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Advanced Patho > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is primary dysmenorrhea attributed to?

A

Excessive endometrial prostaglandin production

Primary dysmenorrhea causes painful periods and is linked to increased prostaglandin levels.

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2
Q

What are common causes of secondary dysmenorrhea?

A
  • Endometriosis
  • Endometritis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease
  • Uterine fibroids
  • Polyps
  • Tumors
  • Ovarian cysts
  • Intrauterine devices (IUDs)

Secondary dysmenorrhea results from pelvic pathologic conditions.

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3
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

The presence of functioning endometrial tissue or implants outside the uterus

Common sites include pelvic peritoneum, ovaries, and uterosacral ligaments.

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4
Q

What are the common symptoms of endometriosis?

A
  • Pain
  • Infertility
  • Dysmenorrhea
  • Dysuria
  • Dyspareunia
  • Constipation
  • Abnormal vaginal bleeding

Symptoms vary in frequency and severity.

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5
Q

What defines Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)?

A

At least two of the following three features: * Irregular ovulation * Elevated levels of androgens * Appearance of polycystic ovaries on ultrasound

PCOS is a leading cause of infertility in the United States.

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6
Q

What is a major risk factor for infertility associated with PCOS?

A

Glucose intolerance/insulin resistance

Insulin resistance can worsen hyperandrogenic states.

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7
Q

What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

A

An acute inflammatory process caused by infection

PID can lead to scarring, adhesions, and obstruction of fallopian tubes.

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8
Q

What are two sexually transmitted infectious causes of PID?

A
  • Gonorrhea
  • Chlamydia

These infections can lead to significant reproductive health issues.

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9
Q

What is Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

Present in what percentage of PID cases?

A

A noninflammatory condition resulting from an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria

BV can cause malodorous vaginal discharge and is present in up to 66% of PID cases.

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10
Q

What is Pelvic Organ Prolapse (POP)?

This affects what percentage of women on examination?

A

The descent of one or more pelvic structures: the vaginal wall, uterus, or apex of the vagina

More than 50% of women have some version of POP on examination.

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11
Q

What is a cystocele?

Symptoms?

A

Descent of a portion of the posterior bladder wall and trigone into the vaginal canal

Symptoms include urinary issues and pelvic discomfort.

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12
Q

What is a rectocele?

What causes exacerbation?

A

The bulging of the rectum and posterior vaginal wall into the vaginal canal

Childbirth may increase damage associated with rectocele.

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13
Q

What is a spermatocele?

A

Benign cystic collections of fluid in the epididymis located between the head of the epididymis and the testis

Spermatoceles are filled with milky fluid that contains sperm.

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14
Q

What is ovarian cancer often referred to as?

A

The ‘silent killer’

Ovarian cancer is commonly asymptomatic until large tumors are present.

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15
Q

What genetic predispositions are associated with ovarian cancer?

A
  • BRCA1
  • BRCA2

Genetic factors contribute to the risk of developing ovarian cancer.

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16
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer?

A
  • Age
  • Gender
  • Family history
  • Genetic factors (BRCA1 and BRCA2)
  • Environmental factors (smoking, alcohol, obesity)

Environmental and lifestyle factors can increase breast cancer risk.

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17
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

A

Enlargement of the prostate due to nodular hyperplasia and glandular cell enlargement

BPH can lead to bladder outflow obstruction.

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18
Q

What is the most common type of prostate cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Prostate cancer is usually androgen-dependent and develops in the peripheral prostate.

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19
Q

What are the first manifestations of prostate cancer?

A
  • Slow urinary stream
  • Hesitancy
  • Incomplete emptying
  • Frequency
  • Nocturia
  • Dysuria

Symptoms progress and do not remit unlike BPH-related symptoms.

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20
Q

What does erectile dysfunction (ED) often indicate?

A

Endothelial damage

ED might be the first symptom of underlying vascular issues.

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21
Q

What is infertility defined as?

It affects what percentage of couples?

A

The inability to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse

Infertility affects approximately 15% of all couples.

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22
Q

What is gonorrhea caused by?

What type of bacteria presentation?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Gonorrhea is a gram-negative diplococcus that can be asymptomatic in many cases.

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23
Q

What is chlamydia caused by?

A

C. trachomatis

Chlamydia is responsible for several syndromes, including nongonococcal urethritis.

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24
Q

What is the primary treatment for neonatal conjunctivitis caused by gonorrhea?

A

Systemic treatment is indicated for all newborns with known exposure - erythromycin eye drops (?)

Topical antibiotics may not be effective in eliminating neonatal infection.

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25
Q

What are some syndromes caused by C. trachomatis?

A
  • Acute urethral syndrome
  • Nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)
  • Mucopurulent cervicitis
  • Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

Chlamydia is a leading cause of preventable infertility and ectopic pregnancy.

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26
Q

What is the most common sexually transmitted virus in the United States?

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

HPV infection is the most common symptomatic viral STI in teens and young adults.

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27
Q

What percentage of healthy individuals will spontaneously eliminate HPV?

A

70%

Most cases of HPV are transient.

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28
Q

What characterizes obstructive pulmonary diseases?

A

Airway obstruction is worse with expiration

Infiltration of the lung by inflammatory cells and cytokine release are involved.

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29
Q

What is the most common type of asthma?

A

Allergic asthma

Early asthmatic response involves antigen exposure to bronchial mucosa.

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30
Q

What is Status Asthmaticus?

A

Severe bronchospasms leading to respiratory failure

It results in increased CO2 retention and respiratory acidosis.

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31
Q

What defines chronic bronchitis?

A

Hypersecretion of mucus and chronic productive cough for at least 3 months for 2 consecutive years

Continual bronchial inflammation causes bronchial edema.

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32
Q

What is emphysema characterized by?

A

Destruction of alveoli walls through breakdown of elastin

This leads to air trapping and hyperexpansion of the chest.

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33
Q

What causes cor pulmonale?

A

Hypoxemia and hypercapnia leading to pulmonary vasoconstriction

It results in hypertrophy and dilation of the right ventricle.

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34
Q

What are common examples of restrictive lung diseases?

A
  • Aspiration
  • Pulmonary edema
  • Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
  • Pneumoconiosis

These diseases are characterized by decreased compliance of the lungs.

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35
Q

What is the most common cause of pulmonary embolism (PE)?

A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

The first symptom in 25% of people with PE is death.

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36
Q

What are the two main categories of lung cancer?

A
  • Non–Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC)
  • Small Cell Lung Carcinomas (SCLCs)

NSCLC includes squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, and large cell carcinoma.

37
Q

What is the characteristic growth pattern of small cell lung carcinomas?

A

Rapid growth and early metastasis

This type has the worst prognosis of all lung cancers.

38
Q

What are common risk factors for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?

A
  • Low-birth weight
  • Large family size
  • Lower socioeconomic status
  • Sleeping on soft bedding
  • Parental smoking

Education is key to prevention.

39
Q

What causes gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

A

Reflux of acid and pepsin from the stomach to the esophagus

Abnormalities in lower esophageal sphincter function and esophageal motility can contribute.

40
Q

What is the most common cause of duodenal ulcers?

A

Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection

NSAID use can also contribute to duodenal ulcers.

41
Q

What distinguishes gastric ulcers from duodenal ulcers?

A

Gastric ulcers occur due to increased permeability to hydrogen ions

Duodenal ulcers are more common and usually occur in younger individuals.

42
Q

What characterizes ulcerative colitis?

A

Begins in the rectum and may extend proximally to the entire colon

Lesions are limited to the mucosal epithelium.

43
Q

What is the typical age range for the onset of ulcerative colitis?

A

10-40 years

44
Q

What is the typical age range for the onset of Crohn’s disease?

A

10-30 years

45
Q

True or False: Family history is more common in Crohn’s disease than in ulcerative colitis.

A

True

46
Q

In ulcerative colitis, the lesions are limited to which layer?

A

Mucosal layer

47
Q

In Crohn’s disease, what type of lesions are commonly found?

A

Skip lesions

48
Q

What are the common clinical manifestations of ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhea
  • Bloody stools
49
Q

True or False: Small intestinal malabsorption is common in ulcerative colitis.

A

False

50
Q

What complication can occur due to diverticular disease?

A
  • Abscess
  • Fistula
  • Obstruction
  • Bleeding
  • Perforation
51
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

An irreversible inflammatory, fibrotic liver disease

52
Q

What is the primary cause of alcoholic cirrhosis?

A

Toxic effects of alcohol metabolism

53
Q

What is nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) associated with?

A
  • Obesity
  • Insulin resistance
  • High cholesterol
  • Metabolic syndrome
  • Type 2 diabetes mellitus
54
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A

Increased pressure in the portal venous system

55
Q

What is a common complication of portal hypertension?

A
  • Esophageal varices
  • Ascites
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
56
Q

What causes cholelithiasis?

A

Impaired metabolism of cholesterol, bilirubin, and bile acid

57
Q

What is acute pancreatitis often caused by?

A

Reflux of bile acid into the pancreatic duct

58
Q

What is the most common craniofacial malformation in newborns?

A

Cleft lip and cleft palate

59
Q

What is infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (IHPS)?

A

Acquired narrowing and distal obstruction of the pylorus

60
Q

What is Hirschsprung disease?

A

Congenital absence of parasympathetic plexuses in the colon

61
Q

What is intussusception?

A

Telescoping of a portion of the intestine into another

62
Q

Common clinical manifestations of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in older adults include?

A
  • Confusion
  • Poorly localized abdominal discomfort
63
Q

What is painful bladder syndrome (PBS) also known as?

A

Interstitial cystitis (IC)

64
Q

What is the most common type of kidney stone?

A

Calcium oxalate

65
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis (AG) is commonly caused by which factors?

A
  • Infection
  • Ischemia
  • Free radicals
  • Drugs
  • Toxins
  • Vascular disorders
66
Q

What do microorganisms split urea into, and what effect does this have on urine?

A

Ammonia, making alkaline urine that increases the risk of stone formation

67
Q

What are common causes of Acute Glomerulonephritis (AG)?

A
  • Infection
  • Ischemia
  • Free radicals
  • Drugs
  • Toxins
  • Vascular disorders
68
Q

What is the most common type of immune injury in AG?

A

Related to antigen-antibody complexes in the glomerulus

69
Q

What are severe symptoms of Acute Glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Sudden onset of hematuria
  • Red blood cell casts
  • Proteinuria
  • Edema
  • Hypertension
  • Impaired renal function
70
Q

What is Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?

A

A rapid and potentially reversible decline in renal function

71
Q

What eGFR level indicates renal insufficiency?

A

25 to 30 ml/minute

72
Q

What is the most common reason for prerenal AKI?

A

Inadequate kidney perfusion

73
Q

List some causes of prerenal AKI.

A
  • Hypovolemia
  • Reduced cardiac output
  • Systemic hypotension
  • Acute myocardial infarction
74
Q

What are some causes of intrarenal AKI?

A
  • Renal vein thrombosis
  • Renal artery stenosis
  • Acute tubular necrosis
  • Immune-complex diseases
75
Q

What characterizes postrenal AKI?

A

Disorders associated with urinary tract obstruction

76
Q

What systemic diseases are associated with Chronic Kidney Failure (CKD)?

A
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Hypertension
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
77
Q

What are two factors that advance renal disease in CKD?

A
  • Proteinuria
  • Angiotensin II activity
78
Q

What is the role of erythropoietin (EPO) in the kidneys?

A

Stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells

79
Q

What accelerates hypocalcemia in CKD?

A

Impaired renal synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxy-vitamin D

80
Q

What triggers secondary hyperparathyroidism in CKD?

A

Decreased calcium levels

81
Q

What develops when GFR decreases to less than 20-25% of normal in ESRF?

A

Metabolic acidosis

82
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Condition when the urethral meatus is located on the ventral portion of the penis

83
Q

What is vesicoureteral reflux (VUR)?

A

Urine sweeps up into the ureter and flows back into the bladder

84
Q

What are the primary causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Membranous glomerulonephritis
  • Minimal change disease
85
Q

What is the characteristic protein excretion level in nephrotic syndrome?

A

3.0 g or more of protein in the urine per day

86
Q

What are the consequences of hypoalbuminemia in nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Decreased serum protein
  • Edema
87
Q

What causes hyperlipidemia in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Decreased catabolism of lipids due to reduced concentration of lipoprotein lipase

88
Q

Fill in the blank: The basement membrane in the kidney’s glomerulus becomes abnormally ______ in nephrotic syndrome.

A

permeable

Advanced Patho (4 decks)

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