Exam 3 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

pressure ulcer stage where skin is intact with nonblanchable redness

A

stage 1

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2
Q

pressure ulcer stage where the wound is partial thickness and has gone through the epidermis and part of the dermis

A

stage 2

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3
Q

pressure ulcer stage where the wound is full thickness through the epidermis, dermis, and part of SQ tissue

A

stage 3

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4
Q

stage 3 pressure ulcers may have ________ drainage

A

serosanguinous

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5
Q

pressure ulcer stage where the wound is full thickness down to the bone or muscle

A

stage 4

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6
Q

stage 4 pressure ulcers may have ______ drainage

A

purulent

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7
Q

3 things the PUSH tool assesses in pressure ulcer

A

length x width
exudate
tissue type

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8
Q

ABCDEs of moles

A

asymmetry
border
color
diameter
evolving/elevation

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9
Q

normal mole diameter

A

less than 1/4 inch (6 mm)

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10
Q

lesions that are conjoined or running together

A

confluent lesion

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11
Q

edema stage where there is slight pitting that rebounds immediately

A

1+

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12
Q

edema stage that is a bit deeper and takes about 15 seconds or less to rebound

A

2+

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13
Q

edema that pits noticeably deep and takes 15 to 20 seconds to rebound

A

3+

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14
Q

edema stage that pits very deep and takes longer than 20 seconds to rebound

A

4+

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15
Q

the primary function of the skin

A

protect the internal body

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16
Q

vitamin produced by the skin

A

D

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17
Q

6 categories of the Braden Scale

A

sensory perception
moisture
activity
mobility
nutrition
friction/shear

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18
Q

score range for Braden Scale

A

6-23

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19
Q

a score of __ or less on the Braden scale requires intervention

A

18

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20
Q

inner ear infection

A

otitis media

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21
Q

otitis media symptoms

A

red, bulging eardrum
diminished or absent light reflex
fluid or pus

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22
Q

grade __ tonsils are visible

A

1+

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23
Q

grade __ tonsils are midway between tonsillar pillars and uvula

A

2+

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24
Q

grade __ tonsils are touching the uvula

A

3+

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25
Q

grade ___ tonsils are touching each other

A

4+

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26
Q

lymph nodes in front of ear

A

preauricular

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27
Q

lymph nodes behind ear

A

posterior auricular

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28
Q

lymph nodes at base of skull

A

occipital

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29
Q

lymph nodes next to the carotid pulse

A

tonsillar

30
Q

lymph nodes under the jaw

A

submandibular

31
Q

lymph nodes under the chin

A

submental

32
Q

lymph nodes above the collar bone

A

subclavicular

33
Q

lymph nodes under the tonsillar lymph nodes

A

superficial clavicular

34
Q

lymph nodes on the side of the neck

A

posterior cervical chain

35
Q

lymph nodes on the front of the neck

A

deep cervical chain

36
Q

pull pinna ____ and back for adults

A

up

37
Q

pull pinna ____ and back for children

A

down

38
Q

2 tests to do when you suspect hearing loss in one ear

A

Weber and Rinnes test

39
Q

sound waves transmitted by middle and outer ear

A

conduction hearing

40
Q

sound waves transmitted by inner ear

A

sensorineural

41
Q

where to place the tuning fork in the Weber test

A

center or patients forehead

42
Q

in the weber test, if the client reports sound lateralizing to the bad ear, then it is ________ hearing loss

A

conduction

43
Q

in the weber test, is the client reports sound lateralizing to the good ear, then it is _______ hearing loss

A

sensorineural

44
Q

in the Rinne test, place the base of the tuning fork at the ______ _____ and then the other end at the _____

A

mastoid process, ear

45
Q

placing the tuning fork by the mastoid process in the Rinne test tests ______ conduction

A

bone

46
Q

placing the tuning fork by the ear in the Rinne test tests _____ conduction

A

air

47
Q

normal findings in Rinne test

A

AC greater than BC

48
Q

if BC is greater than AC, then it is _______ hearing loss

A

conductive

49
Q

OS abbreviation

A

left eye

50
Q

OD abbreviation

A

right eye

51
Q

damage to the ocular nerve because of high ocular pressure

A

glaucoma

52
Q

glaucoma S/E

A

blind spots, tunnel vision, halos, blurred vision

53
Q

gradual loss of vision caused by aging and thinning of the membrane on the retina

A

macular degeneration

54
Q

condition where the vitreous pulls away from the retina and tears the retina

A

retinal detachment

55
Q

retinal detachment causes ______

A

blindness

56
Q

clouding and hardening of the lens

A

cataracts

57
Q

cataracts S/E

A

cloudy vision, worse vision at night, fading yellow colors, light and glare sensitivity, halos

58
Q

signs of hyperthyroidism

A

weight loss, increased HR, irritable, sweaty

59
Q

signs of hypothyroidism

A

weight gain, cold, tired

60
Q

overgrowth of facial hair on women

A

hirsutism

61
Q

small lesion that is flat to skin and red, brown, or tan color

A

macule

62
Q

small, solid, raised lesion that is purple or red in color

A

papule

63
Q

small thinned walled, raised blister with drainage inside

A

vesicle

64
Q

constant malalignment of the eyes

A

strabismus

65
Q

an oscillating (shaking) movement of the eyes

A

nystagmus

66
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphagia

67
Q

inverted lower eye lid

A

entropion

68
Q

everted lower lid

A

ectropion

69
Q

protrusion of the eyes

A

exopthalmos

70
Q

loss of hearing due to age

A

presbycusis

71
Q

large or swollen lymph nodes

A

adenopathy