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ANPS 019 > Block 4 Worksheet Answers > Flashcards

Block 4 Worksheet Answers Flashcards

1
Q

what receptor monitors limb position

A

golgi tendon organ
muscle spindle
proprioceptor

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2
Q

what receptor monitors pain

A

free nerve ending

nociceptor

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3
Q

what receptor is activated by muscle stretch

A

muscle spindle

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4
Q

what receptor is a superficial vibration detector

A

meissner’s corpuscle

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5
Q

what receptor is a deep pressure detector

A

ruffini ending

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6
Q

what receptor monitors muscle tension

A

golgi tendon organ

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7
Q

what receptor is a superficial pressure detector

A

merkel cell

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8
Q

what receptor monitors muscle length

A

muscle spindle

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9
Q

what receptor is a deep vibration detector

A

pacinian corpuscle

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10
Q

what receptor monitors blood pressure, bladder volume, gut contraction

A

baroreceptor

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11
Q

what pathway has information that crosses in the spinal cord

A

neospinothalamic

paleospinothalamic

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12
Q

what pathway has information cross in the cerebellum

A

cuneospinocerebellar

dorsal spinocerebellar

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13
Q

what pathway has information cross in the medulla

A

dorsal column

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14
Q

what pathway has two tracts collectively referred to as anterolateral

A

neospinothalamic

paleospinothalamic

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15
Q

what pathway conveys chronic low back pain

A

paleospinothalamic

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16
Q

what pathway conveys unconscious proprioception

A

cuneospinocerebellar

dorsal spinocerebellar

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17
Q

what pathway becomes activated if you stub your toe

A

neospinothalamic

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18
Q

what pathway allows you to identify an object placed in your hand

A

dorsal column

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19
Q

what pathway conveys acute/sharp pain info

A

neospinothalamic

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20
Q

what pathway allows you to accurately catch a ball

A

cuneospinocerebellar

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21
Q

what pathway conveys conscious somatosensation/proprioception

A

dorsal column

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22
Q

what pathway activates when you have a stomach ache

A

paleospinothalamic

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23
Q

what pathway allows you to accurately kick a ball

A

dorsal spinocerebellar

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24
Q

what pathway primary afferent neuron does NOT synapse in the spinal cord

A

dorsal column

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25
Q

what pathway activates brainstem structures that provide descending pain modulation

A

paleospinothalamic

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26
Q

what term matches the pain description of: exaggerated painful response to a noxious stimulus

A

hyperalgesia

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27
Q

what term matches the pain description of: “normal pain”

A

nociciptive pain

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28
Q

what term matches the pain description of: neuropathic pain from an amputated limb

A

phanthom limb pain

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29
Q

what term matches the pain description of: pain that persists long after all tissue injury is healed

A

neuropathic pain

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30
Q

what term matches the pain description of: a painful response to a normally non-noxious stimulus

A

allodynia

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31
Q

what term matches the pain description of: mapping of visceral pain to a nearby somatic area

A

referred pain

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32
Q

Compare receptor potentials and action potentials

A

Receptor potential are graded and summed. In contrast, action potentials are all-or-none.

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33
Q

Compare somatosenstion and proprioception

A

Somatosensation involves cutaneous/skin receptors to detect fine touch, pressure, vibration, pain, and
temperature. Proprioception involves muscle, tendon, and joint receptors to detect muscle length, muscle tension and joint angle to determine where your body is in space.

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34
Q

Discuss why two tracts are required for proprioception

A

There are two types of proprioception - conscious and unconscious. Muscle spindles, Golgi tendon
organs and joint receptors are activated when the body moves. These receptors simultaneously activate two pathways - dorsal column-medial lemniscus and spinocerebellar. The dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway does not synapse in the spinal cord, the first synapse is in the medulla in the gracile nucleus (leg information) or cuneate nucleus (arm information). The neurons in the nucleus cross, to become the medial lemniscus, to synapse in the contralateral thalamus, then the cortex; thus, detecting CONSCIOUS proprioception. The receptors for the spinocerebellar pathway synapse in the spinal cord and then send body position information to the ipsilateral cerebellum; thus, UNCONSCIOUS proprioception. The cerebellum then helps coordinate the movement and sends the information to the contralateral thalamus. At this point, the thalamus can compare the direct, unmodified info with the modified info from the cerebellum. The thalamus then sends the appropriate message to the cortex

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35
Q

Discuss why two spinothalamic tracts are required for pain

A

The body perceives two types of pain, sharp and dull. The sharp pain is acute and must be responded
to quickly. The neurons that convey sharp pain info synapse in the spinal cord, cross in the cord and goes directly to the thalamus, then cortex for fast perception. This pathway is referred to as neospinothalamic. Dull pain is chronic and there is descending systems in the brainstem and spinal cord that help modulate pain. The neurons that convey chronic pain info synapse in the spinal cord and cross in the cord like the sharp pain info, but as the axons ascend up to the thalamus, they send branches to two structures in the brainstem. One structure releases serotonin to decrease pain, another structure releases endogenous opiates. Together, this inhibits the ability of pain neurons to release substance P into the spinal cord and provides strong inhibition of pain. This pathway is referred to as paleospinothalamic.

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36
Q

An intensely painful stimulus is sensed differently than a mildly painful one due to
A. a greater frequency of action potential firing.
B. increased magnitude of action potential depolarization. C. a greater number of receptors activated.
D. all of the above

A

a greater frequency of action potential firing

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37
Q

Somatosensation, which is a combination of touch, pressure, stretch and vibration, primarily uses this type of receptor:
A. mechanoreceptors
B. nociceptors
C. proprioceptors D. thermoreceptors

A

mechanoreceptors

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38
Q

Which receptors adapt most quickly? A. nociceptors
B. pressure receptors C. proprioceptors
D. vibration receptors

A

vibration receptors

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39
Q

Spinocerebellar tracts
A. terminate in the spinal cord.
B. carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum. C. detect the conscious perception of touch.
D. are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

A

carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum.

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40
Q

This tract conveys information concerning extreme temperature and sharp pain: A. dorsal column-medial lemniscus
B. neospinothalamic
C. paleospinothalamic
D. spinocerebellar

A

neospinothalamic

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41
Q

what reflex is activated by a noxious stimulus

A

crossed extensor reflex

withdraw reflex

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42
Q

what reflex is activated by muscle spindles

A

myotatic reflex

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43
Q

what reflex is activated by golgi tendon organs

A

inverse myotatic reflex

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44
Q

what reflex is a flexor reflex

A

crossed extensor reflex

withdraw reflex

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45
Q

what reflex is a lengthening reflex

A

inverse myotatic reflex

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46
Q

what reflex is referred to as the patellar reflex

A

myotatic reflex

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47
Q

what reflex is a stretch reflex

A

myotatic reflex

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48
Q

is the corticobulbar tract part of the involuntary voluntary motor system

A

voluntary

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49
Q

is the anterior corticospinal tract part of the involuntary voluntary motor system

A

involuntary/postural

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50
Q

is the lateral corticospinal tract part of the involuntary voluntary motor system

A

voluntary

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51
Q

is the reticulospinal tract part of the involuntary voluntary motor system

A

involuntary/postural

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52
Q

is the rubrospinal tract part of the involuntary voluntary motor system

A

voluntary

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53
Q

is the tectospinal tract part of the involuntary voluntary motor system

A

involuntary/postural

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54
Q

is the vestibulospinal tract part of the involuntary voluntary motor system

A

involuntary/postural

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55
Q

what disorder is characterized by a shaky movement

A

tremor

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56
Q

what disorder is characterized by an increased resistance to passive extension

A

spasticity

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57
Q

what disorder is characterized by a result from damage to the basal ganglia

A

chorea, resting tremor

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58
Q

what disorder is characterized by increased reflexes due to reticulospinal tract damage

A

hyperreflexia

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59
Q

what disorder is characterized by a result from damage to lateral corticospinal tract

A

babinski sign

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60
Q

what disorder is characterized by a patient unable to maintain balance with eyes closed

A

romberg sign

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61
Q

what disorder is characterized by a jerky movement

A

chorea

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62
Q

what disorder is characterized by a result from cerebellar damage

A

ataxia, intention tremor

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63
Q

what disorder is characterized by clumsiness; shaky, unsteady movement

A

ataxia

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64
Q

what symptom would you have if you had dorsal root nerve damage

A

loss of sensory function only

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65
Q

what symptom would you have if you had lower motor neuron damage

A

loss of motor function only

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66
Q

what symptom would you have if you had spinal nerve damage

A

loss of sensory and motor function

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67
Q

what symptom would you have if you had upper motor neuron damage

A

hyperreflexia, spasticity

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68
Q

what symptom would you have if you had ventral root nerve damage

A

loss of motor function only

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69
Q

damage to the tract does not produce any clinical symptoms correlates to what structure

A

anterior corticospinal tract
corticobulbar tract
tectospinal tract
vestibulospinal tract

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70
Q

structure that regulates the starting and stopping of motor activities correlates to what structure

A

basal ganglia

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71
Q

damage to this tract causes a decerebrate posture correlates to what structure

A

rubrospinal tract

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72
Q

tract that innervates motor brainstem cranial nerve nuclei correlates to what structure

A

corticobulbar tract

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73
Q

located in cerebral cortex and brainstem, modulate alpha motor neurons correlates to what structure

A

upper motor neuron

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74
Q

tract that controls voluntary fine motor movements of distal muscles correlates to what structure

A

lateral corticospinal tract

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75
Q

damage to this tract causes a babinski sign correlates to what structure

A

lateral corticospinal tract

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76
Q

tract that primarily innervates arm flexors correlates to what structure

A

rubrospinal tract

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77
Q

damage to this tract produces a decorticate posture correlates to what structure

A

lateral corticospinal tract

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78
Q

tract that involves the superior colliculus correlates to what structure

A

tectospinal tract

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79
Q

damage to this structure results in intention tremor correlates to what structure

A

cerebellum

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80
Q

tract involved in the startle response correlates to what structure

A

tectospinal tract

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81
Q

tract that originates in the red nucleus correlates to what structure

A

rubrospinal tract

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82
Q

damage to this tract causes loss of RIFMs correlates to what structure

A

lateral corticospinal tract

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83
Q

tract activated by receptors in the inner ear correlates to what structure

A

vestibulospinal tract

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84
Q

tracts present in the cerebral peduncle correlates to what structure

A

anterior corticospinal tract
corticobulbar tract
lateral corticospinal tract

85
Q

tract involved in maintaining balance correlates to what structure

A

vestibulospinal tract

86
Q

tract that involves the inferior colliculus correlates to what structure

A

tectospinal tract

87
Q

tracts present in the pyramids correlates to what structure

A

anterior corticospinal tract

lateral corticospinal tract

88
Q

structure that relates balance and refines the motor plan correlates to what structure

A

cerebellum

89
Q

tract that primarily innervates neck and shoulder muscles correlates to what structure

A

tectospinal tract

90
Q

located in brainstem and spinal cord, innervate skeletal muscles correlates to what structure

A

lower motor neuron

91
Q

tracts that innervate motor neurons bilaterally correlates to what structure

A

anterior corticospinal tract
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
vestibulospinal tract

92
Q

damage to this structure results in resting tremor correlates to what structure

A

basal ganglia

93
Q

damage t this tract produces hyperreflexia of deep tendon reflexes correlates to what structure

A

reticulospinal tract

94
Q

tracts innervating postural muscles correlates to what structure

A

anterior corticospinal tract
reticulospinal tract
tectospinal tract
vestibulospinal tract

95
Q

Compare the location and function of upper & lower motor neurons

A

Upper motor neurons are located in the cerebral cortex and brainstem. In the cortex, the neurons are the origin of the corticospinal tract to innervate the body and the corticobulbar tract to innervate the cranial nerve nuclei that have a motor function. Upper motor neurons don’t innervate muscle; rather, they control the lower motor neurons that innervate muscles. Damage to upper motor neurons in the corticospinal tract cause a loss of rapid independent finger movements (RIFMs), Babinski sign, and decorticate posture. Damage to the upper motor neurons of the rubrospinal tract causes a decerebrate posture. Damage to the upper motor neurons of the reticulospinal tract causes hyperreflexia and spasticity.
Lower motor neurons are located in the brainstem and spinal cord. These motor neurons DO innervate skeletal muscles. The lower motor neurons in the brainstem form the cranial nerves while the motor neurons in the spinal cord form spinal nerves. Damage to the lower motor neurons cause areflexia and muscle atrophy.

96
Q

Compare the myotatic and inverse myotatic reflex

A

The myotatic and inverse myotatic reflexes are initiated by different receptors in response to
increased muscle length or tension. The myotatic reflex is activated by the muscle spindle receptor when it detects increased muscle length (e.g., hitting the patellar tendon lengthens the quadriceps muscles). To prevent the muscle from overstretching, the lower motor neuron activates the agonist muscle (the muscle that is being stretched) and an inhibitory neuron inhibits the antagonist muscle group (i.e., the hamstrings) to allow relaxation. The inverse myotatic reflex is activated by the Golgi tendon organ receptor when it detects increased muscle tension. To prevent muscle damage, the lower motor neuron activates the antagonist muscle group (e.g., if holding a weight, the triceps is activated to relieve tension in the biceps holding the weight) and an inhibitory neuron inhibits the agonist muscle group to relieve the tension.

97
Q

Compare the function of the medial and lateral descending motor systems

A

There are two descending motor systems - medial and lateral. The medial system regulates
axial muscles to control posture. The medial motor system includes the anterior corticospinal tract (most postural control), tectospinal tract (startle reflex from the superior or inferior colliculus to CN XI lower motor neurons to innervate the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles to turn the neck), vestibulospinal (activated by the fluid-filled vestibular apparatus in the inner ear to correct postural changes), and reticulospinal (inhibits extensor muscles). The lateral motor system includes the lateral corticospinal tract from the cortex to innervate lower motor neurons that innervate distal muscles for fine motor control and the rubrospinal tract from the red nucleus to the cervical enlargement to innervate lower motor neurons to forearm flexors.

98
Q

The crossed-extensor reflex is important when:

a. someone taps on your patellar tendon.
b. you hold a barbell for too long.
c. you overextend your leg during the long jump.
d. you step barefoot on a sharp object.

A

you step barefoot on a sharp object.

99
Q

pinocerebellar tracts

a. terminate in the spinal cord.
b. carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum.
c. give rise to conscious perception of touch and vibration.
d. are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

A

carry information about muscle or tendon stretch to the cerebellum

100
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Damage to the primary motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions.
b. Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible.
c. Damage to the visual association area can result in the inability to interpret what is seen.
d. Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location.

A

Damage to the primary motor cortex results in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and all reflexive contractions.

101
Q

Which of the following tracts in involved in voluntary movement?

a. anterior corticospinal and rubrospinal
b. lateral corticospinal and corticobulbar
c. lateral corticospinal and tectospinal
d. reticulospinal and tectospinal

A

lateral corticospinal and corticobulbar

102
Q

what visual structure is controlled by the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

A

iris

103
Q

what visual structure is the layer of the globe/eyeball that can develop skin cancer

A

choroid

104
Q

what visual structure produces aqueous humor

A

ciliary body

105
Q

what visual structure when damaged produces “tunnel vision”

A

optic chiasm

106
Q

what visual structure produces tears

A

lacrimal glands

107
Q

what visual structure is the most common organ transplant

A

cornea

108
Q

what visual structure contains photoreceptors that detect black/white

A

rods

109
Q

what visual structure contains axons of retinal ganglion cells that exit eye

A

optic nerve

110
Q

what visual structure is fibrous tunic structure that gives eye its shape

A

sclera

111
Q

what visual structure is the iris opening that allows light to enter the eye

A

pupil

112
Q

what visual structure is a vascular layer of retina

A

choroid

113
Q

what visual structure is a membrane that covers inner surface of eyelid

A

conjunctiva

114
Q

what visual structure is a layer of eye that contains photoreceptors

A

retina

115
Q

what visual structure is avascular fibrous tunic layer

A

cornea or sclera

116
Q

what visual structure is “blind spot”, part of retina lacking photoreceptors

A

optic disc

117
Q

what visual structure is the external eye structure that protects the cornea

A

eyelashes

118
Q

what visual structure are contact lens placed on

A

cornea

119
Q

what visual structure is CSF-like liquid that provides nutrients to cornea

A

aqueous humor

120
Q

what visual structure is the white of the eye

A

sclera

121
Q

what visual structure are the photoreceptors that detect color

A

cone

122
Q

what visual structure is the colored part of the eye

A

iris

123
Q

what visual structure controls tension on lens

A

ciliary body

124
Q

what visual structure when damage results in blindness to the eye

A

optic nerve

125
Q

what visual structure provides most focusing power of the eye

A

cornea

126
Q

what visual structure is the retinal area with most cone photoreceptors

A

macula/fovea

127
Q

what visual structure is part of visual pathway for tracking of objects

A

superior colliculus

128
Q

what visual structure is gelatinous material that helps maintain eye shape

A

vitreous humor

129
Q

what disorder is described by accumulation of aqueous humor

A

glaucoma

130
Q

what disorder is described by misalignment of the eyes

A

strabismus

131
Q

what disorder is described by disorder when lens becomes cloudy

A

cataract

132
Q

what disorder is described by far-sighted

A

hyperopia

133
Q

what disorder is described by harmless breakdown product of the virtuous humor

A

floater

134
Q

what disorder is described by misshaped cornea

A

astigmatism

135
Q

what disorder is described by poor vision due to vitamin A deficiency

A

night-blindness

136
Q

what disorder is described by double vision

A

diplopia

137
Q

what disorder is described by near-sighted

A

myopia

138
Q

what disorder is described by #1 cause of blindness

A

cataract

139
Q

what disorder is described by #2 cause of blindness

A

glaucoma

140
Q

what disorder is described by “pink eye”

A

conjunctivitis

141
Q

what disorder is described by normal vision

A

emmetropia

142
Q

what disorder is described by genetic defect in opsin protein

A

color blindness

143
Q

what disorder is described by a warning sign of renal detachment

A

flasher

144
Q

Why is color blindness more common in men than women?

A

Color blindness is caused by genetic alterations to the opsin photopigment protein. Photopigments (i.e., rod rhodopsin and cone iodopsin) have two parts - retinal (a vitamin A derivative) and opsin (a protein). Proteins are encoded by genes and the genes for the green and red opsin proteins are located on the X sex chromosome. If a man inherits an altered opsin gene from their mother (and the Y chromosome from their father) they will have colorblindness. However, if a woman inherits an altered X chromosome from their mother or father, they have a 50% chance of inheriting a normal X chromosome from their father and will be a “carrier”, but not be colorblind.

145
Q

This visual disorder is caused by blockade of aqueous humor absorption, resulting in increased
intraocular pressure and compression of the retina and optic nerve: A. cataracts
B. glaucoma
C. presbyopia
D. strabismus

A

glaucoma

146
Q

Activation of the sympathetic nervous system results in:
A. pupil constriction and increased far vision.
B. pupil constriction and increased near vision.
C. pupil dilation and increased far vision.
D. pupil dilation and increased near vision.

A

pupil dilation and increased far vision

147
Q 
What causes color blindness?
A. loss of rods within the retina
B. not enough vitamin A in the diet
C. altered green or red cones in the fovea
D. loss of central vision
A

altered green or red cones in the fovea

148
Q

The elasticity of the lens decreases with age. This leads to:
A. clouding of the lens known as a cataract.
B. difficulty focusing on near objects known as presbyopia.
C. difficulty focusing on near objects known as myopia.
D. poor visual acuity (i.e., fuzzy vision) known as astigmatism

A

difficulty focusing on near objects known as presbyopia.

149
Q 
This visual structure controls the amount of light that strikes the retina:
A. ciliary body
B. cornea
C. iris
D. pupil
A

iris

150
Q

is the auricle/pinna part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

outer

151
Q

is the auditory ossicles part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

152
Q

is the cochlea part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

inner

153
Q

is the eustachian tube part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

154
Q

is the malleus part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

155
Q

is the stapedius part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

156
Q

is the semicircular canals part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

inner

157
Q

is the incus part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

158
Q

is the organ of corti part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

inner

159
Q

is the tympanic membrane part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

outer

160
Q

is the stapes part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

161
Q

is the tensor tympani part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

162
Q

is the vestibule (utricle/saccule) part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

inner

163
Q

is the tympanic cavity part of the inner, middle, or outer ear

A

middle

164
Q

what auditory structure is the muscle that reduces movement of the stapes at the oval window

A

stapedius

165
Q

what auditory structure is the “anvil”

A

incus

166
Q

what auditory structure is the structure that contains auditory receptors

A

organ of corti

167
Q

what auditory structure is the inner ear structure for equilibrium and linear movement

A

vestibule

168
Q

what auditory structure is the “eardrum”

A

tympanic membrane

169
Q

what auditory structure is the middle ear bond attached to hammer and stirrup

A

incus

170
Q

what auditory structure is the muscle that stiffen tympanic membrane

A

tensor tympani

171
Q

what auditory structure is the canal that collects sound

A

external auditory canal

172
Q

what auditory structure is the auditory ossicles

A

incus
malleus
stapes

173
Q

what auditory structure is the “hammer”

A

malleus

174
Q

what auditory structure is the middle ear bone attached to the oval window

A

stapes

175
Q

what auditory structure is the inner ear structure (“snail”) that contains auditory receptors

A

cochlea

176
Q

what auditory structure is the inner ear structure that detects angular movement/rotation

A

semicircular canals

177
Q

what auditory structure is the membrane that forms the “roof” over the organ of corti

A

tectorial membrane

178
Q

what auditory structure is the canal that equalizes pressure in the middle ear

A

eustachian tube

179
Q

what auditory structure is the “stirrup”

A

stapes

180
Q

what auditory structure is the middle ear bone attached to tympanic membrane

A

malleus

181
Q

what auditory structure is the muscles that protect ear from prolonged loud sounds

A

stapedius, tensor tympani

182
Q

what auditory structure is the ear lobe

A

auricle/pinna

183
Q

what auditory structure is the auditory receptors

A

hair cells

184
Q

what auditory structure is the organ of court rests on this membrane

A

basilar membrane

185
Q

what auditory structure is the cochlear membrane that sound vibration “exit”

A

round window

186
Q

what auditory structure is the membrane attached to stirrup, transfers sound vibrations from middle ear to inner ear

A

oval window

187
Q

Describe the function of the outer, middle, and inner ear and two structures in each that are
responsible for that function.

A

The outer ear is responsible for sound collection. The auricle/pinna/ear lobe collects the
sound and directs it down the external auditory canal.
The middle ear is responsible for converting weak air vibrations into stronger vibrations of liquid in the cochlea = sound amplification. The auditory ossicles (“ear bones”), including the malleus/hammer, incus/anvil, and stapes/stirrup, are responsible for converting the sound vibrations at the large tympanic membrane/ear drum to the smaller oval window of the cochlea. The two smallest muscles in the body, tensor tympani and stapedius, stiffen during prolonged loud noises to attenuate/dampen sounds to protect the delicate hair cells/auditory receptors in the cochlea.
The inner ear is responsible for sound detection and balance. The cochlea contains the organ of Corti that contains the auditory receptors for sound detection and the vestibular apparatus for balance/equilibrium

188
Q

Compare the contribution of the semicircular canals and vestibule to balance.

A

Two structures are needed for balance and equilibrium. The vestibular apparatus
includes the semicircular canals for dynamic equilibrium and the vestibule for static equilibrium. The semicircular canals are a set of three fluid-filled tubes arranged in the X-, Y-, and Z- planes. Thus, the can detect spinning or angular movement in these planes. In contrast, the vestibule has two fluid-filled sacs that detect linear movements: the utricle detects horizontal movement & the saccule detects vertical movement.

189
Q

what is described by a taste sensation to detect amino acids (meats, cheeses)

A

umami

190
Q

what is described by sense that generates new neurons throughout life

A

olfaction

191
Q

what is described by primary olfactory cortex is located in this lobe

A

frontal lobe

192
Q

what is described by taste sensation to deter an energy source

A

sweet

193
Q

what is described by receptor used for gustation

A

taste bud

194
Q

what is described by primary gustatory cortex is located in this lobe

A

frontal lobe

195
Q

what is described by taste sensation to detect potential poison

A

bitter

196
Q

what is described by sense that is lost early in parkinson’s disease

A

olfaction

197
Q

what is described by taste sensation to detect sodium for physiological processes

A

salty

198
Q

what is described by sense that synapses directly in the cortex

A

olfaction

199
Q

what is described by taste sensation to elect potentially toxic acid

A

sour

200
Q

what is described by olfactory epithelium cells that produce mucus

A

bowman’s gland

201
Q

what is described by sense that uses special epithelial cells, not neurons, as a receptor

A

gustation

202
Q

name three cranial nerves that detect taste

A

CN VII, IX, X = facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus

203
Q

Describe the three olfactory pathways and their function

A

1) contralateral olfactory bulb for smell localization
2) thalamus for smell perception/identification
3) directly to the limbic cortex in the temporal lobe for the emotional component of smell

204
Q

Taste is 80% smell. The relationship between smell and taste is due to the fact that both
sensations use:
A. baroreceptors.
B. chemoreceptors. C. mechanoreceptors. D. proprioceptors.

A

chemoreceptors

205
Q

The sensation of loudness of a sound is detected by
A. greater movement of the basilar membrane and hair cells.
B. vibration along a longer length of the basilar membrane, stimulating a greater number of hair cells.
C. faster vibration of the basilar membrane resulting in a higher frequency of hair cell movement.
D. vibration of the basilar membrane only at the base of the cochlea.

A

greater movement of the basilar membrane and hair cells.

206
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the external ear? A. Eustachian tube
B. externalacousticmeatus
C. pinna
D. tympanic membrane

A

Eustachian tube

207
Q

Dynamic and static equilibrium both use: A. baroreceptors.
B. chemoreceptors.
C. mechanoreceptors.
D. proprioceptors.

A

mechanoreceptors.

208
Q

Olfaction and gustation are similar in that both
A. are stimulated by substances in liquid form.
B. use neurons that are constantly generated throughout life.
C. synapse directly in the cortex without a thalamic relay.
D. are perceived in the parietal lobe.

A

are stimulated by substances in liquid form.

209
Q

Monosodium glutamate is a food additive to enhance flavor due to activation of this taste sensation:
A. bitter B. salty C. sour
D. umami

A

umami

ANPS 019 (5 decks)

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