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Health Assessment > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

3 vaccines to ask about in respiratory assessment

A

flu, covid, TB

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2
Q

if the pt. has problems breathing during sleep while laying flat and NO lower extremity edema, it is a ________ problem

A

respiratory

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3
Q

if the patient has problems breathing during sleep while laying flight and HAS lower extremity edema, then it is a ______ problem

A

cardiac

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4
Q

position is seen in abnormal breathing where the pt. is hunched forward with their hands on their knees

A

tripod position

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5
Q

_______ breathing is deep and labored hyperventilation

A

Kussmaul

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6
Q

2 things Kussmaul breathing is a sign of

A

diabetic ketoacidosis
chronic kidney problems

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7
Q

_____ _____ breathing is periods of breathing followed by periods of apnea

A

cheyne stokes

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8
Q

cheyne stokes breathing pattern is seen in people who have _____ diseases

A

terminal

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9
Q

the AP:T diameter ratio

A

2:1

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10
Q

barrel-chested is when the _______ diameter is the same width as the AP diameter

A

transverse

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11
Q

retraction seen in intercostal spaces when exhaling and bulging seen when inhaling can be seen in patients who have _______

A

asthma

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12
Q

when your trachea is pushed to one side of your neck

A

tracheal deviation

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13
Q

tracheal deviation indicates __________

A

pneumothorax

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14
Q

crackling or popping felt when you palpate

A

crepitus

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15
Q

test done to test the vibration of air in the bronchial tubes

A

tactile fremitus

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16
Q

during tactile fremitus, have the patient say ___ and feel for vibration

A

99

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17
Q

test done that shows the lungs capacity to expand by putting hands on the rib cage as they inhale

A

thoracic expansion

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18
Q

in thoracic expansion, your thumbs should separate __ to ___ cm

A

5 to 10

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19
Q

the normal sound you percuss over lungs filled with air

A

resonance

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20
Q

dullness heard when percussing is because of a _____ or _____

A

mass or fluid

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21
Q

higher pitched sound heard when percussing that indicates an abnormal amount air air

A

tympany

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22
Q

__________ heard when percussion indicated COPD and/or emphysema

A

hyperessonance

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23
Q

percussion test done to show how much the diaphragm moves when inhaling/exhaling

A

diaphragmatic excursion

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24
Q

in the diaphragmatic excursion, the difference sound be __ to __ cm

A

3 to 5

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25
Q

bronchial sounds are heard over the ______

A

trachea

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26
Q

brocnhovesiclar sounds are over the ______ _____

A

bronchial tubes

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27
Q

vesicular sounds are heard over the _______

A

lungs

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28
Q

the loudest lung sounds are the ______ sounds and the lowest are the _______ sounds

A

bronchial, vesiculae

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29
Q

an adventitious sound is when there is an abnormal sound that does not go away with ______

A

coughing

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30
Q

_______ are heard when there is fluid blocking the alveolar sacs

A

crackles

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31
Q

most common cause of crackles in the lungs

A

congestive heart failure

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32
Q

_______ is caused by the bronchial tubes being inflamed

A

wheezing

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33
Q

wheezing that is emergent and doesn’t need a stethoscope to be heard

A

stridor

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34
Q

3 tests done when you hear an adventitious sound

A

bronchophony
egophony
whisper pectoriloquy

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35
Q

test done where you auscultate lungs when the patient says 99

A

bronchophony

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36
Q

normal bronchophony test results

A

faint and muffled

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37
Q

test where you ascultate while the pt. says E

A

egophony

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38
Q

normal egophony results

A

sounds like pt. is saying Eeeeeeeee

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39
Q

abnormal egophony results

A

sounds like Aaaaaaa; loud and clear

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40
Q

test where you auscultate while the pt. whispers 123

A

whisper pectorilquy

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41
Q

normal whisper pectoriloquy results

A

faint and muffled, almost inaudible

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42
Q

abnormal whisper pectoriloquy results

A

clear and distinct, still faint though

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43
Q

when the lining between the pleura gets dry and causes friction between the layers

A

pleural friction rub

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44
Q

if the pt. holds their breath, and the friction rub goes away then it is a _______ friction rub

A

pleural

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45
Q

if the pt. holds their breath, and the friction rub stays, then it is a ______ friction rub

A

pericardial

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46
Q

meds to treat crackles

A

diuretics

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47
Q

meds to treat diminished breath sounds

A

antibiotics

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48
Q

meds to treat wheezes

A

bronchodilators

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49
Q

sounds heard with someone with pneumonia

A

dull

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50
Q

a chest ____ confirms diagnoses of pneumonia

A

X-ray

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51
Q

specialist that works on electrical problems in the heart

A

electrophysiologist

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52
Q

lack of blood supply to the chest causes pain called _____

A

angina

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53
Q

______ ______ disease refers to the build up of plaque and blockage of arteries

A

coronary artery

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54
Q

when cardiac muscle is ischemic, it is not yet ____, just damaged

A

dead

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55
Q

______ is when cardiac tissue is dead

A

infarction

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56
Q

2 things that can diagnose CAD

A

EKG
heart catheriterization

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57
Q

2 things that can treat CAD

A

angioplasty
CABG surgery

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58
Q

procedure where a stent is placed in the heart

A

angioplasty

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59
Q

the P wave signifies the ____ node firing

A

SA

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60
Q

the AV node can fire at __ to __ beats per minute

A

40 to 60

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61
Q

QRS wave signifies the ___ node firing

A

AV

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62
Q

when the SA node fails, the ___ node takes over and can sustain life

A

AV

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63
Q

if the SA and AV node fail, the ______ ______ take over

A

bundle branches

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64
Q

the bundle branches fire at __ to __ beats per minute

A

20 to 40

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65
Q

life cannot be sustained when the _____ _____ take over contraction

A

bundle branches

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66
Q

4 positive cations that provide electrical charge

A

Mg, K, Ca, Na

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67
Q

normal magnesium levels

A

1.5 to 2.5

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68
Q

normal potassium levels

A

3 to 5

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69
Q

4 things that affect CO

A

stroke volume
heart rate
contractability
pre-load

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70
Q

the amount of blood that will go into the heart to be pumped out

A

pre-load

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71
Q

S1 is the closure of the __ valves

A

AV

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72
Q

2 AV valves

A

mitral and tricuspid

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73
Q

S2 is the sound of the ____ valves closing

A

semilunar

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74
Q

2 semilunar valves

A

aortic and pulmonic

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75
Q

heart sound heard when blood passively flows into the ventricle

A

S3

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76
Q

sound heard when blood is ejected into the ventricle from atrial contraction

A

S4

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77
Q

S1 is heard at the _____ of the heart

A

apex

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78
Q

S1 signals the beginning of ______

A

systole

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79
Q

S1 corresponds to the _____ pulse

A

carotid

80
Q

S2 is heard at the _____ of the heart

A

base

81
Q

S2 signals the beginning of ______

A

diastole

82
Q

S3 and S4 can be best heard with the ____ of the stethoscope

A

bell

83
Q

S3 and S4 are heard best at the ____ of the heart

A

apex

84
Q

S3 is a lower pitch than ____

A

S2

85
Q

appearance of S3 could indicate ____ _____ ______

A

coronary heart failure

86
Q

S3 is heard right after ____

A

S2

87
Q

S4 is heard right before ___

A

S1

88
Q

S4 is caused by the ____ ____ being stiff with scar tissue

A

left ventricle

89
Q

S$ could indicate _____ ____ _____

A

coronary artery disease

90
Q

______ are caused by blood flowing through a stenotic (narrow) valve

A

murmurs

91
Q

_____ are caused by backward blood flow through a regurgitant valve

A

murmurs

92
Q

______ are caused by abnormal opening of chambers

A

murmurs

93
Q

what a murmur sounds like

A

harsh swishing or blowing sound

94
Q

2 mumurs classification

A

systolic
diastolic

95
Q

a _____ murmur separates S1 from S2

A

systolic

96
Q

a ______ murmur is after S2 or before S1

A

diastolic

97
Q

pericardial friction rud is best heard with the _____ of the stethoscope

A

diapraghm

98
Q

a murmur grade is 1 to __

A

6

99
Q

grade __ to __ murmurs are very loud and large

A

4 to 6

100
Q

only __% of the population has a palpable apical pulse

A

50

101
Q

valvular heart disease is acquired or congentinal disorder of heart valve characterized by _____ or _____ valve

A

stenotic or incompetent

102
Q

narrowing valve that does not open completely

A

stenotic

103
Q

valve that does not close completely

A

incompetent

104
Q

2 main causes of valvular heart disease

A

rheumatic fever
endocarditis (infection of endocardium)

105
Q

a _____ is caused by plaque in the peripheral arteries causing a swishing sound

A

bruit

106
Q

coronary artery disease is usually caused by ________

A

atherosclerosis

107
Q

angina can occur at rest due to ______ of the coronary arteries

A

spasms

108
Q

______ ____ occurs when myocardial ischemia goes on for so long it causes necrosis

A

myocardial infarction

109
Q

2 things that diagnose myocardial infarction

A

heart catheter
stress test

110
Q

_____ ____ occurs when either ventricle fails tp pump blood efficiently into the aorta to pulmonary artery

A

heart fialure

111
Q

heart failure is more common in the ____ ventricle

A

left

112
Q

left-sided heart failure affects the ____

A

lungs

113
Q

right sided heart failure effects the _____

A

body

114
Q

BNP lab diagnoses ______ ____ ____

A

coronary heart failue

115
Q

lab that shows how much blood volume is backed up in the heart

A

BNP

116
Q

normal BNP levels

A

80-100

117
Q

an _______ allows you to see the fluid in the heart and help diagnose CHF

A

enchocardiogram

118
Q

hypertension must be recorded ____ over ____ on 3 or more times on two different occasions

A

140/90

119
Q

an ______ shows what the heart is doing right then and an _______ is a continuous reading

A

EKG, telemetry

120
Q

and EKG is ___ leads and a telemetry is __ leads

A

10, 5

121
Q

a heart catheter is put through the ______ artery

A

femoral

122
Q

and angioplasty smashes the clot with a ______

A

balloon

123
Q

high systolic blood pressure puts you at risk for ____

A

stroke

124
Q

high diastolic blood pressure puts you at risk for _____

A

syncope

125
Q

S3 can be normal in _____

A

athletes

126
Q

_____ is an auscultated murmur outside of the heart

A

bruit

127
Q

______ is palpable blood flow outside the heart

A

thrill

128
Q

MONA acronym for emergency treatment for MI

A

morphine
oxygen
nitroglycerine
aspirin

129
Q

forceful heart contractions you can see from the outside

A

lifts and heaves

130
Q

4 positions the pt. will be in to listen to heart sounds

A

sitting up
leaning forward
lying on back
lying of left side

131
Q

elevation pallor is seen in people with _______ insufficiency

A

venous

132
Q

when the pt. lifts their extremities and they turn a very pale color

A

elevation pallor

133
Q

dependent rubor is seen in pts. with _______ insufficiencies

A

arterial

134
Q

when the pt. dangles their extremities and they turn a dark purple or red color

A

dependent rubor

135
Q

2 major risk factors for venous insufficiency

A

pregnancy
obesity

136
Q

4 major risk factors for arterial insufficiency

A

high BP
smoking
diabetes
high cholesterol

137
Q

_________ occurs when their is a problem with the valves that causes lymph to build up in one area

A

lymphedema

138
Q

any condition that affects the arteries or the veins

A

venous disease

139
Q

2 ways vascular disease affects blood flow

A

blocks or weakens vessels
damaging valves

140
Q

oral contraceptives slightly increase your risk of getting a ______

A

clot

141
Q

_______ disease is when your arteries supplying blood to the skin are smaller and narrower than normal and the affected areas are pallor and cold

A

Raynaud’s

142
Q

test done to test perfusion to the hand by pressing down on the radial and ulnar artery and releasing to see if the hand pinks up again

A

Allen’s test

143
Q

_______ _____ ______ is when there is something (usually a blood clot) blocking blood flow to the tissues

A

acute arterial occlusion

144
Q

3 P’s to look for in arterial occlusion

A

Pain
Pallor
Pulselessness

145
Q

an _______ is a procedure to remove a blood clot or embolus

A

embolectomy

146
Q

______ _____ checks for DVT and you have the patient slightly bend their knee, dorsiflex their foot, and ask if they have pain

A

Homan’s sign

147
Q

2 lymph nodes to check for vascular examination

A

epitrochlar
inguinal

148
Q

localized blood filled balloon like bulge in the wall of an artery caused by a weakened vessel wall

A

aneurysm

149
Q

most common type of aneurysm

A

abdominal aortic aneurysm

150
Q

inflammation of veins that may or may not be caused by a clot

A

thrombophlebitis

151
Q

thrombophlebitis is usually caused by ______ of the vein

A

infection

152
Q

5 chronic diseases to ask about in a musculoskeletal assessment

A

osteoporosis
diabetes
sickle cell anemia
lupus
osteoarthritis

153
Q

____ is related to high consumption of alcohol

A

gout

154
Q

5 things to assess when assessing gait

A

weight bearing stability
posture
stride
foot position
arm movement

155
Q

normal muscle tone

A

smooth and firm in relaxation

156
Q

abnormal muscle tone

A

hypotonicity and spasticity

157
Q

normal muscle strength

A

complete voluntary ROM against gravity and resistance

158
Q

grade __ of muscle strength where there is no contraction or muscle movement

A

0

159
Q

grade __ of muscle strength where there is trace of contraction, but no movement at the joint

A

1

160
Q

grade ___ of muscle strength is when there is movement at the joint with gravity eliminated

A

2

161
Q

grade __ of muscle strength is when there is movement against gravity, not not against added resistance

A

3

162
Q

grade ___ of muscle strength is when there is movement against external resistance with less strength than usual

A

4

163
Q

grade ___ of muscle strength is when there is normal strength

A

5

164
Q

normal TMJ ROM is few clicks, opens ___ to __ cm with ease, and moves ___ to ___ cm laterally

A

3 to 6
1 to 2

165
Q

when assessing TMJ, assess the muscle strength of the _____ muscles

A

masseter

166
Q

it is normal when the lumbar concavity _____

A

flattens

167
Q

lateral curvature of the spine indicates _____

A

scoliosis

168
Q

the _____ ____ _____ test tests for herniated discs

A

straight leg raising

169
Q

in the straight leg raising test, you have one hand on their ___ and the other on their ____ and ask them to _____ their foot

A

heel
calf
dorsiflex

170
Q

measure from ____ ____ _____ _____ to ____ ____ to measure leg length

A

anterior superior iliac spine to medial malleolus

171
Q

proximal and distal interphalangeal flexion

A

bending fingers down

172
Q

______ _____ is a chronic, autoimmune inflammatory disease of the connective tissue

A

rheumatoid arthritis

173
Q

in rheumatoid arthritis the ______ lining is inflamed and there are ____

A

synovial
spurs

174
Q

in RA, the joint involvement is ______

A

bilateral

175
Q

3 things you may see as RA becomes chronic

A

ulnar deviation
swan neck deformity
boutonniere deformity

176
Q

osteoarthritis is a degenerative change in ______ cartilage

A

articular

177
Q

_________ effects weight bearing joints

A

osteoarthritis

178
Q

type of arthritis that may be unilateral or bilateral

A

osteoarthritis

179
Q

______ and _____ nodes are seen in osteoarthrtits

A

Heberden’s and Bouchard’s

180
Q

______ _____ syndrome includes burning, numbness, and tingling in the hands

A

carpal tunnel

181
Q

2 tests used to assess carpel tunnel syndrome

A

Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign

182
Q

test where you tap on median nerve to see if pt. has any burning, numbness, or tingling

A

Tinel’s sign

183
Q

test where pt. flexes elbows and presses the back of their hands together to see if they have numbness in their palms

A

Phalen’s sign

184
Q

_____ test is used to detect small amount of fluid in the knee

A

bulge test

185
Q

in bulge test you stroke ___ knee upward a few times and then press on _____ knee to see if there is a bulge on the medial side

A

medial
lateral

186
Q

______ test helps to detect large amounts of fluids in the knee

A

Ballottement

187
Q

in ballottement test you squeeze the ____ and press it towards the femur to assess for clicking or fluid wave

A

patella

188
Q

_______ test is a test for torn meniscus

A

McMurray’s

189
Q

______ ____ arthritis is seen when the toe is tender, hot, painful, and red

A

acute gouty

190
Q

lateral deviation of great toe overlapping the 2nd toe

A

hallux valgus

191
Q

inflamed bursa on the medial side of the great toe

A

bunion

192
Q

_______ is a loss of bone density

A

osteoporosis

193
Q

pt. with osteoporosis may develop ______ in the thoracic spine

A

kyphosis

194
Q

skin is intact is a _____ fracture, but no intact in a _____ fracture

A

closed, open

195
Q

______ fracture results from bone weakness

A

pathologic

196
Q

ROM that decreases angle of the joint

A

flexion

197
Q

lordosis is seen mostly in _____ women

A

pregnant

Health Assessment (4 decks)

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