Exam 3 Worksheet Answers Flashcards

1
Q

Compare the structure of fibrous, cartilage, and synovial joints, and give an example of each. How does the structure affect the mobility of the joint?

A

fibrous joints are held together by connective tissue proper (predominantly fibroblasts, collagen, and little ground substance); suture joints of the skull are an example. Cartilaginous joints are held together by cartilage, typically hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage. The pubic symphysis, holding the two hip bones together anteriorly, is an example of a (fibro)cartilaginous joint. In both fibrous and cartilaginous joints, the connecting material directly attaches to the ends of the bones, preventing them from actually contacting each other directly.
Synovial joints are unique in that the bones are held together by a joint capsule made of dense connective tissue that leaves a space between the two bones; synovial fluid fills the space in the capsule, and lubricates the surfaces where the bones contact one another. This arrangement allows more freedom of movement between the bones while protecting the bony surfaces from wear. All movable joints are synovial joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the role of tendons and ligaments at joints?

A

Ligaments are strong bands of dense regular connective tissue holding two bones together at a synovial joint; they keep the bones from shifting.
Tendons are also made of dense regular connective tissue, and attach muscle to bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What role does fibrocartilage play as an added feature of some synovial joints?

A

Fibrocartilage is used as a stabilizing feature at a select few synovial joints (most synovial joints do not have fibrocartilage).
One use of fibrocartilage at ball and socket joints (hip, shoulder). Another is the meniscus cartilages of the knee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

name the plane in which the movement occurs: Flexion-Extension

A

sagittal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

name the plane in which the movement occurs: Abduction-Adduction

A

coronal (frontal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name the plane in which the movement occurs: Rotation

A

transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name the plane in which the movement occurs: Dorsiflexion-Plantarflexion

A

sagittal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A sac of synovial fluid that provides padding between a bone and another tissue is called a

A

bursa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At the knee joint, synovial fluid is produced by

A

Cells in the membrane lining the joint capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Standing on the toes, as a ballet dancer might do, is as example of which movement?

A

plantarflexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Visualize a cross-section through the forearm. What layers would be apparent? What tissues comprise the layers? What holds the layers together?

A

The outermost layer visible is the skin, which itself has outer and inner layers. The outermost portion of the skin is a stratified squamous epithelium called epidermis; the inner layer of skin is a connective tissue proper layer called the dermis. Deep to the skin is a variable amount of fat, or adipose, tissue. Deep to that are skeletal muscles arranged around the radius and ulna. Dense connective tissue called deep fascia surrounds the muscles and connects on lateral and medial sides to the bones, separating the muscles into anterior and posterior compartments of the forearm. Anterior muscles flex the wrist and fingers; posterior muscles extend the wrist and fingers.
Connective tissue holds bones together, holds muscles to bones, groups muscles into compartments, and attaches skin to muscle – in other words, connective tissue proper connects all the other tissues together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Compare Dense Regular Connective Tissue with Adipose Tissue. Which one would provide a better environment for nerves and muscles to travel through?

A

Dense regular connective tissue is a type of connective tissue proper that contains fibroblasts, large bundles of collagen fibers oriented parallel to one another, and very little gel-like ground substance.
Adipose tissue is also a type of connective tissue proper, but contains large numbers of adipose (fat) cells, small numbers of fibroblasts, little collagen and ample gel-like ground substance. Because collagen is resistant to deformation, dense regular connective tissue is very strong and relatively inflexible. Adipose tissue is much more malleable, and expands easily to accommodate nerves and blood vessels growing through the area. In addition, adipose tissue can act as padding around the nerves and vessels, protecting them from injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do muscle cells attach to bone?

A

Muscle cells do not attach directly to bones. Muscle cells are surrounded by collagen; single cells are surrounded by endomysium, muscle fascicles by perimysium, and the entire muscle by epimysium. These are all names for the collagen-rich connective tissue encasing muscle. As muscle cells contract, they pull on the connective tissues around them. Endo-, peri- and epimysium layers merge to form the tendons at each end of the muscle; ultimately, as muscles contract they pull on the tendons.
Tendons attach to the connective tissue wrapping around a bone, called the periosteum. Collagen fibers of the tendons merge with collagen fibers of the periosteum, allowing a firm attachment to the bone. Thus, when a muscle attaches to a bone, it is the connective tissue around the muscle attaching to the connective tissue around the bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is meant by the term “compartment” when referring to the muscular system?

A

A muscle compartment is a group of skeletal muscles surrounded by a continuous layer of dense connective tissue. This deep fascia is separate from the epimysium which surrounds each individual muscle – rather, it encloses an entire group of muscles, as well as nerves and vessels which travel between the individual muscles. Muscles in a compartment typically share the same action or actions, and are all supplied by the nerve and vessels in the compartment. Trouble in the compartment (inflammation, infection) typically affects all the contents of the compartment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is nerve compression a problem?

A

Nerves are structures in the peripheral nervous system carrying axons to and from target tissues like skin and skeletal muscle. Nerves contain both sensory axons, collecting information from the target and sending it to the CNS, and motor axons, carrying commands from the CNS out to the peripheral targets. Compressing a nerve will compress some or all of the axons in the nerve. Compressing motor axons interferes with the instructions from the CNS to the target. Compressing sensory axons interferes with collecting sensations from the target, and typically also stimulates axons conveying pain from the target, leading to the sensation of pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which type of cell produces collagen fibers

A

osteocytes of compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

deep fascia is an example of which type of tissue

A

dense connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

neuron

A

A neuron is a single electrical cell of the nervous system; it has a cell body, variable numbers of dendrites, an axon, and axon terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

nerve

A

A nerve is a collection of many (dozens to many thousands) of axons, wrapped together with connective tissues (endoneurium around single myelinated axons, perineurium around fascicles, and epineurium surrounding the entire nerve), in the peripheral nervous system. Note that in the peripheral nervous system, the myelin is produced by Schwann cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fiber bundle

A

A fiber bundle is the term used to describe a collection of axons traveling together within the central nervous system. Axons are myelinated by oligodendrocytes in the CNS. There is no connective tissue with in the CNS, so there is no collagen wrapping around individual axons or around groups of axons. Axons simply travel adjacent to neighboring axons in the white matter, but there is no tissue in the CNS that can separate groups of axons from other groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

are nerves and fiber bundles similar in structure?

A

Nerves and fiber bundles as similar structures, in that they are both names given for large numbers of axons traveling together to a target. In the PNS, the axons are supported by connective tissue to form nerves. In the CNS, where there is no connective tissue, axons travel together in bundles without any obvious separation between groups, and are referred to as fiber bundles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the folding of the neural plate to form neural tube and neural crest

A

In the third week of human development, the embryo is a long, flat structure comprised of three cell layers. The nervous system forms from the most posterior (dorsal) of these three layers, the ectoderm. The central portion of this cell sheet undergoes rapid cell division, forming a longitudinal groove down the center of the sheet; this is called the neural groove. As the groove deepens, cells at the surface of the groove meet in the midline, closing the groove into a tube-like structure called the neural tube. This structure sinks under the surface and

forms the central nervous system, which will eventually become the brain and spinal cord. At the edges of the neural groove, called the crest region, another population of cells develops called the neural crest. These cell groups also sink under the surface, on either side of the neural tube; once these cells migrate away they will form all the parts of the peripheral nervous system.
At the surface, once neural crest and neural tube structures have sunk anteriorly, the remaining ectoderm grows back over the entire dorsal surface, to enclose the entire neural tube and neural crest under the skin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List the major divisions of the adult CNS

A

The major divisions of the CNS, from rostral to caudal, are the cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem (with three parts: midbrain, pons and medulla), and spinal cord; the cerebellum develops an outgrowth of the pons but is generally not considered a compartment of the brainstem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Compare the composition of gray matter vs white matter: what cells or cell parts are located in each?

A

Gray and white are the two colors one sees when looking at sections through the CNS. White matter is white because myelin is white in color; thus, white matter represents areas where there are large numbers of myelinated axons traveling together. Gray matter is darker in color because of a relative lack of myelin, not because there are zero myelinated axons in the area. Gray matter contains neural tissue that lacks myelin – this includes cell bodies and dendrites, and axon terminals, and the support cells called astrocytes. Gray matter, then, represents areas where neurons are receiving information from other cells and processing that information. White matter represents the highways where cell bodies are transmitting information down their axons toward other areas of gray matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nucleus in the CNS

A

The word nucleus has several meanings in biology. Each cell has a nucleus, home of its DNA and the metabolic center of the cell. But when we think about the CNS, a nucleus is a term used to refer to a particular clump of gray matter. It represents an area where a large number of neuronal cell bodies are clustered together, and are receiving and processing information. Thus, each nucleus in the CNS is an area of gray matter with a particular function or functions, processing a particular type of information that makes it unique from other nuclear groups (other clumps of gray matter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ganglion in the PNS

A

In the peripheral nervous system, the word nucleus is replaced with the term ganglion. A ganglion is a collection of neuronal cell bodies; all of those cells have a similar function. But ganglia in the PNS are always wrapped by connective tissue, just as axons of peripheral nerves are wrapped by connective tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Distinguish between sensory neurons and motor neurons

A

Sensory neurons collect information from a structure in the periphery (skin, skeletal muscle) and carry that information into the CNS. The axons of those sensory neurons will end at synapses onto CNS neurons. Almost all sensory neurons are pseudounipolar in shape; their cell bodies are in a ganglion in the PNS, and their axon travels through a peripheral nerve until it enters the CNS.
Motor neurons carry information away from the CNS, toward a structure in the periphery (skin, skeletal muscle). Cell bodies of most motor neurons are in the CNS, and their axons travel out through a peripheral nerve to their target.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is meant by the term mixed nerve?

A

A mixed nerve is a peripheral nerve that contains both sensory axons and motor axons (or, put another way, contains axons of sensory neurons and axons of motor neurons). To identify any individual axon as sensory or motor, you would need to know where its cell body resides or which direction action potentials flow down its axons (toward the CNS for sensory axons, away from the CNS for motor axons).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What distinguishes motor nerves from cutaneous nerves and autonomic nerves?

A

Motor nerves are branches of peripheral nerves that travel to skeletal muscle; sensory axons in the motor nerve collect feedback from the muscle, and motor axons in the motor nerve carry commands to the skeletal muscle telling it to contract. Thus, a motor nerve is a mixed nerve carrying information to and from a skeletal muscle. Cutaneous and autonomic nerves are also branches of peripheral nerves, and are also mixed nerves; they are distinguished by their targets. Cutaneous nerves connect to skin, while autonomic (splanchnic) nerves connect to organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Compare convergence and divergence of information in a neural circuit.

A

Neural circuits are neurons connected in series (one neuron connects to a target, which relays information to a different cell, who in turn relays information to another. Motor pathways are characterized by converging circuits: multiple pathways all feed information toward a single motor neuron, which controls a motor unit in a skeletal muscle.
Sensory pathways are characterized by divergence of information: one sensory neuron relays its information to several target cells, each of which has its own unique pathway. Thus, one piece of sensory information (such as pain from stepping on a tack) can end up in multiple places in the CNS, each formulating its own response to the stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what cerebral lobe is the Broca’s area found

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what cerebral lobe is the frontal eye field found

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what cerebral lobe is the limbic lobe found

A

frontal lobe and temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what cerebral lobe is the prefrontal cortex found

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what cerebral lobe is the premotor cortex found

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what cerebral lobe is the primary auditory cortex found

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what cerebral lobe is the primary motor cortex found

A

frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what cerebral lobe is the primary somatosensory cortex found

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what cerebral lobe is the primary visual cortex found

A

occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what cerebral lobe is the wernicke’s area found

A

parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what cortical region is responsible for fine motor control

A

primary motor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what cortical region is responsible for limbic functions (personality)

A

prefrontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what cortical region is responsible for motor planning

A

premotor cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what cortical region is responsible for detecting fine sensory information

A

primary somatosensory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what cortical region damage results in blindness

A

primary visual cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what cortical region damage results in fluent (receptive, sensory) aphasia

A

wenicke’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what cortical region damage results in deviation of eye to side of injury

A

frontal eye field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what cortical region damage results in syndrome of hemineglect

A

somatosensory association cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what cortical region damage results in non-fluent (expressive, motor) aphasia

A

broca’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

anomia

A

can’t name

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

apraxia

A

can’t execute a motor activity based on verbal command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

aphasia

A

language problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

motor/expressive aphasia

A

broca’s aphasia, can’t talk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

sensory/receptive aphasia

A

wernicke’s aphasia, can’t understand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Describe what is meant by “hemispheric lateralization” and name two functions lateralized to the left
and right hemisphere.

A

Hemispheric lateralization describes the preferential localization of certain functions to either the left or right hemisphere. Language is lateralized to the left hemisphere even in most left-handed people. Mathematical ability and word comprehension are primarily left hemisphere functions, while musical ability, producing and understanding speech emotions, shape and face recognition are primarily right hemisphere functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe what is meant by a “topographic map” and name 4 cerebral functions that are mapped

A

The brain needs to respond to environmental cues appropriately (e.g., if your hand is on a hot stove
you don’t want to respond by lifting your leg). The two best-characterized topographic maps are the sensory and motor homunculus that maps body sensations and muscle groups for motor actions. Two other important maps are the tonotopic map of sound frequency/pitch in the primary auditory cortex and the visuotopic map of your visual space in the primary visual cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The primary auditory cortex is located in the

A

temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A shallow groove on the surface of the cerebral cortex is called a

A

sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Broca’s area ________.

A

is considered a motor speech area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what brainstem location is the cerebral peduncle found

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what brainstem location is the inferior colliculus found

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what brainstem location is the nucleus cuneatus found

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what brainstem location is the nucleus gracilis found

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what brainstem location is the olivary nucleus found

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what brainstem location is the pyramids found

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what brainstem location is the red nucleus found

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what brainstem location is the reticular activating system found

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what brainstem location is the substantial nigra found

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what brainstem location is the superior colliculus found

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: brainstem region vital to life (heartbeat, breathing)

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: midbrain nuclei involved in visual tracking of objects

A

superior colliculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: medulla nucleus that receives sensory info from body (leg)

A

nucleus gracilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: medulla axon bundles that carry descending motor info

A

pyramids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: midbrain motor nucleus that controls arm flexion

A

red nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: midbrain structure responsible for maintaining consciousness

A

reticular activating system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: midbrain axon bundles that carry descending motor info

A

cerebral peduncles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: medulla nucleus involved in motor learning

A

olivary nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: brainstem region receiving most face sensory info

A

pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: midbrain nuclei involved in auditory localization

A

inferior colliculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: large axon bundles connecting cerebellum to brainstem

A

cerebellar peduncles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: midbrain nucleus provides majority of dopamine to cerebrum

A

substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: medulla nucleus that receives sensory info from body (arm)

A

nucleus cuneatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: brainstem region involved in maintaining consciousness

A

midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what brainstem structure’s function is: neurons die in parkinson’s disease

A

substantia nigra

85
Q

discuss three reasons why the brainstem is so crucial for life

A

Each region of the brainstem performs a function critical for life. The midbrain contains the
reticular activating system that maintains consciousness. The midbrain, pons, and medulla contain the neuron cell bodies that make dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin neurotransmitters for the entire brain. The medulla contains cardiac and respiratory pacemaker centers that regulate heart rate, force of contraction, blood pressure, and respiration

86
Q

The centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the:

A

medulla oblongata

87
Q

damage to which brainstem region would MOST affect the brainstem’s connection with he cerebellum

A

pons

88
Q

A waiter dropped a tray of glasses and the diners in the entire restaurant turned their heads towards the waiter. Which brainstem structure reflexively initiated the neck turning in response to sounds?

A

inferior colliculus

89
Q

nerve 1

A

olfactory

90
Q

nerve 2

A

optic

91
Q

nerve 3

A

oculomotor

92
Q

nerve 4

A

tochlear

93
Q

nerve 5

A

tigeminal

94
Q

nerve 6

A

abducens

95
Q

nerve 7

A

facial

96
Q

nerve 8

A

vestibulocochlear

97
Q

nerve 9

A

glossopharyngeal

98
Q

nerve 10

A

vagus

99
Q

nerve 11

A

accessory

100
Q

nerve 12

A

hypoglossal

101
Q

olfactory nerve

A

1
sensory
function: smell
test: smell something

102
Q

optic nerve

A

2
sensory
function: vision
test: read eye chart

103
Q

oculomotor nerve

A
3
motor
midbrain
function: eye move, pupil constrict
test: track object, flashlight response
104
Q

trochlear nerve

A
4
motor
midbrain
function: eye movement
test: track an object
105
Q

trigeminal nerve

A
5
both motor and sensory
pons
function: S-senses of face, M-chew
test: touch face, corneal reflex; bite down
106
Q

abducens nerve

A
6
motor
pons
function: eye movement
test: track an object
107
Q

facial nerve

A
7
both sensory and motor
pons
function: s-taste, tears, saliva, M-face
test: taste, corneal reflex, smile, close eyes
108
Q

vestibulocochlear nerve

A
8
sensory
pons
function: hearing/balance
test: hear tuning fork, romberg's test
109
Q

glossopharyngeal nerve

A
9
both sensory and motor
medulla
function: s-taste, saliva, M-swallow
test: taste, swallow, brain blood pressure
110
Q

vagus nerve

A

10
both sensory and motor
medulla
function: s-taste, saliva, viscera; m-pharynx, larynx, viscera
test: taste, swallow, heart and breathing rate, body blood pressure

111
Q

accessory nerve

A
11
motor
medulla
function: m-pharynx/larynx, muscles of neck/shoulder
test: swallow, turn head
112
Q

hyoglossal nerve

A
12
motor
medulla
function: muscle of tongue
test: stick out tongue
113
Q

A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down, left and right. Which of the following cranial nerves
is being tested?

A

abducens (6)

114
Q

Bell’s palsy is

A

characterized by paralysis of facial muscles

115
Q
Which of the following is NOT a mixed cranial nerve containing both motor and sensory fibers? 
A. facial
B. oculomotor
C. trigeminal
D. vagus
A

oculomotor

116
Q

sensory/motor/both saying

A

some say marry money but my brother says big brains matter more

117
Q

nerve saying

A

oh oh oh to touch and feel very green veggies ah heaven

118
Q

ascending (up) spinal cord axons convey this type of info

A

sensory information

119
Q

the innermost connective tissue layer of a peripheral nerve

A

endoneurium

120
Q

this spinal cord region consists of 8 segments

A

cervical spinal cord

121
Q

motor neuron cells bodies are located in this region of gray matter

A

ventral horn gray matter

122
Q

this nerve innervates the diaphragm

A

phrenic nerve

123
Q

this structure contains the cell bodies of sensory neurons

A

dorsal root ganglion

124
Q

this part of a spinal nerve carries sensory information

A

dorsal root of spinal nerve

125
Q

the spinal cord region that contain the most white matter

A

cervical spinal cord

126
Q

the region of skin innervated by 1 spinal nerve

A

dermatome

127
Q

this plexus innervate the lower extremity (leg)

A

lumbosacral plexus

128
Q

the outermost connective tissue layer of a peripheral nerve

A

epineurium

129
Q

these spinal cord regions contain more gray matter

A

lumbar spinal cord and cervical spinal cord

130
Q

a bundle of axons

A

fascicle

131
Q

these spinal cord regions contain sympathetic neurons

A

lumbar spinal cord and thoracic spinal cord

132
Q

a major nerve of the lumbosacral plexus

A

sciatic nerve

133
Q

motor neurons in this spinal cord region innervate the arm

A

cervical spinal cord

134
Q

this spinal cord region only consists of 1 segment

A

coccygeal spinal cord

135
Q

the collection of spinal nerves below the spinal cord

A

cauda equina

136
Q

descending (down) spinal cord axons convey this type of info

A

motor information

137
Q

this plexus innervates the upper extremity (arm)

A

brachial plexus

138
Q

the spinal cord ends in this tapered (pointed) structure

A

conus medullaris

139
Q

this spinal cord region consists of 12 segments

A

thoracic spinal cord

140
Q

h-shaped spinal cord region containing cell bodies and synapses

A

gray matter

141
Q

this region of gray matter contains the synapses of sensory neurons

A

dorsal horn gray matter

142
Q

this spinal cord region contains parasympathetic neurons

A

sacral spinal cord

143
Q

this part of a spinal nerve carries motor information

A

ventral root of spinal nerve

144
Q

this plexus contains a nerve that innervates the diaphragm

A

cervical plexus

145
Q

these spinal cord regions consist of 5 segments

A

lumbar spinal cord and sacral spinal cord

146
Q

motor neurons in this spinal cord region innervate the leg

A

lumbar spinal cord

147
Q

this connective tissue structure attaches the end of the spinal cord to the dura mater

A

filum terminal

148
Q

this spinal cord region innervates the bladder, bowel, and reproductive organs

A

sacral spinal cord

149
Q

the middle connective tissue layer that surrounds axon fascicles

A

perineurium

150
Q

the spinal cord region containing ascending and descending axons

A

white matter

151
Q

dorsal root nerve damage

A

loss of sensory function only

152
Q

spinal nerve damage

A

loss of sensory and motor function

153
Q

ventral root nerve damage

A

loss of motor function only

154
Q

Discuss why the spinal cord ends at the first lumbar vertebrae.

A

Nervous system growth is largely complete at 5 years of age, but the body continues to grow. Thus, the spinal cord ends at approximately the first lumbar (L1) vertebrae and all the innervation below that level originates from the cauda equine (a collection of spinal nerves).

155
Q

Discuss the purpose of the cervical and lumbar enlargement.

A

The cervical and lumbar enlargements have large ventral horns, the gray matter region that contains motor neurons. These motor neurons innervate the upper and lower extremities, respectively.

156
Q

Describe why the cervical spinal cord is so large.

A

As discussed above, the cervical spinal cord has an enlarged ventral horn to innervate the upper extremity. However, it also has the greatest amount of white matter because it contains all the descending axons to control motor function as well as all the ascending axons bringing information from the entire body to the brain.

157
Q

The white matter of the spinal cord contains:

A

myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers

158
Q

Striking the “funny bone” (ulnar nerve) may cause injury to a nerve of this plexus

A

brachial plexus

159
Q

A 16-year-old cheerleader was brought to the Emergency Department after she fell from the top of a human pyramid. She cannot sense touch or move her legs and cannot sense touch anywhere on her abdomen or back. However, she can sense touch and move her arms and has no problems breathing. Her spinal cord injury is most likely located at which spinal cord level?

A

T2

160
Q

anterior cerebral artery

A

anterior circulation

161
Q

anterior communicating artery

A

anterior circulation

162
Q

basilar artery

A

posterior circulation

163
Q

internal carotid artery

A

anterior circulation

164
Q

middle cerebral artery

A

anterior circulation

165
Q

posterior cerebral arter

A

posterior circulation

166
Q

vertebral artery

A

posterior circulation

167
Q

what artery supplies the majority of the cerebrum

A

middle cerebral artery

168
Q

what artery supples the face

A

middle cerebral artery

169
Q

what artery supplies the cerebellum

A

vertebrobasilar artery

170
Q

what artery supplies the brook’s area

A

middle cerebral artery

171
Q

what artery supplies the primary visual cortex

A

posterior cerebral artery

172
Q

what artery supplies the brainstem

A

vertebrobasilar artery

173
Q

what artery supples the leg/foot

A

anterior cerebral artery

174
Q

what artery supplies the primary auditory cortex

A

middle cerebral artery

175
Q

what artery supplies wernicke’s area

A

middle cerebral artery

176
Q

what artery supplies the arm

A

middle cerebral artery

177
Q

what artery damage would result in an aphasia

A

middle cerebral artery

178
Q

what artery damage would result in hemineglect

A

middle cerebral artery

179
Q

what artery damage would result in the inability to recognize faces

A

posterior cerebral artery

180
Q

Compare stroke and transient ischemic attack

A

A transient ischemic attack is a forewarning sign that there is decreased blood flow to the brain. As the term “transient” implies, the symptoms are temporary and resolve on their own, leaving no permanent neurological deficit. This differs from a stroke where there are neurological deficits for at least an hour. A TIA is usually due to a small clot that temporarily blocks blood flow, but then is pushed through the vessel due to the high pressure of blood behind the clot. Many people who have a TIA will go on to have a full stroke once the clot gets large enough to completely block a vessel’s blood flow

181
Q

Compare thrombotic and hemorrhagic strokes

A

Thrombotic strokes are caused by the blockade of a blood vessel, most often by an
arteriosclerotic/fatty plaque or a blood clot. Hemorrhagic strokes occur when the vessel ruptures. Thrombotic strokes are often preceded by a TIA and patients could be given clot-busting drugs to prevent the complete blockade of the vessel. If the clot blocks the vessel long enough, the vessel wall will weaken and rupture, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.

182
Q

Compare berry aneurysms and microaneurysms in terms of cause and clinical presentation

A

Berry aneurysms are most often located outside the brain in the vessels of the circle of Willis.
When they rupture, high pressure arterial blood fills the subarachnoid space and blocks CSF flow, thereby causing a rapid increase in intracranial pressure. Berry aneurysms are congenital and trauma is the most common cause for the aneurysm to rupture. Patients describe this as “the worst headache of my life” or feeling like “my head was going to explode”. Microaneurysms are present in vessels within the brain. Hypertension causes these vessels to rupture, resulting in a hemorrhagic stroke. The symptoms present will depend where the vessels ruptured

183
Q

CSF filled spaces within the brain

A

ventricles

184
Q

venous filled cavity that CSF drains into

A

dural sinus

185
Q

infection resulting in headache, fever, and stiff neck

A

meningitis

186
Q

meninges

A

arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater

187
Q

type of blood clot caused by shaken baby syndrome

A

subdural hematoma

188
Q

caused by rupture of aneurysm in the circle of willis

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

189
Q

outermost meninge layer

A

dura mater

190
Q

“water on the brain”

A

hydrocephalus

191
Q

dura mater that helps support brain weight

A

dural septa

192
Q

structures involved in CSF resorption

A

arachnoid granulations

193
Q

structure that makes CSF

A

choroid plexus

194
Q

innermost meninge layer

A

pia mater

195
Q

CSF filled space outside brain and spinal cord

A

subarachnoid space

196
Q

middle meaning layer

A

arachnoid mater

197
Q

dural septa between two cerebral hemispheres

A

falx cerebri

198
Q

type of blood clot caused when elderly fall

A

subdural hematoma

199
Q

“the worst headache of my life”

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

200
Q

distortion of the brain due to increased intracranial pressure

A

herniation

201
Q

dural septa that separates the cerebrum and cerebellum

A

tentorium cerebellum

202
Q

Why can the circumventricular organs monitor the blood for toxins, glucose levels, oxygen levels,
etc?

A

The blood vessels within the brain and choroid plexus are held together by specialized proteins that prevent substances from entering the brain; thus the brain is protected. In order to enter the brain, the substance must have a specific transporter protein on the blood vessel or the substance must be lipophilic and can sneak through the plasma membrane. Thus, in order for the brain to know what is happening in the body, there must be certain regions of the brain that lack a blood-brain barrier and can detect blood composition (e.g., salt, oxygen/carbon dioxide, hormone levels, toxins, etc). These circumventricular organs are located around the ventricles, mostly around the hypothalamus to maintain homeostasis.

203
Q

Compare subdural and epidural hematomas in terms of cause and prognosis.

A

Subdural hematomas are caused by rupture of the veins leading to the venous sinuses. Low-
pressure venous blood accumulates under the dura. Because it is venous blood, the increase in intracranial pressure within the skull is slower and symptoms develop over days to weeks. In contrast, an epidural hematoma is caused by rupture of an artery, usually due to significant head trauma. There is a brief lucid period where the person feels fine, but this is followed by a rapid accumulation of blood between the skull and dura. If the hematoma is not removed, death can occur within hours.

204
Q

Compare hydrocephalus and bacterial meningitis in terms of where within the ventricular system the obstruction occurs.

A

Hydrocephalus is usually caused by a blockade WITHIN the ventricular system (e.g., clot from a
stroke, brain tumor, swelling from head, etc). In bacterial meningitis there is a blockade OUTSIDE the ventricular system as the transport of CSF in the subarachnoid space is blocked. Since CSF continues to be produced in both cases, there is an increase in intracranial pressure that can result in brain herniation and death if not promptly treated.

205
Q

Why can alcohol pass through the blood-brain barrier?

A

alcohol is lipid soluble

206
Q

These CNS cells have cilia that move cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) through the ventricles:

A

ependymal cells

207
Q

the cerebellum is supplied blood by the

A

posterior circulation

208
Q

Sandy’s mother had a stroke and now can no longer recognize her daughter. What blood vessel was most likely affected in Sandy’s mother?

A

right posterior cerebral artery