Exam 3 - Study Material Flashcards

1
Q

What is acute nephritic syndrome (acute glomerulonephritis) and what causes it?

A
  • Acute nephritic syndrome is a group of symptoms that occur with some disorders that cause glomerulonephritis, or swelling and inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidney.
  • Often caused by an immune response triggered by an infection or other disease
    • group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the throat
    • Precedes the onset of glomerulonephritis by 2-3 weeks.
    • Impetigo, acute viral infections, hepatitis B, mumps, varicella zoster, EBV, HIV, SLE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute nephritic (acute glomerulonephritis) syndrome?

A

Symptoms:

  • Hematuria (micro or macroscopic)
  • Edema + HTN – most pts
  • Azotemia
  • Proteinuria
  • ↑ BUN, ↑ Serum creatinine with ↓ UO

With severe disease:

  • Headache
  • Malaise
  • Flank pain

Elderly Patients:

  • Dyspnea
  • Engorged neck veins
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Pulmonary edema

Atypical symptoms:

  • Confusion
  • seizures
  • somnolence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some complications with acute nephritic syndrome (acute glomerulonephritis)?

A
  • Hypertensive encephalopathy (medical emergency)
    • Goal: reduce BP w/o impairing renal function
  • Heart failure
  • Pulmonary edema

Prognosis: excellent & rarely causes CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How would you manage a patient with acute nephritic syndrome ** (acute glomerulonephritis)**?

A
  • If residual streptococcal infection present, PCN is treatment of choice
  • Dietary protein restricted when renal insufficiency present and nitrogen retention (↑ BUN)
  • Sodium restriction for patients with hypertension, edema, and heart failure
  • Carbohydrates given liberally to provide energy & reduce catabolism of protein
  • Close monitoring of I&O
  • Fluids given based on patient’s fluid loss & daily weight
  • If tx effective, diuresis will begin ↓edema & BP
  • Proteinuria & microscopic hematuria may persist for months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is chronic glomerulonephritis and what causes it?

A

It Is:

  • Glomerular disease with a progressive course leading to chronic kidney disease

Causes:

  • Diabetic nephropathy
  • Podocyte injury, progressive thickening & fibrosis of glomerular basement membrane, & expansion of mesangial matrix
  • Acute nephritic syndrome
  • Hypertensive nephrosclerosis
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Chronic tubulointersitial injury
  • Hemodynamically mediated glomerular sclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some changes to the kidney caused by chronic glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Kidneys are reduced to as little as 1/5 their normal size and contain mostly fibrous tissue
  • Kidney surface becomes rough and irregular
  • Glomeruli and tubules become scarred
  • Renal artery branches thicken
  • Glomerular damage can progress to ESRD and require renal replacement therapies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of chronic glomerulonephritis?

A
  • Symptoms vary-some patients with severe disease may have no symptoms for many years
  • May be discovered with hypertension or elevated BUN, serum creatinine
  • General symptoms reported:
    • –loss of weight & strength
    • –increasing irritability
    • –nocturia
    • –headaches
    • –dizziness
    • digestive problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of chronic glomerulonephritis as the disease progresses?

A

As disease progresses S/S of CKD and CRF develop

  • Poorly nourished appearance w/ yellow-gray pigmentation of the skin
  • Periorbital and peripheral edema
  • Normal or severely elevated BP
  • etinal findings: hemorrhage, exudate, narrowed tortuous arterioles, papilledema
  • Anemia ⇉ pale mucous membranes
  • Maybe cardiomegaly & S/S of CHF, lung base crackles

Later stage clinical manifestations:

  • Peripheral neuropathy w/ ↓ deep tendon reflexes
  • Confusion; limited attention span
  • Pericarditis
    • –pericardial friction rub
    • –pulsus paradoxus (Drop in systolic BP greater than 10 when standing up)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are some labs values seen in patients with chornic glomerulonephritis?

A

Diagnostic Findings:

  • UA: specific gravity <1.010, variable proteinuria & urinary casts (i.e., protein plugs secreted by damaged kidney tubules)
  • When GFR gets low, it leads to:
    • –Hyperkalemia
    • –Metabolic acidosis
    • –Anemia
    • –Hypoalbuminemia
    • –Increased serum phosphorus
    • –Decreased serum calcium
    • –Mental status changes
    • –Impaired nerve conduction
  • CXR: cardiac enlargement, pulmonary edema
  • ECG: WNL; LVH; tall, tented (peaked) T waves
  • CT and MRI: decrease in size of renal cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How would you manage a patient with chornic glomerulonephritis?

A

Treatment is guided by management of symptoms:

  • HTN
  • Na+ and H2O restriction
  • –Anti-hypertensive medications

If the patient has fluid overload:

  • Record daily weights
  • Give diuretics

Nutrition:

  • Protein - high biologic value (dairy products, eggs, meat)
  • Calories – enough to spare protein for tissue growth/repair

UTIs: antibiotics to prevent further kidney damage

Dialysis – early in disease to ↓ complications, prevent fluid & electrolyte imbalances and keep pt in optimal physical condition

Anxiety – provide emotional support to pt/fam

W/O for elderly patients, easy fluid overload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is nephrotic syndrome and what causes it?

A

It Is:

  • Glomerular injury leading to the excretion of 3g or more of protein in the urine per day, hypoalbuminemia (albumin < 3g/dl), and peripheral edema

Causes:

  • Primary - Lipoid nephrosis, membranous glomerulonephritis, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • Secondary - Diabetes mellitus, amyloidosis, systemic lupus erthemoatosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How does nephrotic syndrome progress?

A

Progression:

  1. Glomerular injury → Altered gloomerular permeability and loss of negative charge →
  2. ↑ filtration of plasma proteins →

3. Proteniuria

A) Loss of transport proteins → ↓ Vitamin D & ↓ Thyroxine

B) Decreased immunoglobulins

  1. Hypoalbuminemia →

A) Hepatic synthesis of lipoproteins →

B) Hyperlioproteinemia →

C) Lipiduria

  1. ↓ Plasma oncotic pressure →
  2. ↓ Plasma volume →
  3. Na+ & H2O retention → Peripheral edema & ascites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Irritability, headache, malaise
  • Urinary excretion ≥ 3.5 g protein in 24 hr
  • Proteinuria, lipiduria
  • Hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia
  • Na+ retention → edema & ascites
    • Periorbital (eyes)
    • Dependent areas (sacrum, ankles, hands)
    • Ascites (abdomen)
    • Pitting edema
  • Vitamin D deficiency (↓ serum transport proteins)
  • Hypothyroidism (urinary loss of thyroid-binding protein & thyroxine)
  • ↑ cholesterol & triglycerides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some complications associated with nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Infection
  • Thromboembolism
  • Pulmonary emboli
  • Acute Renal Failure
  • Accelerated atherosclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How would you manage a patient with nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Early stages of management are similar to that for acute glomerulonephritis; as condition worsens, management is similar to that of pt with ESRD
  • Treat the underlying cause of proteinuria, slow progression of CKD, relieve symptoms
  • If the patient has Edema: diuretics
  • If Proteinuria: ACE inhibitors
  • If Hyperlipidemia: lipid-lowering agents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is polycystic kidney disease and what causes it?

A
  • It is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous cysts in the kidneys, it is generally bilateral
  • Caused by:
    • Cysts filled with fluid destroy nephrons
    • Cysts can profoundly enlarge kidneys, reducing kidney function, which leads to kidney failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the signs and symptoms seen in a patient with polycystic kidney disease?

A

They are all caused due to the cyst growing in size:

  • Hematuria
  • Polyuria
  • HTN
  • Renal calculi
  • UTIs
  • Proteinuria
  • Abdominal fullness
  • Flank pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What would you assess for in a patient with polysystic kidney disease?

A
  • Family hx
  • Enlarged cystic kidneys upon palpation of abd
  • Kidney ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How would you manage a patient with polycysitc kindey disease?

A
  • No cure
  • Supportive tx: BP & pain control, antibiotics
  • RRT when kidneys fail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In general what is acute kidney injury and what causes it?

A

It Is:

  • A sudden decline in kidney function with a ↓ in GFR and accumulation of nitogenous waste products in the blood as demonstrated by an elevation in plasma creatinine and BUN lvls.

Causes:

  • Extracellular volume depletion from:
    • Hemorrhage
    • Diuretics
    • V/D
  • Impaired cardiac efficiency from
    • MI, heart failure, cardiogenic shock
    • Dysrhythmias
    • ↓ RBF
  • Toxic/inflammatory injury to kidney cells that may be minimal or severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In general what are the symptoms of acute renal failure?

A
  • **Lethargy **
  • Dry skin
  • Drowsiness
  • Headache
  • Muscle twitching
  • Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In general what are some diagnostic findings in a patient with acutre renal failure?

A
  • Renal sonogram: anatomic changes
  • ↑ BUN, ↑ creatinine
  • risk for hyperkalemia (& dysrhythmias)
  • metabolic acidosis (Due to decreased renal excretion and HCO3)
  • anemia (from decreased EPO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is prerenal acute renal failure and what causes it?

A

It Is:

  • Reduced effecitve arterial blood volume casuses renal hypoperfusion that occurs rapidly over a period of hours with ↑ BUN and plassma creatinine lvls.

Causes:

  • Renal artery thrombosis
  • Hypotension rlated to hypovolemia (dehydration, diarrhea, fluid shifts) or hemorrhage
  • Renal vasoconstriction
  • Kidney edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does prerenal acute kidney failure progress?

A

Progression:

  1. ↓ renal blood flow → hypoperfusion →
  2. ↓ GFR →
  3. ↑ Proximal tubule Na+ and H2O reabsorpton →
  4. ↑ Aldosterone and ADH secretion →
  5. ↑ Distal tubule Na+ and H2O reabsorption →
  6. Oliguria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the manifestations of acute prerenal failure and how would you treat the patient?

A

Manifestations:

  • Oliguria (UO < 30 mL/hr, < 400 mL/24 hr)
  • Hyperkalemia (K+ > 6.5 mEq/L)
  • ↑ serum creatinine, ↑ BUN

Treatment:

  • IV glucose & insulin (carries K+ intracellularly)
  • IV NaHCO3- (shifts K+ intracellular for H+)
  • dialysis/CRRT (clean out BUN & Creatinine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the different types of intrarenal AKI?

A
  1. Ischemia induced acute tubular necrosis
  2. Nephrotoxic induced acute tubular necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is intrarenal kidey failure and what causes it?

A
  • It kidney failure caused by direct damage to the kidneys by inflammation, toxins, durgs, infection, or reduced blood supply
  • Can be due to parenchymal damage to glomeruli or tubules
    • Prolonged renal ischemia from

◦Myoglobinuria (trauma)

◦Hemoglobinuria (transfusion reaction)
* Nephroxic agents

◦ aminoglycosides (gentamicin, tobramycin)

◦ radiopaque contrast

◦ heavy metals, chemicals

◦ NSAIDS, ACE inhibitors
* Infections (acute pyelonephritis, glomerulonephritis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some drugs that are nephrotoxic?

A

Antibiotics:

  • Aminoglycosides (gentamicin & tobramycin)
  • Amphotericin B
  • Vancomycin
  • MONITOR KIDNEY FUNCTION BEFORE GIVING DRUG

Other Drugs:

  • NSAIDS
  • Radiocontrast
    • prehydration with saline
    • admin of N-acetylcysteine + sodium bicarbonate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is postrenal kidney failure and what causes it?

A
  • It is a sudden obstruction of urine flow due to an enlarged prostate, kidney stones, bladder tumor, or injury
  • Problems below the kidneys that result in increased pressure due to problems with urinary tract outflow:
  • Urinary tract obstruction:
    • calculi (stones)
    • tumors
    • benign prostatic hyperplasia
    • Strictures
    • blood clots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the acute renal failure phases?

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Oliguria-↑ in serum concentration of urea, creatinine, uric acid, potassium, magnesium
  3. Diuresis-gradual ↑ in UO; watch for dehydration
  4. Recovery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How would you manage a patient with acute renal failure?

A

Monitor fluid & electrolyte status:

  • Hyperkalemia!
  • VFs-use smallest amt possible
  • UO, daily weight, edema
  • heart and lung sounds
  • Breathing effort

Help reduce metabolic rate:

  • Bed rest (so need help turning, coughing, deep breathing)
  • Prevent/treat fever

Prevent infection:

  • Invasive lines
  • Catheters

Skin care:

  • Dry and edematous skin – moisturize
  • Tissue toxins – use measures to minimize itching
  • RUB don’t scratch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is chronic renal failure and what causes it?

A

It is:

  • The progressive loss of renal function associated with systemic diseases

Causes:

  • Diabetes mellitus (#1)
  • Hypertension (#2)
  • Systemic lupus erthematosus
  • Intrinsic kidney disease
  • Acute kidney injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does chronic renal failure progress?

A

Progression:

  1. Progressive kidney damage →
  2. Loss of nephron mass → suriving nephrons to sustain kidney function →
  3. Nephron hypertrophy and hyperfunction in their rates of filtration, reabsorption, and secretions →
  4. Maintainance of solute and H2O regulatin in presence of ↓ GFR →
  5. Until Kidney function < 25% →
  6. Loss of nephrons → ↑ Angiotensin II
  7. Destruction of the remaining glomeruli →
    1. ↓ erythropoietin → ↓ RBCs → Anemia
    2. Retention of urine → edemaHypertension
    3. Retenion of blood, urea, creatinine, K+ & P (-3) → hyperkalemia & hypocalcemia → bone growth arrest
  8. Capillary hypertension →
  9. ↑ Glomerular permeability and filtration → proteinuria
  10. ↑ Tubular protein reabsorption →
  11. Tubulointerstitial inflammation & fibrosis →
  12. Renal scarring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the signs and symptoms seen in a patient with chronic renal failure?

A
  • ↓GFR & creatinine clearance
  • ↑serum creatinine & BUN
    • serum creatinine-more sensitive indicator of renal function than BUN
  • Sodium & water retention
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Anemia
  • ↓calcium & ↑ phosphorus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How would you manage a patient with chronic renal failure?

A

Medications:

  • Calcium & phosphorus binders
  • Antihypertensive & cardiovascular agents
  • Antiseizure agents
  • Erythropoietin (Epogen)
  • Give all of these meds with food

Diet:

  • protein restriction; allowed protein must be of high biologic value (e.g., dairy, eggs, meats)
  • fluid restriction-500-600 ml/day more than previous day’s UO
  • carbs, fats, vitamin supplements
  • monitor potassium intake

**Dialysis **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is acute pyelonephritis and what most commonly causes it?

A

It Is:

  • An infection of one or both upper urinary tracts, that is the ureter, renal pelvis, and kidney interstitium
  • Common in young adult women

Most common causes:

  1. Urinary obstruction
  2. Reflux of urine from the bladder (vesicouretral reflux)
  • Problem occurs from: E. Coli, Proteus, Pseudomonas (from urethral instrumentation or urinary tract surgery)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does acute pyelonephritis progress?

A

Progression:

  1. Microorganisms spread by ascending uropathic ureters →
  2. Infection →
  3. Local Inflammation (affects the pelvis, calyces, and medulla) →
  4. Medullary infiltration of WBCs →
  5. Renal edema → Purulent urine
  6. Healing → scar tissue → fibrosis → atrophy of affected tubules

DOES NOT USUALLY EFFECT THE GLOMERULUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the signs and symptoms seen in a patient with acute pyelonephritis?

A

Manifestations:

  • Acute fever, chills, and flank/groin pain (similar to UTI)
  • Polyuria
  • N/V
  • leukocytosis, WBC casts
  • Frequecy, dysuria (pain when peeing), CVA tenderness, may precede systemic signs and symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How would you diagnose a patient with acute pyelonephritis and how would you treat them?

A

Diagnostics:

  • CT or US - to locate obstructions in the urinary tract
  • IV pyelogram - to identify functional or structural renal abnormalities
  • Urine C&S to identify causative organisms
    • Two weeks after antibiotic tx completed, urine is re-cultured, then monthly for several months

Treatment:

  • Antibiotics (for 2 weeks) and hydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the 6 common causes of pyelonephritis?

A
  1. Kidney stones - Obstruction and statis of urine contributing to bacteriuria nad hydronephrosis, irritation off epithelial linning with entrapement of bacteria
  2. Vesicouretral reflux - Chronic reflux of urine up the ureter and into the kidney during micturition contributing to bacterial infection
  3. Pregnancy - Dialation and relaxation of ureter with hydroureter and hydronephrosis, partly caused by obstrution from enlarged uterus and partly from ureteral relaxation caused by higher progesterone levels
  4. Neurogenic bladder - Neurologic impariment interfering with normal baldder and urethral sphincter contraction with residual urine and ascending infection
  5. Instrumentation - Intoduction of organisms into urethra nad bladder by catheters and endoscopes introduced into the urinary tracy for diagnositc purposes
  6. Femal sexual trauma - Movement of organisms from the urethra into the bladder with infection and retrograde spread to kidney.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is chronic pyelonephritis and what causes it?

A

It Is:

  • Persistent or recurrent infection of one or both kidneys leading to scarring, which can leadto kidney failure.

Causes:

  • Idiopathic
  • May be associated with vesicoureteral reflux or renal stones.
  • Drug toxicity (NSAID’s)
  • Ischemia
  • Immunecomplex diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How does chronic pyelonephritis progress?

A

Progression:

  1. Urinary tract obstruction (kidney stones) or Vesicoureteral reflux →
  2. Presistent infections →
  3. Progressive inflammation in interstitial spaces between tubules→
  4. Alterations of the renal pelvis and calyces →
  5. Destruction of the tubules, atrophy or dilation and diffuse scarring →
  6. impaired urine concentrating ability →
  7. Chronic kidney failure →
  8. Inability to conserve sodium → hyperkalemia → metabolic acidosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the signs and symptoms seen in a patient with chronic pyelonephritis?

A
  • no symptoms of infection unless acute exacerbation
  • fatigue
  • headache
  • poor appetite
  • polyuria
  • excessive thirst
  • weight loss

Persistent, recurring infection can produce scarring of kidneys leading to renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is chronic pyelonephritis diagnosed, what are some complications associated with it, and what are the treatment options?

A

Diagnostics:

  • IV urogram
  • BUN and Creatinine levels
  • Creatinine clearance

Complications:

  • End-stage renal disease (ESRD)
  • Hypertension
  • Formation of kidney stones

Treatment:

  • Long-term prophylactic antimicrobial therapy
  • Forced fluids, antipyretics, antibiotics, bedrest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is urolithiasis, what causes it, what are the signs and symptoms, how would you treat it, and what are the nursing interventions for this?

A

It is:

  • The formation of kidney stones
  • Formation not clearly understood; dehydration?

S/S:

  • No symptoms vs. excruciating pain
  • Hematuria, pyuria, N/V/D
  • Confirmed by KUB or US

Medications / treatment:

  • Opioid analgesics & NSAIDs; hydration
  • Procedures for stone removal + stent

Nursing interventions:

  • Encourage ambulation; strain urine
  • Have the Pt report ↓UO, bloody/cloudy urine, fever, pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are some nursing diagnoses associated with urolithiasis?

A
  • Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit
  • Acute pain
  • Ineffective Renal Tissue Perfusion
  • Impaired Urinary Elimination
  • Hyperthermia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the different types of dialysis?

A
  • Hemodialysis
  • Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)
  • Peritoneal dialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is hemodialysis and how long is it given?

A
  • It is the removal of waste products such as creatinine and urea and free water from the blood, and can be short or long term
  • Chronic hemodialysis
    • 3X/week for 3-4 hours as outpatient
    • home hemodialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the goal of hemodialysis?

A
  • Hemodialysis (HD) goal: toxic nitrogenous substance removal from blood + H2O removal
  • HD based on principles of diffusion, osmosis, and ultrafiltration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are some hemodialysis complications?

A
  • heart failure, CHD, angina, stroke, PVD
  • anemia
  • gastric ulcers, nausea/vomiting, malnutrition
  • bone pain & fractures
  • HTN, hypotension
  • itching
  • sleep disturbances
  • SOB
  • Muscle cramping
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a dialyzer?

A

Dialyzer-artificial kidney (replaces glomeruli & tubules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is peritoneal dialysis?

A
  • Diffusion & osmosis occur as waste products move from an area of higher concentration (blood stream) to an area of lesser concentration (dialysate fluid) through a semipermeable membrane (peritoneum)
  • Dialysate should be warmed via dry heat- heating cabinet, incubator, or heating pad
  • Exchange-infusion, dwell, & drainage of dialysate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are some peritoneal dialysis complications?

A

Peritonitis:

  • most common & most serious complication of PD
  • first sign-cloudy dialysate drainage; abdominal pain & rebound tenderness occur much later
  • hypotension

Leakage:

  • of the dialysate through catheter site
  • avoid by use of small dialysate volumes

Bleeding:

  • bloody effluent (drainage) may be seen w/ menstruating women
  • expected after newly inserted catheters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How would you manage hospitalized dialysis patients?

A

Protect vascular access:

  • Check patency-bruit or thrill
  • No BPs on vascular access extremity
  • Take precautions w/ IV therapy: slow, minimal

Detect cardiac & respiratory complications:

  • fluid overload, HF, pulm edema→crackles
  • pericarditis→chest pain, low-grade fever, frict rub

Control electrolyte levels:

  • monitor daily labs
  • blood transfusions during HD

Manage discomfort & pain:

  • itching-antihistamine (diphenhydramine/Benadryl)
  • pain-analgesics

Monitor BP:

  • HTN common b/c of fluid overload + renin oversecretion
  • withhold daily antihypertensives until after dialysis

Prevent infection:

  • ESRD pts have low WBCs, low RBCs, & impaired plt func
  • wash hands

Care for catheter site:

  • Do not submerge PD catheter in water
  • Catheter site care w/ soap & water-during showering

Watch out for nephrotoxic meds

Avoid meds with potassium & magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the MOA of Furosemide (Lasix)?

A
  • Acts on ascending loop of Henle to block reabsorption of Na+ and Cl-
  • This also inhibits potassium recycling = ↓ in potassium
  • Loss of volume
  • Relaxation of venous smooth muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is Furosemide used for?

A
  • ↓ Pulmonary edema r/t congestive heart failure (CHF)
  • Edematous states – of hepatic, cardiac, or renal origin that has been unresponsive to other diuretics
  • ↓ Hypertension not controlled by other diuretics – but can add a thiazide diuretic (no benefit to combining furosemide with another high-ceiling/loop agent)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the adverse effects of Furosemide?

A
  • Hyponatremia
  • hypochloremia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • hypomagnesemia
  • dehydration
  • Hypokalemia
    • If serum K+ falls below 3.5 mEq/L tx with K supplements or use K-sparing diuretic
  • Hypotension
  • Ototoxicity
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Hyperruricemia (a lot of peeing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the Drug interactions of Furosemide?

A
  • Digoxin [hypokalemia from loops produces ↑ risk of dig-induced toxicity (ventricular dysrhythmias)
  • Ototoxic drugs
  • Lithium – in general, diuretics result in decreased renal lithium clearance = ↓ lithium excretion, so it can accumulate to toxic levels in the blood
  • Antihypertensive agents – lower BP already, now add loss of fluid volume and relaxation of venous smooth muscle
  • NSAIDs (Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) – *blunts efx of furosemide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In general what are the effects of Thiazides?

A
  • Increase renal excretion of sodium, chloride, potassium, and water
  • Elevate levels of uric acid and glucose
  • Promote renal calcium retention
  • Loss of volume
  • Relaxation of venous smooth muscle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When are Thiazides not effective?

A

Not effective when urine flow is low = GFR is < 15-20 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where does Hydrochlorothiazide act?

A

early segment of the distal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is Hydrochlorothiazide used for?

A
  • To treat essential hypertension – 1st line choice for most people
  • To treat edema – preferred drug for mild to moderate HF and hepatic & renal edema
  • To treat diabetes insipidus – don’t know how it works
  • May protect from post menopausal osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the adverse effects of hydrocholorothiazide?

A
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypokalemia
    • If serum K+ falls below 3.5 mEq/L tx with K supplements (or eating K rich foods) or use K-sparing diuretic
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • hypochloremia
  • dehydration
  • Promotes renal calcium retention
  • NO OTOTOXICITY
  • Hyperuricemia
  • Hyperglycemia
    • usually only in DM pts…who may need larger doses of insulin or oral hypoglycemic drug
  • Impact on lipids - ↑ LDL, cholesterol, total cholesterol & trigs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the drug interactions of Hydrochlorothiazide?

A
  • Digoxin - If combined will further lower K+ lvls
  • NSAIDs may blunt diuretic effect
  • Lithium supplements - If combined can increase lithium levels due to retained lithium in kidneys
  • Can be combined with ototoxic agents without increased risk of hearing loss
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the classes of Potassium-Sparing Diuretics?

A
  • Aldosterone antagonist (blocker)
    • Spironolactone
  • Nonaldosterone antagonists (blockers)
    • Triamterene
    • Amiloride
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the MOA of Spironolactone (Aldactone)?

A
  • Blocks aldosterone in the distal nephron
  • Retention of potassium
    • (hyperkalemia >5 mEq/L – mostly if used alone)
    • Increased excretion of sodium & passive loss of water
  • Slows myocardial remodeling & fibrosis
  • Reduces Baroreceptor activation
  • ​gynecomastia in men

**NOTE: this is a Aldosterone antagonist **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Spironolactone (Aldactone) used for?

A
  • Pts w/ with Hypertension – ↓ BP
  • Pts w/ with Edematous states – ↓ BP
  • Pts w/ Heart failure – decreases mortality in severe failure
  • Pts w/ primary hyperaldosteronism – blocks aldosterone from being formed
  • **Potent antagonist of the androgen (testosterone) receptor as well as an inhibitor of androgen production **
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the adverse effects of Spironolactone (Aldactone)?

A
  • Hyperkalemia – possible fatal dysrhythmias; cell uptake of insulin could ↓ K+ levels by K+ uptake into cells
  • Endocrine effects – gynecomastia, menstrual irregularities, impotence, hirsutism, & deepening of the voice
70
Q

What are the drug interactions with Spironolactone (Aldactone)?

A
  • Thiazide and loop diuretics – counteract K-wasting
  • Agents that raise potassium levels (because this drug ↑ K+ lvls), such as:
    • K supplements
    • Salt substitutes (KCl)
    • Or other K-sparing diuretic
    • ACE-inhibitors
    • ARBs
    • Direct renin inhibitors
71
Q

What is the MOA of Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)?

A
  • Block actions/access* of angiotensin II
  • Cause dilation of arterioles and veins
  • Prevent angiotensin II from inducing pathologic changes in cardiac structure
  • Decrease release of aldosterone:
    • ↑ renal excretion of Na & water
    • Hyperkalemia – K retention (more from ARBs than ACE-I)
  • Increase renal excretion of sodium and water
  • Do not increase levels of bradykinin (no blocking of enzyme)
    • no cough
72
Q

What are Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
ARBs used for?

A
  • Hypertension, heart failure, myocardial infarction, stoke & death
    • improves LV ejection fraction, reduce HF symptoms, increase exercise tolerance
    • ↓ bradykinin lvls – no cough
  • Diabetic nephropathy - mitigates progression
  • If unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors: protection against MI, stroke, and death from cardiovascular (CV) causes in high-risk patients
  • Migraine headache – prophylactically (candesartan)
  • Slowed development of diabetic retinopathy (losartan)
73
Q

What are some drug interactions with Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARBs)?

A

Hypotensive efx with other anti-HTN meds (similar to ACI-Is)

74
Q

What is Diabetes Insipidus?

A

A condition in which the kidneys are unable to conserve water due to problems with ADH.

75
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Diabetes Insipidus?

A
  • Polyuria (increased production of urine) & polydipsia (increased thirst)
  • Low urine specific gravity ( less than 1.010)
  • Low urine osmolality (less than 200mOsm/kg)
  • Hypernatremia
  • High serum osmolality (greater than 300mOsm/kg)
  • Continued diuresis diuresis despite serum sodium levels greater than 145
76
Q

Describe creatine clearance and its relation to renal function.

A

Normal range is between 0.6-1.2 mg/dL

  • Creatine clerance is a natural substance produced by muscle breakdown and is released into the blood at a relatively constant rate
  • It is freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed by the renal tubules
  • Creatine clerance overestimates the GFR but it is within tolerable limits, therefore creatine clerance provides a good estimate of GFR.
  • As renal function declines, creatinine clearance decreases
    *
77
Q

What is BUN and how does it relate to renal function?

A
  • BUN is the concentration of urea nitrogen in the blood, and it reflects the GFR and urine-concentrating capacity
  • Because urea is filtered at the glomerulus, BUN lvls ↑, when GFR ↓
  • Dehydration &/ acute/chronic renal failure → ↑ BUN lvls
  • Normal range is 10-20 mg/dl
  • BUN is affered by altered protein intake and protein catabolism and is a poor measure of GFR
78
Q

What is the normal range for urine specific gravity?

A

1.010 to 1.025

79
Q

What does azotemia mean?

A

increased amounts of nitrogenous wastes in the blood

80
Q

What is pyuria?

A

Clouded urine due to pus formation in the urinary tract

81
Q

What is dysuria?

A

Difficult and/or painful urination

82
Q

What is the perfered vascular access device and what are some complications from it?

A
  • Arteriovenous fistula (AVF) is preferred for perm access
  • in a fistula you want to hear a bruit, feel the thrill
  • Complications: Watch out for hypovolemia, hypotension,
83
Q

What is COPD and what causes it?

A
  • Slowly progressive disease of airflow obstruction, associated with an abnormal inflammatory response of the lungs that is not completely reversible
  • Includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis
  • Preventable and treatable, but difficult to reverse damage

Usually due to:

  1. Inflammation of airway
  2. Parenchyma damage
  3. Decrease of elastic recoil
84
Q

What are the different types of COPD?

A
  • Chronic bronchitis- mucus production & persistent cough
  • Emphysema- Over distention of air spaces & alveolar walls destroyed
  • May have one or combination

Asthma is considered a distinct, separate disorder, not a type of COPD.

85
Q

What are the manifestations of COPD?

A

Primary symptoms:

  • Cough
  • Sputum production
  • Dyspnea

Additional symptoms:

  • Wheezing and crackles
  • Weight loss
  • Pale to cyanotic
  • Barrel chest (emphysema)
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Prolonged expiration
  • Orthopnea
  • Cardiac dysrhythmias
  • Congestion and hyperinflation on CXR
  • Polycythemia
  • Hypoxemia
86
Q

Why is polycythemia and how does it relate to COPD?

A
  • Occurs when the Hct in the blood is above reference range values
  • With COPD there is an increase in RBC from chronic low O2 levels
  • Polycythemia indicates a disease or disorder
87
Q

What are the complicatons of COPD?

A
  • —Respiratory failure
  • —Pulmonary hypertension with consequent heart failure
  • —Cor Pulmonale, one of the complications of emphysema, is right-sided heart failure brought on by pulmonary hypertension.
    • Monitor heart failure – BP/HR, BNP, Lung sounds, edema, CXR, EF
  • —Pneumothorax
  • —Infection
  • —Other comorbidities related to smoking and aging which include ischemic heart disease and lung cancer
88
Q

What are COPD Exacerbations (COPDE)?

A
  • —Defined as an acute worsening of symptoms characterized by increased dyspnea, mucous production, hyperinflation and air trapping which may be triggered by infection or environmental pollutants
  • —Mortality increases as the frequency of exacerbations occur.
  • They can be caused by medicine noncompliance
89
Q

What is the relationship between age and COPD?

A
  • —Advancing age - strong predictive risk factor of COPDE
  • —Pulmonary secretion clearance is reduced with age which puts the patient at increased risk for infection
  • —Declines in immunity may also be partially responsible
90
Q

What are the different lab and diagnostic tests done on a patient with COPD?

A
  • —Spirometry
  • —Chest X-ray: increased bronchovascular markings
  • —Sputum sample for culture and sensitivity
  • —ABGs: respiratory acidosis
  • —CBC: increased RBCs
  • —Pulmonary Function Tests: decreased forced expiration, decreased vital capacity
  • —EKG
91
Q

What would you assess for in a patient with COPD?

A
  • Breath sounds/ capillary refill & skin color / hydration status, sputum
  • Pulse oximetry/ABG
  • Spirometry (FEV not accurate in COPDE)
  • Labs - ABG’s CBC, Chemistry panels
  • Cardiac status as needed
  • Other physical symptoms (see complications)
  • Holistic assessment: physical, psychosocial, cognitive, spiritual
92
Q

What are some nursing diagnoses related to COPD?

A

Ineffective airway clearance related to:

  • — bronchoconstriction
  • — increased sputum production
  • — ineffective cough
  • — fatigue/ lack of energy
  • — bronchopulmonary infection

Ineffective breathing pattern related to:

  • — shortness of breath
  • — mucus
  • — bronchoconstriction
  • airway irritants

—Impaired gas exchange r/t

  • Ventilation perfusion inequality

—Activity intolerance r/t

  • Imbalance between oxygen supply with demand

—Imbalanced Nutrition: less than body requirements r/t

  • Anorexia

—Disturbed sleep pattern r/t

  • Discomfort
  • Sleeping position

—Self-care deficit (hygiene) r/t

  • Fatigue secondary to inc. respiratory effort & ventilation & oxygenation insufficiency
93
Q

What are some nursing interventions for COPD patients?

A
  • Fowler’s; forward-leaning positions
  • O2 as ordered (supplemental O2 to mechanical ventilation)
    • If give too much O2, then O2 suppresses the hypoxic drive to breathe. The hypoxia is the stimulus to breathe
  • Pulse oximetry / ABGs / cardiac monitor as needed
  • Respiratory therapy (breathing treatments)
  • Start IV/ give meds as ordered (bronchodilators, antibiotics, steroids, anxiolytics, antidepressants)
  • Nicotine patch
  • Decrease patient’s anxiety- psychosocial support
94
Q

What would you teach a patient with COPD regarding discharge planning & home management?

A
  • Quit smoking
  • Supplemental oxygen, ventilator support, walker, wheelchair, nebulizer
  • Home Health/SNF
  • —Meds/Inhalers/Nebs - bronchodilators, antibiotics, steroids, anxiolytics, antidepressants
  • —Pulmonary Rehab - maintaining functional ability
  • Fall prevention
  • Prevent respiratory infections
  • Proper nutrition to prevent muscle wasting
  • Crucial to prevent exacerbations
  • May need:
    • Lung Transplantation
    • Lung volume reduction surgery
95
Q

What is chronic bronchitis and what causes it?

A
  • Defined as the presence of cough and sputum (with no other known cause) for at least 2 months in each of two consecutive years.
  • It is caused by Inflammation of the airways due to irritants (smoking, bacteria, virus…) and results in increase mucous production (d/t increase in number of goblet cells)
    • Mucous plugging results in reduction of ciliary function, thickened bronchial walls (narrowing), alveolar damage and fibrosis.
    • Patient becomes more susceptible to infection, exacerbations are more likely during the winter when viral and bacterial infections more prevalent.
96
Q

What are the manifestations of chronic bronchitis?

A
  • Cyanotic apperance
  • Recurrent cough & sputum production
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypercapnia
  • Acidosis
  • Edematous
  • Increased RR
  • Exertional dyspnea
  • Cor Pulmonale
  • Use of accessory muscles to breathe
97
Q

What is emphysema and what causes it?

A

Impairment of O2 and CO2 exchange results from destruction of walls of over distended alveoli which leads to:

  • O2 unable to diffuse through capillaries
  • Permanent over inflation of alveoli
  • Increased airway resistance
  • Loss of elastic recoil
  • Dead space: lung area where no gas exchange can occur and impaired oxygen diffusion à hypoxemia
  • Impaired elimination of CO2àhypercapnia, respiratory acidosis
  • Increased anterioposterior diameter increases: barrel chest; air gets in, but cannot get out.
98
Q

How does the loss of elastic recoil progress with emphysema?

A
99
Q

What are the manifestations of Emphysema?

A
  • ↑ CO2 retention (this leads to the pink apperance)
  • Minimal cyanosis
  • Purse lip breathing
  • Dyspnea
  • Hyperresonance on cheast percussion
  • Orthopenic
  • Barrel chest
  • Exertional dyspnea
  • Prolonged expiratory time
  • Speaks in short jerky sentences
  • Anxious
  • Use of accessory muscles to breathe
  • Thin apperance
100
Q

What is asthma and what causes it?

A

It is a reversible chronic inflammatory disease of the airways that causes airway hyperresponsiveness, mucosal edema, and and mucus production.

Causes:

  • Triggers; genetic component: +25 genes associated with asthma
  • Respiratory infections and colds
  • Cigarette smoke; 2nd hand smoke
  • Allergens such as pollen, mold, animal dander, feathers, dust, food & cockroaches
  • Exercise
  • Exposure to cold air or sudden temperature change
  • Odors and fumes
  • Excitement or stress
101
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of asthma?

A
  • Diffuse airway inflammation and narrowing
  • Bronchoconstriction of smooth muscles
  • Increased vascular permeability
  • Increased mucous gland secretion
  • Increased airway resistance from spasm
  • Increased lung compliance
  • Impaired mucociliary function
  • Altered gas exchange: respiratory acidosis
102
Q

How does asthma progress?

A
  1. Allergens/triggers →
  2. production of IgE →
  3. IgE attach to mast cells and basophils →
  4. Activates release of histamine, bradykinin, prostanoids, cytokines, leukotrienes →
  5. Swelling, airway constriction

Airway “remodeling” may occur in response to chronic inflammation, causing further airway narrowing.

103
Q

What are the signs and symptoms seen in a patient with Asthma?

A
  • —Dyspnea, breathlessness, chest tightness, cough
  • —Wheezing (inspiratory and/or expiratory)
  • —Increased P, R, BP; Pallor
  • —Anxiety, restlessness
  • —Use of accessory muscles, nasal flaring, retractions
  • If uncorrected leads to status asthmaticus: s/s continue despite treatment à air trapping & V/Q mismatch à respiratory distress, cyanosis
104
Q

What are the early warning signs of asthma?

A
  1. Frequent cough, especially at night
  2. Losing your breath easily or shortness of breath
  3. Feeling very tired or weak when exercising
  4. Wheezing or coughing after excercise
  5. Feeling tired, easily upset, grouchy, or moody
  6. Decreases or changes in lung function as measured on a peak flow meter
  7. Signs of a cold or allergies
  8. Trouble sleeping
105
Q

What would you teach a patient regarding asthma?

A
  1. ‘STEP’ therapy for asthma (see link in previous slide)
  2. Know the triggers for asthma & chronic bronchitis
  3. Do not delay professional treatment for any breathing problems; controlled breathing techniques
  4. Staying hydrated (follow any fluid restrictions if have heart disease); take meds as prescribed
  5. Know home equipment- peak flow meter, O2, spacer, & inhalers
106
Q

What is status asthmaticus?

A
  • It is a Medical emergency, which has a sudden or gradual onset, and is not responsive to usual therapy.
  • Triggered by viral infection, stress, D/C meds, etc.

Leads to:

  • Severe bronchospasms/air trapping
  • Hypoxemia
  • Expiratory flow/volume decrease
  • Fatigue
  • Respiratory failure
107
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of status asthmaticus?

A
  • Absence of a wheeze is called a “silent chest” and is an emergency
  • Hyperinflated chest
  • Hypoxemia
  • Hypocapnia initially, followed by hypercapnia
  • Marked respiratory distress
  • Marked wheezing
  • Use of accessory muscles
  • Extreme anxiety
  • Fear of suffocation
  • Diaphoresis
  • Tachycardia
108
Q

What is the goal of care for a patient with Status asthmaticus?

A

Correct hypoxemia to achieve PaO2 > 60 - may require intubation

This will require the use of:

  • β-adrenergic agonist nebulizer
  • Arterial line placement
  • IV corticosteroids
  • IV mag sulfate
109
Q

What would you assess for in a patient with status asthmaticus?

A
  • Subjective data, if appropriate; brief history
  • Breath sounds/ capillary refill & skin color / hydration status
  • Pulse oximetry/ ABGs
  • Cardiac status, as needed
  • Other physical symptoms (see manifestations)
  • Holistic assessment: physical, psychosocial, cognitive, spiritual
110
Q

What are some nursing diagnoses related to status asthmaticus?

A
  • —Ineffective airway clearance
  • —Anxiety
  • —Impaired gas exchange
  • —Ineffective breathing pattern
  • —Ineffective therapeutic regimen
  • —Imbalance nutrition: less than body requirements
  • —Disturbed sleep pattern
  • —Risk for infection/actual infection
  • —Decrease cardiac output
  • —Activity intolerance
111
Q

What are some nursing interventions for patients with status asthmaticus?

A
  • Fowler’s; forward-leaning positions
  • O2 as ordered; usually cannula at first
  • Pulse oximetry / ABGs / cardiac monitor as needed
  • Respiratory therapy (breathing treatments)
  • Start IV/ give meds as ordered
  • Decrease patient’s anxiety / work with family
112
Q

What is pneumonia and what causes it?

A
  • Acute inflammation of lung parenchyma caused by various microorganisms, including bacteria, mycobacteria, fungi, and viruses.
  • The edema associated with inflammation stiffens the lung, decreases lung compliance, and vital capacity, and causes hypoxemia.
113
Q

What are the different types of pneumonia and what causes each?

A
  • Community-acquired (CAP)
    • Steptococcus, Mycoplasma, Haemophilus influenzae
    • Occurs within < 48 hours of admission
  • Healthcare-associated (HCAP)
    • Often multi-drug resistant organisms
    • Occurs within > 48 hours of admission
  • Hospital-acquired (HAP)
    • Enterobacter, E.Coli, H.influenzae, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas
    • Occurs within > 48 hours of admission
  • Ventilator-associated (VAP)
    • Subtype of HAP; most common infection seen in the ICU
  • Immuno-compromised
    • Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), fungal, and mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Aspiration
114
Q

What are some risk factors for pneumonia?

A
  • Older adult
  • Immobility
  • Chronicity/ decreased immune system
  • Exposure to foreign materials
  • Nosocomial factors (tracheal intubation, feeding techniques)
  • Not following health professionals’ advice (hand washing, vaccines, immediate attention for meds)
115
Q

What are the signs and symptoms associated with pneumonia?

A
  • —Dry or wet cough
  • —Tired, body aches
  • —Fever, chills
  • —Short of breath
  • —Wheezes, rhonchi
  • —Chest pain
  • —Tachycardia
  • —Dyspnea, Syncope, cyanosis
  • —Older patients: Mild fever, confusion and/or tachypnea might be the only sign
116
Q

What would you manage in a patient with pneumonia?

A
  • Establish adequate ventilation/ perfusion
  • Empiric antibiotics; Treat the organism based on sputum C & S
  • Bronchodilators
  • Antipyretics
  • Analgesics
  • Nutrition, hydration, pulmonary hygiene
  • Patient teaching & concept of prevention (hand washing)
117
Q

What would you assess for in a patient with pneumonia?

A

**—Vital signs: **

  • respiratory rate, pulse oximetry, temperature, cyanosis, lung sounds - wheezing, rales or diminished breath sounds

—Sputum color, amount, consistency

—Assess for exposure of tuberculosis

118
Q

What are some nursing interventions associated with pneumonia?

A
  • Encourage coughing and deep breathing and use of incentive spirometer
  • Change pts. position frequently and ambulate to mobilize secretions
  • Semi-Fowler’s position to facilitate lung expansion
  • Nasotracheal suction if pt. unable to clear secretions
  • Encourage fluids, unless contraindicated
  • Provide balance of rest and activity
  • Provide CPT
  • Health Promotion
    • Prevention
    • Immunizations: Pneumococcal
119
Q

What are some nursing diagnoses for patients with pneumonia?

A

Ineffective Airway Clearance

a. Assess resp status, SpO2, VS, breath sounds, skin color
b. Assess cough & sputum
c. Monitor ABGs, as ordered; report abnormal values
d. Position in Fowler’s/high-Fowler’s
e. Assist with C & DB
f. Provide fluids
g. Assist with chest physiotherapy
h. Administer medications/assess effectiveness

Ineffective Breathing Pattern

a. Provide for rest
b. Assess for pain/provide analgesia
c. Administer O2 as ordered.

Activity Intolerance

a. Assess effect of activity
b. Assist with ADLs
c. Schedule activities/rest
d. Provide emotional support/encourage family presence & help

120
Q

What is the core measure criteria for patients with pneumonia?

A
  • —Oxygen assessment documentation
  • —Blood culture before 1st antibiotic
  • —Initial antibiotic within 6 hours of triage time
  • —Appropriate antibiotics given
  • —Influenza/Pneumococcal vaccination given/or documented
  • —Documentation of smoking cessation
  • —Nicoderm patch if patient refuses to quit smoking
121
Q

What is influenza, what causes it, and what are the symptoms of it?

A
  • Acute viral infection of respiratory tract; highly contagious
  • Different viral strains, usually known as types A, B, and C
  • Symptoms: acute onset of myalgia, fever, cough, sore throat, head aches, and can progress to pneumonia symptoms (esp in older adult)
  • Patients are contagious 1 day before symptoms start and 7 days after they start
122
Q

How would you manage a patient with influenza?

A
  • Diagnosis early to receive anti-viral medication: need to be given within 48 hours of intial symptoms for effectiveness
  • Treatment targeted at symptom relief: antipyretics and antitussives
  • Rest, hydration, nutrition
  • Prevent pneumonia
  • Teaching: hand washing, avoid crowds, annual influenza vaccination
123
Q

What is tuberculosis and what causes it?

A
  • Highly communicable disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • M. tuberculosis is an aerobic bacterium, primarily affecting the pulmonary system, especially the upper lobes where oxygen content is highest.
    • Granulomas develop in the lung tissue
  • It can also affect other areas of the body, such as brain, intestines, peritoneum, kidney, joints, and liver.
  • Major public health concern- globally, every second someone infected
124
Q

What is the basic pathophysiology of tuberculosis?

A
  • Spread by droplet nuclei
  • Microorganisms usually lodge in upper lobe
  • Multiply & cause inflammation
  • Can migrate through lymph system
  • Tubercle= granulomatous lesion
  • Bacilli in tubercles can be dormant or become active
  • Compromised immune system or live bacilli can spread through to other organs
125
Q

What are 4 factors in transmission of tuberculosis?

A
  1. Infectiousness of person
  2. —Environment of exposure
  3. Duration of exposure
  4. —Virulence of organism:
  • —Multidrug-resistant (MDR-TB)
  • —Extensively (CDC) drug-resistant (XDR-TB); “extreme”- lay term
126
Q

Who is at risk for tuberculosis exposure or infection?

A
  • Foreign-born: e.g., Asia, Africa, Russia
  • Close contacts: same living environment
  • Health care workers: high-risk patients
  • Substance abusers: e.g., injection/ inhalation
  • Other high-risk populations: e.g., homeless persons, migrant farm workers, prisoners
  • Immunocompromised individuals ie. HIV/AIDS, diabetes mellitus, cancer
  • International travelers
127
Q

What are the signs and symptoms seen in a patient with tuberculosis?

A
  • —Cough for several weeks
  • —Fever for more than a week
  • —Night sweats
  • —Weight loss
  • —Weakness
  • —Chest pain/pleurisy
  • —Coughing up blood
  • —Fatigue
  • Anorexia
128
Q

What tests would you use to diagnosis a person with tuberculosis?

A
  • Mantoux test: simple skin test
  • QuantiFERON-TB Gold (OFT): blood test
  • Direct microscopic exam of sputum: acid-fast bacilli (AFB)
  • Radiographic evidence: CXR
  • Culture of specimens
  • History & clinical findings
129
Q

How would you manage patients with tuberculosis?

A
  • —Nursing care plan: education/ prevention
  • Directly Observed Therapy Strategy (DOTS)
  • Drug therapy
  • Monitoring of drug therapy
  • Notify MD of side effects
  • BCG vaccine – efficacy questioned
130
Q

What would you educate patients on about tuberculosis?

A
  • Airborne infection: coughing, sneezing
  • Droplet nuclei- 3 feet; family members
  • Classic symptoms
  • Encourage health care & compliance-incentives
  • Medication side effects – jaundice, bleeding, N/V, aches/pains (monitor LFTs)
  • Social support; social stigma- Holistic approach
  • Mandatory reporting
131
Q

How would you treat tuberculosis?

A
  • Treatment of identified lesions depends on whether the patient has active disease or hs only be exposed to the disease
  • Treatment is difficult because the bacterium has a waxy substance on the capsule that makes penetration and destruction difficult
  • Multidrug regimen most effective to destroy organism quickly and minimize drug-resistant
  • Individuals with active TB are treated for 6-9 months; HIV patients treated for longer period
  • After 2-3 weeks of treatment, the risk of transmission is greatly reduced
  • Individuals exposed to active TB are treated with preventative Isoniazid for 9 to 12 months
132
Q

What would you educate patients on about their drugs to treat tuberculosis?

A
  • Importance of teaching:
  • Side effects
  • ETOH intake
  • Drug interactions
  • Routine monitoring: e.g., kidneys, liver, eye exams
  • Use in pregnancy
  • Encourage relationship with practitioner
133
Q

What are the 1st line agents to treat tuberculosis?

A
  • Isoniazid
  • Rifampin
  • Ethambutol
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Rifabutin
  • Rifapentine

Many TB meds can cause toxic effects such as hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, optic neuritis, or ototoxicity. Teach the client about the signs of toxicity and to notify HCP if signs arise.

134
Q

What are the 2nd line drugs used to treat tuberculosis?

A
  • —Second-line Agents
  • —Used in combo with 1st line meds; more toxic
    • Amikacin
    • Cipro, Levofloxacin
    • Cycloserine
    • Capreomycin sulfate
    • Streptomycin

Many TB meds can cause toxic effects such as hepatotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, neurotoxicity, optic neuritis, or ototoxicity. Teach the client about the signs of toxicity and to notify HCP if signs arise.

135
Q

What should the nurse do to protect him/herself from tuberculosis?

A
  • Be educated
  • Independent actions- ISOLATION & infection control nurse
  • Use *Negative air-flow rooms/HEPA filters *
  • Be aware: coughing, risk factors, read chart
  • Wash your hands- always for any infection control!
  • Call the practitioner if patient has symptoms
136
Q

What steps are taken to protect health care workers from tuberculosis?

A
  • Patients taught to cover their mouth & nose when coughing, using a tissue.
  • Private room with air exchange - air exchange at least 6 times per hour and two of the exchanges being fresh air from outside. Air exhausted to the outside.
  • When patient leaves their room, must wear a particulate respirator (PR) mask.
  • Air pressure in patient’s room, must be negative.
  • High-energy particulate air (HEPA) filters in rooms.
  • Ultraviolet lights.
  • 3 consecutive negative smears for TB, patient does not have to wear a mask.
  • HCWs using PR mask - refitted annually.
  • HCWs tested annually with PPD.
  • If exposed to TB, then have PPD 8 to 12 weeks after exposure.
  • If work in area where exposure is possible (ie, tracheal suctioning or bronchoscopy) - then have PPD every 6 months. Determined by CDC.
  • If convert from negative PPD status to positive, must have exam to rule out active TB. Consider INH therapy or annual CXR.
137
Q

What is a pneumothorax and what are the different types?

A
  • Air accumulation in pleural space
    • Rupture of visceral or parietal pleura
    • Air destroys negative pressure; lung collapses
  • Can be Spontaneous
    • Rupture of bleb

Types of pnuemothorax include:

  1. traumatic
  2. tension
  3. simple
138
Q

What are the manifestations of a pneumothorax?

A
  • Depend on size & cause
  • Sudden pleural pain
  • Tachypnea, tachycardia
  • Increased oxygen demand
  • Dyspnea (degree depends on size)
  • Absent or decreased breath sounds affected side
  • Air movement thru open wound (open pneumothorax)
  • Subcutaneous emphysema
  • Confirmed by CXR
139
Q

How would you manage a pneumothorax?

A
  • Oxygen therapy
  • Vented dressing (stabilize impaled object) with open pneumothorax
  • Chest tube insertion
  • Surgical intervention
140
Q

What would you assess a patient for with a pneumothorax?

A

Physical assessment:

  • Degree of respiratory distress
  • Evidence of chest trauma
  • Vital signs
  • SpO2
  • Skin color
  • LOC
  • Breath sounds & respiratory excursion
  • Position of trachea
  • Neck vein distention
141
Q

What are some nursing interventions for a patient with a pneumothorax?

A

Impaired gas exchange, Ineffective breathing pattern, Ineffective airway clearance:

  • Maintain open airway
  • Assess VS, Breath sounds, SpO2 (q4hrs)
  • Position in Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s
  • Administer oxygen/assess effectiveness
  • Administer analgesia/assess effectiveness
  • Maintain/monitor chest tube function (q2hrs)
  • Provide for adequate rest
  • Increase patient mobility (once stabilized)

Decreased cardiac output (tension pneumothorax, hemothorax):

  • Monitor VS
  • Administer fluids (crystalloids, colloids)
  • Monitor I&O
  • Monitor H&H, RBCs, platelets

Risk for infection:

  • Chest tube care/site care
  • Wound care (open pneumothorax)
  • Monitor/interpret labs
  • Monitor VS
  • Administer antibiotics
142
Q

What can cause a traumatic pneumothorax?

A
  • Fractured rib (blunt trauma)
    • Closed pneumothorax
  • Open (penetrating trauma)
  • Sucking chest wound
  • Iatrogenic (central line, thoracentesis, mechanical ventilation)—
143
Q

What are some complications with a tension pneumothorax?

A

Site of the pleural rupture acts as one-way valve:

  • Air enters on inspiration
  • Air does not escape during expiration
  • More & more air enters pleural space
  • Pressure builds & compresses lung tissue & mediastinum (heart & great vessels)
144
Q

What are the manifestations of a tension pneumothorax and how would you care for a patient with this?

A

Clinical Manifestations:

  • Severe dyspnea/hypoxemia
  • Hypotension
  • Absent breath sounds affected side
  • Tracheal deviation
  • Neck vein distention

Collaborative Care-Emergency Situation:

  • Oxygen
  • Needle thoracotomy/Chest tube insertion
  • Monitor EKG, VS
  • Possible intubation
145
Q

What is a hemothorax, what causes it, and what are the clinical manifestations of it?

A

Accumulation of blood in intrapleural space caused by:

  • Blunt/penetrating trauma
  • Rib fractures
  • Lung parenchymal (pulmonary contusion)

Clinical Manifestations:

  • Decreased/absent breath sounds
  • Decreased chest expansion
  • Decreased percussion noted
146
Q

What is pulmonary edema and what causes it?

A

—Refers to the extravasation of fluid from the pulmonary vasculature into the interstitium & alveoli of the lung

—Causes:

  • Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
  • Increased capillary permeability
  • Decreased oncotic pressure
  • Lymphatic obstruction
147
Q

How does pulmonary edema progress?

A

—Stage I – fluid transfer is increased into the lung interstitium because lymphatic flow increases

—

—Stage 2 – The capacity of the lymphatics to drain excess fluid is overwhelmed and fluid begins to accumulate in the interstitial space that surrounds the bronchioles & lung vasculature

—

—Stage 3 – as fluid continues to build up, increased pressure causes it to track into the interstitial space around the alveoli & disruption to the alveolar membrane occurs. Gas exchange becomes impaired

148
Q

What factors can contribute to pulmonary edema?

A
  • —Infectious pulmonary edema (viral or bacterial)
  • —Inhaled toxins
  • —Circulating toxins
  • —Vasoactive substances (histamine, kinins)
  • —Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • —Immunologic reactions
  • —Radiation pneumonia
  • —Uremia
  • —Near-drowning
  • —Aspiration pneumonia
  • —Smoke inhalation
  • —ARDS
149
Q

What are the early symptoms of pulmonary edema?

A

—Can develop slowly or acutely

—Early signs:

  • Shortness of breath on exertion
  • Sudden respiratory distress after sleep
  • Difficulty breathing unless sitting upright
  • Cough
150
Q

What are the late symptoms of pulmonary edema?

A
  • Labored & rapid breathing (leads to respiratory alkalosis)
  • Frothy or bloody sputum
  • Tachycardia
  • Cardiac arrhythmias
  • Cold, clammy, sweaty, bluish skin
  • Decreased blood pressure
  • Thready pulse
  • Anxiety
  • Pulse oximetry is commonly less than 85% & arterial Po2 of 30-50 mmHG
151
Q

What medications will be used to treat pulmonary edema?

A

—Medical treatment:

  • Find and treat underlying cause
  • O2 via nasal cannula or mask
  • Intubation & mechanical ventilation maybe necessary
  • Furosemide (Lasix) – increases urine output and works quickly to remove excess fluid from the body
  • Morphine – decreases anxiety & work load of breathing
  • Dobutamine – dilates the peripheral vessels to decrease the work load of left ventricle
  • Aspirin - helps decrease blood viscosity for easy delivery
152
Q

What would you assess for in a patient with pulmonary edema?

A
  • Identify type of artificial airway or supplemental oxygen
  • Check respirations for rate, depth, rhythm, symmetry, accessory muscle use
  • Sputum – if present, note color, consistency, & odor of sputum
    • Pink Frothy is usually noted with pulmonary edema
  • Auscultate breath sounds for equality and/or adventitious breath sounds (would hear crackles)
153
Q

What are some nursing interventions for a patient with pulmonary edema?

A
  • Monitor for symptoms of heart failure/decreased cardiac output
  • Monitor vital signs
  • Observe for confusion, restlessness, agitation
  • Monitor for chest pain, discomfort (note severity, radiation, and duration)
  • Cardiac monitor for dysrhythmias
  • Monitor I & O
  • Note results of EKG, chest x-ray, & other diagnostic exams
  • —Monitor lab work such as ABGs, CBC, electrolytes
  • —Place patient in semi-Fowlers of upright position
  • —Activity/rest balance
  • —Diet sodium restricted, low cholesterol, limit caffeine
  • —Serve smaller more frequent meals
  • —Monitor bowel and bladder function
  • —Minimize environmental stimuli
  • —Daily weights
  • —Refer appropriately (heart failure programs, cardiac rehab., support groups)
154
Q

What would you educate a patient on that has pulmonary edema?

A
  • s/s of heart failure
  • Importance of smoking cessation/ avoidance of alcohol
  • Stress reduction
  • Diet restrictions
  • Assist patient to understand need for lifestyle changes
  • Side effects of medications
  • Early reporting of SOB or other respiratory difficulty
  • Provide specific self-care & disease process information to patient prior to discharge
155
Q

What is pleural effusion and what are the different types?

A

It is a collection of fluid in pleural space:

  • vSource: blood vessels or lymphatics; lesions
  • Fluids compress lung tissue (atelectasis occurs)
  • Lung does not collapse

Types:

  • Transudative: watery; low in protein
  • Exudative: high amount of WBCs & proteins
156
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a pleural effusion and how would you treat it?

A

Clinical Manifestations:

  • Dyspnea
  • Pleuritic pain
  • Dullness to percussion, decrease breath sounds (hyperressonance)
  • CXR

Collaborative Care:

  • Treat underlying cause
  • Thoracentesis
157
Q

What are the signs and symptoms associated with a pleural effusion?

A
  • —Dyspnea with activity and/or rest
  • —Tachycardia, dysrhythmias, S3 heart sound, hypo or hypertension
  • —Fear, anxiety
  • —Pain aggravated by inspiration, possibility of spread to neck, shoulders, abdomen
  • —Tachypnea, use of accessory muscles in chest, intercostal retraction, decreased breath sounds, decreased fremitus (effected side
  • —Skin – pale, cyanosis, sweating
158
Q

What causes transudative pleural effusion?

A

—Transudative effusions usually form as a result of excess capillary fluid leakage into the pleural space, and can be caused by:

  • Congestive heart failure
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Cirrhosis of liver
  • Pulmonary embolism
  • Hypothyroidism
159
Q

What causes exudative pleural effusion?

A

—Exudative effusions are often more serious than transudative effusions. They are formed as a result of inflammation of the pleura caused by:

  • —Pneumonia
  • —Lung Cancer; other cancers
  • —Connective tissue diseases
  • —Pulmonary embolism
  • —Asbestosis
  • —Tuberculosis
  • Radiotherapy
160
Q

What are some nursing interventions related to pleural effusions?

A

Ineffective breathing pattern:

  • —Identify etiology or trigger factor
  • —Assess respiratory function (changes in vital signs, O2 sat, cyanosis)
  • —Auscultation for breath sounds
  • —Note position of the chest & trachea
  • —Comfortable position – usually HOB up
  • —Give oxygen and monitor
  • —Monitor chest tube if inserted

Chest Pain:

  • —Assess for presence of pain, the scale and intensity of pain
  • —Teach patient about pain management & relaxation with distraction
  • —Secure chest tube to restrict movement and avoid irritation
  • —Provide analgesics as indicated
  • —Evaluate effectiveness of pain reduction measures
161
Q

How would a nurse assist with a thoracentesis?

A
  • Informed consent
  • Position pt upright, leaning forward
  • Obtain equipment
  • Monitor pulse, color, SpO2
  • Apply dressing over site
  • Monitor closely after procedure; I & O
162
Q

How would you manage a patient who has had a lobectomy?

A
  • Promote ventilation & re-expansion of the lung
  • Pneumonectomy – should not be turned on unoperative side
  • Maintain a clear airway
  • Maintain a closed drainage system (if used)
  • Promote arm exercises on affected side (PROM)
  • Promote nutrition
  • Monitor incision for bleeding & subcutaneous emphysema
  • Remain in ICU until extubated & hemodynamically stable
  • Then O2 at 6L/min via NC
163
Q

What can cause pulmonary embolisms?

A
  1. Stasis - decreased blood flow
  2. Endothelial injury - damage to the inside of the blood vessel
  3. Hypercoagulability - blood clots likely
164
Q

How do we prevent a pulmonary embolus from occuring?

A
  • —Careful assessment including risk factors, physical exam
  • —Ambulation, active & passive leg exercises
  • —Do not sit or lie in bed for prolonged period—
  • —Do not cross legs; wear constrictive clothing; dangle or place feet in dependent positions for long periods of time
  • —Sequential compression devices
  • —Prophylactic heparin or lovenox
165
Q

What are some risk factors for a pulmonary embolus?

A
  • Venous stasis
  • Hypercoagulable states
  • Immobilization
  • Surgery & trauma
  • Pregnancy
  • OCPs & estrogen replacement
  • Malignancy
  • Acute medical illnesses
  • IV drug abuse
  • Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia
  • Varicose veins
  • Venous pacemakers
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Lupus
166
Q

What are some indicators for a pulmonary embolus?

A
  • Travel of 4 hours or more in the past month
  • Surgery within the last 3 months
  • Malignancy, especially lung cancer
  • Current, or past hx of thrombophlebitis
  • Trauma to lower extremities & pelvis during past 3 months
  • Smoking
  • Central venous instrumentation in past 3 months
  • Stroke, paresis, or paralysis
  • Prior pulmonary embolus
  • Heart failure
  • COPD
167
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of a pulmonary embolus?

A
  • Tachypnea (RR > 16/min)
  • Rales
  • Accentuated 2nd heart sound
  • Tachycardia (HR>100)
  • Fever (temp > 37.8C)
  • Diaphoresis
  • S3 or S4 gallop
  • Clinical S/S suggesting
    • Thrombophlebitis
  • Lower extremity edema – DVT
168
Q

What are some nursing interventions for a patient with a pulmonary embolus?

A
  • Monitor vital signs, ABGs
  • Position patient in high Fowler’s position
  • Administer oxygen as ordered
  • Bedrest
  • Medications - anticoagulants
169
Q

What are some medications used to treat pulmonary emboli?

A

—Anticoagulants:

  • Heparin – weight based protocols
    • Monitoring PTT, INR; therapeutic range 2.0-2.5
    • S/E – bleeding; antidote = Protamine Sulfate
  • Warfarin (Coumadin)
    • Monitoring PT, INR
    • Important to keep the same brand of coumadin
  • Enoxaparin (Lovenox)
    • High doses SC
    • Require less frequent monitoring