Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Prednisone

(Glucocorticoid - corticosteriod)

(Short-Med Acting)

A
  • Effect:
    • PMN increase
    • Lymphocyte/monocyte/granulocyte decrease
    • Decrease response to Ag
    • Decrease release of mediators (IL1,2, TNF-a, collagenase/elastase)
    • Inhibit Phospolipase A2 and COX2
    • liver activation
  • Use:
    • allergic/hemato/collagen disorders
    • hepatic/renal dz
  • SE:
    • short = nothing; see SE card
    • long = iatrogenic Cushing’s, osteoporosis, infection, ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Methylprednisone

(Glucocorticoid - corticosteriod)

(Short-Med Acting)

A
  • Effect:
    • PMN increase
    • Lymphocyte/monocyte/granulocyte decrease
    • Decrease response to Ag
    • Decrease release of mediators (IL1,2, TNF-a, collagenase/elastase)
    • Inhibit Phospolipase A2 and COX2
  • Use:
    • allergic/hemato/collagen disorders
    • hepatic/renal dz
  • SE:
    • short = nothing
    • long = iatrogenic Cushing’s, osteoporosis, infection, ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cyclophosphamide

(Prodrug - cytotoxic/antiprolif. T/B cell)

A
  • Effect:
    • Alkylating agent, signal 3 inhib.
    • Non-cell cycle spec
    • Inhib B/T Cell (direct cytotox=immune supp.)
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Leukemia
  • SE:
    • Short term = N/V
    • Long term = Bone Marrow Supp. (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia)
    • Derm (alopecia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Azathioprine

(cytotoxic/antiprolif. T/B cell)

A
  • Effect:
    • Antimetabolite, Signal 3 inhib.
    • Cell-cycle spec
    • Inhib T > B
  • Use:
    • Renal Allotrasplant.
    • RA (ADULT ONLY)
  • SE:
    • Short term = N/V/D
    • Long term = Bone Marrow supp. (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, macrocytic anemia)
    • Infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Methotrexate

(cytotoxic/antiprolif. T/B cell)

A
  • Effect:
    • Antimetabolite, Signal 3 inhib.
    • Cell-cycle spec
    • Inhibit B/T cell
  • Use:
    • Crohn’s
    • RA
    • Leukemia
  • SE:
    • N/V
    • Bone Marrow Supp.
    • Hepatox.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mycophenolate Mofetil

(T-cell supp)

A
  • Effect:
    • Inhib Purine synth, Signal 3 inhib.
    • Inhibit B/T cell
  • Use:
    • Kidney/Liver/Heart rejection
    • combo w/ cyclosporine/cortico
  • SE:
    • GI
    • neutropenia
    • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cyclosporine

(T-cell supp)

A
  • Effect:
    • Inhibit calcineurin and Signal 1
    • T-cell supp.
  • Use:
    • Kidney/Liver/Heart rejection
    • w/ cortico/azathiprine
    • RA
  • SE:
    • Nephrotox
    • HTN
    • Embryotox
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Muromonab-CD3

(Murine - T-cell supp)

A
  • Effect:
    • Inhibit CD3R and Signal 1
    • T-cell supp.
  • Use:
    • Kidney/Liver/Pancreas/Heart rejection
  • SE:
    • Fever/Chills
    • Murine sensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lymphocyte Immune Globulin

(Horse - T-cell supp)

A
  • Effects:
    • T-cell supp.
  • Use:
    • Kidney rejection
  • SE:
    • fever/chills
    • horse sensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Daclizumab

(Human - T-cell supp)

A
  • Effect:
    • Inhibit IL-2R and Signal 3
  • Use:
    • Kidney rejection
  • SE:
    • GI dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

RHO Immune Globulin

(Human - Ab immunosupp.)

A
  • Effect:
    • Supp immune response to Rh+ RBCs
  • Use:
    • prevent erythroblastosis fetalis
  • SE:
    • mild
    • contra for Rh+ pts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Immune Globulin

(Human - Replacement tx)

A
  • Effects:
    • increase passive immunity
  • Use:
    • Hypogammaglobulinemia
    • Prevent infections in HIV+
  • SE:
    • mild
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Interferon Beta-1b

(Immunomodulators)

A
  • Effects:
    • Antiviral/Immunoregulatory
  • Use:
    • MS (relapsing-remitting)
  • SE:
    • Flu-like S/S
    • depression/suicide
    • injection site rxn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Interferon Gamma

(Immunomodulators)

A
  • Effects:
    • activate phagocytic activity
    • Ab-dependent cytotox.
  • Use:
    • chronic granulomatous dz
    • osteoporosis
  • SE:
    • Flu-like S/S
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acetyl Salicylic Acid

(Salicylic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • pKa = 3.5 (acidic)
  • Abs favored in SI b/c large SA (even though not favored by kinetics)
  • Kidney excretion; if you increase urine pH = increase excretion
  • Effects:
    • Irreversible COX 1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • Analgesic
    • Anitpyretic
    • Antiinflamm
    • Antirheumatic
    • prevent A/V thrombosis
  • SE:
    • GI - inhibit COX1 .: no PGs (protection) leads to S/S
    • Tinnitus
    • Heptic
    • Renal ischemia due to PG inhibition
    • Decrease Hct/Fe serum conc. + decrease RBC lifespan
    • Hypersensativity - urticaria/angioedema
    • Reye’s (children)
  • Rx Interactions
    • protein bound
    • anticoagulants
    • corticosteroids
    • NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diflunisal

(Salicylic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effects:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibit
  • Use:
    • Analgesic (acute/chronic mild-mod)
    • Antiinflamm
    • RA/Osteoarthritis
  • SE:
    • Mild GI
    • HA
    • Renal
    • Hypersensativity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Indomethacin

(Acetic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effects:
    • Reversible COX 1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
    • Tocolytic agent
  • SE:
    • Severe GI
    • Prolong Gestation
    • Renal
    • HA + aggrevated depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Etodolac

(Acetic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effects:
    • COX 2 > COX 1 inhibition
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
    • Post op analgesia (6-8h)
  • SE:
    • GI (Less severe)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Diclofenac

(Acetic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effect:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
    • Analgesia/Dysmenorrhea
  • SE:
    • GI
    • Dizziness + HA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tolmetin

(Acetic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effect:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • JRA
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
  • SE:
    • GI
    • HA
    • anaphylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ketorolac

(Acetic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effect:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • Mod-sev acute pain
  • SE:
    • GI
    • HA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ibuprofen

(Proprionic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effect:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
    • Analgesia
    • Dysmenorrhea
    • Fever
  • SE:
    • Mild GI
    • Ocular dysfunction
    • Rash/Dermatitis
    • Contra: preggo/milking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Naproxen

(Proprionic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effects:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • JRA
    • RA
    • Osteoarthiritis
    • Anagesia
    • Dysmenorrhea
  • SE:
    • Mild GI
    • HA
    • Hypersensitivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Ketoprofen

(Proprionic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effects:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
    • Analgesia
    • Dysmenorrhea
  • SE:
    • GI - 30% of pts
    • HA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Oxaprozin

(Proprionic Acid Deriv.)

A
  • Effects:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition - Used Once daily
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
  • SE:
    • GI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Piroxicam

(Enolic Acid Deriv. - Oxicams)

A
  • Effects:
    • Reversible COX1/2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
  • SE:
    • GI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Meloxicam

(Enolic Acid Deriv. - Oxicams)

A
  • Effects:
    • Reversible COX 2 > 1 inhibition
  • Use:
    • Osteoarthritis
  • SE:
    • GI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Nabumetone

(Non-acidic)

A
  • Effect:
    • Reversible COX 2 > 1 inhibition
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Osteoarthritis
  • SE:
    • GI
    • HA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Celecoxib

(COX-2 Inhibitor)

A
  • Effect:
    • Selective COX 2 inhibition
  • Use:
    • Osteoarthritis
    • RA
    • dysmenorrhea
    • acute pain
    • familial adenomatous polyposis
  • SE (all minor):
    • GI (less than COX 1 inhibitors)
    • HA and dizziness
    • Respiratory
    • Rash
    • Sulfonamide allergy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acetaminophen

A
  • Effect:
    • analgesia (increase pain threshold)
    • weak COX1/2 inhibition
    • antipyresis via reg. @ hypothalamic heat-reg center
  • Use:
    • analgesia
    • antipyretic
    • Osteoarthritis
  • SE:
    • Heptotox
    • Nephrotox
    • Rash (minor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Epinephrine

(Adrenergic Bronchodilator)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bronchodilation
    • inhibit degranulation from mast cells
  • Use:
    • acute asthma attacks/asthmatic bronchospasms
    • anaphylactic reactions
  • SE:
    • CNS stimulation
    • Cardiac stimulation
    • tolerance/rebound bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Isoproterenol

(Adrenergic Bronchodilator)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bronchodilation
    • inhibit degranulation from mast cells
  • Use:
    • acute asthma attacks/asthmatic bronchospasms
    • anaphylactic reactions
  • SE:
    • CNS stimulation
    • Cardiac stimulation
    • tolerance/rebound bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Metaproterenol

(Adrenergic Bronchodilator)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bronchodilation
    • inhibit degranulation from mast cells
  • Use:
    • acute asthma attacks/asthmatic bronchospasms
    • anaphylactic reactions
  • SE:
    • CNS stimulation
    • Cardiac stimulation
    • tolerance/rebound bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Albuterol/Levalbuterol

(Adrenergic Bronchodilator)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bronchodilation
    • inhibit degranulation from mast cells
  • Use:
    • acute asthma attacks/asthmatic bronchospasms
    • anaphylactic reactions
  • SE:
    • CNS stimulation
    • Cardiac stimulation
    • tolerance/rebound bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Salmeterol

(Adrenergic Bronchodilator)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bronchodilation
    • inhibit degranulation from mast cells
  • Use:
    • acute asthma attacks/asthmatic bronchospasms
    • anaphylactic reactions
  • SE:
    • CNS stimulation
    • Cardiac stimulation
    • tolerance/rebound bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Terbutaline

(Adrenergic Bronchodilator)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bronchodilation
    • inhibit degranulation from mast cells
  • Use:
    • acute asthma attacks/asthmatic bronchospasms
    • anaphylactic reactions
  • SE:
    • CNS stimulation
    • Cardiac stimulation
    • tolerance/rebound bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pirbuterol

(Adrenergic Bronchodilator)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bronchodilation
    • inhibit degranulation from mast cells
  • Use:
    • acute asthma attacks/asthmatic bronchospasms
    • anaphylactic reactions
  • SE:
    • CNS stimulation
    • Cardiac stimulation
    • tolerance/rebound bronchospasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Theophylline

(Methylxanthine Bronchodilator)

A
  • Narrow therapeutic window
  • Not used b/c of SEs
  • Effect:
    • bronchodilation
    • inhibit mast cell degranulation
    • inhibit PDE4 -> increase cAMP in mast cell and smooth muscle
    • interact with adenosine receptors
  • Use:
    • oral in conjunction with other Rx for severe asthma
  • SE:
    • Mild: N/V, HA, insomnia, nervousness
    • Severe: arrhythmias, seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Aminophylline

(Methylxanthine Bronchodilator)

A
  • Narrow therapeutic window
  • Not used b/c of SEs
  • Effect:
    • bronchodilation
    • inhibit mast cell degranulation
    • inhibit PDE4 -> increase cAMP in mast cell and smooth muscle
    • interact with adenosine receptors
  • Use:
    • IV for severe asthma
  • SE:
    • Mild: N/V, HA, insomnia, nervousness
    • Severe: arrhythmias, seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Beclomethasone

(Corticosteroid)

A
  • Effects:
    • antiinflammatory
    • inhibit leukocyte recruitment
    • inhibit synthesis/release of PGs, TXs, leukotrienes, PAFs, etc.
    • reduce cell mediated bronchial epithelial damage
    • slow acting
  • Use:
    • prophylactic NOT acute
  • SE:
    • Cataracts (inhaled steroids)
    • Cushing Syndome
    • Immunosuppression
    • Osteoporosis
    • Peptic ulcer
    • Growth suppression in kids (systemic use)
    • Hypothalamic-Pit axis suppression
    • Menstrual/repro problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Flunisolide

(Corticosteroid)

A
  • Effects:
    • antiinflammatory
    • inhibit leukocyte recruitment
    • inhibit synthesis/release of PGs, TXs, leukotrienes, PAFs, etc.
    • reduce cell mediated bronchial epithelial damage
    • slow acting
  • Use:
    • prophylactic NOT acute
  • SE:
    • Cataracts (inhaled steroids)
    • Cushing Syndome
    • Immunosuppression
    • Osteoporosis
    • Peptic ulcer
    • Growth suppression in kids (systemic use)
    • Hypothalamic-Pit axis suppression
    • Menstrual/repro problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Triamcinolone

(Intermediate-acting Glucorticoid)

A
  • Effects:
    • antiinflammatory
    • inhibit leukocyte recruitment
    • inhibit synthesis/release of PGs, TXs, leukotrienes, PAFs, etc.
    • reduce cell mediated bronchial epithelial damage
    • slow acting
    • no mineralcorticoid activity
  • Use:
    • prophylactic NOT acute
    • intralesional
    • allergic rhinitis
    • ophthalmic
    • bronchial asthma
    • oral ulcerative lesions
    • adrenocortical insuff,
    • DZ: derm, endocrine, GI, hem/neo, NS, nephro, rheumatic , resp, SLE
  • SE:
    • Cataracts (inhaled steroids)
    • Cushing Syndome
    • Immunosuppression
    • Osteoporosis
    • Peptic ulcer
    • Growth suppression in kids (systemic use)
    • Hypothalamic-Pit axis suppression
    • Menstrual/repro problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fluticasone

A
  • Effects:
    • antiinflammatory
    • inhibit leukocyte recruitment
    • inhibit synthesis/release of PGs, TXs, leukotrienes, PAFs, etc.
    • reduce cell mediated bronchial epithelial damage
    • slow acting
  • Use:
    • prophylactic NOT acute
  • SE:
    • Cataracts (inhaled steroids)
    • Cushing Syndome
    • Immunosuppression
    • Osteoporosis
    • Peptic ulcer
    • Growth suppression in kids (systemic use)
    • Hypothalamic-Pit axis suppression
    • Menstrual/repro problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Budesonide

(Corticosteroid)

A
  • Effects:
    • antiinflammatory
    • inhibit leukocyte recruitment
    • inhibit synthesis/release of PGs, TXs, leukotrienes, PAFs, etc.
    • reduce cell mediated bronchial epithelial damage
    • slow acting
  • Use:
    • prophylactic NOT acute
  • SE:
    • Cataracts (inhaled steroids)
    • Cushing Syndome
    • Immunosuppression
    • Osteoporosis
    • Peptic ulcer
    • Growth suppression in kids (systemic use)
    • Hypothalamic-Pit axis suppression
    • Menstrual/repro problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Mometasone

(Corticosteroid)

A
  • Effects:
    • antiinflammatory
    • inhibit leukocyte recruitment
    • inhibit synthesis/release of PGs, TXs, leukotrienes, PAFs, etc.
    • reduce cell mediated bronchial epithelial damage
    • slow acting
  • Use:
    • prophylactic NOT acute
  • SE:
    • Cataracts (inhaled steroids)
    • Cushing Syndome
    • Immunosuppression
    • Osteoporosis
    • Peptic ulcer
    • Growth suppression in kids (systemic use)
    • Hypothalamic-Pit axis suppression
    • Menstrual/repro problems
46
Q

Ciclesonide

(Corticosteroid)

A
  • Effects:
    • antiinflammatory
    • inhibit leukocyte recruitment
    • inhibit synthesis/release of PGs, TXs, leukotrienes, PAFs, etc.
    • reduce cell mediated bronchial epithelial damage
    • slow acting
  • Use:
    • prophylactic NOT acute
  • SE:
    • Cataracts (inhaled steroids)
    • Cushing Syndome
    • Immunosuppression
    • Osteoporosis
    • Peptic ulcer
    • Growth suppression in kids (systemic use)
    • Hypothalamic-Pit axis suppression
    • Menstrual/repro problems
47
Q

Cromolyn Sodium

(Mast Cell Stabilizer)

A
  • Effect:
    • inhibit degranulation
  • Use:
    • prophylaxis of bronchial asthma in conjunction with other agents
    • rhinitis, conjunctivitis, GI allergies
  • SE: (rare)
    • throat irritation
    • cough
    • dry mouth
    • wheezing
    • HA
    • bronchospams
    • laryngeal edema
    • rash
48
Q

Monteleukast

(Leukotriene Modulator)

A
  • Effects:
    • Cysteinyl leukotriene receptor antagonist
  • Use:
    • oral
    • decrease frequency/severity of asthma attacks
    • Seasonal allergies
49
Q

Zafirleukast

(Leukotriene Modulator)

A
  • Effects:
    • Cysteinyl leukotriene receptor antagonist
  • Use:
    • oral
    • decrease frequency/severity of asthma attacks
    • Seasonal allergies
50
Q

Zileuton

(Leukotriene Modulator)

A
  • Effects:
    • 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor
  • Use:
    • oral
    • decrease frequency/severity of asthma attacks
    • 4x daily
  • SE:
    • Heptatotox
    • liver enzyme elevation
51
Q

Ipratropium

(Antimuscarinic)

A
  • Effect:
    • prevent Ach induced bronchospasm
    • Quarternary salt; poor abs .: few systemic effects
  • SE:
    • dry secretions
52
Q

Tiotropium

(Antimuscarinic)

A
  • Effect:
    • prevent Ach induced bronchospasm
    • COPD
  • SE:
    • dry secretions
53
Q

Aclidinium

(Antimuscarinic)

A
  • Effect:
    • prevent Ach induced bronchospasm
    • COPD
  • SE:
    • dry secretions
54
Q

Advair Diskus

(Combo prep)

A

Salmeterol + Fluticasone

55
Q

Combivent

(Combo prep)

A

Ipratropium + Albuterol

56
Q

Symbicort

(Combo prep)

A

Formoterol + Budesonide

57
Q

Dulera

(Combo prep)

A

Formoterol + Mometasone

58
Q

Omalizumab

(Anti-IgE)

A
59
Q

Diphenhydramine

(H1 Antagonist - Sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • block H1 receptors
  • Use:
    • allergies
    • rhinitis
    • dermatitis
    • NOT bronchospastic conditions
    • antiemetic - vestibular system/CRTZ
    • antitussive
    • Sedation
  • SE:
    • dry secretions
60
Q

Fexofenadine

(H1 Antagonist - Non-sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • block H1 receptors
  • Use:
    • rhinitis
    • dermatitis
    • NOT bronchospastic conditions
  • SE:
    • dry secretions
61
Q

Cetirizine

(H1 Antagonist - Non-sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • block H1 receptors
  • Use:
    • rhinitis
    • dermatitis
    • NOT bronchospastic conditions
  • SE:
    • dry secretions
62
Q

Loratidine

(H1 Antagonist - Non-sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • block H1 receptors
  • Use:
    • rhinitis
    • dermatitis
    • NOT bronchospastic conditions
  • SE:
    • dry secretions
63
Q

GLUCOCORTICOIDS

(Effects)

A
  • 2 types of negative feedback on ACTH secretion
  • enhance Glc production
  • stim hepatic gluconeogenesis
  • decrease periph Glc utilization
  • increase proteolysis/AA release (periph/intestial tissues)
  • enhance FA mobilization/lipolysis/FA + glycerol release/choleserol synth
  • potentiate adrenergic VC on small vessels
  • decrease histamine release -> decrease capillary perm.
  • increase plasma [Hb]
  • increase plasma RBCs, WBCs, PMNs
  • decrease eosinophils, basophils, monocytes, lymphocytes
  • induce lipocortin production -> inhibits phospholipase A2 => decrease PGs/Leukotrienes
  • decrease inflamm mediator release
64
Q

GLUCOCORTICOID - SE

A
  • decrease gastric mucus barrier -> bleeding/ulcers
  • Edema
  • Hyperglycemia
  • increased serum TAGs
  • hypokalema -> arrhythmias
  • metabolic alkalosis
  • hypophosphatemia ->mm weakness/cardiac dys/hemolysis
  • osteonecrosis (femoral head)
  • negative nitrogen balance
  • insomnia, inc appetite, nervousness, irritability, sleep change, psychotic episodes
  • growth supp.
  • myopathy (protein catabolism)
  • skin thinning + purpura
  • SCC/BCC
  • acne, alopecia, hypertrichosis, striae
  • Cushingoid features
  • inc IOP (decreased outflow)
  • enhanced ocular infections/perforations
  • cataracts
  • increase infection risk - reactivate TB
  • HPA supp.
  • Fetus - cross placenta = cleft palate, fetal renal hypoplasia
65
Q

Hydrocortisone

(Short-Med Acting)

A
  • GLUCOCORTICOID
  • Effect:
    • See Glucocorticoid effect card
    • strong mineralcorticoid activity
    • 1-2hr half-life
    • urine excretion
  • Use:
    • adrencortical insuff
    • anti-inflamm
    • relief of inflamm to corticosteroid responsive dermatoses
    • ulcerative colitis
  • SE:
    • See SE card
66
Q

Dexamethasone

(Long-acting Glucocorticoid)

A
  • Effect:
    • hepatic meta
    • no mineralcorticoid activity
    • 5+ hr half-life
    • urine/feces excretion
  • Use:
    • anti-inflamm
    • immunosupp.
    • Allergies
    • bacterial meningitis (before ABX)
    • collagen disorders (acute exacerbations) - SLE
    • idiopathic hemolytic anemia/ITP
    • Respiratory distress syndrome
    • conjunctivitis
    • otic inflammation
  • SE:
    • see SE card
67
Q

Metyrapone

(Glucocorticoid synth inhibitor + antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • inhibits cortisol and aldosterone
  • Use:
    • hypersecretion of adrenalcorticoids
68
Q

Ketoconazole

(Glucocorticoid synth inhibitor + antagonist + Antifungal)

A
  • Effects:
    • block all sterioid biosynthesis
  • Use:
    • Cushing’s disease
    • antifungal
    • acts synergistically w/ metyrapone
69
Q

Fludrocortisone

(mineralocorticoid agonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • control renal excretion of cations
    • promote reabsorption of Na in distal tubules - maintain blood volume
    • increase Na/K ATPase
    • enchance K/H+ excretion
    • hepatic meta
    • urine/feces excretion
    • 30min half-life
  • Use:
    • aldosterone replacement
    • Adrenocortical insuff. - Addison’s
  • SE:
    • hypokalemia
    • metabolic alkalosis
    • increase plasma volume
    • HTN/edema
    • convusions, HA, dizziness
    • acne, rash, bruising
    • growth supp.
    • HPA supp
    • hyperglycemia
    • peptic ulcer
    • mm weakness
    • cataracts
70
Q

Spironolactone

(mineralocorticoid antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • competes w/ aldosterone
    • increase Na/H2O excretion
    • conserve K/H+
    • block aldosterone @ arteriolar sm
    • hepatic meta
    • 10 min half-life
  • Use:
    • manage edema from excessive aldosterone excretion
    • HTN
    • CHF
    • 1˚ hyperaldosteronism
    • hypokalemia
    • cirrhotic liver
  • SE:
    • Edema
    • drowsy, lethargy, HA, confusion, fever, ataxia, fatigue
    • rash, urticaria, hirsutism, eosinophilia
    • gynecomasta
    • hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, dehydration
    • amenorrhea, postmenopausal bleed
    • agranulocytosis
    • hepatotox
    • increased BUN
71
Q

Doxylamine

(H1 Antagonist - Very Sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • H1 competative antagonist
    • reduce severity of histamine stim: pain, itch, flare, VD, vasc perm increase, and congestion
    • NO inhibition of mediator release
    • NO reversal of anaphylactic bronchospasm
  • Use:
    • Allergies - Rhinitis, sneezing, wheezing, itchy eye/nose/throat, dermatitis
    • Cold - nasal irritation
    • Sedation
    • decrease resp sec
    • anticholinergic - parkinson’s
  • SE:
    • anticholinergic
    • sedation, drowsy, confusion, amnesia, behavior change
    • paradoxic CNS stim (kids)
    • rash
    • interfere w/ allergy testing
72
Q

Promethazine hydrochloride

(H1 Antagonist - Very Sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • H1 competative antagonist
    • reduce severity of histamine stim: pain, itch, flare, VD, vasc perm increase, and congestion
    • NO inhibition of mediator release
    • NO reversal of anaphylactic bronchospasm
  • Use:
    • Antitussive
    • Allergies - Rhinitis, sneezing, wheezing, itchy eye/nose/throat, dermatitis
    • Cold - nasal irritation
    • Antiemetic - motion sick/vert + N/V in preggo - vestibular system/CRTZ
    • Sedation
    • decrease resp sec
    • anticholinergic - parkinson’s
  • SE:
    • anticholinergic
    • sedation, drowsy, confusion, amnesia, behavior change
    • paradoxic CNS stim (kids)
    • rash
    • interfere w/ allergy testing
73
Q

Hydroxine

(H1 Antagonist - Very Sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • H1 competative antagonist
    • reduce severity of histamine stim: pain, itch, flare, VD, vasc perm increase, and congestion
    • NO inhibition of mediator release
    • NO reversal of anaphylactic bronchospasm
  • Use:
    • Allergies - Rhinitis, sneezing, wheezing, itchy eye/nose/throat, dermatitis
    • Cold - nasal irritation
    • Antiemetic - motion sick/vert + N/V in preggo
    • Sedation
    • decrease resp sec
    • anticholinergic - parkinson’s
  • SE:
    • anticholinergic
    • sedation, drowsy, confusion, amnesia, behavior change
    • paradoxic CNS stim (kids)
    • rash
    • interfere w/ allergy testing
74
Q

Dimenhydrinate

(H1 Antagonist - Sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • H1 competative antagonist
    • reduce severity of histamine stim: pain, itch, flare, VD, vasc perm increase, and congestion
    • NO inhibition of mediator release
    • NO reversal of anaphylactic bronchospasm
  • Use:
    • Allergies - Rhinitis, sneezing, wheezing, itchy eye/nose/throat, dermatitis
    • Cold - nasal irritation
    • Antiemetic - vestibular system/CRTZ
    • decrease resp sec
    • anticholinergic - parkinson’s
  • SE:
    • anticholinergic
    • sedation, drowsy, confusion, amnesia, behavior change
    • paradoxic CNS stim (kids)
    • rash
    • interfere w/ allergy testing
75
Q

Chlorpheniamine maleate

(H1 Antagonist - Sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • H1 competative antagonist
    • reduce severity of histamine stim: pain, itch, flare, VD, vasc perm increase, and congestion
    • NO inhibition of mediator release
    • NO reversal of anaphylactic bronchospasm
  • Use:
    • Allergies - Rhinitis, sneezing, wheezing, itchy eye/nose/throat, dermatitis
    • Cold - nasal irritation
    • decrease resp sec
    • anticholinergic - parkinson’s
  • SE:
    • anticholinergic
    • sedation, drowsy, confusion, amnesia, behavior change
    • paradoxic CNS stim (kids)
    • rash
    • interfere w/ allergy testing
76
Q

Meclizine

(H1 Antagonist - Sedating)

A
  • Effect:
    • H1 competative antagonist
    • reduce severity of histamine stim: pain, itch, flare, VD, vasc perm increase, and congestion
    • NO inhibition of mediator release
    • NO reversal of anaphylactic bronchospasm
  • Use:
    • Allergies - Rhinitis, sneezing, wheezing, itchy eye/nose/throat, dermatitis
    • Cold - nasal irritation
    • Antiemetic - motion sick/vert - vestibular system/CRTZ
    • decrease resp sec
    • anticholinergic - parkinson’s
  • SE:
    • anticholinergic
    • sedation, drowsy, confusion, amnesia, behavior change
    • paradoxic CNS stim (kids)
    • rash
    • interfere w/ allergy testing
77
Q

Cimetidine

(H2 - Antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • competative H2 antagonist - inhibit gastric acid sec. (response to vagal stim, gastrin, stress)
  • Use:
    • duo/gastric/stress ulcer
    • GERD
    • ZES
    • pre-op; dec aspiration damage
  • SE:
    • HA, dizzy, nausea, rash, itching (elderly w/ renal dz)
    • antiandrogenic - dec. libido, impotence, gynecomastia
    • cytopenias
    • increase [creatinine]
    • Drug interactions: inhibit hepatic microsomal drug enzymes and alter gastric pH
78
Q

Ranitidine

(H2 - Antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • competative H2 antagonist - inhibit gastric acid sec. (response to vagal stim, gastrin, stress)
  • Use:
    • duo/gastric/stress ulcer
    • GERD
    • ZES
    • pre-op; dec aspiration damage
  • SE:
    • HA, dizzy, nausea, rash, itching (elderly w/ renal dz)
    • Drug interactions: inhibit hepatic microsomal drug enzymes and alter gastric pH
79
Q

Famotidine

(H2 - Antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • competative H2 antagonist - inhibit gastric acid sec. (response to vagal stim, gastrin, stress)
  • Use:
    • duo/gastric/stress ulcer
    • GERD
    • ZES
    • pre-op; dec aspiration damage
  • SE:
    • HA, dizzy, nausea, rash, itching (elderly w/ renal dz)
    • Drug interactions: inhibit hepatic microsomal drug enzymes and alter gastric pH
80
Q

Nizatidine

(H2 - Antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • competative H2 antagonist - inhibit gastric acid sec. (response to vagal stim, gastrin, stress)
  • Use:
    • duo/gastric/stress ulcer
    • GERD
    • ZES
    • pre-op; dec aspiration damage
  • SE:
    • HA, dizzy, nausea, rash, itching (elderly w/ renal dz)
    • Drug interactions: inhibit hepatic microsomal drug enzymes and alter gastric pH
81
Q

Scopolamine

A
  • Transderm prep - prevents some SEs
  • Effects:
    • antimuscarinic
    • act on vestibular system
  • Use:
    • vertigo and motion sickness
  • SE:
    • anticholinergic
    • sedation, confusion, amnesia
82
Q

Prochlorperazine

(phenothiazine)

A

antiemetic

83
Q

Metoclopramide

A
  • Effect:
    • DA antagonist @ CRTZ
    • increase GI tone and motility
    • increase tone of lower eso sphincter
  • Use:
    • antiemetic - chemo/radiation
    • GERD
    • preop - aspiration vomitus
  • SE:
    • sedation
    • extrapyramidal motor dys
84
Q

Ondansetron

(5-HT3 antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • depress CRTZ
    • inhibit seratonin med aff input to GI
  • Use:
    • antiemetic - chemo and postop N/V
  • SE:
    • drug interaction - hepatic enzyme meta
    • HA
    • Constipation
85
Q

Granisetron

(5-HT3 antagonist)

A
  • Effect:
    • depress CRTZ
    • inhibit seratonin med aff input to GI
  • Use:
    • antiemetic - chemo and postop N/V
  • SE:
    • drug interaction - hepatic enzyme meta
    • HA
    • Constipation
86
Q

Dronabinol

(THC)

A
  • Use:
    • antiemetic - chemo
  • SE:
    • sedation
    • confusion
    • disorientation
    • Loss of control
    • altered sensation
    • paranoia
    • pyschosis
    • Munchies! - good and bad
87
Q

Aprepitant

A
  • expensive
  • Effect:
    • P/neurokinin receptor (NK1) antagonist
    • inhibit gastric motility and fxn
  • Use:
    • antiemetic - chemo
  • SE:
    • well tolerated
88
Q

Opioid - Codeine/Hydrocodone

A
  • Use:
    • most effective antitussive
    • lower dose than analgesic
  • SE:
    • sedation
    • light headedness
    • confusion
    • nausea
    • dizzy
    • constipation
    • Abuse potential - dependence
89
Q

Dextromethorphan

A
  • Non-opiod
  • Effect:
    • block NMDA receptors in cough center
  • Use:
    • antitussive - mild/mod
    • lower abuse potential than codeine
  • SE:
    • Mild: sedation, dizzy, confusion
90
Q

Benzonatate

A
  • Effect:
    • local anesthetic - desens. receptors in airway
    • some effect @ cough center
  • Use:
    • antitussive
  • SE:
    • Mild: constipation, nasal congestion, nausea, drowsy, rash
91
Q

Guaifenesin

(Expectorant)

A
  • Effect:
    • irritate GI -> activate reflexes -> increase mucus in airway
  • Use:
    • antitussive
92
Q

Acetylcysteine

(Mucolytic)

A
  • Effect:
    • break mucus plug
    • disrupt disulfide link -> decrease viscosity
  • Use:
    • antitussive
    • following: surgery, tracheotomy, severe bronch., emphysema
    • Acetaminophen antidote
93
Q

Hydroxychloroquine sulfate

(Non-biologic DMARD)

A
  • Effect:
    • rapid GI abs
    • Half-life: 6-7d
    • deposit in tissues (eyes, brain, liver, spleen, lung, kidney, heart)
  • Use:
    • 2nd-line for moderate RA w/ methotrexate
    • SLE
    • Antimalarial
  • SE:
    • Ocular Tox
    • pigmentation/psoriasis
    • Contra: Preggo
    • hypersensativity
94
Q

Sulfasalzine

(Non-biologic DMARD)

A
  • Effect:
    • Immunosupp.
    • CT affinity
    • High conc. in liver/intestines
  • Use:
    • RA w/ hydroxychloroquine + parentral gold + methotrexate
    • Chronic ulcerative colitis
  • SE:
    • reversible neutropenia
    • Anorexia
    • HA
    • vomiting
    • gastric distress
95
Q

Leflunomide

(Non-biologic DMARD)

A
  • Effect:
    • inhibit pyrimidine synth
    • inhibit dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
  • Use:
    • RA (adult)
  • SE:
    • Diarrhea
    • elevated ALT/AST
    • immunosuppression
    • rash/alopecia
96
Q

Etanercept

(Biologic DMARD)

A
  • Effect:
    • Bind TNF a/b; inhibit receptor binding
    • mod TNF dependent activities
  • Use:
    • RA
    • JRA
    • combo w/ methotrexate
  • SE:
    • hypersensativity
    • discontinue in pt w/ sepsis/infections
97
Q

Infliximab

(Biologic DMARD)

A
  • Effect:
    • Neutralize TNF-a NOT b
    • inhibit TNF-a dep activities
  • Use:
    • RA
    • Crohn’s
    • combo w/ methotrexate
  • SE:
    • hypersensativity
    • immunosupp.
    • infection
    • HACA Abs
98
Q

Levothyroxine

(Hypothyroidism)

A
  • Effect:
    • T4 converted to T3 in periph.
    • increase dose for preggos or pts on estrogen tx
  • Use:
    • hypothyroidism
99
Q

131I

(Hyperthyroidism)

A
  • Effect:
    • thyroid uptakes radioisotope -> damages tissue
  • Use:
    • Hyperthyroidism
    • thyroid cancer
  • SE:
    • low cancer risk
    • contra: nursing mommies
100
Q

Propylthiouracil

(Hyperthyroidism)

A
  • Effect:
    • inhibit iodination reactions (3rd step)
    • Inhibit iodotyrosines (4th step)
    • does not inhibit release of preformed T3/T4
    • block T4->T3 conversion: periph effects before T3/T4 depletion
  • Use:
    • hyperthyroidism
    • good for preggos - more protein binding
  • SE:
    • Rash
    • arthralgia
    • heptatotox - minor/reversible
    • Agranulocytosis - fatal
    • vasculitis - rare
    • lupus rxn - rare
101
Q

Methimazole

(Hyperthyroidism)

A
  • Effect:
    • inhibit iodination reactions (3rd step)
    • Inhibit iodotyrosines (4th step)
    • does not inhibit release of preformed T3/T4
  • Use:
    • hyperthyroidism
    • periph effects before T3/T4 depletion
  • SE:
    • Rash
    • arthralgia
    • heptatotox - minor/reversible
    • Agranulocytosis - less than PTU
    • vasculitis - rare
    • lupus rxn - rare
102
Q

KI (Lugol’s Solution)

(Hyperthyroidism)

A
  • Effects:
    • 5% iodine + 10% K
    • competative uptake of Iodine
    • inhibit hormone synth (block 1st step)
    • inhibit release of preformed hormone (6th step)
  • Use:
    • radioactive disaster
    • conjunction w/thionamides
    • temporary effects
    • thyroid storm tx
  • SE:
    • Rash
    • salivary gland swelling
    • metallic taste
    • sore teeth
103
Q

Alendronate

(Osteoporosis, Paget’s)

A
  • Effects:
    • inhibit bone resorption w/o impairing mineralization
  • Use:
    • Paget’s - last for mos, good pain reduction
    • osteoporosis - increased bone density/decrease fractures
  • SE:
    • GI distress
    • esophageal erosion
    • take w/ large glass of H2O + sit upright for 30 min
104
Q

Risedronate

(Osteoporosis)

A
  • Effects:
    • binds hydroxyapetite in bone - decrease turnover
  • Use:
    • Paget’s - increase bone density
    • osteoporosis
  • SE:
    • GI distress
    • esophageal erosion
    • Take w/ large glass H2O + sit upright for 30 min
105
Q

Ibandronate

(Osteoporosis)

A
  • Effects:
    • decrease bone turnover
  • Use:
    • 1x/mo dose
    • osteoporosis
  • SE:
    • GI distress
    • Esophageal erosion
    • high dose - constipation, flu-like S/S, extremity pain
106
Q

Zoledronic Acid

(Osteoporosis, Hypercalcemia, Paget’s)

A
  • Effects:
    • very potent osteoclast inhibitor
  • Use:
    • IV - 1x/y
  • SE:
    • fever
    • N/V/D
    • constipation
    • GI pain
    • osteonecrosis of jaw
107
Q

Teriparatide

(Osteoporosis)

A
  • Effects:
    • PTH - increase osteoblast activity -> increase Ca deposition
    • increase bone formation in spine and femoral neck
  • Use:
    • osteoporosis
    • SubQ injection, 1x/d, expensive
  • SE:
    • osteosarcoma
    • nausea
    • dizziness
    • leg cramps
108
Q

Raloxifene

(Osteoporosis)

A
  • Effect:
    • selective estrogen receptor modulation - bone agonist and breast/uterus antagonist (no cancer risk)
  • Use:
    • osteoporosis
    • postmenopasual women
  • SE:
    • venous thromboembolism
109
Q

Calcitriol

(Osteoporosis, Hypoparathyroidism)

A
  • Effects:
    • potent VitD metabolite - increase Ca abs and decrease Ca/phos excretion
    • decrease bone resorption
    • promote osteoblast precursor cell recruitment
  • Use:
    • osteoporosis - decrease fractures
    • hypoparathyroidism
    • No kidney/liver activation
110
Q

Calcitonin

(Hypercalcemia, Paget’s)

A
  • Effects:
    • inhibit osteolysis (decrease serum Ca) and increase Ca excretion
    • from salmon or human
  • Use:
    • hypercalcemia
    • Paget’s
    • postmenopausal osteoporosis
  • SE:
    • well tolerated
    • rash
    • vomit
    • facial flushing (salmon version b/c of Ab against salmon)
111
Q

Pamidronate

(Hypercalcemia)

A
  • Effect:
    • bisphosphonate substitute - decrease bone turnover
  • Use:
    • hypercalcemia of malignancy
    • decrease bone pain/fracture in MM and metastatic breast cancer
    • injection; expensive
  • SE:
    • Nausea
    • anorexia
    • leukopenia
    • injection site rxn

Pharmacology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions