _________ , pregnancy status or plans for a family, marital status, personal living arrangements, _________ others, and religious or political beliefs.

A

sexual
race
significant

160
Q

this is a state of emotional exhaustion that results from the accumulated ___ of an individuals life, including work, personal, and family responsibilities.

A

burnout

stress

161
Q

Burnout is used to describe a slow, continuous depletion of ___ and ___ combined with a loss of motivation and commitment after prolonged exposure to high occupational stress

A

energy

strength

162
Q

Examples of occupational stress include heavy ___ , lack of participation, or social support, injustice, uncertainty, lack of ___, role ____ , job insecurity, job complexity, and structural constraints

A

workload
incentive
conflicts

163
Q

The people who are most likely to experience burnout tend to be ____, ___, ___ and more ___ than average

A

hardworking
idealistic
perfectionistic
intelligent

164
Q

Certain categories of jobs and careers tend to produce a higher incidence of burnout: situations and positions in which there is a demand for ___ high quality performance, unclear or ___ expectations, little __ over the work situation, and inadequate financial rewards. Also jobs in which there is constant contact with people rank high on the burnout list

A

consistent
unrealistic
control

165
Q

It is possible to recognize nurses who are in the early stages of burnout by identifying some classic behaviors
One of the earliest indications of burnout is the _________ that work is something to be _________ rather than eagerly _________ .

A

attitude
tolerated
anticipated

166
Q

Nurses in the early stages of burnout often are ____, impatient, cynical, ____, whiny, or callous toward coworkers and clients

A

irritable

pessimistic

167
Q

Nurses who are burned out take frequent sick days, are chronically _________ for their shifts, _________ too much, eat too much, and often are not able to sleep. Eventually, as their idealism erodes, their work suffers. They become careless in the performance of their duties, _________ with their colleagues, and unable to concentrate on what they are doing, and they display a general attitude of boredom and _________ .

A

late
drink
uncooperative
apathy

168
Q

If allowed to continue, burnout may lead to feelings of _________ , _________ , _________ , and _________

A

helplessness
powerlessness
purposelessness
guilt

169
Q

The cognitive domain is divided into ___ of understanding
C-Comprehension: understanding of what concepts mean
A-Application: use of a concept
A-Analysis: ability to examine or explain a concept
K-Knowledge: recall of facts and concepts
E-Evaluation: judging or comparison of concepts
S-Synthesis: integration of a concept with learning

A

levels

170
Q

these biological agents are considered category ___ and pose the highest immediate risk

  • small pox
  • anthrax
  • plague
  • botulism
  • tularemia
  • Ebola and lass (hemorrhagic fevers)
A

A

171
Q

Effective response to bioterrorism you must know modes of ___, incubation ___, symptoms and communicable periods

A

transmission

periods