Exam 4 lecture 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What drug blocks attachment and entry of virus into cell

A

Enfuviritide
Maravoric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drug targets reverse transcription of HIV

A

Nucleoside RT inhibitors
non- nucleoside RT inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What Anti HIV drug targets Integrase

A

Raltegavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drugs target the maturation of HIV drugs

A

Protease inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the use of integrase

A

inserts the HIV DNA into the hosts chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 activities of RT

A

RNA dependent DNA polymerase (uses RNA to make DNA)

Ribonuclease H activity (chops up RNA)

DNA depndent DNA polymerase activity (makes complementary strand from synthesized DNA)

  • copies plus strand RNA to produce minus strand DNA
  • Degrades RNA template from RNA-DNA hybrid
  • synthesizes plus strand DNA from minus strand DNA template
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are NRTIs? What are their2 effects?

A

NRTIs are nucleoside analogs that lack the 3’ OH

Two effects
- competitive inhibitor of reverse transcriptase
-DNA chain terminator - inhibit elongation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do we use NRTIs in combo with

A

2 NRTIs plus NNRTI or PI or integrase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are NRTI combos that work best

A

Tenofovir and emtricitabine

Abacavir and lamivudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a characteristic shared by all NRTIs?

A

all must be activated by cellular kinase to triphosphate form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

name NRTIs

A

abacavir
tenofovir
emtricitabine
lamivudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what enzymes activate NRTIs

A

use cellular enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is tenofovir different from tenofovir alafenamide

A

Activated by different pathway than previous tenofovir drugs

Increased accumulation in lymphocytes, fewer side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can be a negative about tenofovir alafenamide (TAF)? positive?

A

negative- TAF is associated with higher lipid levels compared to other tenofovir drugs.

Positive- Better accumulation in lymph nodes and higher intracellular concentration (reduced renal damage)

different activation pathway to TAF allows for 10x lower dose compared to other Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tenofovir alafenamide activation

A

It is stable in the plasma, TAF turns into tenofovir diphosphate in HIV cells or infected cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are NRTIs competing with

A

dATP, d CTP, d GTP and dTTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Do NRTIs have higher affinity to GIV RT or cellular DNA polymerase

A

HIV RT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What must happen to TAF before phosphorylation?

A

TAF must be processed to TFV by cellular enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how many phosphorylations does tenofovir require?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why do resistance mutations arise so quickly for HIV

A

-HIV polymerase is error prone
-RT inhibitors unable to suppress viral replication
- large amounts of virus present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two types of resistance mutations seen with resistance to NRTIs

A
  1. discriminatory mutations
    - mutations that selectively impair the ability of reverse transcriptase to incorporate analogues into DNA
  2. Excision mutations
    - ATP molecule mediates the removal of a nuceoside analogue after it has been incorporated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where do most mutations to NRTIs occur

A

near RT active site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can mutations against NRTIs do?

A

Help RT to distinguish between normal dNTPs and NRTIs

Promote removal of NRTIs after they have been incorporated into the growing chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Do NRTIs have high or low barrier of resistance? WHat does that mean?

A

NRTIs have a low barrier of resistance.

High risk of mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

adverse effects of NRTIs

A

Mitochondrial toxicity
- Anemia, granulocytopenia, myopathy, neuropathy and pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

abacavir black box warning? What genes are linked with them?

A

Abacavir HS rxn, Highly associated with HLA B 5701 in needed before initiating tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where do NNRTIs bind (Nonnucleoside RT inhibitors)? Competitive or noncompetitive inhibitors?

A

Directly to site on RT?

Do not compete with nucleotides for binding (non competitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

do NNRTIs have to be phosphorylated?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

WHat do NNRTIs block?

A

block RNA and DNA dependent DNA polymerase activity (blocks polymerization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name 1st gen NNRTIs? Side effects

A

Nevirapine
Efavirenz
Delaviridine

CNS side effects
Potentially teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name second gen NNRTIs

A

Etravirine
Rilpivirine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why is there less chance at resistance with second gen NNRTIs

A

Designed to be inherently flexible.

Can bind in multiple orientations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

adverse effects of NNRTIs

A

Rash
Drug-drug interactions (CYP 450)

nevapirine- hepatotoxicity or SJS
Efavirenz- teratogenic and neuropsychiatric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DO NNRTIs bind to cellular DNA polymerases? How many mutations can confer NNRTI resistance? Do NNRTIs and NRTIs share common resistance mutations?

A

Do, NNRTIs do not bind to cellular DNA polymerase

Resistance to NNRTIs can be acquired through single mutation

Mutations that confer resistance to NNRTIs do not cause resistance to NRTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What do integrase inhibitors (INI) do??

A

Inhibit insertion of HIV DNA into the human genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Common side effects with INI

A

N/V/D

compatible with other antiretroviral drugs due to favorable interaction profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

INI drug drug interactions

A

SOme interact with CYP450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 2 steps to INI

A

3’ processing

string transfer- incorporation of HIV strand into host chromosome

39
Q

name integrase inhibitors

A

Raltegavir
Elvitegravir
Dolutegravir
Bictegravir

40
Q

what is integrase inhibitor resistance caused by

A

Caused by primary mutations that reduce INI susceptability

41
Q

WHat is special in the way elvitegravir is formulated

A

Co formulated with cobicistat (COBI)

this is because it is metabolized by CYP3A4

42
Q

What is the use of cobicistat

A

Formulated with elvitegravir to boost its concentrations by inhibiting metabolism by CYP3A4

43
Q

What are things about dolutegavir that we should know (interactions, boosting and barrier for resistance)

A

No boosting required and no interactions with CYP3A4.

Higher barrier for resistance

44
Q

things to know about bictegravir (resistance, drug interactions)

A

low risk of resistance and few drug interactions.
Can not be used with rifampin

Raises Scr levels 0.1

45
Q

Which drug can be started without HLA B 5701 testing testing

A

Bictegravir

46
Q

What type of protease is HIV protease. How is it activated

A

aspartic acid in active site

Dimer- active site formed at interface

47
Q

How do HIV protease inhibitors act

A

HIV protease inhibitors are transition state mimetics (peptidomimetic)

amide bond is replaced by non-cleavable linkages

48
Q

Which drug is the only protease inhibitor that is not a peptidomimetic

A

Tipranavir

49
Q

what happens when HIV protease inhibitors bind to protease

A

Protease flaps to closed conformation

50
Q

What is notable about protease inhibitor and interactions

A

ALL are substrates and some are inhibitors of CYP3A4

51
Q

What are things we can do to boost protease inhibitors (PK enhancement)

A

Low doses of rotinavir inhibit CYP3A4

blocks metabolism of other PIs

52
Q

How does low doses of ritonavir affect PIs? Advantage vs disadvantage

A

advantage- increases serum concentrations and blocks metabolism of PIs by inhibiting CYP3A4.
disadvantages- Drug-drug interctions with ritonavir and increased risk of hyperlipidemia

53
Q

Name protease inhibitors? most potent of all?

A

Atazanavir (most potent after darunavir)

Darunavir (preferred PI for initial antiretroviral)

Tipranavir

54
Q

What two drugs reduce atazanavir levels

A

Efavirenz and tenofovir

55
Q

What are two unique features of darunavir

A

makes extensive hydrogen bonds with protease backbone

Inhibits HIV protease dimerization

56
Q

What is important to note about darunavir

A

Peptide backbones of wildtype and mutant HIV protease have similar structures so darunavir can inhibit both wildtype and mutants

57
Q

What is special about tipranavir

A

Retains activity against protease in highly treated patients including resistant to DRV

Nonpeptidic PI

58
Q

tipranavir drug ia

59
Q

Describe the resistance to protease inhibitors

A

Highest genetic barrier of antiretrovirals

60
Q

what two drugs retain activity against most PI resistant mutant proteases

A

darunavir and tipranavir

61
Q

adverse effects of PI

A

hyperlipidemia
drug dfrug i/a (cyp3A4)

62
Q

Name two long acting injectable therapies for HIV

A

Cabotegavir (INI) and rilpivirine (NNRTI)

63
Q

Where are HSV1 common? Where are HSV2 common?

A

HSV 1 is common in oral mucosa
HSV 2 is common in genital mucosa

64
Q

describe HSV1 and HSV2

A

HSV 1- cold sore, transferred viral oral secretions. first episodes can systemic side effects (fever, body aches etc)

Re occurance can start with tingling or burning sensation where sore will form prodrome)

HSV 2- genital/anus transferred via infected secretions. Prodrome is there for this one as well.

65
Q

which HSV mostly causes HSV encephalitis

66
Q

Name drugs that are used for HSV

A

Acyclovir
Valacyclovir
famciclovir

67
Q

MOA of acyclovir? elimination?

A

Prodrug actively converted to acyclovir triphosphate.

Acyclovir TP competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase to inhibit viral replication. Also incorporated into viral DNA to cuase premature chain termination

renally eliminated

68
Q

adverse effects of acyclovir

A

N/V/D
nephro (important)

69
Q

Dose for acyclovir for HSV encephalitis

A

10 mg/kg IV q8hr for 14-21 days (adjusted body weight)

70
Q

MOA of valacyclovir

A

Prodrug of acyclovir. (Same MOA, adverse effects and spectrum)

71
Q

MOA of famciclovir

A

Prodrug of penciclovir, converted to active form via triphosphorylation. Linear kinetics

72
Q

What is the drug of choice for variclla zoster

A

Acyclovir or valacyclovir

73
Q

Drug of choice for cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

ganciclovir

74
Q

MOA of ganciclovir

A

The drug is a pro drug trned into the active form by thymidine kinase

75
Q

Describe how resistance can develop in ganciclovir

A

Resistance can develop via a UL97 gene mutation, leading to viral kinase deficiency

76
Q

Ganciclovir adverse effects

A

Bone marrow suppression (reversible)

77
Q

How to treat CMV retinitis, esophagitis, colitis, pneumonitis and prevention of CMV in bone marrow

A

Ganciclovir

78
Q

Describe valganciclovir? Toxicity and MOA? Elimination?

A

Pro drug of ganciclovir, more bioavailable

Adverse effects same as ganciclovir (hematologic toxicity)

Counsel to take with food

79
Q

use of valganciclovir

A

CMV retinitis and prevention of CMV disease in transplant patients at high risk

80
Q

letermovir MOA

A

inhibits the pUL56 subunit of CMV, prevents cleavage ofDNA, resulting in inhibition of CMV replication and prevention of CMV infection

81
Q

letermovir use

A

Prophylaxis of CMV infection in adult CMV seropositive recipients of an allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT)

82
Q

What are some letermovir drug interactions

A

CYP 3A4 substrate (A LOT of interactions)

Azole, statin, warfarin

83
Q

Foscarnet MOA

A

Does not require phosphorylation (is not a pro drug) and it directly inhibits viral DNA polymerase

84
Q

Use of foscarnet

A

last line against drug resistant HSV, VZV and CMV

85
Q

Foscarnet adverse effects

A

Nephrotoxicity

86
Q

Name neuraminidase inhibitors used in influenza (flu)

A

Zanamivir (dry powder inhallation)
Oseltamivir
Peramivir (IV)

87
Q

Oseltamivir MOA, excretion and adverse effects

A

Prodrug
Renally dose adjusted
N/V/D

88
Q

Who do we give oseltamivir to

A

symptomatic for no more than 2 days. (same with zanamivir)
Prophylaxis of influenza inpts >1

89
Q

zanamivir adverse effects

A

Brochospasms

90
Q

use of baloxavir marboxil

A

Used for flu in 12 and older, not used if symptomatic for more than 48 hrs

91
Q

Drug of choice in CMV

A

ganciclovir and vanganciclovir

92
Q

Drug of choice in VZV

A

Acyclovir and valacyclovir

93
Q

Drug of choice in HSV 1/2

A

acyclovir/valacyclovir

94
Q

WHat drug is used for flu B