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Advanced Patho > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is poikilocytosis?

A

Red blood cells have abnormal shapes.

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2
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

Red blood cells (RBCs) abnormal sizes.

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3
Q

Define anemia.

A

A reduction in the total number of erythrocytes in the circulating blood or a decrease in the quality or quantity of hemoglobin.

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4
Q

What are the common causes of anemia?
(4)

A
  • Impaired erythrocyte production
  • Blood loss (acute or chronic)
  • Increased erythrocyte destruction
  • Combination of these factors
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5
Q

What characterizes megaloblastic anemias?

A

Red blood cells are abnormally large and underdeveloped due to impaired DNA synthesis during production.

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6
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

A type of megaloblastic anemia caused by vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor.

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7
Q

What is intrinsic factor (IF)?

A

A glycoprotein produced in the stomach that binds to vitamin B12 (cobalamin) for intestinal absorption.

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8
Q

What are microcytic-hypochromic anemias characterized by?

A

Abnormally small erythrocytes with reduced amounts of hemoglobin.

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9
Q

What is the most common nutritional disorder of microcytic-hypochromic anemia?

A

Iron deficiency anemia.

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10
Q

Iron deficiency anemia can arise from _______ or _______ .

A

Excessive blood loss
Inadequate dietary intake

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11
Q

What causes aplastic anemia?
(3)

A

Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis
Chemical agent exposure
Unknown / idiopathic

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12
Q

What is sickle cell disease?

A

A group of inherited disorders affecting hemoglobin, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped.

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13
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

An acquired syndrome characterized by widespread activation of coagulation, leading to clot formation and risk of hemorrhage.

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14
Q

What are the hallmark cells of Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hodgkin and Reed-Sternberg (HRS) cells.

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15
Q

What is hereditary hemochromatosis (HH)?

A

An inherited condition characterized by iron accumulation in tissues and organs.

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16
Q

What are the most prevalent types of hemophilia?

A
  • Hemophilia A (factor VIII deficiency)
  • Hemophilia B (factor IX deficiency)
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17
Q

What is psoriasis?

A

A chronic immune-mediated inflammatory disorder affecting skin, scalp, and nails.

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18
Q

What causes Lyme disease?

A

The spirochete Borreliella burgdorferi transmitted by Ixodes tick bites.

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19
Q

True or False: Herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause lifelong latency.

A

True

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20
Q

What are the two types of herpes simplex virus?

A
  • HSV-1 (oral secretions)
  • HSV-2 (genital infections)
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21
Q

What is the ABCDE rule used for?

A

To evaluate suspicious nevi for melanoma.

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22
Q

What does ‘A’ in the ABCDE rule stand for?

A

Asymmetry.

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23
Q

What is basal cell carcinoma (BCC)?

A

A surface epithelial tumor originating from basal or stem cells, often caused by UV radiation.

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24
Q

What is seborrheic keratosis?

A

A benign proliferation of cutaneous basal cells producing flat or slightly elevated lesions.

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25
Q

What triggers acne vulgaris?

A

Increased androgen levels during puberty affecting sebaceous glands.

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26
Q

What is the appearance and typical size of seborrheic keratosis lesions?

A

They vary from a few millimeters to several centimeters, often oval and greasy-appearing with a hyperkeratotic scaly ‘stuck on’ appearance.

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27
Q

What are effective treatments for seborrheic keratosis?

A
  • Cryotherapy with liquid nitrogen
  • Shave excisions
  • Laser therapy
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28
Q

What triggers the development of acne vulgaris?

A

Androgens increase the size and productivity of sebaceous glands, promoting comedome formation.

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29
Q

What role does Cutibacterium acnes play in acne vulgaris?

A

Follicular proliferation of anaerobic C. acnes shifts from symbiotic to pathogenic strains, contributing to inflammation.

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30
Q

What is atopic dermatitis, and when does it typically onset?

A

It is the most common cause of eczema in children, usually beginning from 2 to 6 months of age.

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31
Q

What comorbidities are associated with atopic dermatitis?

A
  • Asthma
  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Food allergies
32
Q

What is the primary cause of impetigo in children?

A

It is caused by S. aureus and, less commonly, Streptococcus pyogenes.

33
Q

How is molluscum contagiosum transmitted?

A

Through person-to-person direct contact, auto-inoculation, or contaminated fomites.

34
Q

What are the two primary mechanisms for altered hormone levels?

A
  • Inappropriate amounts of hormone delivered to the target cell
  • Inappropriate responses by the target cell
35
Q

What triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

A

Released when the body perceives volume depletion, indicating not enough fluid.

36
Q

What is diabetes insipidus associated with?

A

Insufficient ADH leading to polyuria and thirst (polydipsia).

37
Q

What characterizes the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion?

A

High levels of ADH without normal physiologic stimuli for its release.

38
Q

What is the role of thyroid hormones in the body?

A

They are crucial for metabolism, growth, and development.

39
Q

What typically indicates hypothyroidism in terms of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

A

High TSH levels.

40
Q

What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A
  • Constipation
  • Bradycardia
  • Dyspnea
  • Lethargy
41
Q

What triggers Graves Disease?

A

Stimulation of the thyroid by autoantibodies directed against the TSH receptor.

42
Q

What defines diabetes mellitus type 1?

A

A disorder of pancreatic dysfunction and beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency.

43
Q

What are the risk factors for diabetes mellitus type 2?

A
  • Obesity
  • Poor diet
  • Lack of regular exercise
44
Q

What is insulin resistance?

A

A suboptimal response of insulin-sensitive tissues to insulin.

45
Q

What are the key complications associated with diabetes mellitus?

A
  • Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
  • Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHNKS)
  • Microvascular disease
  • Macrovascular disease
46
Q

What characterizes diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A

Hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonuria.

47
Q

What are common symptoms of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

A
  • Kussmaul respirations
  • Polyuria
  • Thirst
  • Abdominal pain
  • Vomiting
48
Q

What is Addison disease characterized by?

A

Inadequate corticosteroid and mineralocorticoid synthesis with elevated serum ACTH levels.

49
Q

What are the symptoms of Cushing syndrome?

A
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hypokalemia
  • Truncal obesity
  • Moon face
  • Buffalo hump
50
Q

What defines anorexia nervosa?

A

Persistent restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight.

51
Q

What characterizes binge eating disorder?

A

Eating large amounts of food when not physically hungry, without compensatory behaviors.

52
Q

What is the anorexia of aging?

A

A decrease in appetite or food intake in older adults due to multiple age-related changes.

53
Q

What are nonmodifiable risk factors for coronary artery disease?

A
  • Advanced age
  • Male gender (or women after menopause)
  • Family history
54
Q

What modifiable risk factors contribute to coronary artery disease?

A
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Hypertension
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Diabetes and insulin resistance
  • Obesity
  • Sedentary lifestyle
  • Atherogenic diet
55
Q

What is hypertension?

A

A complex condition often asymptomatic, associated with increased risk for heart disease and stroke.

Known as the ‘silent killer’ due to its lack of symptoms.

56
Q

List the major risk factors for hypertension.

A
  • Genetic factors
  • Environmental factors
  • Obesity
  • Increased dietary salt intake
  • Psychosocial stress
  • Endothelial dysfunction
  • Vessel resistance abnormalities

These factors contribute to the pathophysiology of hypertension.

57
Q

What is the role of LDL cholesterol in coronary risk?

A

Increased serum concentration of LDL indicates coronary risk; its relative risk depends on other factors like age, diabetes, and chronic kidney disease.

LDL delivers cholesterol to tissues.

58
Q

What does HDL cholesterol do?

A

Responsible for ‘reverse cholesterol transport,’ returning excess cholesterol from tissues to the liver.

Low levels of HDL are a strong indicator of coronary risk.

59
Q

Define stable angina.

A

Predictable chest pain relieved by usual interventions like nitroglycerin or rest.

Contrasts with unstable angina, which is not relieved by these measures.

60
Q

What causes vasospastic angina?

A

Caused by vasospasm of coronary arteries, can occur with or without coronary artery disease.

Triggered by factors like hyperventilation, mental stress, smoking, and stimulants.

61
Q

What is the distinction between NSTEMI and STEMI?

A

NSTEMI involves subendocardial infarction with ST depression, while STEMI involves transmural infarction with ST elevation.

NSTEMI occurs when the thrombus breaks up before complete distal tissue necrosis.

62
Q

What is the effect of angiotensin II after a myocardial infarction?

A

Increases peripheral vasoconstriction, contributing to increased myocardial work and exacerbating myocyte contractility loss.

Angiotensin II is secreted in response to hemodynamic changes post-MI.

63
Q

What is acute pericarditis?

A

Acute inflammation of the pericardium, often idiopathic or viral, with potential causes including myocardial infarction.

Pericardial effusion can occur, leading to cardiac tamponade if rapid accumulation happens.

64
Q

Define heart failure (HF).

A

A condition where the heart cannot generate adequate cardiac output, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion or increased diastolic filling pressure.

Symptoms and signs are crucial for diagnosis.

65
Q

What is preload?

A

The load on the heart created by the volume of blood received into the left ventricle at the end of diastole.

Excess preload can overstretch muscle fibers.

66
Q

What is contractility?

A

The strength of the heart muscle’s contraction.

Affected by various factors, including heart failure.

67
Q

What is HFrEF?

A

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, defined as an ejection fraction of <40%.

This condition results from decreased contractility.

68
Q

What is the role of catecholamines in heart failure?

A

Sympathetic nervous system activation compensates for decreased cardiac output by increasing heart rate and peripheral vascular resistance.

This increases the workload on the heart.

69
Q

What is the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)?

A

A system that increases preload and afterload while causing direct toxicity to myocytes.

It is activated in response to low blood pressure and poor kidney perfusion.

70
Q

What are natriuretic peptides?

A

Hormones that counteract neurohumoral processes of heart failure by improving salt and water excretion.

ANP and BNP are examples that help decrease preload.

71
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A

An acute systemic vasculitis that may lead to myocarditis and coronary artery aneurysms, primarily affecting children.

The etiology remains unknown but involves immune response mechanisms.

72
Q

What is peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A

Atherosclerotic disease of arteries that perfuse the limbs, causing pain with ambulation known as intermittent claudication.

Pain subsides with rest.

73
Q

What is the consequence of untreated aortic stenosis?

A

Can lead to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, myocardial ischemia or infarction, and heart failure.

It results from resistance to blood flow from the left ventricle.

74
Q

Fill in the blank: Angiotensin II causes increased _______ and _______ in heart failure.

A

peripheral vascular resistance; blood pressure

Both contribute to increased afterload.

75
Q

True or False: Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is characterized by an ejection fraction of less than 40%.

A

False

HFpEF is characterized by preserved ejection fraction; HFrEF is the condition defined by an EF of <40%.

Advanced Patho (3 decks)

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