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Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following substances is not a component of normal feces?
    A. Bacteria
    B. Blood
    C. Electrolytes
    D. Water
A

B. Blood

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2
Q
  1. All of the following actions can result in watery or diarrheal
    stools except
    A. decreased intestinal motility.
    B. inhibition of water reabsorption.
    C. inadequate time allowed for water reabsorption.
    D. an excessive volume of fluid presented for reabsorption.
A

A. decreased intestinal motility

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3
Q
  1. Lactose intolerance caused by the lack of sufficient lactase
    primarily presents with
    A. steatorrhea.
    B. osmotic diarrhea.
    C. secretory diarrhea.
    D. intestinal hypermotility.
A

B. osmotic diarrhea.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following tests assists most in the differentiation
    of secretory and osmotic diarrhea?
    A. Fecal fat
    B. Fecal carbohydrates
    C. Fecal occult blood
    D. Fecal osmolality
A

D. Fecal osmolality

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5
Q
  1. The inability to convert dietary foodstuffs into readily
    absorbable substances is called intestinal
    A. inadequacy.
    B. hypermotility.
    C. malabsorption.
    D. maldigestion.
A

D. maldigestion.

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6
Q
  1. Intestinal motility is stimulated by each of the following
    except
    A. castor oil.
    B. dietary fiber.
    C. intestinal distention.
    D. sympathetic nerve activity.
A

D. sympathetic nerve activity.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is characterized
    by the excretion of greasy, pale, foul-smelling
    feces?
    A. Steatorrhea
    B. Osmotic diarrhea
    C. Secretory diarrhea
    D. Intestinal hypermotility
A

A. Steatorrhea

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8
Q
  1. The daily amount of fat excreted in the feces is normally
    less than
    A. 0.7 g.
    B. 7.0 g.
    C. 70 g.
    D. 700 g.
A

B. 7.0 g.

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is used to diagnose steatorrhea?
    A. Fecal fat
    B. Fecal carbohydrates
    C. Fecal occult blood
    D. Fecal osmolality
A

A. Fecal fat

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about feces is true?
    A. The normal color of feces is primarily due to urobilinogens.
    B. The amount of feces produced in 24 hours correlates
    poorly with food intake.
    C. The normal odor of feces is usually due to metabolic
    byproducts of intestinal protozoa.
    D. The consistency of feces is primarily determined by
    the amount of fluid intake.
A

B. The amount of feces produced in 24 hours correlates
poorly with food intake.

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11
Q
  1. Fecal specimens may be tested for each of the following except
    A. fat.
    B. blood.
    C. bilirubin.
    D. carbohydrates.
A

C. bilirubin.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following substances is responsible for the
    characteristic color of normal feces?
    A. Bilirubin
    B. Hemoglobin
    C. Urobilins
    D. Urobilinogens
A

C. Urobilins

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about fecal tests is
    true?
    A. A fecal fat determination identifies the cause of
    steatorrhea.
    B. A fecal leukocyte determination aids in differentiating
    the cause of diarrhea.
    C. A fecal Clinitest identifies the enzyme deficiency that
    prevents sugar digestion.
    D. A fecal blood screen aids in differentiating bacterial
    from parasitic infestations.
A

B. A fecal leukocyte determination aids in differentiating
the cause of diarrhea.

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14
Q

14.Which of the following types of fat readily stain with Sudan III or Oil Red O stain?
1. Fatty acids
2. Cholesterol
3. Soaps (fatty acid salts)
4. Neutral fats (triglycerides)
A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. 1 and 3 are correct.
C. 4 is correct.
D. All are correct.

A

C. 4 is correct.

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15
Q

15.Which of the following types of fat require acidification and
heat before they stain with Sudan III or Oil Red O stain?
1. Fatty acids
2. Cholesterol
3. Soaps (fatty acid salts)
4. Neutral fats (triglycerides)
A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. 1 and 3 are correct.
C. 4 is correct.
D. All are correct.

A

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

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16
Q
  1. With the two-slide qualitative fecal fat determination,
    the first slide produces a normal amount of staining fat
    present, whereas the second slide, after acid addition
    and heat, produces an abnormally increased amount of
    fat. These results indicate
    A. malabsorption.
    B. maldigestion.
    C. parasitic infestation.
    D. disaccharidase deficiency.
A

A. malabsorption

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17
Q
  1. Mass screening in adults for fecal occult blood is performed
    primarily to detect
    A. ulcers.
    B. hemorrhoids.
    C. colorectal cancer.
    D. esophageal varices.
A

C. colorectal cancer

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following dietary substances can cause
    a false-negative guaiac-based fecal occult blood slide
    test?
    A. Fish
    B. Red meat
    C. Ascorbic acid
    D. Fruits and vegetables
A

C. Ascorbic acid

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following actions can cause a false-positive
    guaiac-based fecal occult blood slide test?
    A. Rehydration of the specimen on the slide before testing
    B. Degradation of hemoglobin to porphyrin
    C. Storage of fecal specimens before testing
    D. Storage of slides with the specimen already applied
A

a. Rehydration of the specimen on the slide before testing

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20
Q
  1. Select the true statement about fecal occult blood tests
    (FOBTs)?
    A. Guaiac-based FOBTs are more specific than immunochemical-
    based FOBTs.
    B. Guaiac-based FOBTs are more expensive than
    immunochemical-based FOBTs.
    C. Dietary restrictions are not required when immunochemical-
    based FOBTs are used.
    D. Hemoglobin from nonhuman sources (e.g., red meat)
    can cause false-positive results when immunochemical-
    based FOBTs are used.
A

C. Dietary restrictions are not required when immunochemical-
based FOBTs are used.

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21
Q

21.Which of the following conditions can result in the excretion of small amounts of occult blood in the feces?
1. Hemorrhoids
2. Bleeding gums
3. Peptic ulcers
4. Intake of iron supplements
A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. 1 and 3 are correct.
C. 4 is correct.
D. All are correct.

A

D. All are correct.

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the test for fetal hemoglobin in feces (the Apt test) is true?
    A. Any adult hemoglobin present should resist alkali treatment.
    B. The Apt test is used to differentiate various hemoglobinopathies
    in the newborn.
    C. Hemoglobin degraded to hematin usually produces a positive test result.
    D. A pink color after alkali treatment indicates the presence of fetal hemoglobin.
A

D. A pink color after alkali treatment indicates the presence of fetal hemoglobin

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23
Q

23.Which of the following are clinical manifestations of a disaccharidase deficiency?
1. A positive fecal Clinitest
2. Constipation and gas
3. A fecal pH of 5.0
4. A positive fecal occult blood test
A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. 1 and 3 are correct.
C. 4 is correct.
D. All are correct.

A

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following tests can differentiate inadequate
    carbohydrate metabolism from inadequate carbohydrate
    absorption?
    A. Fecal Clinitest
    B. Xylose absorption test
    C. Oral carbohydrate tolerance tests
    D. Carbohydrate thin-layer chromatography
A

B. Xylose absorption test

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25
Q
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced primarily from
    A. secretions by the choroid plexus.
    B. diffusion from plasma into the central nervous system.
    C. ultrafiltration of plasma in the ventricles of the brain.
    D. excretions from ependymal cells lining the brain and spinal cord.
A

A. secretions by the choroid plexus.

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26
Q
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid is found between the
    A. arachnoid and dura mater.
    B. arachnoid and pia mater.
    C. pia mater and dura mater.
    D. pia mater and choroid plexus.
A

B. arachnoid and pia mater

27
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding CSF is true?
    A. Cerebrospinal fluid is constantly produced.
    B. Cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed into the blood at the choroid plexus.
    C. Cerebrospinal fluid is essentially composed of diluted
    plasma.
    D. Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through the brain and spinal cord because of active and passive diffusion processes.
A

A. Cerebrospinal fluid is constantly produced.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following substances does not normally
    pass through the blood-brain barrier?
    A. Po2
    B. Albumin
    C. Glucose
    D. Fibrinogen
A

D. Fibrinogen

29
Q
  1. During a lumbar puncture procedure, the first collection
    tube of CSF removed should be used for
    A. chemistry tests.
    B. cytologic studies.
    C. hematologic tests.
    D. microbiological studies
A

A. chemistry tests.

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an analytical concern
    when the processing and testing of CSF are delayed?
    A. The viability of microorganisms
    B. The lability of the immunoglobulins
    C. The lysis of leukocytes and erythrocytes
    D. Alterations in the chemical composition
A

B. The lability of the immunoglobulins

31
Q
  1. Pleocytosis is a term used to describe
    A. an increased number of cells in the CSF.
    B. a pink, orange, or yellow CSF specimen.
    C. an increased protein content in the CSF caused by
    cellular lysis.
    D. inflammation and sloughing of cells from the choroid
    plexus.
A

A. an increased number of cells in the CSF.

32
Q
  1. All of the following can cause xanthochromia in the CSF
    except
    A. high concentrations of protein.
    B. high concentrations of bilirubin.
    C. increased numbers of leukocytes.
    D. erythrocytes from a traumatic tap.
A

C. increased numbers of leukocytes.

33
Q
  1. In the CSF, which of the following findings indicates a traumatic puncture?
    A. The presence of erythrophagocytic cells in the CSF
    B. Hemosiderin granules within macrophages in the CSF sediment
    C. An uneven distribution of blood in the CSF collection tubes
    D. A xanthochromic supernatant after CSF centrifugation
A

C. An uneven distribution of blood in the CSF collection tubes

34
Q
  1. How many leukocytes are normally present in the CSF obtained from an adult?
    A. 0 to 5 cells/μL
    B. 0 to 10 cells/μL
    C. 0 to 20 cells/μL
    D. 0 to 30 cells/μL
A

A. 0 to 5 cells/μL

35
Q
  1. Which of the following cells can be present in small numbers in normal CSF?
    A. Erythrocytes
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Macrophages
    D. Plasma cells
A

B. Lymphocytes

36
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types predominate in the
    CSF during a classic case of bacterial meningitis?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Macrophages
    C. Monocytes
    D. Neutrophils
A

D. Neutrophils

37
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types predominate in the
    CSF during a classic case of viral meningitis?
    A. Lymphocytes
    B. Macrophages
    C. Monocytes
    D. Neutrophils
A

A. Lymphocytes

38
Q
  1. When choroid plexus cells and ependymal cells are
    present
    in the CSF, they
    A. are often clinically significant.
    B. represent the demyelination of nerve tissue.
    C. can closely resemble clusters of malignant cells.
    D. indicate breakdown of the blood-brain barrier.
A

C. can closely resemble clusters of malignant cells.

39
Q
  1. All of the following proteins are normally present in the CSF except
    A. albumin.
    B. fibrinogen.
    C. transthyretin.
    D. transferrin.
A

B. fibrinogen.

40
Q
  1. Which of the following events does not result in an increased CSF total protein?
    A. A traumatic puncture procedure
    B. Alterations in the blood-brain barrier
    C. Trauma to the central nervous system, resulting in fluid loss
    D. Decreased reabsorption of CSF into the peripheral blood
A

C. Trauma to the central nervous system, resulting in
fluid loss

41
Q
  1. Which of the following proteins in the CSF is used to
    monitor the integrity of the blood-brain barrier?
    A. Albumin
    B. Transthyretin
    C. Transferrin
    D. Immunoglobulin G
A

A. Albumin

42
Q
  1. An immunoglobulin G index greater than 0.70 indicates
    A. intrathecal synthesis of immunoglobulin G.
    B. a compromised blood-brain barrier.
    C. active demyelination of neural proteins.
    D. increased transport of immunoglobulin G from
    plasma into the CSF.
A

A. intrathecal synthesis of immunoglobulin G.

43
Q
  1. An unknown fluid can be positively identified as CSF by
    determining the
    A. lactate concentration.
    B. albumin concentration.
    C. presence of oligoclonal banding on electrophoresis.
    D. presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on
    electrophoresis.
A

D. presence of carbohydrate-deficient transferrin on
electrophoresis.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about oligoclonal
    bands is false?
    A. In the CSF, these bands indicate increased intrathecal
    concentrations of immunoglobulin G.
    B. The bands usually correlate with the stage of disease
    and can be used to predict disease progression.
    C. The bands are often present in the CSF and serum of
    individuals with a lymphoproliferative disease.
    D. The bands are often present in the CSF but not in the
    serum of individuals with multiple sclerosis.
A

B. The bands usually correlate with the stage of disease
and can be used to predict disease progression.

45
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about CSF glucose is
    false?
    A. Increased CSF glucose values are diagnostically
    significant.
    B. Glucose enters the CSF by active transport and
    simple
    diffusion.
    C. Decreased CSF glucose values reflect a defective
    blood-brain barrier and increased glycolysis.
    D. CSF glucose values reflect the plasma glucose concentration
    30 to 90 minutes preceding collection
A

A. Increased CSF glucose values are diagnostically
significant.

46
Q
  1. Normal CSF lactate levels (less than 25 mg/dL) are
    commonly
    found in patients with
    A. bacterial meningitis.
    B. fungal meningitis.
    C. tuberculous meningitis.
    D. viral meningitis
A

D. viral meningitis

47
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures frequently provides a
    rapid presumptive diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
    A. A blood culture
    B. A CSF culture
    C. A CSF gram stain
A

C. A CSF gram stain

48
Q
  1. India ink preparations and microbial antigen tests on
    the CSF can aid in the diagnosis of
    A. bacterial meningitis.
    B. fungal meningitis.
    C. tuberculous meningitis.
    D. viral meningitis.
A

B. fungal meningitis.

49
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of the amniotic
    fluid surrounding a developing fetus?
    A. Amniotic fluid provides protection for the fetus.
    B. Amniotic fluid enables fetal movement.
    C. Amniotic fluid is a medium for oxygen exchange.
    D. Amniotic fluid is a source of water and solute exchange.
A

C. Amniotic fluid is a medium for oxygen exchange

50
Q
  1. Amniocentesis is usually performed at 15 to 18 weeks’
    gestation to determine which of the following conditions?
    A. Fetal distress
    B. Fetal maturity
    C. Genetic disorders
    D. Infections in the amniotic fluid
A

C. Genetic disorders

51
Q

3.Through which of the following mechanism(s) does solute
and water exchange occur between the fetus and the
amniotic fluid?
1. Fetal swallowing of the amniotic fluid
2. Transudation across the fetal skin
3. Fetal urination into the amniotic fluid
4. Respiration of amniotic fluid into the fetal pulmonary
system
A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. 1 and 3 are correct.
C. 4 is correct.
D. All are correct.

A

D. All are correct

52
Q
  1. Select the term used to describe a decreased volume of
    amniotic fluid present in the amniotic sac.
    A. Anhydramnios
    B. Hydramnios
    C. Oligohydramnios
    D. Polyhydramnios
A

C. Oligohydramnios

53
Q
  1. Amniotic fluid specimens are immediately protected from
    light to preserve which of the following substances?
    A. Bilirubin
    B. Fetal cells
    C. Meconium
    D. Phospholipids
A

A. Bilirubin

54
Q
  1. Which of the following substances, when present in amniotic
    fluid, is affected adversely by refrigeration?
    A. Bilirubin
    B. Fetal cells
    C. Protein
    D. Phospholipids
A

B. Fetal cells

55
Q
  1. When processing amniotic fluid, high centrifugation
    speeds are used to clear the fluid of turbidity for
    A. bilirubin analysis.
    B. culturing of fetal cells.
    C. meconium detection.
    D. phospholipid analysis.
A

A. bilirubin analysis.

56
Q

8.Analysis for which of the following substances can aid in
the differentiation of amniotic fluid from urine?
1. Urea
2. Glucose
3. Creatinine
4. Protein
A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
B. 1 and 3 are correct.
C. 4 is correct.
D. All are correct.

A

D. All are correct

57
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about amniotic fluid is
    true?
    A. Amniotic fluid is normally clear and colorless.
    B. Normally amniotic fluid contains fetal hair, cells, and
    vernix.
    C. Amniotic fluid and urine can be differentiated by a
    physical examination of the fluid.
    D. When contaminated with meconium, amniotic fluid
    takes on a yellow or amber coloration.
A

B. Normally amniotic fluid contains fetal hair, cells, and
vernix.

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a test to evaluate the surfactants
    present in the fetal pulmonary system?
    A. ΔA450
    B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
    C. Phosphatidylglycerol detection
    D. Foam stability index
A

A. ΔA450

59
Q
  1. Which of the following test results would indicate fetal
    lung immaturity?
  2. A lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio of less than 2.0
  3. A lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio of more than 2.0
  4. A lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio of more than 2.0,
    with phosphatidylglycerol absent
  5. A lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio of less than 2.0, with
    phosphatidylglycerol present
    A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
    B. 1 and 3 are correct.
    C. 4 is correct.
    D. All are correct.
A

B. 1 and 3 are correct.

60
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions can cause erythroblastosis
    fetalis?
    A. Immaturity of the fetal liver
    B. Decreased amounts of amniotic fluid
    C. Inadequate fetal pulmonary surfactants
    D. Maternal immunization by fetal antigens
A

D. Maternal immunization by fetal antigens

61
Q
  1. A ΔA450 value that falls into zone III on the Liley chart
    indicates that the fetus is experiencing
    A. no hemolysis.
    B. mild hemolysis.
    C. moderate hemolysis.
    D. severe hemolysis.
A

D. severe hemolysis

62
Q
  1. The ΔA450 value is determined using amniotic fluid from
    a mother at 20 weeks’ gestation. Which chart(s) should
    be used to assess this value and the status of the fetus?
    A. Liley chart
    B. Queenan chart
    C. Either chart can be used.
    D. More information is needed.
A

B. Queenan chart

63
Q
A

UA (5 decks)

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