Exam 4 Blueprint Flashcards

1
Q

What are risk factors for cancer?

A

age, immunosuppression, race, genetic disposition, chemicals/tobacco/alcohol, exposure to viruses and bacteria, diet, sun/radiation exposure, sexual lifestyles, poverty/obesity/chronic gerd, chronic disease, air pollution

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2
Q

What does primary cancer prevention mean?

A

-using preventative measures to prevent cancer occurrence

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3
Q

Examples of primary cancer interventions?

A

-discontinuing tobacco
-breathing clean air
-diet high in fruits, veggies, complex carbs
-control weight
-reduce fat intake
-stay out of sun during peak hours and use sunscreen
-wear protective equipment

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4
Q

Tamoxifen has shown to reduce the risk of _____ cancer in high risk individuals ?

A

breast cancer

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5
Q

NSAID use is investigational and may reduce the risk for what type of cancer?

A

colorectal

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6
Q

What vitamins and plant derivatives have shown in clinical trials they may reduce risk of cancer?

A

-soy products
-tea and herbs
-vitamins ABCDE and more

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7
Q

What are secondary cancer prevention strategies?

A

use of screening strategies to detect cancer early

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8
Q

Examples of secondary cancer prevention?

A

Self examination
mammograms
PSA

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9
Q

What areas of the body should we be teaching our patients to self-examine to identify cancer?

A

skin
oral cavity
lymph nodes
breasts or chest walls
testicles/ penis

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10
Q

What is the ‘CAUTION’ acronym for signs and symptoms of cancer?

A

-change in bowel or bladder habits
-A sore that does not heal
-unusual bleeding or discharge
-thickening or a lump in breast or else where
-indigestion or difficulty swallowing
-obvious change in wart or mole
-nagging cough or hoarseness

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11
Q

What is tertiary prevention of cancer?

A

a set of measures that aim to reduce complications and progression of cancer In those that have been already diagnosed

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12
Q

What are the methods of tertiary prevention?

A

-surgical tx
-radiation
-chemotherapy
-bone marrow transplants
-hyperthermia
-biologic response modifiers

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13
Q

Review Bladder/lung/breat/skin/prostate

A
  • on page 382 in IGGY book
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14
Q

What can be used to diagnosis cancer?

A

-history and physical exam
-blood and urine tests
-diagnostic imaging
-biopsies

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15
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

chronic metabolic disease causing bone loss/decreased bone density

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16
Q

The first sign of osteoporosis is often?

A

a fracture

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17
Q

What bones are most likely to be affected in osteoporosis?

A

spine, hip, and wrist

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18
Q

What is primary osteoporosis?

A

-caused by losing testosterone and estrogen in older age

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19
Q

what is secondary osteoporosis?

A

-may result from other medical conditions, long-term drug therapy or prolonged immobility

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20
Q

What is a dexa scan?

A

the best tool to dx osteoporosis ; assesses bone density via x-ray

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21
Q

When should women begin getting DEXA scans

A

above age 40

22
Q

What is BMD? What diagnostic test evaluates this?

A

-bone mineral density
-DEXA scan

23
Q

What is a T-score

A

represents the number of standard deviations above or below the BMD

24
Q

What BMD t-score is positive for osteopenia ?

A

-1 to -2.5

25
Q

What BMD t-score is positive for osteoporosis?

A

< 2.5

26
Q

Our goal BMD t-score is ?

A

to be above -1

27
Q

What is a z-score?

A

compares BMI with your age group, BMI, and same sex

28
Q

A z-score is most commonly used when ?

A

-premenopausal women
-men less than age 50
-children

29
Q

An abnormal z-score is used to diagnose primary or secondary osteoporosis?

A

secondary

30
Q

A z-score of -1.5 and above indicates

A

typical bone density for age group

31
Q

A z-score of less than -1.5 indicates

A

atypical BMD

32
Q

What supplements should be taken with osteoporosis and osteopenia to increase bone density?

A

calcium and vitamin d

33
Q

Calcium and vitamin d nursing considerations?

A

-give in divided doses with 6-8 oz of water
-increase fluids to prevent renal calculi
-s/s of hypercalcemia
-take with food to prevent gi upset

34
Q

Why should clients on calcium take a third of the daily dose at bedtime?

A

-no weight bearing activity occurs while sleeping

35
Q

What is the suffix for biphosphonates, given to help with osteopenia?

A

-dronate

36
Q

What education should we give patients on how to take bisphosphonates?

A

-take on an empty stomach first thing in the morning with a full glass of water
-30 minutes before eating
-sit up 30 minutes after taking to prevent esophagitis

37
Q

Why should patients have dental examinations before starting bisphosphonates

A

risk of jaw and maxillary osteoporosis especially if dental hygiene is poor

38
Q

If patients are sensitive to aspirin, why should they not be given a bisphosphonates

A

bronchconstriction may occur

39
Q

How does calcium help with osteoporosis?

A

calcium helps improve bone density

40
Q

How does vitamin D help prevent osteoporosis

A

helps the body absorb calcium which is needed to build healthy bones

41
Q

Method of action for bisphosphonates

A

they slow bone resorption (breaking down of bones)

42
Q

S/s of fractures?

A

-limited mobility
-severe acute or persistent pain
-altered sensory perception

43
Q

s/s specific to hip fractures?

A

-inability to move immediately after a fall
-severe pain in hip or grain
-inability to put weight on injured side
-shorter leg on the side of injured hip
-turning outward of leg on side of injured hip

44
Q

What is the treatment of choice for a fractured hip?

A

open reduction with internal fixation

45
Q

What type of traction may be applied before surgery for fractured hip

A

buck’s traction

46
Q

In hip fractures of the femoral neck, what are we most concerned for

A

avascular necrosis ; reduced blood supply to the head of the femur leading to death of bone tissues and decreased mobility

47
Q

Preoperative care for hip fractures

A

-IV pain medication upon entering emergency department
-temporary placement in skin traction
-discontinue blood thinning medications

48
Q

Best practices for care of those with hip fractures

A

box 44.5 in Iggy textbook pg 1095

49
Q

What is the most common form of arthritis ?

A

osteoarthritis

50
Q
A