Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

*Pathologic galactorrhea

A

Not affiliated with pregnancy or lactation and if bloody or serous, unilateral, spontaneous, associated with a mass and occurring women aged 40+ years.

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2
Q

*Breast CA masses

A

Irregular, firm, may be mobile, or fixed to surrounding tissue.

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3
Q

Risk factors for breast CA

A
  • Most important RF: age.
  • Other non-modifiable RFs: family history of breast and ovarian cancers, inherited genetic mutations, personal history of breast CA or lobular carcinoma in situ, high levels of endogenous hormones, breast tissue density, proliferative lesions with atypia on breast bx, and duration of unopposed estrogen exposure related to early menarche, age of first full-term pregnancy, and late menopause.
  • Modifiable RFs: breastfeeding for less than 1 yr, postmenopausal obesity, use of HRT, cigarette smoking, alcohol ingestion, physical inactivity, and type of contraception.
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4
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene

A

occur in <1% of the population but account for roughly 5-10% of female breast cancers. They also confer increased risk for ovarian CA.

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5
Q

*Screening for breast CA recommendations

USPSTF and ACOG

A

USPSTF

  • Mammography: ages 50-74, biennial(every other year)
  • > 75 years: NO
  • no BSE, no CBE

ACOG

  • CBE: ages 25-39 q 1-3 and annually 40+
  • mammography: 40, q 1-2 yrs until 75
  • no BSE but self awareness
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6
Q

visible signs of breast cancer

A

retracted/deviation nipple (from shortening of tissues)

skin dimpling

edema of skin/orange peel (lympathic blockage; thickened skin with enlarged pores)

abnormal contours (flattened area of breast)

paget disease of nipple (scaly, eczema like lesion on nipple that weep, crust, or erode)

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7
Q

Breast palpation best performed in what position

A

is best performed when the breast tissue is flattened and patient is supine.

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8
Q

*Intraductal papilloma s/s

A

*Spontaneous unilateral bloody discharge from one or two ducts further evaluation for:

  • intraductal papilloma, ductal carcinoma in situ or Paget disease of the breast.
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9
Q

BSE best done when

A

best timed 5-7 days after menses, when hormonal stimulation of breast tissue is low.

post menopausal: anytime is ok

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10
Q

Direct vs. indirect inguinal hernias

A
  • Indirect -
    • all ages, often children
    • internal inguinal ring, where the spermatic cord exits the abdomen.
    • May form a scrotal hernia.
    • Chance of incarceration is 10x
  • Direct
    • external inguinal ring
    • bulge d/t weakness in the floor of the inguinal canal
    • straining and heavy lifting
    • Less common, usually in men 40+, rare in women
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11
Q

Femoral hernias

A

more likely to present as emergencies with bowel incarceration or strangulation. More common in women than in men.

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12
Q

Penile discharge

A
  • Gonorrhea - yellow
  • non-gonococcal urethritis from chlamydia - white
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13
Q

Disseminated gonorrhea

A

rash, tenosynovitis, monoarticular arthritis, even meningitis, not always with urogenital symptoms.

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14
Q

Penile/scrotal sores

A
  • Syphilitic chancre and herpes - ulcer
  • HPV - warts
  • mumps orchitis, scrotal edema, and testicular CA - swelling
  • testicular torsion, epididymitis and orchitis - pain
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15
Q

Phimosis and paraphimosis

A
  • Phimosis - tight prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans.
  • Paraphimosis - tight prepuce, that once retracted, cannot be returned. Edema ensues.
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16
Q

Tender painful scrotal swelling

A

present in acute epididymitis, acute orchitis, torsion of the spermatic cord, or a strangulated inguinal hernia.

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17
Q

Testicular cancer

A

Painless nodule on the testis a potentially curable cancer

15-34 years

Cryptorchidism, present in 7-10% of men with testicular cancer, confers a 3-17 fold increased risk for testicular CA.

Other risk factors: history of carcinoma in the contralateral testicle, mumps orchitis, and inguinal hernia, a hydrocele in childhood and a postive family history.

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18
Q

Varicocele of spermatic cord

A

supine it’s collapsed so need to be standing, palpate 2 cm above the testis. hold his breath and beard down against a closed glottis for about 4 seconds (Valsalva maneuver)

A temporary increase in diameter of the cord indicates filling of abnormally dilated spermatic veins draining the testis.

“bag of worms”

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19
Q

Hydroceles

A

Swellings containing serous fluid that light up with a red glow, or transilluminate.

if blood or tissue, such as normal testis, a tumor, or most hernias, do not glow

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20
Q

Palpating the epididymis

A

Feels nodular and cord-like and should not be confused with an abnormal lump and should NOT be tender.

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21
Q

Suspect intestinal strangulation

A

in the presence of tenderness, nausea, and vomiting, and consider surgical intervention.

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22
Q

Causes of primary vs secondary dysmenorrhea

A

primary: inc prostaglandin production during luteal phase of menstrual cycle, when estrogen and proge lvls decline
secondary: endometriosis, adenomyosis, PID, and endometrial polyps.

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23
Q

Causes of secondary amenorrhea

A

low body weight (malnutrition) and anorexia nervosa, stress, chronic illness, and hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction, excessive exercise

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24
Q

Causes of abnormal vaginal bleeding

A

Vary by age group and include pregnancy, cervical or vaginal infection or CA, cervical or endometrial polyps or hyperplasia, fibroids, bleeding disorders, and hormonal contraception or replacement therapy.

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25
Q

*Menopause symptoms

A

48-55 years. Cessation of menses x 12 months, progressing through several stages of erratic cyclical bleeding.

  • Estrogen and progesterone drop
  • Testosterone production persists
  • LH and FSH are markedly elevated

perimenopause = vasomotor symptoms, vaginal symptoms, and trouble sleeping

Vaginal symptoms are due to vulvovaginal atrophy with vaginal drying, dysuria, or dyspareunia.

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26
Q

*Post-menopausal bleeding

A

Always ask about any bleeding or spotting after menopause as this may be an early sign of CA.

causes: endometrial CA, HRT and uterine/cervical polyps.

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27
Q

Amenorrhea followed by heaving bleeding…

A

suggests a threatened abortion or dysfunctional uterine bleeding related to lack of ovulation.

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28
Q

*PID red flags and hallmark signs

A

STIs and recent IUD insertion

Always rule out ectopic pregnancy first with serum or urine testing and possible ultrasound.

Cervical motion tenderness and/or adnexal tenderness are hallmark signs.

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29
Q

*Acute pelvic pain

A

in menstruating girls and women, immediate attention!!

emergency: ectopic pregnancy, ovarian torsion, and appendicitis, PID

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30
Q

*Chronic pelvic pain

A

lasts more than 6 months, doesn’t respond to tx

endometriosis (retrograde menstrual flow/extension of uterine lining outside uterus), PID, adenomyosis, fibroids (tumors in uterine wall)

Red flag for history of sexual abuse

pelvic floor spasm from myofascial pain with trigger points on examination.

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31
Q

Cervical cancer

A

Most important risk factor for cervical CA is persistent infection with high-risk HPV subtypes, especially HPV-16 or HPV-18.

Other two notable risk factors including failure to undergo screening, which accounts for roughly half of women diagnosed with cervical CA, and multiple sexual partners.

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32
Q

*Cervical cancer screening for average-risk women

(USPSTF, ACS/ASCCP/ASCP, and ACOG)

A
  • Initiate: 21 years
  • Interval
    • Ages 21-65 cytology q 3 years
      • OR
    • Ages 21-29: cytology every 3 years
    • Ages 30-65 yrs, cytology plus HPV testing every 5 years
  • Age at which to end screening: age > 65 yrs after 3 consecutive negative results on cytology or two on cytology plus HPV testing within 10 years
  • Screening after hysterectomy with removal of cervix (TAH): not recommended.
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33
Q

HPV vaccine

A

9 or age 11 or 12:

3-dose series over 6 months with either the quadrivalent (HPV 16,18,6,11) or bivalent (HPV 16,18) vaccine for girls and boys before their first sexual encounter

Catch-up: recommended for females ages 13-26 years who have not had prior vaccination or completed the 3-dose series. Through age 21 in males not vaccinated previously (age 26 years if immunocompromised or having sex with other men).

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34
Q

Ovarian CA s/s, risk factors, screening

A

abdominal distention, abdominal bloating, and urinary frequency; however, these are usually reported within 3 months of diagnosis and frequently occur in other conditions.

Risk factors: BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene. Risk is 3x first-degree relative with breast or ovarian CA.

Other risk factors: obesity, nulliparity, growing evidence of increased risk from postmenopausal HRT.

Risk decreased by: use of oral contraceptives, multiple pregnancies, breastfeeding, and tubal ligation.

no screening tests

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35
Q

*Most common STI

A

Chlamydia trachomatis infection = urethritis, cervicitis, PID, ectopic pregnancy, infertility, and chronic pelvic pain.

Rates are highest in 20 -24 years, closely followed by women ages 15 to 19 years. Black women and American Indian/Alaskan natives are at highest risk for infection.

As with other STIs, risk factors are:

  • Younger than 24 years and sexually active
  • Prior infection with chlamydia or other STIs
  • New or multiple partners
  • Inconsistent condom use, and
  • Occupational sex work
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36
Q

*STI and HIV screening per CDC 2014

A
  • Chlamydia and gonorrhea screening annually for all sexually active women ages < 25 years and older with risk factors of new or multiple sex partners, or a sex partner infected with an STI.
  • Chlamydia, syphilis, hep B and HIV screening for all pregnant women and gonorrhea screening for at-risk pregnant women starting early in pregnancy.
  • Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and syphilis screening at least annually for all sexually-active gay, bisexual, and other MSM. MSM who have multiple or anonymous partners should be screened more frequently for STIs (3-6 month intervals).
  • HIV testing at least once for all adults and adolescents from ages 13-64 years.
  • HIV testing at least annually for anyone having unsafe sex or using injection drug equipment. Sexually active gay and bisexual men may benefit from testing q3-6 months.
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37
Q

Inserting speculum

A

enlarge the vaginal introitus by lubricating one finger with water and applying downward pressure at its lower margin, then palpate the location of the cervix in order to angle the speculum more accurately.

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38
Q

clinical breast exam

A

The vertical strip pattern shown is currently the best validated technique for detecting breast masses. Using the pads of the 2nd, 3rd and 4th fingers, keeping the fingers light flexed, spend about 3 minutes for each breast. Palpate in small, concentric circles applying light, medium and deep pressure at each examining point.

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39
Q

*Descriptors of breast nodule

A
  1. Location - which breast, by quadrant, clock, with cm from nipple
  2. Size in cm
  3. Shape - round or cystic, disclike, or irregular in contour
  4. Consistency - soft, firm, or hard, boggy
  5. Delimitation - well circumscribed or not
  6. Tenderness
  7. Mobility - in relation to the skin, pectoral fascia and chest wall.
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40
Q

PMS (pre-menstrual syndrome)

A

emotional/behaviorial sx’s (depression, angry outbursts, irritability, anxiety, cry, sleeping distubrance,s anxiety, poor concentration, social w/drawal)

5 days before menses for at least 3 consecutive cycles

sx’s stop 4 days after onset of menses

interference with daily activities

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41
Q

*Primary amenorrhea

A

Absence of ever initating periods by age 16.

Causes: anatomic or genetic cause

Issues with pituitary gland or hypothalamus from gonadal dysgenesis including Turner syndrome (43%), Mullerian agenesis (lack of vagina – 15%), constitutional delay (less common in females, 14%), PCOS (7%), isolated GnRH deficiency (5%), anorexia nervosa (2%), hypopituitarism (2%), and others.

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42
Q

Postcoital bleeding

A

bleeding after sex

suggests cervical polyps or cancer, or in an older woman = atrophic vaginitis

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43
Q

Suspect HIV infection in women with…

A

recurrent vulvocandidasis, concurrent STIs, abnormal Pap smears (occurring in 40% of HIV-positive women), and HPV infection: HIV testing is indicated

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44
Q

Failure rates of family planning methods

A
  • Lowest - subdermal implant, IUD, female sterilization, vasectomy
  • Intermediate - injectables, oral contraceptives, the patch, vaginal ring, and diaphragm
  • Highest - male and female condoms, withdrawal, sponge in parous women, fertility awareness methods and spermicides
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45
Q

Bimanual examination of the vagina

A

Palpate the cervix - cervical motion tenderness and/or adnexal tenderness are hallmarks of PID, ectopic pregnancy, and appendicitis.

Palpate the uterus - with your other hand on the abdomen about midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis. Uterine enlargement suggests pregnancy, uterine myomas (fibroids), or malignancy.

Palpate each ovary - Normal ovaries are somewhat tender. Within 3-5 years after menopause, the ovaries become atrophic and usually nonpalpable. If palpable, may investigate further for ovarian cyst or ovarian CA.

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46
Q

*Trichomonal vaginitis

cause

discharge color

sx’s

vulva/vaginal mucosa

lab eval

A
  • Often but always sexually acquired
  • Discharge:
    • yellowish green or gray, possibly frothy; often profuse and pooled in the vaginal fornix; may be malodorous
  • sx’s:
    • Pruritis, pain on urination (inflamed), dyspareunia
  • Vestibule and labia minora may be erythematous, vaginal mucosa diffusely reddened, small red granular spots or petechiae in the posterior fornix
    • mild cases, the mucosa looks normal
  • Scan saline wet mount for trichomonads
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47
Q

*Candidal vaginitis

cause

discharge

sx’s

vulva/vaginal mucosa

lab eval

A
  • normal overgrowth; many factors predispose esp. antibiotics
  • Discharge
    • White and curdy; may be thin but typically thick
    • not as profuse as in trichomonal infection
    • not malodorous
  • Sx’s:
    • Pruritis; vaginal sorenes; pain on urination (inflamed skin); dyspareunia
  • Vulva and surrounding skin are often inflamed and sometimes swollen, vaginal mucosa is often reddened, with white tenacious patches of discharge
    • mucosa bleed if scraped off
  • Scan KOH prep for the branching hyphae of Candida
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48
Q

*Bacterial vaginosis

cause

discharge

sx’s

vulva/vaginal mucosa

lab eval

A
  • transmitted sexually
  • discharge
    • Gray or white, thin, homogeneous
    • malodorous
    • coats the vaginal walls, usually not profuse, may be minimal
  • sx’s:
    • Unpleaseant fishy or musty genital odor after sex
  • vulva and vaginal mucosa: normal
  • Scan saline wet mount for clue cells (epithelial cells with stippled borders), sniff for fishy odor after applying KOH (“whiff test”); test vaginal secretions for pH >4.5
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49
Q

Risk factors for Prostate Cancer

A
  1. Age - rates increase rapidly after age 50
  2. Ethnicity - AA have highest incidence and mortality rates
  3. Family hx - Risk increases 2x for one affected first-degree relative, increase 5-11x with 2-3 first-degree relatives
  4. Other: exposure to Agent Orange by Vietnam vets, diets high in animal fat, obesity, and cigarette smoking. BPH is not a risk factor for prostate CA!
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50
Q

*Prostate cancer screening

A

begin early, at 40-45 years to men at high risk for CA, African Americans and those with a family hx of prostate CA. Otherwise, may begin at age 50.

1) If agreeable, PSA testing recommended q1-2 years
2) DRE optional
3) Stop offering screening at age 70 or whenever life expectancy is less than 10 years

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51
Q

Male genitalia in newborns

2 common scrotal masses:

reducible or not?

A

Two common scrotal masses: hydroceles and inguinal hernias.

Both may coexist on the right side.

Hydroceles are not reducible, and can be transilluminated and most resolve by age 18 months.

Hernias are usually reducible, often do not transilluminate and do not resolve.

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52
Q

*Cremasteric reflex

A

Stroke/scratch the medial aspect of the thigh.

The testis on the side being scratched will move upward

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53
Q

*Female puberty

A

*Physical changes in girl’s breast are of the first signs of puberty. Menarche usually occurs when a girl is in breast stage 3 or 4.

General order of pubertal changes: height spurt, breast changes, pubic hair, menarche.

Normal range of onset of breast development is 7 years for white girls and 6 for AA and Hispanic girls.

Delayed puberty (no breasts or pubic hair development by age 12 years) is usually caused by inadequate gonadotropin secretion from the anterior pituitary due to defective hypothalamic GnRH production. A common cause is anorexia nervosa.

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54
Q

*Male puberty

A

First reliable sign between ages 9 and 13.5 years is increase in testes size, then appearance of pubic hair, with progressive enlargement of the penis, and finally a growth spurt.

Delayed puberty is suspected in boys who have no signs of pubertal development by 14 years of age.

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55
Q

High-yield screening questions for DEPRESSION

A
  1. Over the past 2 weeks, have you felt down, depressed, or hopeless?
  2. Over the past 2 weeks, have you felt little interest or pleasure in doing things (anhedonia)?

[(sensitivity: 83%, specificity 92%) for detecting major depression]

All positive screening tests warrant full diagnostic interviews.

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56
Q

High-yield screening questions for ANXIETY

A
  1. Over the past 2 weeks, have you been feeling nervous, anxious, or on edge?
  2. Over the past 2 weeks, have you been unable to stop or control worrying?
  3. Over the past 4 weeks, have you had an anxiety attack–suddenly feeling fear or panic?
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57
Q

*Components of Mental Status Examination

(always see my task completion)

A
  1. appearance and behavior (LOC, posture, dress/grooming, facial, manner)
  2. Speech and language (quanity, quality, rate, aphasia)
  3. mood and affect
  4. thoughts and perception (logic, compulsions, obsessions, delusions, insight, judgment)
  5. cognitive function (orientation: time, place, person, attention: spelling backwards or series of 7)
  • memory (remove, recent, new learning ability)

( higher cognitive function (vocab, calculating, abstract thinking, clock)

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58
Q

*Causes of near-syncope and syncope

A

seizures, neurocardiogenic conditions such as vasovagal syncope, postural tachycardia syndrome, carotid sinus syncope, and orthostatic hypotension, and cardiac disease causing arrhythmias, especially V. tach and bradyarrhythmias.

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59
Q

Documented and modifiable risk factors for stroke

A
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Diabetes
  • Weight
  • Diet and nutrition
  • Physical inactivity
  • Alcohol use
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60
Q

Stroke: Disease-specific risk factors

A
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • CAD
  • OSA
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61
Q

*Neurologic exam

A
  1. Mental status, speech and language
  2. Cranial nerves
  3. The motor system
  4. the sensory system
  5. Muscle stretch reflexes
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62
Q

Brudzinski Sign

A

Flex neck, watch hips and knees.

If they flex, it is positive and you may consider meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage.

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63
Q

Kernig Sign

A

Flex the patient’s leg at both the hip and knee, then slowly extend and straighten the knee.

Pain and increased resistance to knee extension = positive

concern for meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage

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64
Q

Straight-leg Raise

A

In supine position, raise the patient’s relaxed and straightened leg, flexing the thigh at the hip.

Pain radiating into the ipisilateral leg = positive straight leg test for lumbosacral radiculopathy.

Foot dorsiflexion can further increase leg pain in lumbosacral radiculopathy, sciatic neuropathy, or both.

Increased pain when the contralateral healthy leg is raised is a positive crossed straight-leg raise sign.

65
Q

Structural lesions

A

asymmetrical pupils and loss of the light reaction from stroke, abscess, or tumor mass

The eyes “look at the lesion” in the affected hemisphere

66
Q

Signs of severe neurological disease in infants

A
  • extreme irritability
  • persistent asymmetry of posture
  • persistent extension of extremities
  • constant turning of the head to one side
  • marked extension of the head, neck and extremities (opisthotonus)
  • severe flaccidity
  • limited response to pain
  • sometimes seizures
67
Q

Neonatal behaviors related to nicotine withdrawal

A
  • fine tremors
  • irritability
  • poor self-regulation
68
Q

*Ankle reflex in infant

A

Grasp infant’s malleolus with one hand and abruptly dorsiflex the ankle.

note rapid, rhythmic plantar flexion of the newborn’s foot (ankle clonus) in response to this maneuver.

Up to 10 beats are normal in newborns and young infants (unsustained ankle clonus).

With sustained ankle clonus, CNS disease should be suspected.

69
Q

palmar grasp reflex

A

present birth to 3-4 months

place fingers into the infants hands and press against palmar surfaces. infant will flex all fingers to grasp your fingers

persists beyond 4-6 months: pyramidal tract dysfunction

70
Q

*Signs of drug withdrawal in newborns

A

irritable, jittery and has tremors, hypertonicity, and hyperactive reflexes, also poor feeding and seizures.

71
Q

Signs of autism

A

problems with social interaction, verbal and nonverbal communication, restricted interests, and repetitive behaviors

72
Q

Dementia, definition

A

decline in at least two cognitive domains–loss of memory, attention, language, or visuospatial or executive functioning–that is severe enough to affect social or occupational functioning.

The DSM-5 classifies it as a “major neurocognitive disorder”

Delirium and depression must be excluded

73
Q

Dementia screening tests

A

Mini Mental State Examination

Mini-Cog

MoCA

74
Q

*Parkinson disease s/s

A
  • T = Tremor
  • R = Rigidity
  • A = Akinesia
  • P = Postural instability
  • Bradykinesia (most characteristic clinical sign)
  • Micrographia (writing gets smaller)
  • Shuffling “freezing” gait
  • Difficulty rising from chair
75
Q

Increased risk for falls

A

Abnormalities of gait and balance, widening of base

slowing and lengthening of stride and difficulty turning

76
Q

Delirium features

A
  • Acute onset
  • Fluctuating course with lucid intervals, worse at night
  • Lasts hours to weeks
  • Sleep/wake cycle is always disrupted
  • General illness or drug toxicity are either or both present
  • Example causes: DT, uremia, acute hepatic failure, acute cerebral vasculitis, atropine poisoning
77
Q

Dementia features

A
  • Insidious onset
  • Slowly progressive
  • Lasts months to years
  • Sleep/wake cycle in which sleep is fragmented
  • general illness or toxicity often absent
  • Example causes: Vitamin B12 deficiency, thyroid disorders, AD, vascular dementia, dementia due to head trauma
78
Q

*Fibroadenoma

A
  • noncancerous breast tumor common in young women (15-25, and up to 55 yrs old).
  • round, disc-like or lobular; 1-2 cm
  • “slippery tumor”
  • very mobile
  • no pain, non-tender
  • does not change with cycles

-no retraction signs

79
Q

*Breast Cysts

A
  • age 30-50, regress after menopause unless on estrogen therapy
  • Single or multiple
  • Round
  • Soft to firm, usually elastic
  • Mobile
  • Often tender
  • NO retraction signs
80
Q

*Breast Cancer

A
  • age 30-90 years, most common over age 50
  • Usually single, although may coexist with other nodules
  • Irregular or stellate
  • Firm or hard
  • Not clearly delineated from surrounding tissues
  • May be fixed to skin or underlying tissues
  • Usually nontender
  • maybe retraction signs
81
Q

*Hematochezia (stool with red blood)

A
  • Colon CA - often with change in bowel habits, weight loss
  • Hyperplasia or adenomatous polyps - often no other symptoms
  • Diverticula of the colon - often no symptoms unless inflammation causes diverticulitis
  • Inflammatory conditions of colon/rectum
    • U.C./Crohn’s
    • Infectious diarrhea
    • Proctitis (various causes including anal intercourse) - rectal urgency, tenesmus
  • Ischemic colitis - lower abdominal pain, sometimes fever or shock in older adults; abdomen typically soft to palpation
  • Hemorrhoids - blood on the toilet paper, on the surface of the stool, or dripping into the toilet
  • Anal fissure - blood on the toilet paper or on the surface of the stool; anal pain
82
Q

testicular torsion

A

torsion or twisting of the testicle on spermatic cord

acutely painful, swollen organ that is restracted upward in the scrotum

NO/absent cremasteric reflex

common in neonates and adolescents but any age

surgical emergency / blocked circulation, need surgery

83
Q

pelvic exam

A

explain exam and careful positioning

  1. inspect vulva for changes r/t menopause (thinning skin, loss of pubic hair, dec distensibility of introitus. identify any labial masses
  2. inspect any valvular erythema
  3. inspect caruncles or prolapse of fleshy erythematous mucosal tissue at erethral meatus. note enlargment clitorus
  4. spread labia, press downard on introitus to relax levator muscles, insert speculum after moistening. if severe vag atrophy, gaping introitus, introital stricutre = change size of speculum
  5. inspect vaginal walls. note thin cervical mucus or discharge
  6. endocervical brush/wooden spatula to get endocervical cells for pap smear
  7. bear down to detect uterine prolapse or cystocele, urethrocele, or rectocele
  8. perform bimanual examination. check motino of cervix and palpate for masses
  9. rectovaginal exam if indc. assess uterine, adnexal irregularities
84
Q

vulva abnormalities

bluish swelling:

bulge of anterior vaginal wall below urethra:

benign masses:

A

varicosities

urethrocele or urethral diverticulum

condylomata, fibromas, leiomyomas, sebaceous cysts

85
Q

vulvar erythema with satellite lesions results from…

erythma with ulceration or necrotic ulcer center sus for…

multifocal reddened lesions with white scaling plaques occur in…

A

candida infection

vulvar carcinoma

extramammary Paget disease (intraeepithelial adenocarcinoma)

86
Q

first physical sign of pubery in girls

A

breasts

87
Q

tanner stages

A

stage 1: nipples elevate

stage 2: bud stage small mound, areolar enlarges

stage 3: further enlargen/elevation breast & areola, no separatin of contours

stage 4: projection of areola/nipple to make 2nd mound above breast level

stage 5: mature stage: projection of nipple only, areola receded to general contour of breast or can form secondary mound

88
Q

breast asymmetry common in ____ between tanner stages __ & __

A

adolescents,

stages 2 & 4

benign condition

89
Q

Peds GU:

rashes on external genitals can be from…

vulvovaginal pruritis and erythema can be caused from….

A

physical irriation, sweating, and candidal or bacterial infections (streptococcal infxn)

external irritants, bubble baths, masturbatory activity, pinworms, other infections (candida, STI)

90
Q

Peds GU:

vaginal discharge in early childhood can be from…

purulent, profuse, malodorous & blood tinged discharge should be eval for presence of..

A

perineal irritation (bubble baths or soaps), foreign body, vulvovaginitis, candida, pin worms, STI from sexual abuse

infection, foreign body or trauma

vaginal bleeding = worrisom = further eval!

91
Q

septated hymen

A

hymen with 2 orifices

92
Q

cresent-shaped hymen

A

border lower part of vaginal orifice & extend to posterior and lateral margins of hymenal ring

don’t encircle vaginal orifice

93
Q

annular hymen

A

visible with labial traction

annular = hymen surrounds the orifice circumferentially

94
Q

redundant labial tissue from estrogen effect

A

need more traction or knee-chest position to reveal orifce

if can’t find orifice, consider imperforate hymen

95
Q

physical signs of sexual abuse

A

lacerations, ecchymoses, newly healed scars of hymen, lack of hymenal tissue from 3-9 o’clock while supine, healed hymenal transection

purulent discharge and herpetic lesions

evaluate by sexual abuse expert for complete hx and examination

96
Q

stages of sex maturity rating in boys

A

stage 1: preadolescent - no pubic hair except fine body hair, penis/scrotum/testis same size

stage 2: sparse growth of long slightly pigmneted downy hair, penis slight or no enlargement, testes/scrotum larger

stage 3: darker, coarser, curlier hair over pubic symphysis, penis larger

stage 4: coarse and curly (adult), further enlarged in length and glans, scrotal skin darkened

stage 5: hair adult in quantity and quality, spreads to medial surfaces of thighs, adult size penis/test/scrotum

97
Q

pubic hair maturity rating in girls

A

stage 1: none, only fine body hair (vellus)

stage 2: sparse growth of long, slightly pigmented, downy hair (straight or curled) along labia

stage 3: darker, coarser, curlier hair

stage 4: coarse and curly hair; area covered greater than stage 3 but not as agreat as in adult and not thigh

stage 5: adult in quantity and quality, spreads on medial surfaces of thigh but not over abd

98
Q

two most common causes of delayed sexual development are

obesity cause what in puberty

A

anorexia nervosa and chronic disease

obesity can cause early onset of puberty

99
Q

discriminative sensations depend on touch & position sense, so it’s only useful when sensations are

A

intact or only slightly impaired

100
Q

if touch and position sense are normal, decreased, or absent, discriminative sensation means

A

there’s a lesion in the sensory cortex

101
Q

stereogonosis

A

ability to identify an object by feeling it with eyes closed

use coin or key in hand and tell what it is

stereognosis & 2 point discrimination are also impaired in posterior column disease

102
Q

astereognosis

A

inability to recognize objects placed in hand

103
Q

graphesthesia

A

number identification

use blunt end of pencil and draw a number in pt’s palm to have them identify it

if can’t recognize numbers = graphesthesia = lesion in sensory cortex

104
Q

point localization

if they can’t?

A

touch a point on pt’s skin and ask pt to open both eyes and point to place touched

lesions of sensory cortex impair ability to localize points accurately

105
Q

extinction

A

touch each arm individually, then simultaneously touch corresponding areas on both arms. ask where the pt feels my touch with each stimulus. normaly both stimuli are felt.

lesions in cerebral hemisphere cause extinction of contralateral side, esp lesions in R parietal lobe or right basal ganglia

106
Q

cerebellar function tests

A

rapid alternating movements (RAMs), point to point movements, finger-to-nose, heel to shin, gait

107
Q

for reflex to occur, all components of the reflex arc must be intact, such as

A

sensory nerve fibers

spinal cord synapse

motor nerve fibers

neuromuscular junction

muscle fibers

108
Q

plantar grasp reflex

A

present birth to 6-8 months

touch soles at base of toes = curl

persists: pryamidal tract dysfunction

109
Q

rooting reflex

A

presnt birth to 3-4 months

stroke perioral skin at corners of mouth = open & infant will turn head toward stimulated side and suck

abnormal: severe generalized or CNS disease

110
Q

moro reflex (startle)

A

present birth to 4 months

hold supine supporting head, back, legs. abruptly lower entire body 1 foot. arms should abduct/extend, hands will open, legs flex, infant may cry

neurologic dz (Cerebral palsy) esp if beyond 6 months

111
Q

Asymmetric tonic neck reflex

A

present birth to 2-3 months

infant supine, turn head to 1 side, holding jaw over shoulder. arms/legs on side to which head is turned will extend while opposite arm/leg will flex

persists: asymmetric CNS development, CP

112
Q

trunk incurvation (Galant) reflex

A

present birth to 3-4 months

support infant prone 1 hand and stroke 1 side of the back 1cm from midline, form shoulder to buttock. spine will curve toward stimulated side

transverse spinal cord lesion or injury

113
Q

Parachute reflex

A

present 8 months and does not disappear

suspend infant prone, slowly lower head toward surface; arms and legs will extend in protective fashion

Delay in appearance my predict future delays in voluntary motor development

114
Q

CN I

loss of smell occurs in

A

present familiar nonirritating odor with each nasal and eyes closed

sinus conditions, head trauma, smoking, aging, cocaine, parkinsons

115
Q

CN II

A

optic

visual acuity

inspect optic fundi w/ ophthalmoscope and optic disc (look for bulging and blurred margins (papilledema), pallor (optic atrophy), cup enlargement (glaucoma)

confrontation - visual fields; extinction

116
Q

CN II & III

A

optic & oculomotor

inspect size and shape of pupils

anisocoria (difference of >0.4 mm pupil size compared to other) - if worsens in dark, dilation in 1 eye = horner syndrome

pupillary reaction to light

near response: pupillary constriction, convergence (medial rectus muscle), accomodation (ciliary muscle)

117
Q

CN III, IV, VI

A

oculomotor, trochlear, abducens

extraocular movements in 6 cardinal gaze, look for loss of conjuage movements

convergence

diplopia

nystagmus (involuntary jerking of eyes)

ptosis (drooping of upper eyelid; 3rd nerve palsy, horner syndrome, myasthenia gravis)

118
Q

CN V

A

trigeminal

palpate temporal/masseter and clench teeth; move jaw side to side

if hard to clench = masster/lateral pterygoid weakness

unilateral weakness = pontine lesions; bilateral weakness = bilateral hemispheric dz

test sensation in 3 areas of face using sharp and dull end

if sensory loss, confirm with temp sensation (hot and ice cold water)

loss of sensory = lesions of trigeminal nerve

119
Q

CN VII

A

facial nerve

inspect face for assymetry, any tics

flattening of nasolabial fold/drooping of lower eyelid = facial weakness

raise eyebrows, frown, close eyes tight and open, show upper/lower teeth, smile, puff out both cheeks

bell palsy = peripheral injury to CN VII, loss of taste, inc/dec tearing

120
Q

CN VIII

A

vestibulocochlear

assess gross hearing with whispered voice test and repeat back

if hearing loss, then find out if conductive (air thru ear transmission) or sensorineural (damage to coch branch), test air and bone conduction (rinne test and lateralization using weber test)

vertigo with hearing loss and nystagmys = meniere disease

121
Q

CN IX and X

A

gossopharyngeal and vagus

listen to pts voice (hoarse? vocal cord paralysis)

difficulty swallowing

say “ahh” and watch soft palate and pharynx rise symmetrically, uvula midline

122
Q

CN XI

A

spinal accessory

atrophy or fasciculations (small irreg twitching of muscle fibers) in trap muscles, compare

shrug both shoulders against hands (strength & contraction)

turn head against side of hand and note force against hand

123
Q

CN XII

A

hypoglossal

inspect tongue on floor of mouth, atrophy, fasiciulations

asmmetry, atrophy, or deviation from midline, move tongue side to side for symmetry

poor articulation (dysarthria), tongue atrophy, fasciculations = amotrophic lateral sclerosis and hx of polio

124
Q

primary headache

A

migraine, tension, cluster, trigeminal autonomic cephalagias, and chronic daily headaches

125
Q

secondary headaches

A

underlying structural, systemic, or infectious causes (meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage)

126
Q

“worst headache of my life” with instantaneous onset

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

127
Q

severe headache and stiff neck

A

meningitis

128
Q

dull headache increased by coughing and sneezing, esp recurring in same location

A

mass lesions from brain tumors or abscess

129
Q

atypical presentation of pt’s usual migraine is sus for

A

stroke, esp women using hormonal contraceptives

130
Q

migraine headache often is preceded by an aura or prodrome, is highly likely if…

A

3 out of 5 “POUND” features present:

pulsatile or throbbing

one-day duration or lasts 4-72 hrs if untx

unilateral

nausea/vomiting

disabling or intensity causing interruption of daily activity

131
Q

red flags that warn of h/a needing prompt investigation

A

sudden onset like “thunderclap”

onset after 50 yrs old

with fever and stiff neck

for 3 months

aggrav/reliv by position change

valsava maneuver

presence of cancer, HIV, preg

recent head trauma

change in pattern from past h/a

a/s papilledema, neck stiffness, focal neuro deficits

132
Q

WHO advises women with migraines (and with aura) over 35yrs avoid

A

estrogen progestin contraceptives

133
Q

stroke warning signs

A

F.A.S.T.

facial drooping

arm/leg/face weakness

speech difficulty or understanding

time to call

sudden trouble walking, dizziness, loss of balance or coordination

sudden severe headache

134
Q

define tremor

A

involuntary movement

rhythmic oscillatory movement of a body part resulting from contraction of opposing muscle groups

135
Q

parkinsons tremor

A

tremor that is gone with voluntary movement or sleeping

low frequency unilateral resting tremor, ridigidy, bradykinesia, postural instability

136
Q

essential tremor

A

high freq, bilateral, upper extremity tremor with both limb movement and sustained psoture and subsides when limb is relaxed

137
Q

10 min geriatric screening

A

assess cognitive impairment & functional status

fall risk

urinary incontinence

depression

nutrition

vision/hearing screening

138
Q

what personality disorder is distrust and suspicious?

A

paranoid

139
Q

what personality disorder is detachment from social relations with a restricted emotional range?

A

schizoid

140
Q

what personality disorder is eccentricities in behavior and cognitive distortions, acute discomfort in close relationships?

A

schizotypal characteristic behavior patterns

141
Q

what personality disorder is disregard for and violation of the rights of others?

A

antisocial

142
Q

what personality disorder is instability in interpersonal relationships, self image, and affective regulation, impulsivity?

A

borderline

143
Q

what personality disorder is excessive emotionality and attention seeking?

A

histrionic

144
Q

what personality disorder is persisting grandiosity, needing for admiration and lack of empathy?

A

narcissistic

145
Q

what personality disorder is social inhibition, feelings of inadequate and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation?

A

avoidant

146
Q

what personality disorder is submissive and clinging behavior r/t an excessive need to be taken care of

A

dependent

147
Q

what personality disorder is preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control?

A

obsessive compulsive

148
Q

blocking

A

Sudden interruption of speech in midsentence or before the idea is completed, attributed to “losing the thought.”

occurs in normal people

149
Q

circumstantiality

A

the mildest thought disorder, consisting of speech with unnecessary detail, indirection, and delay in reaching the point.

Some topics may have a meaningful connection. Many people without mental disorders have circumstantial speech.

150
Q

clanging

A

Speech with choice of words based on sound, rather than meaning, as in rhyming and punning.

“Look at my eyes and nose, wise eyes and rosy nose. Two to one, the ayes have it!”

151
Q

confabulation

A

Fabrication of facts or events in response to questions, to fill in the gaps from impaired memory

152
Q

derailment (loosening of associations)

A

Tangential speech with shifting topics that are loosely connected or unrelated.

patient is unaware of the lack of association.

153
Q

echolalia

A

repetition of words and phrases of others

154
Q

flight of ideas

A

An almost continuous flow of accelerated speech with abrupt changes from one topic to the next. Changes are based on understandable associations, plays on words, or distracting stimuli, but ideas are not well connected.

155
Q

incoherence

A

Speech that is incomprehensible and illogical, with lack of meaningful connections, abrupt changes in topic, or disordered grammar or word use. Flight of ideas, when severe, may produce incoherence.

156
Q

neologism

A

Invented or distorted words, or words with new and highly idiosyncratic meanings.

157
Q

perseveration

A

Persistent repetition of words or ideas

158
Q

testing for aphasia

A

if can write correct sentence = no aphasia

word comprehension (follow 1 stage command “point to nose”)

repetition (repeat phrase of 1 syllable words)

naming (name watch parts)

reading comprehension (read paragraph aloud)

writing (write a sentence)

broca aphasia= expresive; preserved comprehension with slow, nonfluent speech and receptive

wernicke aphasia - impaired comprehension with fluent speech

159
Q

Cranial nerves in newborns

A

I olfactory - hard to test

II - vision acuity - look at my face and facial response/tracking

II, III response to light - dark room, sitting w open eyes, test optic blink reflex to light, use otoscope’s light to assess pup response

III, IV, VI - extraocular movements - observe track toy/my face and if eyes move together

V - rooting reflex, sucking reflex (suck breast/bottle/pacifier) and strength

VII facial - observe infant crying/smiling, symmetry

VIII acoustic - blink reflex (blinking from noise)

IX, X - swallow - observe coordination during swallow; test gag reflex

XI - spinal - observe symm of shoulders

XII hypoglossal - observe of sucking, swallowing, tongue thrusting; pinch nostrils; observe mouth open w tip of tongue midline