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Systems Pathology > Exam 4 [Review Sheet Questions] > Flashcards

Exam 4 [Review Sheet Questions] Flashcards

1
Q

What infectious disease of the oral cavity is caused by Coxsackie virus?

A

Hand, Foot & Mouth Disease

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2
Q

What are the alternative names of “Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis”?

A

“Vincent’s Angina” & “Trench Mouth”

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3
Q

Leukoplakia & Erythroplasia: Which one is most likely to undergo malignant change?

A

Leukoplakia: 5-15% undergo transformation into squamous cell carcinoma

Erythroplasia: over 50% undergo transformation into squamous cell carcinoma

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4
Q

What is the name of the stone formation in the salivary duct?

A

Sialolithiasos (but it is more common in the submandibular gland)

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5
Q

What is the technical name for “Mumps”?

A

Acute Epidemic Parotitis

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6
Q

What are the complications of “Mumps” in adults?

A

[Infection of]:
- Pancreas
- Testes
- Ovaries

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7
Q

Which tumors of the Parotid Gland can spread along the facial nerve?

A

1) Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma
2) Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma (more so)

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8
Q

Term that describes “difficulty swallowing”:

A

Dysphagia

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9
Q

Term that describes “painful swallowing”:

A

Odynophagia

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10
Q

Which type of Hiatus Hernia produces Reflux Esophagitis (GERD)?

A

Hiatus Hernia of the sliding type associated with incompetent cardiac sphincter [Figure 15-6]

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11
Q

Definition of “Barrett’s Esophagus”

A

“Replacement of normal stratified epithelium of the DISTAL esophagus with metaplastic columnar epithelium containing goblet cells”

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12
Q

What type of malignancy can “Barrett’s Esophagus” produce?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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13
Q

Definition of Achalasia of the Esophagus:

A

“Failure to relax, referring to the lower esophageal sphincter during swallowing”
(Aperistalsis/increased resting tone of the sphincter)

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14
Q

What is the abnormality that is produced by Achalasia of the Esophagus?

A

In S. America: Chaya’s Disease (Trypanosoma Cruzi)
(Potentially premalignant): 5% develop esophageal carcinoma

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15
Q

What are the causes of Acute Erosive Gastropathy? (7)

A

1) Prescriptions
2) Toxicity
3) Stress
4) Chemotherapy Treatment
5) Ischemia
6) Post Burn Injury
7) Hormonal

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16
Q

What type of Chronic Atrophic Gastritis is associated with Pernicious Anemia?

A

Type A: auto-immune type
(Chronic Atrophic Gastritis)

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17
Q

What type of Chronic Atrophic Gastritis is associated with “Helicobacter Pylori” Infection?

A

Type B: (Antral Gastritis)

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18
Q

What is the most common site for the development of Peptic Ulcers?

A

Duodenum & has “Familial Tendency” (MC in Males)

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19
Q

What are the Causative Factors of Peptic Ulcers?

A

[Duodenal vs. Gastric (4:1)]
Duodenal: greater acid production

Gastric: less mucosal resistance (less prostaglandin PGE2) -> less bicarbonate & mucous production

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20
Q

How would a baby with Congenital Pyloric Stenosis present?

A
  • Symptoms appear 1-3 weeks Postpartum
  • Hypertrophic Sphincter
  • Projectile Vomitting
  • Visible Peristalsis
    (Can be associated with a Cleft Palate)
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21
Q

What is the most common site for the formation of an Abdominal Hernia in Males?

A

1 Indirect Inguinal (Inguinal Canal)

#3 Femoral (into femoral canal)
#4 Periumbilical, Incisional
#5 Diaphragmatic (usually left)

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22
Q

What is the most common site for the formation of an Abdominal Hernia in Females?

A

Femoral Triangle

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23
Q

Definition of “Volvulus”:

A

“Twisting around axis of mesentery”

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24
Q

Definition of “Intussusceptions”:

A

“Telescoping common in terminal ileum (sausage-like mass in the right iliac fossa)”

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25
Q

What are the major causes of Intussusceptions?

A
  • Polyp in the Intestines or from Recent Abdominal Surgery
    (Potentially viral infection as well)
  • In children it is unknown
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26
Q

How would a patient with Intussusceptions present?

A
  • Gangrene
  • Vomitting
  • Rectal Bleeding (Currant-Jelly Clots)
  • Abdominal Pain
  • Sausage-like mass on Right Iliac Fossa
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27
Q

What is the cause of Celiac Disease?

A

Hypersensitivity to gluten (gliadin) in the diet
[BROW = Barley, Rye, Oats, Wheat]

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28
Q

How would a patient with Celiac Disease Present?(Adult & Child)

A

Adult: Abdominal Pain, Bloating, Nausea/Vomitting
Child: Irritable Anorexia, Diarrhea, Bloating, Weight Loss, Muscle Wasting, FTT

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29
Q

What characteristic histological change is seen with Celiac Disease?

A

TOTAL VILLOUS ATROPHY PRIMARILY IN THE PROXIMAL SMALL INTESTINE
(Accumulation of lymphocytes in the mucosa)

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30
Q

What is the cause of Whipple’s Disease?

A

Bacterium called “Tropheryma Whipplei”

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31
Q

What is the major characteristic of Whipple disease?

A

Villi are distended with “foamy” macrophages in the lamina propria

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32
Q

What are the Diagnostic Clinical Features of Typhoid Fever?

A

[In Bacteremic Phase]
- Fever
- Leukopenia
- Skin rash “rose spots”
- Bradycardia
- Muscle Pains

[In Intestinal Phase]
- Bloody Diarrhea
- Bacteria in the Stools

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33
Q

What are the characteristic histological changes seen with Amebic Dysentery?

A

“flask-shaped ulcers caused by undermining of mucosa from below”

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34
Q

Which type of adenomatous polyp (of the colon) is most likely to become malignant?

A

Villous (Sessile)

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35
Q

What type of Emphysema is typical of “Cigarette Smoking”?

A

Centriacinar

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36
Q

What type of Emphysema is typical of “alpha-1-antitrypsin” deficiency?

A

Panacinar

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37
Q

What is the most common cause of “Community Acquired” Primary Pneumonia?

A

Pneumococcal Pneumonia: (Streptococcus Pneumoniae)

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38
Q

What organism is the most common cause of “Walking Pneumonia”?

A

Mycoplasma Pneumoniae

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39
Q

What type of Pneumonia is associated by spread from air conditioning cooling towers?

A

Legionella Pneumonia

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40
Q

What type of Pneumonia is an opportunistic disease seen in AIDS patients?

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP) caused by the fungus “Pneumocystis jirovecii”
(Formerly “carinii”)

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41
Q

Definition of “Bronchiectasis”:

A

“Abnormal, permanent and irreversible dilation of the bronchial tree PROXIMAL to the Terminal Bronchioles”

42
Q

What are the characteristics of the typical lesion that is produced in Secondary Tuberculosis?

A

Located @ the lung Apex & show extensive necrosis with cavitation

43
Q

What are the causes of “Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome”?

A

[See Table 13-1]

44
Q

Definition of “Pneumoconiosis”:

A

“Inhaled Inorganic Drugs”
(3 types)
- Anthracosis
- Silicosis
- Asbestosis

45
Q

What are the possible causes of a Sinus Infection? (6)

A

1) Extension of Cold
2) Allergic Rhinitis
3) Extraction of Upper Teeth
4) Oroantral Fistula
5) Spread of Infection from Upper Teeth
6) Forcible entry of Infected/Irritant Materials (vomiting against closed nose & mouth, diving, aircraft)

46
Q

How would a patient with a sinus infection present?

A
  • Pain & Tenderness over Sinus
  • Tenderness in Upper Teeth (Maxillary)
  • Back and Side of Head (Sphenoid & Ethmoid)
47
Q

What is meant by the term “Tension Pneumothorax”?

A

“Blunt force trauma to the chest, MVA/ industrial accidents. Shift of Pulmonary Structures to Opposite Side.”

48
Q

What are the causes of a Tension Pneumothorax?

A

MVA or Industrial accidents

49
Q

How would a patient with Tension Pneumothorax present?

A
  • Shift of pulmonary structures to the opposite side
  • Shift of Mediastinum to opposite side
  • Chest pain
  • Shortness of Breath
  • Rapid Breathing
  • Racing Heart followed by a Shock
50
Q

What are the associations with Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma?

A

In U.S. associated with Cigarette Smoking
(Spreads early to Lymphatics)

51
Q

What is meant by a “Laryngeal Nodule”?

A

Reactive lesion that occurs in the vocal cords in people who use their voice regularily. (Preacher/Singer’s Voice)

52
Q

How is a “Laryngeal Nodule” caused?

A

Chronic use of the Voice overtime. (Straining, Yelling, & Frequent Singing)

53
Q

What organism causes “Epiglottitis”?

A

Haemophilus Influenzae-B

54
Q

How would a patient with “Epiglotitis” present?

A
  • Young children
  • Inspiration Stridor
  • Potentially Laryngospasm.
55
Q

What are the characteristics of “Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis”?

A

Requires presence of 2 Bacteria:
1) a Fusiform Bacillus
2) a Spirochete (Borrelia Vincentii)

Gingival margins are covered by a grey pseudomembrane

56
Q

What are the characteristics of “Actinomycosis”?

A

[Anaerobic Gram (+) Bacillus]
- Rare, produces chronic suppuration inflammation in the mouth and jaw
- Multiple draining sinuses w/ pus containing visible colonies of bacteria “sulfur granules”

57
Q

What are the characteristics of “Scarlet Fever” (in the oral cavity)?

A
  • Childhood disease
  • Toxin causes rash on the skin & Oral Mucosa
  • Tongue has a white coat “strawberry tongue”
58
Q

What are the characteristics of “Leukoplakia”?

A

[White Patch]
- Hyperkeratosis from chronic irritation

59
Q

What are the characteristics of “Erythroplasia”?

A

[Reddish, Velvety Looking Area]
- Dysplasia

60
Q

What causes “Leukoplakia”?

A
  • Abrasion
  • Chipped Tooth
  • Chewing Tobacco
  • Cigarette’s etc.
    (Anything that irritates the mucosa)
61
Q

What causes “Erythroplasia”?

A
  • Most often: men that aren’t circumcised
  • Associated with HPV
62
Q

What are the characteristics of “Sjogren’s Syndrome”?

A

[Autoimmune]
- Dry eyes & Mouth
- Rheumatoid Arthritis

63
Q

What type of tumor is characterized by epithelium in a frond-like arrangement and the presence of lymphoid nodules?

A

Adenoid Cystic Carcinoma

64
Q

What are the characteristics of “Tracheoesophageal Fistula”?

A
  • Can cause Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome
  • Occurs from malformation of developing trachea & esophagus.
  • Ingestion of fluid causes aspiration into lungs with an “Aspiration Pneumonitis”
65
Q

What are the characteristics of “Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome”?

A

Associated with the islet cell tumor “Gastrinoma”

66
Q

What are the characteristics of “Meckel’s Diverticulum”?

A
  • True congenital malformation due to persistence of vitelline duct
  • may contain ectopic gastric mucosa & produce peptic ulceration, hemorrhage/perforation of the diverticulum
  • May produce a Volvulus
67
Q

What are the characteristics of “Hirschsprung’s Disease”?

A
  • Congenital issues from lack of parasympathetic supply to rectum.
  • produces mechanical obstruction @ birth “Congenital Megacolon”
68
Q

What are the major characteristics of “Mechanical Obstruction” of the intestine?

A

Painful distension of the abdomen & increased bowel sounds
- Volvulus & Intussusception

69
Q

What are the major characteristics of “Paralytic Obstruction” of the intestine?

A

Painless distension of the abdomen and “silent” bowel sounds

70
Q

What are the differences between “Mechanical” & “Paralytic” Obstruction of the intestine?

A

Mechanical: Painful & increased bowel sounds
Paralytic: Painless & silent bowel sounds

71
Q

What are the characteristics of “Cholera”?

A
  • Production of an enterotoxin causing secretory diarrhea (large watery stools) “rice water stools”
72
Q

What are the characteristic changes of “Giardiasis”?

A
  • Giardia Lamblia
  • Contaminated food & water
  • forms a barrier on the inside of the duodenum
73
Q

What are the characteristics of “Crohn’s Disease”?

A

1) “skip lesions”
2) Non-caseating Granuloma
3) Fissuring w/ Fistulae formation
4) “cobble stoned” mucosal appearance
5) “garden hose” appearance of wall from Fibrosis
6) “String Sign” from narrowing of bowel segments

74
Q

What are the characteristics of “Ulcerative Colitis”?

A

1) Rectum in 80% of cases
2) Migrates Proximally
3) In Active Inflammation -> Hyperemia, Edema & Ulceration of mucosa
4) “Pseudopolyps”
5) No Granuloma
6) Adenocarcinoma Risk

75
Q

What are the differences between “Crohn’s Disease” and “Ulcerative Colitis”?

A
76
Q

What are the characteristics of “Familial Polyposis Coli”?

A
  • Autosomal Dominant
  • formation of benign tumors in the colon (age 10)
  • malignant transformation in mid-thirties (100+ Polyps, cancer before 30)
  • Total Colectomy
77
Q

What are the characteristics of “Gardner’s Syndrome”?

A
  • Osteomas in the mandible, skull, long bones, & ST neoplasms (fibrosis of the skin)
78
Q

What are the characteristics of “Peutz-Jeugher’s Syndrome”?

A
  • Hamartomas in Jejunum w/ pigmented lesions in the oral mucosa & around mouth
  • Early as 11 years old
  • Autosomal Dominant
  • Low malignant transformation risk
79
Q

What are the features of “Carcinoid Syndrome”?

A

[Only get “Carcinoid Syndrome” if there is secondary metastasis in the liver]
- Increased 5HIAA in urine

80
Q

What are the characteristics of [Non-Atropic] “INTRINSIC Asthma”?

A
  • In adults w/o evidence of allergen sensitivity
  • IgE skin test (-)
  • Hyperactive response in bronchioles to stress, activity, viruses, air pollutants, tobacco, ozone etc.
81
Q

What are the characteristics of [Atrophic] “EXTRINSIC Asthma”?

A

[Childhood]
- allergy to something in environment
- IgE skin test (+)
- (+) family Hx
- 50% remiss in latent adolescence
- dust, mites, pollens, food, animals etc.

82
Q

What are the changes in ventilation seen in “Restrictive” Pulmonary diseases?

A
83
Q

What are the changes in ventilation seen in “Obstructive” pulmonary diseases?

A
84
Q

What is the clinical description for “Emphysema”?

A

1) Permanent dilation of air spaces distal to terminal bronchiole w/ destruction of lung parenchyma.
2) loss of alveolar surface area for gas exchange

85
Q

What is the clinical description of “Chronic Bronchitis”?

A

1) Persistent presence of increased bronchial mucus secretion.
2) WHO definition: cough, productive of sputum for at least 3 months out of the year with 2 years in succession

86
Q

What is the Pathogenesis of an “Uncomplicated” case of Pneumococcal Pneumonia?

A

[MC community acquired Pneumonia]
- young to middle-aged adults (MC Males)
- may follow a viral infection

87
Q

What is the progression of an “Uncomplicated” case of Pneumococcal Pneumonia?

A

1) Congestion & Consolidation
2) Red Hepatization
3) Gray or White Hepatization
4) Resolution

88
Q

What are the characteristics of “Sarcoidosis”?

A
  • Non caeseating Epitheloid Granuloma
  • depressed cell mediated immunity (anger Gy to tuberculin)
  • Hyperactive humoral immunity w/ increased T helper cell activity -> epitheloid Granuloma formation
89
Q

What are the characteristics of the lesion produced in Primary Tuberculosis?

A
  • Consists of Ghon Focus in periphery of lung consisting of Granuloma w/ Central Caeseation
  • Heals w/ fibrous scar forming area of Dystrophic Calcification
90
Q

The Lesion in Primary Tuberculosis may spread to?

A

Hilar lymph nodes which is said to be the “Ghon Complex”

91
Q

What are the characteristics of “Asbestosis”?

A
  • Pleural plaques
  • massive pulmonary fibrosis
  • bronchogenic carcinoma
  • mesothelioma (90% die within 2 years)
    Ferruginuos Body “Shish-kebab” or “drum-stick”
92
Q

What is meant by “Caplan’s Syndrome”?

A

Combination of:
1) Pneumoconiosis
2) Rheumatoid Arthritis

93
Q

What are the 4 major types of carcinoma of the Bronchus?

A

1) Adenocarcinoma (50%)
2) Squamous Carcinoma (20%)
3) Small Cell (Oat Cell) Carcinoma (15%)
4) Large Cell Carcinoma (2%)

94
Q

What are the different types of Laryngeal Carcinoma? (By site)

A

1) Squamous Cell Carcinoma (Nasopharynx)
2) Anaplastic Carcinoma
3) Lymphomas of Waldeyer’s Ring
4) Squamous Papiloma

95
Q

What is “Acute Bronchiolitis”?

A

Epidemic infection of small airways in children

96
Q

Progression of what can lead to “Bronchiolitis”?

A

Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis ->Type IV Hypersensitivity -> Granuloma -> Bronchiolitis Obliterans

97
Q

Acute Bronchiolitis is seen in what population?

A

Young Children

98
Q

Most cases of “Acute Bronchiolitis” are caused by…

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

99
Q

What would a patient with Acute Bronchiolitis present with?

A

1) Bronchospasm
2) Pneumonia

100
Q

What can also cause “Acute Bronchiolitis” (other than RSV)?

A

Adenoviruses (these have higher mortality/complication rate)

101
Q

What are the symptoms of “Acute Bronchiolitis”?

A
  • Cough
  • Chest Tightness
  • Cyanosis (in severe cases)

Systems Pathology (6 decks)

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