Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

psy 120 > exam 4 > Flashcards

exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Defining “abnormal”

A

Cognitive model- abnormal thoughts or beliefs
Sociocultural model- violations of local social norms
Biological model-changes in biological functioning
Abnormality is inextricably attached to cultural norms, expectations, and laws

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Thomas Szasz

A

The Myth of Mental Illness
-argued that the mental disorder classification system is an attempt by society to control those who are different, criticized the system of involuntary commitment
-criticized medical model as turning people into passive patients instead of active controllers of their own lives
-preferred the term “problems in living”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)

A

the standard reference manual for disorder diagnosis and classification
Advantages:
-can be useful when properly used for diagnosis and treatment of disorders
-provides systematic structure for future research and insurance reimbursement
Criticisms:
-number of disorders INCREASED with each new addition
-providing classifications may lead to OVERDIAGNOSIS (ADHD, MPD/DID), PD-NOS is most commonly diagnosed disorder-despite there being 400 defined disorders, particularly a concern with newer DIMENSIONAL approach and RISK SYNDROMES
-gives the illusion of OBJECTIVITY
still subject to individual judgement, cultural norms( homosexuality), circumvention (NOS diagnosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Phobias

A

an exaggerated, unrealistic fear of a specific situation, activity, or object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

agoraphobia

A

a set of phobias, often set off by a panic attack involving the basic fear of being away from a safe place of person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Post Traumatic Stress Disorder

A

when a person who has experienced traumatic events has symptoms such as numbing, reliving or trauma, detachment, relationship challenges, self-destructive behaviors
-military service-sexual abuse-9/11-1st responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

A

person feels trapped in repetitive, persistent thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive, ritualized behaviors (compulsions) designed to reduce anxiety
-person understands that the ritual behavior is senseless but guilt and anxiety increase if not performed- cleanliness v contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Biological theory of depression

A

genetics and brain chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Social theory of depression

A

the stressful circumstances of people’s lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Attachment theory of depression

A

problems with close relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cognitive theory of depression

A

negative/maladaptive habits of thinking or interpreting events (learned helplessness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

a mood disorder in which a person alternates between episodes of depression and mania (excessive euphoria)
-driven primarily by brain chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Narcissistic

A

a personality disorder characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance and self-absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Paranoid

A

a personality disorder characterized by habitually unreasonable and excessive suspiciousness and jealousy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Borderline

A

intense but unstable relationships, fear of abandonment, unrealistic self-image, emotional volatility, self-destructive behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antisocial

A

a personality disorder characterized by antisocial behavior such as lying, stealing, manipulating others, and sometimes violence; and a lack of guilt, shame, and empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Schizophrenia

A

group of psychotic disorders marked by positive and negative symptoms that indicate a distorted perceptive of reality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Positive symptoms of Schizophrenia

A

something abnormal is present
-delusions, hallucinations, incoherent speech, inappropriate behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Negative symptoms of Schizophrenia

A

something normal is absent
-lack of affect, loss of motivation, social withdrawal
- may be grouped to form an overall state of catatonia- lack of movement, communication or excessive activity and confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Delusions

A

false beliefs that often accompany schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hallucinations

A

sensory experiences that occur in the absence of actual stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diathesis-stress model

A

-environmental stressors can trigger physical vulnerabilities
-vulnerability may be genetic
*strong correlations in twin studies
-vulnerability may be brain abnormality
*research suggests prenatal neural differences
*synaptic pruning in adolescence may trigger early episodes
-vulnerability in neurotransmitter levels
*dopamine, glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

dopamine

A

can affect movement and emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

glutamate

A

major excitatory neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Biological treatments

A

involve the use of drugs, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), brain surgery or other methods that affect body or brain chemistry
CONCERNS
-some effects overstated due to publication bias
-placebo effect
-increasing off label prescription
*side effect are possibly worse than disorder symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Off label prescriptions

A

bad with lithium and antipsychotics, leading to high relapses and dropout rates
long term effects
-addiction-diabetes- tardive dyskinesia
tardive dyskinesia- disorder that results in involuntary repetitive body movements, which may include grimacing, sticking out the tongue or smacking the lips, which occurs following treatment with medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

frontal lobotamy

A

-destroys or separates parts of the frontal lobes
-stops strong emotional reactions, leads to flat affect- severely restricted or nonexistent expression of emotion
-also can interfere with other frontal lobe functions- planning, socially appropriate behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Antonio Moniz’s Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

A

-used in cases of severe major depression
-ineffective for other conditions
-initiated by Ugo Cerletti in 1937
-produces retrograde amnesia for the procedure itself
-widely used today
-criticized as a tool more of control than treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Antipsychotic drugs

A

-block or reduce sensitivity or brain receptors that respond to dopamine
-some increase serotonin, a neurotransmitter that inhibits dopamine activity
-can relieve positive symptoms of schizophrenia but are ineffective or worsen negative symptoms
-side effects are weight gain, diabetes
-increasing prescribed off label

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (Nardil, Parnate)

A

elevate norepinephrine/ serotonin in brain by blocking an enzyme that deactivates them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants (Elavil, Tofranil)

A

boost norepinephrine and serotonin in brain by preventing normal reuptake of these substances

32
Q

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

A

an inhibitory neurotransmitter

33
Q

Anti- Anxiety (Tranquilizers)

A

-developed for the treatment of anxiety
-developed for shorter term use, with high relapse rate when people stop taking them
-over prescription and long term use can lead to addiction
Xanax, valium

34
Q

Psychodynamic therapy

A

-uses various techniques to explore the unconscious as a route to identifying and solving problems
-dream analysis

35
Q

Free association

A

a method of uncovering unconscious conflicts by saying freely whatever comes to mind

36
Q

Transference

A

client transfers unconscious emotions or reactions onto therapists (conflicts about prevents)

37
Q

Behavioral methods

A

apply principles and techniques of classical and operant conditioning to help people change self defeating or problematic behaviors
-systematic desensitization
-behavioral self-monitoring (via diaries)
-aversive conditioning- punishing undesirable behaviors

38
Q

Cognitive therapy

A

aim is to have people identify and understand maladaptive thought patterns, then change them to improve their life
-Albert Ellis’s Rational- Emotive Behavioral Therapy (REBT): therapist and client actively challenge existing beliefs
-Aaron Beck’s Cognitive Therapy examines interconnection of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

39
Q

Cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

an integrative approach with a goal of using behavioral methods to change cognitions
-helps build self-efficacy
*Individual’s belief about their own ability to perform a task

40
Q

Humanistic therapy

A

-emphasizes people’s free will to change
-often is nondirective, with the goal that the client should solve the problems themselves

41
Q

self instructional methods

A

such as self-talk, can help restructure cognitive habits over time

42
Q

client/person-centered therapy (Carl Rogers)

A

emphasizes empathy with client, seeing the world as the client does, unconditional positive regard

43
Q

Reflective listening

A

-therapists will rephrase/ repeat back what the client is saying, to guide toward insight

44
Q

Family- system perspective

A

therapy with individuals or families that focuses on how each member forms part of a larger interacting system

45
Q

Group therapies

A

ADVANTAGES
-can be lead by a professional to show people that they are not alone in their problems-can learn from the growth of others-less expensive
DISADVANTAGES
-lacks confidentiality- requires a skilled facilitator to avoid social issues like groupthink

46
Q

Evaluating therapies

A

success hinges on
-client and therapist having a therapeutic alliance
-therapists being culturally competent for client population
-client being motivated to change
- improvements have to be monitored up to the point where it levels off

47
Q

Industrial psychology

A

studies job and applicant characteristics, and how to match them; also studies employee training and performance appraisal

47
Q

scientist practitioner gap

A

-a substantial, serious disconnect between scientist who research and those who practice
-practitioners often disregard scientific evidence as not relevant to their personalized approaches
-this leads to perpetuation of misdiagnosis and useless or harmful treatment methods
-scientists may undervalue the individual human elements of therapy, overemphasize one size fits all approach

48
Q

Organizational psychology

A

studies interactions between people working in organizations and effects of those interactions on productivity

49
Q

Human factors psychology

A

studies how workers interact with the tools of work and how to design those tools to optimize workers’ productivity, safety, and health

50
Q

Hawthorne Effect

A

an increase in productivity by employees who are being observed by a researcher or supervisor

51
Q

task oriented employee selection

A

lists in detail the tasks that will be performed for the job

52
Q

worker oriented employee selection

A

describes characteristics required of the worker to successfully perform the job (knowledge, skills, abilities)

53
Q

orientation employee training

A

to organizational policies, practices, culture

54
Q

mentoring employee training

A

informal or formal mentoring by an experienced employee can be beneficial to long term success, satisfaction, and productivity

55
Q

Performance appraisals

A

may focus on defines job responsibilities and specific goals agreed upon between employee and supervisor
employee eval is a challenging aspect of a workplace culture

56
Q

Organizational culture

A

the values, visions, hierarchies, norms, and interactions among its employees
- 3 layers

57
Q

observable artifacts

A

symbols of language (jargon, slang, humor), narratives (stories and legends), and practices (rituals) that represent the underlying cultural assumptions

58
Q

Espoused values

A

concepts/ beliefs that management or entire organization endorses

59
Q

basic assumptions

A

usually unobservable and unquestioned

60
Q

transactional leadership

A

focuses on supervision and organizational goals achieved through a system of rewards and punishments; maintenance of the organizational status quo

61
Q

transformational leadership

A

leaders are charismatic role models, inspirational (optimistic about goal attainment), intellectually stimulating, and seek to change the organization

62
Q

scientific management

A

research found 2 different managerial syles

63
Q

theory x

A

manager assumes workers are inherently lazy and unproductive; managers must have control and use punishments

64
Q

theory y

A

manager assumes workers are people who seek to work hard and productively; managers and workers can find creative solutions to problems; workers do not need to be controlled and punished

65
Q

team halo effect

A

teams get credited for team success, individuals within teams get blamed for team failures

66
Q

Panic disorder

A

an anxiety disorder in which a person experiences recurring panic attacks, feelings of impending doom or death, accompanies by physiological symptoms such as rapid breathing and dizziness

67
Q

major depressive disorder

A

a mood disorder involving
-disturbances in emotion (excessive sadness)
-behavior (loss of interest in usual activities
-cognition (thoughts of hopelessness)
-body function (fatigue and loss of appetites)
-affects more women than men

68
Q

persistent depressive disorder

A

more chronic than major depressive disorder, but may have lower severity of symptoms

69
Q

personality disorder

A

rigid, maladaptive patterns that cause personal distress or an inability to get along with others

70
Q

Dissociative Identity disorder

A

disorder marked by the appearance with one person of 2 or more distinct personalities, each with its own name and traits

71
Q

Sociocognitive explanation for DID

A

disorder is not an actual fragmenting of the identity or multiples personalities, but is simply an extreme manifestation of the different roles we all hold

72
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A

also inhibit reuptake of serotonin to boost levels- Prozac

73
Q

How ABILIFY is thought to work

A

by adjusting dopamine activity, instead of completely blocking it and by adjusting serotonin activity

74
Q

dopamine

A

can affect movement and emotion

75
Q

glutamate

A

major excitatory neurotransmitter

psy 120 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions