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(J) Physiology II Test 3 > Exam 3 Review Q's > Flashcards

Exam 3 Review Q's Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    a. The liver has low blood flow and high vascular resistance
    b. The liver has low blood flow and low vascular resistance
    c. The liver has high blood flow and high vascular resistance
    d. The liver has high blood flow and low vascular resistance
A

d. The liver has high blood flow and low vascular resistance

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT be a function of the liver?
    a. Gluconeogenesis
    b. Formation of urea
    c. Synthesis of prothrombin
    d. Synthesis of calbindin
A

d. Synthesis of calbindin

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the metabolic syndrome associated with diabetes?
    a. Peripheral neuropathy
    b. Obesity
    c. Fasting hyperglycemia
    d. Hypertension
A

a. Peripheral neuropathy

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4
Q
  1. Hemoglobinascite is released from damaged RBCs and split into globin and heme by macrophages. Heme is then converted into which of the following by heme oxygenase?
    a. Cholic acid
    b. Biliverdin
    c. Bilirubin
    d. Urobilinogen
A

b. Biliverdin

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5
Q
  1. A higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to the following condition?
    a. Jaundice
    b. Cirrhosis
    c. Ascites
    d. Diabetes
A

c. Ascites

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following BEST represents the most important function of insulin in the body?
    a. Activates phosphorylase and phosphatase necessary for the uptake of glucose in the liver
    b. Controls from the moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy
    c. Activates lipoprotein lipase to split triglycerides into fatty acids
    d. Activates the ornithine transport mechanism
A

b. Controls from the moment to moment whether fat or carbohydrate will be used by cells for energy

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7
Q
  1. In the pituitary gland, somatotropes (acidophils) secrete which of the following trophic hormones?
    a. Thyroid stimulating hormone
    b. Human growth factor
    c. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
    d. Luteinizing hormone
A

b. Human growth factor

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8
Q
  1. The hormone response element is best characterized by which of the following?
    a. An intracellular protein that binds to a lipid soluble hormone to form the hormone-receptor complex
    b. A regulatory sequence of DNA
    c. Phosphatidylinositol biphosphate component of a second-messenger system
    d. A tyrosine-binding protein for thyroxine
A

b. A regulatory sequence of DNA

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9
Q
  1. Some signal transduction mechanisms involve calcium. In these pathways a change in membrane potential opens calcium channel. Calcium ions enter the cell and bind to which of the following?
    a. Janus kinase
    b. The receptor component of a G protein
    c. Calmodulin
    d. Diacylglycerol
A

C. Calmodulin

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10
Q
  1. Down regulation of receptors may occur as a result of which of the following?
    a. Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules
    b. Activation of some of the receptor molecules
    c. Increased production of receptors
    d. Increase in the target cell’s responsiveness to the hormone
A

a. Inactivation of some of the intracellular protein signaling molecules

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11
Q
  1. One of the best-known stimuli for increasing the rate of thyroid releasing hormone secretion is?
    a. Cold
    b. Anxiety
    c. cAMP
    d. Excitement
A

a. Cold

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common cause of hyperthyroidism?
    a. Hashimoto disease
    b. Grave’s disease
    c. Endemic goiter
    d. Cretinism
A

b. Grave’s disease

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13
Q
  1. The basal membranes of thyroid cells contain symporters for iodide. What ion is co-transported w/ iodide by these symporters?​
    a. Sodium
    b. Potassium
    c. Chloride
    d. Hydrogen
A

a. Sodium

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14
Q
  1. The major hormonal product of the thyroid gland is thyroxine. How many iodinated tyrosine resides are found in thyroxine?
    a. One
    b. Two
    c. Three
    d. Four
A

d. Four

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15
Q
  1. Pendrin is used for which of the following functions?
    a. As a sodium-iodide symporter in basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
    b. As a hepatic-derived conjugating protein for the transport of thyroxine in the blood
    c. As a chloride-iodide counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
    d. As a decoupling protein used to separate iodide from thyroglobulin during the recycling of thyroxine
A

c. As a chloride-iodide counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell

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16
Q
  1. Osteoclasts do out have receptors for parathyroid hormone; instead they respond to secondary signals from osteocytes which do have the receptors. Which of the following is important as a major secondary signal ligand in this communication process?
    a. Osteoprotegerin
    b. Pendrin
    c. Calmodulin
    d. Calbindin
A

a. Osteoprotegerin

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17
Q
  1. Osteoclasts do not have receptors for parathyroid hormone; instead the respond to secondary signals from osteocytes which do have the receptors. Which of the following is important as a major secondary signal ligand in this communication process?
    a. As sodium-iodide symporter in the basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
    b. As a hepatic-derived conjugating protein for the transport of thyroxine in the blood
    c. As chloride-iodide counter-transporter in the apical membrane of a thyroid follicle cell
    d. As a decoupling protein used to separate iodide from thyroglobulin during the recycling of thyroxine
A

a. As sodium-iodide symporter in the basal membrane of a thyroid follicle cell

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18
Q
  1. Hyperkalemia, mild acidosis, rise in RBC concentration, loss of ability to maintain normal blood glucose concentrations between meals, and changes in pigmentation pattern are all consistent with which of the following conditions?
    a. Cushing’s
    b. Hypothyroidism
    c. Addison’s
    d. Hyperthyroidism
A

c. Addison’s

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are functions of glucocorticoids?
    a. Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
    b. Decreased glucose utilization by cells
    c. Resists inflammation
    d. Resists stress
    e. All of the above are functions of glucocorticoids
A

e. All of the above are functions of glucocorticoids

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20
Q
  1. Aldosterone is the major mineralocorticoid and is secreted by which of the following regions of the adrenal cortex?
    a. Zona glomerulosa
    b. Zona fasciculata
    c. Zona reticularis
    d. Zona medullaris
A

a. Zona glomerulosa

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21
Q
  1. Cortisol secretion is controlled mainly by which of the following factors?
    a. Plasma potassium concentration
    b. Angiotensinogen II
    c. Plasma sodium concentration
    d. ACTH
A

d. ACTH

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following resists stress, resists inflammation, and stimulates gluconeogenesis but may lead to adrenal diabetes?
    a. Aldosterone
    b. Cortisol
    c. Angiotensin II
    d. Pregnenolone
A

b. Cortisol

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of lack of aldosterone?
    a. Reduction in blood volume
    b. Hypernatremia
    c. Hyperkalemia
    d. Reduction in blood pressure
A

b. Hypernatremia

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24
Q
  1. Adrenal diabetes may occur due to excess of which of the following?
    a. Aldosterone
    b. Mineralocorticoids
    c. Glucocorticoids
    d. Androgenic hormones
A

c. Glucocorticoids

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25
Q
  1. Addison’s disease is due to a deficiency of which of the following?
    a. Glucocorticoids
    b. Mineralocorticoids
    c. Androgenic hormones
    d. Both A and B
A

d. Both A and B

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics of Addison’s disease is due to a adrenalcoid deficiency?
    a. Muscle weakness
    b. Decrease in cardiac output
    c. Rise in RBC concentration
    d. Mild acidosis
A

a. Muscle weakness

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27
Q
  1. The major glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex is?
    a. Aldosterone
    b. Estrogen
    c. Cortisol
    d. DHEA
A

c. Cortisol

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28
Q
  1. Spironolactone blocks mineralocorticoid receptors. This would probably have which of the following effects?
    a. Hypernatremia
    b. Increase in extracellular fluid volume
    c. Reduction in cardiac output
    d. Anemia
A

c. Reduction in cardiac output

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29
Q
  1. Moon face, “buffalo torso”, hypertension and increased blood glucose are characteristic of which of the following?
    a. Addison’s disease
    b. Cushing’s disease
    c. Cretinism
    d. Grave’s disease
A

b. Cushing’s disease

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30
Q
  1. The active form of vitamin D promotes the intestinal uptake of calcium by increasing the formation of which of the following substances?
    a. Apoprotein B
    b. Calbindin
    c. Albumin
    d. Calciferol
A

b. Calbindin

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31
Q
  1. Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels?
    a. 12 mg/dl
    b. 9.5 mg/dl
    c. 6 mg/dl
    d. 4 mg/dl
A

d. 4 mg/dl

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32
Q
  1. Normally the body takes in about 1000 mg of calcium per day orally. How much of this is lost in the feces per day?
    a. 350 mg
    b. 750 mg
    c. 900 mg
    d. 990 mg
A

c. 900 mg

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33
Q
  1. Parathyroid hormone has which of the following effects on renal tubules?
    a. PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium
    b. PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium
    c. PTH promotes the reabsorption of sodium
    d. PTH promotes the reabsorption of potassium, calcium, and sodium
A

b. PTH promotes the reabsorption of calcium

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34
Q
  1. The conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-hydroxycholecalciferol occurs in which of the following?
    a. Bone
    b. Liver
    c. Blood
    d. Kidney
A

d. Kidney

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35
Q
  1. Death due to hypoparathyroidism is often due to which of the following effects?
    a. Massive loss of calcium from the skeletal system
    b. Excessive reabsorption of sodium followed by tetany
    c. Laryngeal muscle spasms
    d. Vitamin D deficiency
A

c. Laryngeal muscle spasms

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36
Q
  1. Approximately 40% of plasma is bound to plasma proteins and is not filtered by the kidneys. What effect does acidosis have on plasma calcium ion concentration (unbound)?
    a. There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentrations increases
    b. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentrations decreases
    c. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentrations increases
    d. There is an increase in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentrations decreases
A

c. There is a decrease in bound calcium and the calcium ion concentrations increases

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following nerves suppies parasympathetic innervation of the parotid gland?
    a. Facial nerve
    b. Trigeminal nerve
    c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
    d. Vagus nerve
A

c. Glossopharyngeal nerve

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions describes the effects of the ANS on sweat glands in the hands and feet?
    a. Parasympathetic; cholinergic
    b. Parasympathetic; adrenergic
    c. Sympathetic; cholingeric
    d. Sympathetic; adrenergic
A

c. Sympathetic; cholingeric

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39
Q

by being uptaken by adrenergic neurons and replacing norepinephrine in the synaptic vesicles?

a. Methoxamine
b. Albuterol
c. Guanethidine
d. Phenoxybenzadine

A

c. Guanethidine

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40
Q
  1. The greater splanchnic nerve originates from the spinal cord levels T5-T9. Which of the following statements concerning this nerve is correct?
    a. It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion
    b. It is composed of postganglionic fibers and terminates within the wall of the gut tube
    c. It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion
    d. It is composed of preganglionic fibers and synapses in the superior mesenteric ganglion
A

c. It is composed of myelinated fibers and synapses in the celiac ganglion

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41
Q
  1. Beta-3 receptors are involved in which of the following functions?
    a. Adrenergic, thermogenesis
    b. Adrenergic, glycogenolysis
    c. Adrenergic, cardiac acceleration
    d. Adrenergic, vasoconstriction
A

a. Adrenergic, thermogenesis

42
Q
  1. Norepinephrine is synthesized from which of the following?
    a. Glycine
    b. Tyrosine
    c. Threonine
    d. Alanine
A

b. Tyrosine

43
Q
  1. Which of the following responses would NOT be part of the alarm response?
    a. Increased arterial pressure
    b. Increased glycogenesis
    c. Increased blood glucose concentration
    d. Increased mental activity
A

b. Increased glycogenesis

44
Q
  1. Norepinephrine/epinephrine secreted into tissues remains active for only a few seconds. Norepinephrine /epinephrine secreted into the blood remains active longer. Which of the following explains the reasons for these differences?
    a. The neurotransmitters are immediately reuptaken in the tissues
    b. Monamine-oxidase destroy s the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues
    c. COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues
    d. The neurotransmitters immediately diffuse away from the site when secreted into the tissues
A

c. COMT destroys the neurotransmitters when secreted into the tissues

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system?
    a. Relaxation of GI tract sphincters
    b. Strong stimulation of glands of upper GI tract
    c. Pupil constriction
    d. Strong stimulation of sweat glands
A

d. Strong stimulation of sweat glands

46
Q
  1. Which of the following types of receptors are found at the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle cells?
    a. Nicotinic
    b. Muscarinic
    c. Alpha-1
    d. Beta-1
A

a. Nicotinic

47
Q
  1. About 75% of all parasympathetic fibers are locate in which of the following locations?
    a. Trigeminal nerve
    b. Vagus nerve
    c. Lesser splanchnic nerve
    d. Greater splanchnic nerve
A

b. Vagus nerve

48
Q
  1. Which of the following ANS fibers pass through the gray rami?
    a. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
    b. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
    c. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
    d. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
A

b. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers

49
Q
  1. Which of the following characterize postganglionic neurons in the ANS?
    a. They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the CNS; they all use acetylcholine
    b. They are myelinated; cell bodies are located in the PNS; they all use norepinephrine
    c. Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine
    d. Cell bodies located in the CNS; they are not myelinated; they use either use acetylcholine or norepinephrine
A

c. Cell bodies are located in the PNS, they are not myelinated; they use either acetylcholine or norepinephrine

50
Q
  1. Which of the following has antihypertensive action as a result of its ability to deplete norepinephrine and other monoamine neurotransmitters by blocking its synthesis and storage from peripheral sympathetic nerve endings?
    a. Methoxamine
    b. Reserpine
    c. Hexamethonium
    d. Isoproteronal
A

b. Reserpine

51
Q
  1. Postganglionic fibers associated with which of the following cranial nerves provide parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands?
    a. Oculomotor nerve
    b. Trigeminal nerve
    c. Facial nerve
    d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
A

c. Facial nerve

52
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones exerts an interstitial cell-stimulating effect on effect of ale fetus, resulting in the production of testosterone until birth?
    a. Esfructosetrogen
    b. Progesterone
    c. Human chorionic gonadotropin
    d. Human somatomammotropin
A

c. Human chorionic gonadotropin

53
Q
  1. Fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following?
    a. Seminal vesicles
    b. Prostate gland
    c. Cells of Leydig
    d. Sertoli cells
A

a. Seminal vesicles

54
Q
  1. Inhibin inhibits testosterone levels in the newborn male are due to which of the following?
    a. Seminal vesicles
    b. Prostate gland
    c. Cells of Leydig
    d. Sertoli cells
A

d. Sertoli cells

55
Q
  1. Plasma testosterone levels in the newborn male are due to which of the following?
    a. Seminal vesicles
    b. Prostate gland
    c. Cells of Leydig
    d. Sertoli cells
A

c. Cells of Leydig

56
Q
  1. In the progression from primordial germ cells to mature sperm cells, which of the following would be the first cells to have a haploid genome?
    a. Primary spermatocytes
    b. Secondary spermatocytes
    c. Spermatids
    d. Mature sperm cells
A

b. Secondary spermatocytes

57
Q
  1. In order to gain motility, sperm cells must be stored in which of the following for at least 18-24 hours?
    a. Seminal vesicles
    b. Prostate gland
    c. Epididymis
    d. Rete testis
A

c. Epididymis

58
Q
  1. Approximately 60 percent of total volume of semen in derived from which of the following sources?
    a. Bulbourethral glands
    b. Epididymis
    c. Prostate gland
    d. Seminal vesicles
A

d. Seminal vesicles

59
Q
  1. In males, gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates mostly the release of which of the following gonadotropic hormones?
    a. LH
    b. FSH
    c. Estrogen
    d. Testosterone
A

a. LH

60
Q
  1. During spermatogenesis residual bodies are eliminated. Residual bodies consist of which of the following components?
    a. Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi
    b. Excess cytoplasm, RER mitochondria
    c. Excess cytoplasm, RER, centrioles
    d. Excess cytoplasm, RER, nuclear membrane
A

a. Excess cytoplasm, RER, Golgi

61
Q
  1. Interstitial cells of Leydig are almost non-existent in the tester during which of the following stages?
    a. At birth
    b. Early childhood
    c. After puberty
    d. Adulthood
A

b. Early childhood

62
Q
  1. Testosterone that is not fixed in tissues is converted into other compounds and conjugated to be excreted in the gut or urine. The initial conversion to other compounds occurs in which of the following structures?
    a. Epididymis
    b. Liver
    c. Spleen
    d. Gall bladder
A

b. Liver

63
Q
  1. Which of the following is responsible for gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter if Oddi resulting in the release of bile from the gallbladder?
    a. Gastrin
    b. Secretin
    c. CCK
    d. Motilin
A

c. CCK

64
Q
  1. Ascites may result from which of the following?
    a. Constriction of the hepatic artery
    b. Blockage of the portal vein
    c. Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins
    d. Constriction of celiac trunk
A

c. Higher than normal pressure in hepatic veins

65
Q
  1. Kupffer cells are found in which of the following spaces?
    a. Space of Disse
    b. Hepatic sinusoids
    c. Bile canaliculi
    d. Space of Wirsung
A

b. Hepatic sinusoids

66
Q
  1. Which if the following prevents the pancreas from digesting itself?
    a. Chymotrypsin inhibitor
    b. Trypsin inhibitor
    c. Phospholipase
    d. Pancreatic amylase
A

b. Trypsin inhibitor

67
Q
  1. Which of the following characterizes pancreatic secretions under low flow rates?
    a. Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions
    b. Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions
    c. Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions
    d. Hypotonic, composed mostly of sodium and bicarbonate ions
A

a. Isotonic, composed mostly of sodium and chloride ions

68
Q
  1. Which of the following orient themselves on the outside of micelles?
    a. Cholesterol
    b. Free fatty acids
    c. Carbohydrates
    d. Bile salts
A

d. Bile salts

69
Q
  1. Which of the following levels of blood constituents would NOT be observed in a diabetic coma?
    a. Low blood glucose
    b. Low keto acids
    c. High bicarbonate ion
    d. Low cholesterol
A

c. High bicarbonate ion

70
Q
  1. Flexed arms and legs that resist extension wpud result in which of the following on the Apgar test?
    a. A score of 0
    b. A score of 1
    c. A score of 2
    d. Not measured on the Apgar test
A

c. A score of 2

71
Q
  1. Which of the following vitamins is needed by the fetus to create normal clotting factors?
    a. A
    b. C
    c. E
    d. K
A

d. K

72
Q
  1. Fetal blood from the right ventricle going to descending aorta is pumped through which of the opening?
    a. Foramen ovale
    b. Ductus arteriosus
    c. Ductus venosus
    d. Foramen soventus
A

b. Ductus arteriosus

73
Q
  1. Hyaluronidase released from the sperm acrosome is necessary to breach which of the following barriers?
    a. The corona radiata
    b. The zona pellucida
    c. The eff plasmalemma
    d. The thecal cells
A

a. The corona radiata

74
Q
  1. Fertilization occurs in the upper third of the fallopian tube. By the time the blastocytes reaches the uterus, it consists of approximately how many cells?
    a. 11
    b. 48
    c. 100
    d. 1000
A

c. 100

75
Q
  1. During pregnancy, the progesterone needed to maintain the developing feus is secreted primarily by which of the following?
    a. Thecal cells
    b. Uterine endometrium
    c. Corpus albicans
    d. Corpus luteum
A

d. Corpus luteum

76
Q
  1. All nutrients for the developing embryo during the first week following implantation are supplied by which of the following?
    a. Syncytiotrophoblast cells
    b. Corpus luteum
    c. Cytotrophoblast cells
    d. Decidual cells
A

d. Decidual cells

77
Q
  1. For the first three to four days after birth, the neonate relies on what energy source?
    a. Glucose from mother’s milk
    b. Fat from mother’s milk
    c. Stored glucose
    d. Stored protein and fat
A

d. Stored protein and fat

78
Q
  1. Excessive variations in blood gasses normally seen in neonates is typically due to which of the following?
    a. Residual fluid in the lungs
    b. Under-developed central nervous system respiratory center
    c. High heart rate
    d. Frequent periods of apnea
A

d. Frequent periods of apnea

79
Q
  1. Which of the following values (mm Hg) represents the mean diffusion gradient pressure between the PO2 of the mother and the PO2 of the fetus?
    a. 10
    b. 20
    c. 30
    d. 40
A

b. 20

80
Q
  1. As a result of the Bohr effect there is an increase in the capacity of the fetal blood to combine with oxygen and a decrease in the capacity of the maternal blood to combine with oxygen. This is mostly due to which of the following:
    a. The mother’s blood becomes more alkaline
    b. The mother’s blood becomes more acidic
    c. The fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than the maternal blood
    d. The fetal blood has a higher hemoglobin concentration
A

b. The mother’s blood becomes more acidic

81
Q
  1. If there is a mutation in the growth hormone receptor and growth hormone is unable to bind to liver cells, what would the outcome be?
    a. Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
    b. High levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure
    c. Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, no effect on growth
    d. Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, accelerated growth
A

A. Low levels of IGF-1 (somatomedin C) expression, growth failure

82
Q
  1. ADH is primarily formed in which of the following locations?
    a. Supraoptic nuclei
    b. Acidophils of adenohypophysis
    c. Paraventricular nuclei
    d. Basophils of adenohypophysis
A

a. Supraoptic nuclei

83
Q
  1. Growth hormone adenomas that develop in adulthood can result in what condition?
    a. Gigantism
    b. Dwarfism
    c. Acromegaly
    d. None of these
A

c. Acromegaly

84
Q
  1. The facial nerve is responsible for which of the following?
    a. Motor control of the muscles of the eye
    b. Motor control of the heart
    c. Motor control of the muscles of facial expression
    d. Taste in the posterior third of the tongue
A

c. Motor control of the muscles of facial expression

85
Q
  1. The ciliary ganglion is an extension of which cranial nerve?
    a. III
    b. VII
    c. IX
    d. X
A

a. III

86
Q
  1. Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste on the posterior potion of the tongue?
    a. III
    b. V
    c. VII
    d. IX
A

d. IX

87
Q
  1. Shortly after birth in the ovaries of the human female, all the germ cells in the ovaries are in which of the following developmental stages?
    a. Metaphase stage of meiosis II
    b. First polar body stage
    c. Granulosa cell stage
    d. Diplotene stage of meiosis I
A

d. Diplotene stage of meiosis I

88
Q
  1. The oocyte maturation-inhibitory factor that keeps ovum suspended in its primordial state prior to puberty is secreted by which of following?
    a. Anterior pituitary
    b. Hypothalamus
    c. Granulosa cells
    d. Corpus luteum
A

c. Granulosa cells

89
Q
  1. During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following?
    a. LH
    b. FSH
    c. Estrogen
    d. Progesterone
A

b. FSH

90
Q
  1. Pregnenolone is an intermediate in the synthesis of progesterone from cholesterol. It is synthesized in which of the following?
    a. Granulosa cells only
    b. Granulosa and theca cells
    c. Theca cells only
    d. None of above
A

b. Granulosa and theca cells

91
Q
  1. Which of following hormones would be predominate at about day 22 of the human female sexual cycle?
    a. LH
    b. FSH
    c. Estrogen
    d. Progesterone
A

d. Progesterone

92
Q
  1. In females, a sharp rise in gonadotropins to almost 60 times that at birth occurs during which o the following periods?
    a. Menopause
    b. Just prior to each ovulation phase
    c. Puberty
    d. Old age
A

a. Menopause

93
Q
  1. In the ovarian follicle, both thecal cells ad granulosa cells possess receptors for LH and LDL. Which of the following statements BEST characteristics the secretory activities of these cells?
    a. Both thecal and granulosa cells secrete estrogens but not androgens
    b. Thecal cells and granulosa cells both secrete androgens and estrogens
    c. Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens
    d. Thecal cells secrete estrogens and granulosa cells secrete androgens
A

c. Thecal cells secrete androgens and granulosa cells secrete estrogens

94
Q
  1. In females inhibin has a negative feedback effect on both the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus. It is secreted by which of the following types of cells?
    a. Granulosa cells
    b. Internal thecal cells
    c. External thecal cells
    d. Primary oocytes
A

a. Granulosa cells

95
Q
  1. At the time of fertilization, the oocyte has reached which of the following stages of development?
    a. Prophase I of meiosis with no polar bodies
    b. Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body
    c. Prophase II of meiosis with no polar bodies
    d. It has completed meiosis and has two polar bodies
A

b. Metaphase II of meiosis with one polar body

96
Q
  1. in the early stages of development, the trophoblast will give rise to which of the following structures?
    a. Amnion and placenta only
    b. Amnion embryo and yolk sac only
    c. Placenta only
    d. Placenta and yolk sac only
A

c. Placenta only

97
Q
  1. Which of the following descriptions BEST describes the relation between maternal bloof and fetal blood?
    a. Maternal and fetal blood freely intermingle within trophoblastic lacunae
    b. Fetal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae, but maternal blood remains confines with maternal vessels
    c. Both the maternal and fetal blood remain confined within their respective vessels during pregnancy
    d. Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae. But fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels
A

d. Maternal blood flows freely into the trophoblastic lacunae. But fetal blood remains confined within fetal vessels

98
Q
  1. Which of the following substances move across the placental membranes via facilitated diffusion?
    a. Creatinine
    b. Urea
    c. Fats
    d. Glucose
A

d. Glucose

99
Q
  1. During pregnancy, syncytiotrophoblast cells secrete estrogens. These estrogens are derived from androgens secreted by which of the following sources?
    a. Granulosa cells
    b. Cytotrophoblast cells
    c. Maternal adrenal cortex
    d. Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices
A

d. Maternal and fetal adrenal cortices

100
Q
  1. Prolactin promotes milk secretion. It has full effects on milk secretion after birth due to which of the following physiological reasons?
    a. The corpus luteum produces and extra surge of estrogen
    b. Levels of oxytocin have increased considerably
    c. Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated
    d. Human chorionic gonadotropin levels increase considerably after birth
A

c. Progesterone and estrogen effects of placenta have been eliminated

101
Q
  1. A sharp in which of the following hormones precedes ovulation by about 24 hours?
    a. LH
    b. FSH
    c. Estrogen
    d. Progesterone
A

A. LH

102
Q

During the early stages of pregnancy, involution (degeneration) of the corpus luteum is prevented by which of the following hormones?

a. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human chorionic gonadotropin
D. Human Somatomammotropin

A

c. Human chorionic gonadotropin

(J) Physiology II Test 3 (10 decks)

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