Exam 4 review questions Flashcards

1
Q

Lauren has contracted a milk case of Bodetella pertussis (whooping cough) for which she has been vaccinated against as a young child. Her initial history indicated she baby sat an ill child on Monday at 3 PM and she began to note symptoms on Friday about 3 PM.

The vaccination represents which exposure?

A

primary

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2
Q

Lauren has contracted a milk case of Bodetella pertussis (whooping cough) for which she has been vaccinated against as a young child. Her initial history indicated she baby sat an ill child on Monday at 3 PM and she began to note symptoms on Friday about 3 PM.

Bordetella pertussis represents which exposure?

A

Anamnestic (secondary exposure)

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3
Q

Lauren has contracted a milk case of Bodetella pertussis (whooping cough) for which she has been vaccinated against as a young child. Her initial history indicated she baby sat an ill child on Monday at 3 PM and she began to note symptoms on Friday about 3 PM.

What was the incubation period?

A

4 days

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4
Q

Lauren has contracted a milk case of Bodetella pertussis (whooping cough) for which she has been vaccinated against as a young child. Her initial history indicated she baby sat an ill child on Monday at 3 PM and she began to note symptoms on Friday about 3 PM.

Which immunoglobulin will play a large role in the infection?

A

IgG

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5
Q

Lauren has contracted a milk case of Bodetella pertussis (whooping cough) for which she has been vaccinated against as a young child. Her initial history indicated she baby sat an ill child on Monday at 3 PM and she began to note symptoms on Friday about 3 PM.

If lauren was allergic to a medication she was taking to combat the infection, which immunoglobulin would cause her to develop a hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

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6
Q

Sneezing and coughing are examples of which human defense process?

A

flushing mechanisms

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a virulence facor?

A

a. Endotoxin
b. Hyaluronidase
**c. T-lymphocyte **
d. Exotoxin
e. Capsule

C is correct

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8
Q

What is a non-specific defense mechanisms act by inhibiting viral and foreign DNA replication?

A

production of interferons

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9
Q

The degree of disease causing capacity of a microorganism is know as its:

A

virulence

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10
Q

A disease that is always present in a population is best described as:

A

endemic

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11
Q

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for an anaphylactic response?

A

IgE

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12
Q

In Austin a group of ornithologists are studying screech owls in the wild and have had salmonellosis (Salmonella enteritis). One of the researchers is experiencing her third infection. What is the most likely source of their infection?

A

The researchers are contaminating their hands with salmonella while handling the owls

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13
Q

Diseases that are endemic in animal populations and that can be transferred to humans are known as:

A

Zoonoses (zoonosis)

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14
Q

An animal that harbors an infectious agent and could transmit an infectious agent is termed a/an:

A

reservoir

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15
Q

What described an infection of unkown cause?

A

Idiopathic

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16
Q

What is the route of entry of an infectious agent into the body?

A

Portal

17
Q

What is defined as the number of new cases of an infectious agent in a given population at a given time?

A

Incidence

18
Q

What is produced on the inside of the cell and released to the outside of the cell where it exhibits toxigenic properties?

A

exotoxin

19
Q

What is the movement of neutrophils from the circulatory system into the tissues or organs to attack a bacteria and protect the host body?

A

Diapedesis

20
Q

Describe the process of phagocytosis by discussing the different phases the macrophase uses to engulf and destroy non-self infectious agents (10 points)

A
  • C – chemotaxis; cell attracted to molecule because it’s different and the markers
  • A – adherence; macrophage will latch onto or attach to the bacteria (non self entity)
  • I – ingestion; ingests the bacteria as a phagosome
  • K – killing; phagosome binds to lysosome to form phagolysosome where bacteria is then destroyed
  • E – elimination; release of broken down material to be discarded through body systems
21
Q

Discuss the infectious process of Steph aureus (just an example, it could be any microorganism). (5 points)

A
  1. Must make contact the tissues
  2. Must establish itself and grow
  3. Must have a constat supply of nutrients
22
Q

Discuss four categories of virulence factors (structural, toxicological, enzymatic, and antiphagocytic) giving examples of the virulence factors and explaining how the virulence factors allow the invading microorganism to be effective pathogens. (10 points)

A
  1. Structural – allow for adhesion to the cells; ex: capsule, endospore, fimbriae, flagella
  2. Toxicological
    Exotoxins – produced by cell and released to outside of cell (Ex: cytotoxins and neurotoxins)
    Endotoxins – part of the LPS layer of gram-negative bacteria that is toxic;Causes fever and other symptoms, low toxicity but harmful in high numbers
  3. Enzymatic – directly affects the host cells to lower immune system
    i. Lipase – breaks down oleic acids which has many antimicrobial properties such as protecting our skin
    ii. Coagulase – coagulates plasm
    iii. Hyaluronidase – “spread factor” hyaluronic acid holds cells together and hyaluronidase destroys the cement that holds the tissues together
  4. Antiphagocytic – resist phagocytosis by host body cells (Ex: Protein A on staph aureus)
23
Q

23) Explain whether each of the following examples is a food infection or intoxication. (10 points)

a. Eighty-four people who ate shrimp in Galveston developed diarrhea, nausea, headache, and fever from 8 hours to days after eating

b. Four people in austin who ate turkey developed malaise, nausea, blurred vision, breathing difficulty, and numbness 3 to 6 hours after eating

A

a. food infection - took days for onset and fever
b. intoxication - short time period after exposure for symptomology to develop, no fever