Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Med I > Exam 4 - Venous Thromboembolism > Flashcards

Exam 4 - Venous Thromboembolism Flashcards

1
Q

What is the recurrence rate of venous thromboembolisms?

A

1/3 of persons who survive the first occurrence of VTE develop another VTE within 10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Virchow’s Traid?

A

VTE Pathogenesis
Stasis (alterations in blood flow)
Hypercoagulability
Vascular endothelial injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered a major risk factor for recurrent VTE?

A

Previous thrombotic event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the most common chronic conditions that have an acquired risk factor for VTE?

A

Malignancy
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
Myeloproliferative disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the most common transient states that have an acquired risk factor for VTE?

A

Surgery
Trauma
Immobilization
Presence of a central venous catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the most common female specific factors that have an acquired risk factor for VTE?

A

Pregnancy

Hormonal contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the most common inherited risk factors for VTE?

A

FactorV Leiden mutation

Prothrombin gene mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the classic symptoms seen with DVT?

A 
Often asymptomatic
Swelling
Pain
Warmth
Erythema
Palpable cord
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most useful finding on exam for a DVT?

A

A large calf diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Homan’s sign?

A

Positive if there is pain in the calf on abrupt dorsiflexion of the patient’s foot while the knee is extended
*Not commonly used (low sensitivity and specificity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Wells criteria?

A

Scoring system to help confirm or rule out DVT before ordering any diagnostic tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are some of the features included on the Wells criteria?

A 
Paralysis or recent orthopedic casting
Bedridden
Major surgery
Localized tenderness
Swelling of entire leg
Calf swelling
Pitting edema
Active cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What feature on the Wells criteria has a score of -2?

A

Alternative diagnosis more likely than DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does a Wells score of >3 indicate?

A

High probability of DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a Wells score of 1-3 indicate?

A

Moderate probability of DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does a Wells score of 0 or less indicate?

A

Low probability of DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

After calculating the pretest probability, what should be done for patients with low or moderate probability for DVT?

A

D-dimer should be ordered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What what levels in a serum D-dimer detectable?

A

Greater than 500 ng/mL in virtually all patients with VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Does the D-dimer test have high sensitivity or specificity? What does that mean?

A

The test is sensitive, but not specific

Only useful when negative and low clinical suspicion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a patient has a low or moderate pretest probability for DVT and a negative D-dimer what should be done?

A

Nothing, no further work up needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

After calculating the pretest probability, what should be done for patients with high probability for DVT?

A

D-dimer is inappropriate, further workup required
Compression ultrasound
(CTV and MRV rarely used)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the indicated treatment DVTs?

A

Anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the purpose of anticoagulants in the treatment of DVT?

A

Prevent further clot propagation
Prevent pulmonary embolism
Decrease risk of reoccurrence
Decrease risk of complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is not the purpose of treatment of DVT through anticoagulation?

A

To dissolve the clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How long is initial anticoagulation given for DVT?

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How long is long term anticoagulation given for DVT?

A

Minimum of 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Along with anticoagulants, what else is used in the treatment of DVT?

A

Early ambulation

Compression stockings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What can cause upper extremity DVT?

A

Spontaneous

Secondary- more common (catheter placement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most common cause of a pulmonary embolism?

A

Proximal DVT

30
Q

What are the four ways in which a pulmonary embolism can be classified?

A
  1. Hemolytic stability
  2. Temporal pattern
  3. Anatomic location
  4. Presence or absence of symptoms
31
Q

What defines hemodynamic instability in PE?

A

Systolic BP less than 90 or a drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 40 from baseline for more than 15 min

32
Q

What is the prognosis for hemodynamic instability in PE?

A

These patients are likely to die from obstructive shock in the first 2 hrs of presentation

33
Q

What are some signs and symptoms associated with PE?

A 
Dyspnea
Pleuritic pain
Swelling or pain
Cough
Tachypnea
Tachycardia
34
Q

If you are clinically suspicious of a PE and your patient is hemodynamically stable, what should you do?

A

Wells criteria
D-dimer
Definitive CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) imaging

35
Q

If you are clinically suspicious of a PE and your patient is hemodynamically unstable, should you get imaging?

A

No

Imaging is unsafe, besides echocardiography

36
Q

If based on the Wells criteria, your patient has a low clinical probability of PE, what should you do next?

A

PERC

37
Q

If your patient fulfills all 8 of the PERC criteria (PERC negative), what should you do?

A

Nothing, no additional testing required

38
Q

If your patient does not fulfill PERC criteria, what should you do next?

A

D-dimer

39
Q

If your patient’s D-dimer test is negative, what should you do next?

A

Nothing, no additional testing required

40
Q

If your patient’s D-dimer test is positive, what should you do next?

A

More imaging is required

41
Q 
Age <50 yrs
HR  <100bpm
O2 saturation >95%
No hemoptysis
No estrogen use
No prior DVT or PE
No unilateral leg swelling
No surgery/trauma requiring hospitalization within the prior four weeks

What is the name of this criteria list? What is it used for?

A

PERC Rule

Alternative to further testing in patient with low probability assessment for PE

42
Q

If based on the Wells criteria, your patient has an intermediate clinical probability of PE, what should you do next?

A

D-dimer
D-dimer + = proceed to diagnostic imagaing
D-dimer - = no further work up needed

43
Q

If based on the Wells criteria, your patient has a high clinical probability of PE, what should you do next?

A

D-dimer NOT indicated

Go straight to diagnostic imaging

44
Q

What is a low clinical probability score for PE on the Wells criteria?

A

Less than 2

45
Q

What is an intermediate clinical probability score for PE on the Wells criteria?

A

Between 2-6

46
Q

What is a high clinical probability score for PE on the Wells criteria?

A

Greater than 6

47
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for PE?

A

CTPA (CT pulmonary angiogram)

48
Q

Why would you not be able to obtain a CTPA? What could you do instead?

A 
IV contrast allergy or renal dysfunction
Ventilation perfusion (V/Q)
49
Q

Why is CTPA not used as a test of choice for PE?

A

Sensitive, but poorly specific (high number of false positives)
Intermediate results lead to a diagnostic delemma

50
Q

What is the treatment for PE?

A 
Anticoagulants
Supportive care such as:
Supplemental O2
Mechanical  ventilation
Vasopressors
51
Q

For patients with a low risk of bleeding and a high clinical suspicion for PE, what should you consider?

A

Empiric anticoagulation

52
Q

What anticoagulant is given parentally?

A

Unfractionated Heparin (UFH)

53
Q

What anticoagulation do most patients use?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)
Warfarin
Factor Xa Inhibitors (fondaparinux or apixaban)

54
Q

In patients with severe renal failure, hemodynamic instability or massive illiofemoral DVT and those more likely to require rapid reversal of anticoagulation, which anticoagulant is preferred?

A

IV UFH

55
Q

What is the anticoagulant of choice for patients who are pregnant or have active cancer?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

56
Q

What should you consider when transitioning a patient from initial to long-term anticoagulant treatment?

A

Treatment should not be interrupted, ensure therapeutic levels are maintained

57
Q

What anticoagulant is commonly used for long term therapy? How is it monitored?

A

Warfarin
PT (prothrombin time)
INR (international normalized ratio)

58
Q

Why is an additional anticoagulant often provided when beginning warfarin?

A

Warfarin has a slow onset

59
Q

What is an option for patients who wish to avoid the burden of INA monitoring that comes along with warfarin?

A

Factor Xa inhibitors

60
Q

What is the anticoagulant reversal agent for UFH?

A

Protamine

61
Q

What is the anticoagulant reversal agent for LMWH?

A

Protamine

62
Q

What is the anticoagulant reversal agent for warfairin?

A

Vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma

63
Q

What is the anticoagulant reversal agent for Factor Xa inhibitors?

A

Tranexamic acid

64
Q

What is the anticoagulant reversal agent for direct thrombin inhibitor?

A

Idarucizumab

65
Q

Who might benefit from indefinite anticoagulation therapy?

A

Those with a first or recurrent episode of unprovoked proximal DVT/unprovoked symptomatic PE

66
Q

What can be given in conjunction with an anticoagulant for unstable patients with PE?

A

Thrombolytics “clot buster”

67
Q

What can be used as an alternative or adjunct therapy to anticoagulants in patients for which anticoagulation is contraindicated, risk of bleeding outweighs the risk of thromboembolism or if they are hemodynamically unstable?

A

IVC filter

68
Q

What does an IVC prevent?

A

Propagation to lungs

69
Q

Why wouldn’t every patient with a DVT get an IVC?

A

Invasive
No evidence that anticoagulation + iVF filter is better than anticoagulation alone
Clots can build up around the filter over time

70
Q

What can be done prophylactically for VTE?

A

Intermittent pneumatic compression
Thromboembolic deterrent
Graduated compression stocking
Early ambulation

Clinical Med I (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions