Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

what reading level for surveys?

A

In general, questions/items should be written at an 8th grade, reading vocabulary.
• Many word processors (e.g., Word) will give you an estimate of the reading level of the document, and
many will identify words that are above certain reading levels.

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2
Q

______ _____
• Using “CA” on a survey for Latinos could mean California or Central America
• When surveying a specialized population, then certain abbreviations may be used.

Examples
o If a researcher surveys interior design faculty members, then it would probably be acceptable to put the
abbreviation “FIDER” on a survey.
oIf a researcher were surveying psychology faculty members in the USA, then using “APA” would be
acceptable.

A

Avoid abbreviations

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3
Q

Avoid jargon and ____

Example – “How often have you made out with your girlfriend in the last week?”
§ “Made out” may have different connotations to different people. A researcher may want to use a word with fewer meanings (e.g., kiss).

A

slang

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4
Q

Avoid emotional, biased, and/or stigmatizing language.

• Examples of stigmatizing language
-“Are their identifiable differences between gay men and normal men? Yes No” This sentence portrays gay men as not normal.
- “True or False. Social workers need training in working with special populations such as lesbians, convicted child abusers, and convicted rapists.” This sentence implies that lesbians are in the same group as those who have been convicted for harming others.
• Use neutral language. § Examples
o Use “an individual who has cerebral palsy” instead of “an individual who is suffering from or afflicted with cerebral palsy.”
o Do not label individuals with disabilities as “patients” or “invalids.”
page36

§ Avoid potentially offensive and emotionally-charged labels

A

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5
Q

• Put people first, not their _____
-Example: Use “person with a developmental disability” instead of “a developmentally disabled person.” § An exception would be when the disability is part of a group’s identity (e.g., Deaf person)

A

Disability

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6
Q

____________________ (i.e., incorporating more than one topic).
• Examples
§ “True or False. Parents should use lots of praise and avoid physical punishment when interacting with
their children.”
o This statement actually covers two distinct parenting behaviors (i.e., praise and physical punishment).
§ “Do you agree that people who are overweight should be encouraged to exercise and eat low
carbohydrate diets?”
o Individuals may agree with exercise, but not with low carbohydrate diets (or vice versa).

A

double-barreled questions

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7
Q

____ ____ (i.e., questions which lead respondents to answer in a certain way).

Examples
§ “Given that research shows a link between exercise and fat reduction, what do you think is the number one thing a person can do to lose fat?”
§ “Most doctors say that cigarette smoke increases risk of lung disease for those near a smoker. Do you agree? 1. Strongly disagree, 2. Disagree, 3. Agree, 4. Strongly agree”
§ “Now that you have learned the value of parental praise in the parenting class, how often will you praise your child?”

A

leading questions

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8
Q

_____ ______
Do not begin a question with a premise in which respondents may not agree. • Examples
-“Since oil companies are gouging the American people, should Congress increase taxes on oil companies? 1. Yes 2. No”
oThe premise at the start of this statement is not necessarily a verifiable fact, and it may be inconsistent
with the belief of the participants.
oAlternative: “Congress should increase taxes on oil companies.
1. Strongly Disagree 2. Disagree 3.
Agree 4. Strongly Agree”

-“Since man-made global warming is causing a worldwide crisis, how much should sustainable design be
encouraged?”
o Again, many respondents may not agree with the premise at the start of this question, and there is
controversy over whether this is fact or not.

A

false premise

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9
Q

_____ ____
• They are often developed by people who have a bias in support of or against a particular view.
• Examples
- “What do you see as the benefits of the current tax cut initiative?”
-The researcher might get a very different perspective of the respondents’ view if the researcher asked
about the disadvantages of tax cuts. An alternate question would be to ask, “What do you think of the
current tax cut initiative?”
-“What do you see as the disadvantages of eliminating welfare?”
-“What do you think is wrong with spanking?”

A

loaded questions

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10
Q

beyond respondents’ ______

Examples

  • Asking adolescents to identify their parents’ end-of-the-year taxable income.
  • Asking complex questions on a survey designed for individuals with severe developmental disabilities.
  • Asking parents to identify which of Baumrind’s ‘parenting styles’ they identify with.
A

capabilities

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11
Q

Avoid asking respondents about their future intentions/behaviors. Responses are poor predictors of future behavior.
Examples
-“How often do you plan to exercise in the next 6 months?”
-“How often will you praise your child in the next 3 months?”

A

..

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12
Q

Avoid ____ ____
Examples
-“True or False. It is not good not to exercise.”
-“Infants usually do not misbehave for no reason.”

A

double negatives

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13
Q

Avoid _____ response categories.

• Example of _____ ____ _____ – “0-5, 5-10, 10-15”

A

overlapping response categories

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14
Q

Avoid ______ response categories.

• Example of _______ response categories – “0-1, 2-5, 6-12, 13-18”

A

unbalanced

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15
Q

Avoid questions that ask for_____ data when ______ data are available. Examples
-“How old are you? 21-30, 31-40, 41-50, >51”.
o In the example above, a 21-year-old and a 30-year-old are the same distance from 31.
-Instead ask, “How many years old are you?____”

o“What is your weight? 50-99 lbs., 100-149 lbs., 150-200 lbs., …”.
-Instead ask, “How many pounds do you weigh?____”

A

categorical; continuous

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16
Q

_______ _______ – When a question has two possible responses.

Examples:
oYes/No
o True/False
o Agree/Disagree

A

Dichotomous questions

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17
Q

_____ – Asking respondents to assign an order to their preferences.

Please rank your preference for the following presidential candidates: 1st choice, 2nd choice, 3rd choice

____ Daffy Duck _____ Bugs Bunny _____ Foghorn Leghorn

Coding / data entry issues come up with ranking questions.
o Respondents may give two of the same rankings (e.g., assign two 1st choices). o Respondents may not give someone a ranking.

A

Ranking

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18
Q

____ – Asking respondents to assign a value to their preferences.

Rate attractiveness of the celebrities
Channing Tatum
Very Unattractive
1 2 3 4 5
 Very Attractive
6 7 8 9 10
-------------------------
Taylor Swift
Very Unattractive
1 2 3 4 5
Very Attractive
6 7 8 9 10
---------------------------
Meg Griffin
Very Unattractive
1 2 3 4 5

Very Attractive
6 7 8 9 10

A

Ratings

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19
Q

_____ – The respondent is provided with a list from which to choose one or more responses. When a respondent can select more than one option, each option is viewed as a separate variable.

Which of the following methods do you use to study? Please check all that apply.
___ note cards ____ memorization __practice tests ___note cards __audio messages other___

-In the example above, checked boxes are often coded as a ‘1’ while unchecked boxes are coded ‘0’.
-Things to consider when developing checklists
o Are all of the alternatives covered?
o Is the list too long / reasonable length?
o Is the structure of the responses easy and uniform? o Is an “other” category needed?

A

Checklists

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20
Q

Biases with Likert scales
oCentral tendency bias – Respondents avoid using extreme response categories. In other words, they
usually respond ‘agree’ or ‘disagree’ instead of ‘strongly agree’ or ‘strongly disagree’.
o ____ ____ ___ – Respondents tend to answer in the extreme. In other words, they usually
respond ‘strongly agree’ or ‘strongly disagree’ instead of ‘agree’ or ‘disagree’.
o Acquiescence bias – Respondents tend to agree with statements regardless of their opinion.
o Social desirability bias– Respondents try to portray themselves or the organization more favorably.

A

Extreme tendency bias

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21
Q

____ ____ scales assess a respondent’s perception of an item on a set of bipolar adjective pairs (usually with a 5-point rating scale).

Rate your spouse on the following items (circle the number)
Ugly: -2 -1 0 1 2 Pretty
Mean: -2 -1 0 1 2 Nice
Rude: -2 -1 0 1 2 Considerate
Spendthrift: -2 -1 0 1 2 Tightward
A

Semantic differential

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22
Q

Filter or _____ questions refer to two-part questions where the answer to the first part of the question determines which of two different questions a respondent next receives.

Example – “Are you married? If ‘yes’ answer 4a, if ‘no’ answer 4b.”
• Filter questions can get very complex. Sometimes, multiple filter questions are necessary in order to direct
the respondents to the correct subsequent questions.

General suggestions

  • Avoid more than three levels (two jumps) for any question. Too many jumps will confuse the respondents and may discourage them from continuing with the survey.
  • If there are only two levels, use a graphic (e.g., arrow and box) to help direct the respondent to the correct subsequent question.
A

contingency

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23
Q

_____ ____ are sometimes needed to determine whether the respondent is qualified to answer the question of interest.
• The more complicated the screening, the less likely it is that the researcher can use a paper-and-pencil
instrument without confusing the respondent.

Examples
-A research study examining consumers’ opinions about a particular computer program would want to screen participants to see if they have used the program.
o Example – “Have you used Dreamweaver to develop a webpage?”
-Sometimes screening questions may be used to eliminate those people who don’t meet the criteria for participating.
o Examples – “Are you in 9th-12th grade” or “Do you live in Los Angeles?”

A

Screening questions

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24
Q

Length of survey
• ____ _____: Ten minutes is rarely a problem and can usually be extended to twenty minutes.
• ______ ______: A short (i.e., 1-4 pages) survey is usually appropriate for the general population.
• ________ interviews can last one hour. In special circumstances, they can last 3-5 hours.

A

Phone interviews

Mail questionnaires

Face-to-face

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25
Q

Use ______ when switching topics
• The transition could be a statement, divider, or a page break.
• Example – “The questions will ask about your spending habits.”

A

transitions

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26
Q

Question order or _____
• The first few questions can set the tone of the survey and help put the respondent at ease.
-Begin with easy, nonthreatening, and/or interesting questions so the respondent will feel comfortable about the questionnaire.

o Simple descriptive questions (e.g., gender) are easy and fast to answer.
• Put more difficult, threatening, and/or sensitive questions near the end.
-Before asking such questions, try to develop trust or rapport with the respondent by asking easier, non-
threatening questions at the beginning.
-Do not abruptly change to sensitive questions; use a transition statement.

oExample – “In this section, we would like to ask you about your sexual behaviors. Remember, your answers are anonymous, and you can skip any questions that make you uncomfortable.”

A

sequence

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27
Q

______– Concerns the extent to which an experiment, test, or any measuring procedure yields consistent results on repeated trials. In other words, reliability is the consistency of the measurement, or the degree to which an instrument measures the same way each time it is used under the same condition with the same subjects.

  • Unreliable measures produce results that are meaningless.
  • Reliability is not measured, it is estimated.
A

RELIABILITY

28
Q

____ ____ = true score + error score (method error and trait error)

A

Observed score

29
Q

_________
-Temporary individual factors – health, fatigue, motivation
-Lasting characteristics of the individual – ability level related to the
trait being assessed
-General characteristics of the individual – ability level, test-taking skills, ability to understand
instructions
-Factors affecting test administration – conditions of testing, interaction between examiner and test taker,
bias in grading
-Other factors (e.g., luck)

A

Sources of error

30
Q

____ _____ estimates reliability by grouping items in a questionnaire that measure the same
concept. Hence, it answers, “How much do the items in the survey relate to each other?”

A

Internal consistency

31
Q

______ _____ is a unique estimate of the expected correlation of the actual test with a hypothetical
alternative form of the same length. _____ _____ splits all the questions on your instrument every possible way and computes correlation values for them all.

As a general rule, the alpha should be .80 or above for widely used scales.

A

Cronbach’s alpha

32
Q

________ reliability is designed for measures in which items are dichotomous (e.g., true/false, yes/no).

A

Kuder-Richardson

33
Q

______________– Administer two different tests of the same construct to the same group of people so as to eliminate the practice effects on participants’ scores.
o Often the Spearman-Brown split-half reliability coefficient is used to compare the two halves.

A

Parallel or alternative form

34
Q

______ – Attempts to assess the reliability of a measure, administered only once, by focusing on the equivalency of two halves of a test. Each split will result in a slightly different reliability estimate.
o Often based on correlating the odd-numbered items with even-numbered items.
o Often the Spearman-Brown split-half reliability coefficient is used to compare the two halves.
o An internally consistent measure should have a split half reliability of at least .75.

A

Split-halves

35
Q

________ answers the questions “How stable is the test over time?” Administer the same test at two
different points in time to the same group of people. The idea behind _____ is that respondents should get the same score on the test at time 1 and time 2.
§ Three steps to establish ______ reliability:
o Administer the measure at two separate times to each subject.
o Compute the correlation between the measure at time 1 and time 2
(often the Spearman-Brown coefficient).
o Check if there is a significant correlation between times 1 and 2.
§ ______ is the most conservative method to estimate reliability.

A

Test/retest

36
Q

Issues that can impact _____ reliability include:
o Length of time between tests
o Remembering/learning from earlier test o Reactivity to items on test
o Developmental changes between tests.

A

test/retest

37
Q

_____________ measures level of agreement between two or more people rating the same object, phenomenon, behavior, or concept; a measure of the consistency from rater to rater.

-To get consensus on categorical data, the number of agreements between the rates is divided by the total
number of observations.

A

Inter-rater/Inter-observer reliability

38
Q

____ ____– assesses whether the measurement instrument appears relevant to the construct by an innocent bystander. ___ ____ can be established by asking people if they think the survey could adequately and completely assess someone’s attitude/belief. If they say ‘yes’, then face validity is established.

Example – If a researcher tells people that s/he is measuring their attitudes about alcohol, but the survey
asks them how much money they spend on alcohol, they may think the researcher has lied to them about the study. Or, if the survey only asks how they feel about negative things (e.g., if their car was stolen, if they were beat up), they may think that the research is going to find that these people all have negative attitudes, when that may not be true. Hence, it is important to establish face validity with the population of interest.

A

Face validity

39
Q

____ ____ – is an indicator of how well the items represent the entire universe of items from which they are drawn.36 In other words, it assesses whether or not the instrument reflects the content the researcher is trying to measure.

Example – A researcher measures depression (or anxiety) by using a scale that has one item for each of the domains of depression (or anxiety) as outlined in the DSM-R.

A

Content validity

40
Q

_____ ____– The ability to distinguish between groups that should be theoretically distinguishable.

Example – If an eating disorders test is able to distinguish those who have an eating disorder from those
who do not, then it has _____ _____

A

Concurrent validity

41
Q

______ _____ – Means that scales are measuring the same underlying construct. The amount of agreement between these two scales tells us the extent to which they are measuring the same thing (i.e., the amount of shared or common variance).

Example – If a researcher is trying to establish the validity of a new self-esteem scale, the researcher may
correlate the new scale with a previously established self-esteem scale (e.g., Rosenberg Self-Esteem Scale).

A

Convergent validity

42
Q

_____ ____ means that measures that should not be related are not. The researcher is looking for a lack of correlation between measures that are supposed to tap basically different constructs.

A

Discriminant validity

43
Q

____ ____ – The ability to predict something you want to predict.
§ Example – The GRE can predict future success in graduate programs, hence it has _____ _____

A

Predictive validity

44
Q

_____ ____ – The most rigorous validity test you can put your attitude survey through. Do the scores your survey produce correlate with other related constructs in the anticipated manner? In other words, it is a measure of how well a test assesses some underlying construct.

Example – If an attitude survey has ___ _____, lower attitude scores (indicating negative attitude) should correlate negatively with life satisfaction survey scores, and positively with life stress scores.

A

Construct validity

45
Q

MYTHS & REALITIES OF PROGRAM EVALUATION40
_____ = Program evaluation is an adversarial process focused on proving the success/failure of program.

____ = Good program evaluation is intrinsic to the betterment of the program and its participants.
• In the past, program evaluation was often used to determine which programs to keep and which to cut.
Hence, program personnel have often been considered it to be disruptive, unhelpful, and threatening.

• Current views integrate program evaluation from the beginning to identify areas in need of improvement and
to highlight strengths of the program through continuous feedback.

A

Myth ; Reality

46
Q

MYTHS & REALITIES OF PROGRAM EVALUATION
____= Program evaluation is a waste of time.
____ = Evaluation is necessary.
• To continually improve the program to make it more successful, efficient, and
cost-effective.

A

Myth ; Reality

47
Q

MYTHS & REALITIES OF PROGRAM EVALUATION
_____ = Outside experts are not always necessary.
_____ = Program evaluation must be done by outside experts.
• Outside experts can legitimize the evaluation (and give the perception of less bias), yet resources are often
not available to contract outside evaluators.

A

Reality ; myth

48
Q

MYTHS & REALITIES OF PROGRAM EVALUATION
_____ = Program evaluation is within the capabilities of the staff of most agencies/programs.

_____= Program evaluation is too complex.

A

Reality ; Myth

49
Q

____ _____ ____ ____– Examining whether the program has been successfully replicated and
evaluated in multiple settings, preferably across multiple target populations, using appropriate scientific
methods. The results should be published in more than one scientific, peer reviewed, academic journal.

A

Multiple site replication studies

50
Q
\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_ (pre-implementation assessment)
• A purposeful, planned, and systematic strategy for acquiring information to guide and justify program development.

How to conduct a ______ _____:
-Talk with current program participants and staff to see if there is a gap in one’s own services.
o Fathering program example
o Grandparents raising grandchildren example
§ Read the local newspaper and/or listen to local news.
§ Review social indicators in the geographic region (i.e., relevant statistical facts from public reports,
documents, and data archives).

A

Needs assessment

51
Q

____ _____ – Ongoing evaluation to determine how a program is functioning, how well the goals are being implemented, and whether the perceived needs of the participants are being met
• ____ ____ starts during the project planning and continues throughout the project.
• Good ______ ______ can lead to program improvement and hopefully greater impact if and when an
effectiveness/impact evaluation is conducted.

A

Formative evaluation

52
Q

____ ____ – The researcher describes the goals, objectives, start-up procedures, implementation processes, and anticipated outcomes of a program, presenting the details of each. Questions include:
• Are the goals/objectives clearly articulated?
• Are the goals/objectives communicated throughout the organization?
• Who is responsible for each goal/objective?
• Is there a good plan for assessing progress on objectives?
• What is the form of accountability (e.g., performance contracts)?

A

Descriptive study

53
Q

________ – The following information should be collected once the program begins:
• Track program utilization rates, participation rates, and characteristics of the participants.
• Also track how many people inquired about the service and how many dropped out.
• For example, in a parent education program, _______ evaluation would identify how parents tried to
enroll, how many classes were taught, how many parents attended, how many parents dropped out, and descriptions of the parents (e.g., gender, age, education level, ethnicity).

A

Accountability

54
Q

____ _______– Occurs at the end of the program (or at the end of a part of the program) to assess how well the participants/program are meeting the program goals/objectives.

A

Summative (impact) evaluation

55
Q

______ ____– Does the program have an impact on the participants?

  • _______ _____ should only be conducted after the program has been operating successfully for a time period (i.e., long enough to eliminate implementation problems and shortcomings).
  • One way to do this is through a pretest and posttest design.

• Questions to ask:

  • Is the program meeting the stated goals for change or impact?
  • Which components are the most effective?
  • Which components needed improvement?
  • Were the results worth the costs?
  • Is the program replicable?
A

Outcome evaluation

56
Q

_________ – Occurs after a pre-set amount of time to determine the lasting effects of the program. • One way to do this is through a pretest, posttest, ____________

A

Follow-up evaluation

57
Q

____ ____ ____ compares estimated cost of implementing a program/policy to the benefits of not
implementing the program/policy.

A

Cost benefit analysis

58
Q

____ ____ ____ compares the cost efficiency of various competing programs or policies.
-Which program has “more bang for the buck”? § Family preservation versus treatment example.

A

Cost effectiveness analysis

59
Q

_____ ____establishes whether programs can be designed to have the desired impact and result in participant changes in controlled conditions. Establishing ____ _____ – from best to worst

A

Program efficacy

60
Q

__________ – A ______ uses a quantitative method to summarize the results of all available high-
quality studies on a program. It is used to gain greater objectivity, generalizability, and precision.

A

Meta-analyses

61
Q

_________________ – Experts/Peers in the field review and rate the programs for effectiveness.

A

Expert review / Peer consensus

62
Q

____________– The program is evaluated using appropriate scientific method in a single
population or in only one setting. The results should be published in at least one scientific, peer reviewed,
academic journal.

A

Single trial effectiveness

63
Q

_______________ – The program is evaluated by examining written
documentation on the program’s effectiveness (e.g., conference or workshop report, internal report, published non-academic article or newsletter). The program may be published in refereed or non-refereed publications.

A

Program evaluations and source documents

64
Q

ISSUES AND/OR SUGGESTIONS FOR PROGRAM EVALUATION
Lack of evaluation or appropriate evaluation for community programs

• Most programs only report accountability data and sometimes satisfaction data, but there is a need more
impact studies (i.e., outcome evaluation).
A

65
Q

ISSUES AND/OR SUGGESTIONS FOR PROGRAM EVALUATION
Biased evaluations – Unfortunately, many researchers have measured the impact of a program on various
outcomes, and then selectively reported the findings that demonstrated program effectiveness.
• Researchers and program developers can selectively report only those findings that demonstrated program effectiveness. A subtler example is when they make decisions about analyzing data or coding variables so
the results are more positive, believing that these results properly captured the “true” impact of the program.
• Before the analyses, researchers should identify the primary hypotheses to be tested and the exact procedures
to test the hypotheses, and then report those findings regardless of whether they are positive or negative.

A

66
Q

ISSUES AND/OR SUGGESTIONS FOR PROGRAM EVALUATION
Testing is often conducted by untrained people.
• Example – program presenters (e.g., parent educator) with no on-site training in the evaluation procedures • Example – researchers with no training in working with the population (e.g., developmental disabilities)

A

..