exam 3 study guide Flashcards

1
Q

what are the tests to check for renal function and there normal values

A

sodium (Na+) levels (135-145 mEq/L)
Blood Urea nitrogen (BUN) (7-20mg/dl) most common
creatinine levels (0.6-1.2 mg/dl)

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2
Q

what are the main causes for hyperglycemia

A

causes by increases glucose levels (70-100mg/dl)
-type I or II diabetes
-Cushing disease- hormone disorder
-system steroid use

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3
Q

what are cardio biomarkers and what do they tell us?

A

*B-type naturietic peptide (BNP)- secreted by the ventricles, levels increase as CHF symptoms worsen
<100 pg/ml- no CHF
>500 pg/ml- indicates CHF
* troponin I- protein found primarily in cardiac muscle, when heart muscle is injured troponin is released into blood stream
normal value- <0.04 ng/mL

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4
Q

what is the normal value of anion gap and what do we use it for

A

normal range- 8-18 mEq/L
helps us determine if metabolic acidosis is caused by an acid gain or a loss of a base

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5
Q

what are the electrolytes that play a major role in neuromuscular function

A

*calcium (Ca)
*magnesium (Mg++)

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6
Q

what is the primary role of sodium

A

major extracellular cation (+) that is controlled by kidney function, it is important because it regulates the water in our bodies

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7
Q

what to expect of WBC when an infection is present

A

WBC also known as leukocytes will increase when indication of infection is present
>11000/mcL

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8
Q

normal range for WBC and what does a left shift indicate regarding WBC

A

normal range: 5000-11000/mcL
left shift indicates that the body is trying to fight something off (stress, infection, or inflammation) due to increased banded neutrophils in the blood because bone marrow pushes them out in hopes to fight whatever is going on

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9
Q

what is potassiums normal ranges and how is albuterol used regarding there levels

A

(K+) normal range: 3.5-5 mEq/L
as a temporary fix. albuterol will be given in high doses (typically 10-20 mg) to bring down levels of potassium by moving them from the blood into cells

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10
Q

platelet count normal ranges/names

A

also known as thrombocytes
normal range: 150,000-400,000/mcL
thrombocytosis- increased platelets (blood clotting)
thrombocytopenia- decreased platelets (increased bleeding/no blood clotting)

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11
Q

roles of albumin

A

*protein made in the liver
*helps keep fluid inside blood vessels (oncotic pressure)
*low levels lead to fluid leaking into the interstitial space including the lungs
normal value: 3,5-5g/dl

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12
Q

definition of polycythemia and its causes

A

increased RBC caused by:
*high altitudes
*chronic hypoxia/hypoxemia
*tumors

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13
Q

definition of anemia and its causes

A

too few red blood cells or not enough hemoglobin caused by:
*blood loss
*iron deficiency
*chronic disease
*bone marrow issues

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14
Q

RT treatment for heart failure

A
  1. oxygen therapy- WOB/O2
    2.suction- assist in clearing airway
  2. CPAP- improves decreased lung compliance, decreases left and right ventricular preload, enhance gas exchange (don’t use when pt is hypercapnia)
  3. NIPPV/NIV/BiPAP- improves decreased lung compliance, decreases left and right ventricular preload, reduce WOB, enhance gas exchange
  4. mechanical ventilation- when pt fails NIPPV, place on vent to prevent respiratory/cardiac arrest
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15
Q

chest X-ray characteristics for heart failure

A
  1. pulmonary edema
  2. batwing/butterfly pattern
  3. increased vascular markings
  4. fluffy opacities
  5. cardiomegaly
  6. Kelley B lines
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16
Q

what are the roles for the drug inotropic

A

inotropic drugs are used to reduce cardiac contractility, reduce strain on the heart, improve blood pressure, and improve cardiac output.
Examples: dopamine, dobutamine, and norepinephrine

17
Q

what is the role of diuretics

A

loop diuretics- lasik’s, pull off access fluid and salt by increasing urine production
(monitor labs because they can also pull off electrolytes)

18
Q

respiratory pattern seen in heart failure

A

Cheyenne stokes respiration- gradual increase of breathing (faster and deeper) followed by sections of apnea, cycle repeats

19
Q

what are the complications of left sides heart failure

A
  1. when the left ventricular fails, it leads to slower CO and pulmonary congestion
  2. pulmonary venous congestion leads to increased interstitial and pleural fluid retention
  3. causes issues with systemic circulation, causes fluid back up in the lungs/chest cavity, and causes dyspnea/SOB
20
Q

what is the role of anti-diuretic hormone ADH

A
  1. the kidneys will sense low blood flow and activates a system of hormones and enzymes which cause sodium/water retention
    2.this leads to an increase in blood volume which can strain an already weakened pump
  2. the pituitary gland releases an anti-diuretic hormone which causes fluid retention and leads to further fluid overload (the body’s compensation furthers the damage, even though it thinks its helping)
21
Q

what is the role of nitroglycerin

A

nitroglycerin- its a vasodilator that increases blood flow to the peripheral veins so less is backing up in the heart

22
Q

BNP levels in CHF

A

<100pg/mL is normal
>500pg/mL indicates CHF
electrolytes Na+, Cl-, K+ will be decreased if CHF is present, retaining more water dilutes electrolytes

23
Q

what 8is the role of CPAP with heart failure

A

improves decreased lung compliance, decreases left and right ventricular preload enhances gas exchange (by recruiting collapses alveoli)

24
Q

what is the mechanism behind pulmonary edema

A

(left ventricular failure only)
1. stability of fluid in pulmonary capillaries is determined by the balance of oncotic and hydrostatic pressures
2. oncotic is normally higher, keeping fluid in capillaries
3. left ventricular failure causes a backup blood in the pulmonary circulation
4. hydrostatic pressure increases as blood backs, causing fluid from the blood to leak into interstitial space
5.interstitial edema leads to alveolar flooding and eventual atelectasis

25
Q

where is the location of phrenic nerves in the spinal column

A

phrenic nerves are located- spinal cord C3-C5

26
Q

what are the characteristics of ALS (Lou Gehrig’s)

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis- fatal neurological disease due to loss of function of the motor neurons on the anterior horn of spinal cord.
1. sporadic- 90-95%
2. genetic 5-10%
3.progressive weakness begins in the periphery(hands/feet) most commonly
4. no treatment/cure

27
Q

what part of the nervous system is affected by Guillain Barre

A

autoimmune disease that attacks nerve tissues, resulting in demyelination and inflammation of peripheral nerves. typically follows after a viral or bacterial infection.
(toes to head)

28
Q

effect of NMD on respiratory system

A

1.atelectasis
2.impaired cough
3.mucus plugging
4.sleep disordered breathing
5.hypoventilation
6. stiffening rib cage
7. aspiration
8.pneumonia
9.respiratory failure
10.death
(effects breathing muscles, which effects breathing)

29
Q

how to diagnose myasthenia gravis

A

-chronic autoimmune disorder resulting from circulating antibodies which block/alter/destroy acetylcholine receptors(muscle contractions) (episodic, head to feet)
1. immunologic studies (antibody tests)
2. eye drooping/double vision
3. positive tensilon test- anticholinesterase inhibitor(if improves muscle strength indicates MG)

30
Q

general treatment for NMD

A

1.lung expansion/mucus clearances (no IS)
2. ventilatory support
3.Nutrition (protein calorie malnutrition increases risk for infection)
4.antibiotic therapy (with development of pneumonia)
5. anticoagulant and pneumatic compression sock therapy to prevent blood clots and pulmonary emboli

31
Q

treatment for Guillain Barre

A
  1. plasmapheresis- plasma exchange
  2. intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)
32
Q

what are the three ways neuromuscular system contributes to respiratory function

A
  1. regulation of respiratory drive
  2. ventilation
  3. airway protection
33
Q

diagnostic testing for tuberculosis

A
  1. chest XRAY:
    Ghon nodules
    enlarged lymph nodes in hilar region
    cavitation
    fibrosis
  2. AFB sputum culture and smear
    used to test for acid-fast bacteria (done in AM)
  3. QuantiFERON-TB gold test
    blood test used to test for mycobacterium tuberculosis
34
Q

isolation procedures

A

airborne isolation
use of a single patient, negative pressure room
N95 mask
PAPR

35
Q

PPD test (Mantoux skin testing)

A
  1. intradermal injection with a small amount of a purified protein derivative(PPD)
  2. evaluated after 48-72 hrs
    3.positive test does not mean active infection
  3. induration less than 5 mm is neg
  4. 5-9mm is suspicious, retest needed
  5. > 10mm considered positive
    positive reaction is evidence of recent or past infection or of active disease
36
Q

risk factors associated with tuberculosis

A
  1. immune deficiency
    2.close living quarters
  2. homelessness
    4.malnutrition