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BIO 600 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Triacylglycerols are stored in _______ cells in animals

A

Adipose

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2
Q

The hormones _________ stimulate lipolysis when energy reserves are low.

A

Epinephrine and Glucagon

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3
Q

The brain uses __________ instead of glucose for its source of ATP production during long-term fasting

A

Ketone bodies

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4
Q

In diabetes, untreated chronic ketone body production will ______ blood pH levels.

A

Lower

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5
Q

Beta oxidation of odd-numbered fatty acids produces acetyl CoA and ______

A

Propionyl CoA

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6
Q

Fatty acids synthesis primarily takes place in the _______

A

cytoplasm

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7
Q

________ is the product of the committed step in fatty acid synthesis

A

Malonyl CoA

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8
Q

Citrate serves as signal for a high-energy state as it stimulates _______

A

Acetyl CoA Carboxylase

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9
Q

Double bonds are introduced into fatty acids in the ________ compartment of the cell

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum

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10
Q

Glycerol released during lipolysis is absorbed by the liver for use in:

A

Glycolysis and Gluconeogenesis

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11
Q

Fats stored in adipose tissue is used by the liver and other tissues for:

A

Making ketone bodies and conversion of acetyl CoA for the CAC

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12
Q

Fatty acids are linked to glycerol with:

A

Ester linkages

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13
Q

Complete oxidation of palmitate yields _____ molecules of ATP

A

106

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14
Q

Enzymes that digest the triacylglycerols into free fatty acids and monoacylglycerol are called:

A

Lipases

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15
Q

Acetyl CoA carboxylase is globally regulated by:

A

Phosphorylation and desphosphorylation

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16
Q

Intermediates from which pathways are utilized for fatty acid synthesis

A
  • Glycolysis
  • CAC
  • PPP
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17
Q

Activation of acetyl CoA results in the production of

A

Malonyl CoA

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18
Q

Which of the following is essential fatty acid?

A

Linoleate

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19
Q

The carrier of an acyl chain through the synthetic protein complex is

A

ACP

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20
Q

Excess NH4+ is converted into urea by the_____

A

urea cycle

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21
Q

The hydrolysis of arginine by arginase produces ornithine and ______

A

Urea

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22
Q

The urea cycle id linked to gluconeogenesis via formation of _____, a precursor of glucose synthesis

A

Furmate

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23
Q

Succinyl CoA is a point of entry into the citric acid cycle of _______

A

Nonpolar Amino Acids

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24
Q

_________ transfer amino groups from an amino acid to alpha-ketogluatarate

A

Aminotransferases

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25
Q

An amino acid that serves as a nitrogen source in the synthesis of amino acids from alpha-ketoacids is ______

A

glutamate

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26
Q

The process of converting N2 to NH3 is called_____

A

Nitrogen Fixation

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27
Q

The final product pathway, which inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes its production typically, takes place at the ________ step.

A

Committed

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28
Q

Glutamine synthetase is an example of _______ inhibition

A

Cumulative Feedback

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29
Q

______ is a versatile nitrogen donor in the synthesis of a wide range of compounds

A

Glutamine

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30
Q

In the Urea cycle, the second nitrogen of urea enters the cycle in the form of which metabolite?

A

Aspartate

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31
Q

The urea cycle is

A

a way to remove excess NH4+

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32
Q

Which amino acids can be directly deaminated to produce NH4+

A

Serine and Threonine

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33
Q

In the urea cycle, free NH4+ is coupled with carboxyphosphate to form

A

Carbonic acid

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34
Q

Ketogenic amino acids are degraded to which metabolites?

A

Acetyl CoA and Acetoacetyl CoA

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35
Q

Organisms capable of carrying out reduction of atomspheric nitrogen include

A

Some bacteria

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36
Q

The carbon skeletons for amino acids are intermediates found in

A

Glycolysis, CAC, and PPP

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37
Q

Amino acids synthesized by humans are

A

nonessential amino acids

38
Q

Transaminases use what as a coenzyme

A

Pyridoxine

39
Q

3-Phosphoglycerate is the precursor for

A

Serine, Glycine, Cysteine

40
Q

In bacteria, the _________ sequence is a purine rich region that is approximately 10 base pairs upstreams of the start site and directs the protein synthesis machinery to the start site

A

Shine-Dalgarno

41
Q

________ si the initial amino acid in a bacterial protein

A

fMet

42
Q

_______ include IF1, IF2, and IF3 in prokaryotes and are required for the invitation of protein synthesis

A

Initiation factors

43
Q

G or translocase use the energy of _____ hydrolysis to move the mRNA by one codon in protein synthesis

A

GTP

44
Q

In the ribosome, A stands for _______ and P stands for_______

A

Aminoacyl and Peptidyl

45
Q

Proteins are synthesized from the ________ direction

A

amino-carboxyl

46
Q

Sixty percent of human genes are regulated by____

A

mirco RNA

47
Q

Eukaryotic mRNA is

A

circular

48
Q

Chloramphenicol acts by:

A

inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity on the 50S ribosome

49
Q

Peptide bond formation is

A

Exergonic and catalyzed by 23S RNA

50
Q

What is the direction of translation of mRNA

A

5’-3’

51
Q

Signals that define the beginning and end of protein synthesis are contained in:

A

mRNA

52
Q

What factors are necessary for the correct placement of mRNA ash initiating tRNA on the ribosome?

A

IF1, IF2, IF3

53
Q

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation differs primarily in which step?

A

initiation

54
Q

What is the order of tRNA binding sites on the 70S ribosome with respect to the 5’-3’ direction of the mRNA

A

EPA

55
Q

Elongation factor G is also called what?

A

translocase

56
Q

A group of genes under the control of a single promoter

A

Operon

57
Q

________ is a required cofactor for RNA polymerase

A

Covalent Cation

58
Q

DNA sequences that direct RNA polymerase to the initiation site are called________

A

Promoters

59
Q

Expression of B-galactosidase requires the induction of an operon by removal of a______

A

repressor

60
Q

Promoter sites in E.Coli are located _____ and ______ nucleotides upstream of the start site

A

-10 and -35

61
Q

The first step of transcription in eukaryotes depends on the ______ subunit of RNA polymerase

A

Sigma

62
Q

Cis-acting elements that have no promoter activity but can stimulate the effectiveness of promoters are called _______

A

enhancers

63
Q

The enzyme that removes the acetyl group for a lysine of a histone is called_______

A

histone deacetylase

64
Q

In eukaryotes, transcription is initiated by the binding of a transcription factor to the _____ box, which is located -24 and -32 upstream of the initiation site

A

TATA

65
Q

The nuclear membrane is important in gene expression because it separates the processes of ______ from that of ______

A

Transcription and Translation

66
Q

In prokaryotes function of RNA Polymerase are

A
  • Searching for promoter sites
  • unwinding short stretches of DNA
  • detecting termination signals
67
Q

The pribnow box is:

A

the site where promoters bind

68
Q

The protein that binds DNA sequences and helps RNA polymerase initiate transcription is

A

sigma

69
Q

In transcription, the 3’ hydroxyl group

A

attacks the alpha-phosphoryl group on an incoming nucleotide

70
Q

In E.coli what proteins are synthesized when B-galactosidase is synthesized?

A
  • sigma 70 of RNA Polymerase
  • RNA helicase
  • Fibonuclease
  • galactoside permease
71
Q

In eukaryotes RNA polymerase II

A
  • is sensitive to alpha-amanitin

- catalyzes mRNA synthesis

72
Q

In eukaryotes enhancer sites are often located

A

at a distance from the transcription start site

73
Q

Differential gene expression is caused by

A

control of transcription

74
Q

Cis-acting elements

A

are DNA sequences the regulate expression

75
Q

Noncoding regions of RNA are called

A

intron RNA

76
Q

RNA polymerase I is responsible for the transcription of

A

18S rRNA and 28S rRNA

77
Q

What modifications are made to eukaryotic tRNA transcripts

A
  • Modification of base and ribose moieties
  • An intron removed by endonuclease
  • Cleavage of the 5’ leader by RNase P
  • The nucleotides CCA are added
78
Q

The 5’cap of mRNA

A
  • contains GTP in a 5’-5’ linkage

- protects mRNA

79
Q

The polypyrimidine tract

A
  • is found at the 5’ end of a junction
  • is found at the 3’ end of an intron
  • contains a stretch of 10 pyrimidines
80
Q

A spliceosome is made of

A

snRNP and snRNA

81
Q

Thallasemia can occur when there are mutation in pre-RNA or splicing factors of:

A

hemoglobin beta

82
Q

Ribozymes are

A

RNA

83
Q

The carboy-terminal domain of RNA polymerase II

A

Binds factors need for pre-mRNA capping, splicing, and polyadenylation

84
Q

A mutation in an enzyme that catalyzes a transesterification reaction would inhibit

A

mRNA splicing

85
Q

Nearly all mRNA precursors in higher eukaryotes are modified by

A

Splicing

86
Q

_________ catalyzes the synthesis of precursors for tRNA

A

RNA polymerase III

87
Q

Recognition of the 5’ splicing site by ____ is the first step in splicing

A

U1

88
Q

Self-splicing by RNA requires a ______ cofactor

A

guanosine

89
Q

The immediate product go RNA polymerase II is referred to as _____

A

pre-RNA

90
Q

The ______ is the elongated sequence added to the 3’ end of mRNA

A

Poly A tail

BIO 600 (5 decks)

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