Exam 3 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements about Purine and Pyrimidine biosynthesis and metabolism is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Antifolate drugs and Glutamine analogs block purine nucleotide biosynthesis.
B: PRPP (phosphoribosylpyrophosphate) synthase phosphorylates the anomeric OH group of Ribose 5’-phosphate. C: cAMP and cGMP feedback regulate their formation from IMP (InosineMonophosphate).
D: Orotic aciduria is a consequence of the inability of severely damaged mitochondria to utilize carbamoyl phosphate.

A

A, B, and D

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2
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: Thyroid hormones are transported by thyroid binding globulin.
B: Glucocorticoids are transported by corticosteroid binding globulin. C: Group I hormones are lipophilic.
D: Group II hormones have a long plasma half-life.

A

D

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3
Q

Which of the following are hormones that bind to cell surface receptors? (Select all that apply)
A: Angiotensin II B: Glucagon
C: PTH
D: ACTH

A

ABCD

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4
Q
4 Which of the following hormones bind to intracellular receptors? (Select all that apply)
A: Glucocorticoids
B: Insulin
C: Mineralcorticoids
D: Glucagon
A

A and C

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5
Q

Which of the following statements about Pyrimidine metabolism is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Primary amine group in Cytosine is first oxidized to the oxo group to form (or synthesize) dihydrouracil B: Primary amine group in Cytosine is first oxidized to the oxo group to form (or synthesize) Uracil.
C: The final metabolic product of cytosine metabolism is beta alanine
D: The final metabolic product of Thymine is beta-aminoisobutyrate.

A

BCD

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6
Q

Which of the following statements about purine metabolism is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Adenosine deaminase oxidizes the primary amine in adenine to an oxo group.
B: Purine nucleoside phosphorylase hydrolyzes the beta N glycosidic bond to form hypoxanthine. C: Xanthine is reduced to Uric acid.
D: Hypoxanthine is oxidized to Xanthine.

A

ABD

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7
Q

Which of the following disorders of purine catabolism is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome represents overproduction of hyperuricemia which is characterized by frequent episodes of self mutilation.
B: Purine overproduction and hyperuricemia is found in Von Gierke disease.
C: Hypouricemia and increased excretion of hypoxanthine and xanthine are associated with a deficiency in xanthine oxidase.
D: Adeosine deaminase deficiency is associated with an immunodeficiency disease.

A

ABCD

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8
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP) is an inherited defect that is related to inability to remove
which of the following?
A: TT dimer B: AT dimer C: GC dimer D: AA dimer

A

A

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9
Q

Which of the following enzymes will cleave the heterocyclic base from the sugar?
A: DNA ligase
B: Exonuclease
C: Beta N-glycosidase D: Endonuclease

A

C

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10
Q

Which of the following statements about the formation of the peptidyl bond in protein formation is True (or Correct)?
A: The alpha amino group of the incoming amino acid at the “A” site carries out a nucleophilic attack on the amide group of the peptidy-tRNA at the “P” site.
B: The alpha amino group of the incoming amino acid at the “A” site carries out a nucleophilic attack on the ester group of the peptidy-tRNA at the “P” site.
C: The alpha carboxyl group of the incoming amino acid at the “A” site carries out a nucleophilic attack on the amide group of the peptidy-tRNA at the “P” site.
D: The alpha carboxyl group of the incoming amino acid at the “A” site carries out a nucleophilic attack on the ester group of the peptidy-tRNA at the “P” site.

A

B

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11
Q

In DNA replication process, the key step in opening up the superstructure is acetylation of an amino acid residue in histones. Which of the following amino acids is acetylated?
A: Lysine
B: Asparagine C: Glycine
D: Glutamine

A

A

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12
Q

The mature m-RNA is capped by which of the following heterocyclic bases (or which of the following heterocyclic bases are present on the cap of a mature m-RNA?
A: 5-methyguanine triphosphate B: 7-methylcytosine triphosphate C: 7-methylguanine triphosphate D: 5-methylcytosine triphosphate

A

C

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13
Q

Which of the following types is a description of Two base alteration of DNA?
A: Depurination
B: UV light induced Pyrimidine dimer C: Ionizing radiation
D: Deamination of Cytosine to Uracil.

A

B

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14
Q

Which of the following arms of t-RNA is required for recognition of the t-RNA by its proper aminoacyl t-RNA synthetase?
A: D arm
B: T(psi)C arm
C: Acceptor arm D: Anti-codon arm

A

A

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15
Q

Which of the following reactions listed against each enzyme is incorrect (or False)?
A: DNA ligase catalyzes bonds between DNA molecules
B: Exonuclease III removes nucleotides from the 3’ ends of DNA
C: S1 nuclease degrades double stranded DNA
D: Lambda Exonuclease removes nucleotides from the 5’ ends of DNA

A

C

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16
Q

In DNA replication process, the phosphodiester bonds are formed between which two 1/1 carbons of the adjacent ribose sugars?
A: 3’ and 5’ B: 3’ and 4’ C: 3’ and 2’ D: 3’ and 1’

A

A

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17
Q
Which of the following motifs does not exist as dimers?
A: Leucine zipper
B: Helix-turn-helix
C: Zinc finger
D: Thymine-Thymine dimer
A

C

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18
Q

In DNA replication process, which of the following enzymes initiates nicks on one strand to remove supercoils and supertwists?
A: DNA topoisomerase I B: DNA toposiomerase II C: DNA gyrase
D: Helicase

A

A

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19
Q

In translation of an mRNA into a protein, the first amino acid that is attached to the start codon is which of the following?
A: Cysteine
B: O-formylmethionine C: N-formylmethione D: Serine

A

C

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20
Q

Which of the following is the action of SnRNA (snurps)?
A: Important in growth and development B: Knocks out a portion of the gene
C: Splices the introns out of m-RNA
D: Splices out the exons out of m-RNA

A

C

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21
Q

Pol II is active when its tail is phosphorylated. Which of the following amino acids is present in the tail that gets phosphorylated?
A: Serine
B: Cysteine C: Tyrosine D: Tryptophan

A

A

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22
Q

Which of the following descriptions refer to the Leucine Zipper Motif?
A: Consists of three antiparallel beta sheets and three alpha helices.
B: Consists of closely spaced Cysteine-Cysteine residues followed by 12 to 13 amino acids later by histidine- histidine pair.
C: Consists of a beta sheet in which there is a periodic repeat of leucine residues at every 7th position.
D: Consists of an alpha helix in which there is a periodic repeat of leucine residues at every 7th position.

A

D

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23
Q

Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable missense?
A: Hb A, is converted to Hb M (Boston) where the alpha chain Histidine at #58 is replaced by Tyrosine. B: HbA is converted to Hb Hikari, where the beta chain Lysine at #61 is replaced by Asparagine.
C: Hb A is converted to Hb S, where the beta chain Glutamate at #6 is replaced by Valine.

A

A

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: The lagging strand is replicated discontinuously in short pieces of 100-250 nucleotides by DNA polymerase in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
B: The DNA replication is initiated at special sites termed Ori’s to generate replication bubbles.
C: Each strand of the double helix is replicated simultaneously by by somewhat different mechanism.
D: A complex of proteins, including DNA polymerase, replicates the leading strand continuously in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

A

A

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25
Q

Which of the following statements about AcetylCholine (ACh) is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Two molecules of ACh bind to the alpha subunits of the heteropentameric receptor (AChR).
B: ACh is removed from the receptor by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
C: When ACh binds to the ACh receptor, it opens up the ion channel where Na+ ions flow in and K+ ions flow out. D: ACh is inhibited reversibly by Phosphonates in nerve gas and some pesticides

A

ABC

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26
Q

Which of the following statements about hormones and neurotransmitters is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: The excitatory neurotransmitters are Glutamate, aspartic acid and cysteine.
B: The inhibitory neurotransmitters are glycine, taurine, beta alanine and Gamma aminobutyric acid.
C: To stop the action of Catechol amines, Monoamine Oxidases (MAOs) reduce the amine (or quarternary amine) group to to the corresponding aldehyde group.
D: Methionine encephalin is a pentapeptide that is present in certain nerve terminals that bind to specific pain receptors.

A

ABD

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27
Q

Which of the following statements about GPCR is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: G-proteins associated with GPCR are heterotrimeric where the gamma subunit is attached to the plasma membrane by an isoprenoid tail.
B: The alpha subunit, formed after activation, also has an intrinsic hydroylase (or GTPase) activity.
C: GPCR is a seven transmembrane receptor with the N-terminal on the outside of the cell and the C terminal on the inside of the cell.
D: Many of the Group I hormones bind to receptors that couple to effectors through a G protein.

A

ABC

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28
Q

Which of the following statements about hormones is correct (or True)? (Select all that
apply)
A: Diacylglycerol (DAG) is capable of activating Protein Kinase C (PKC).
B: cAMP dependent protein kinase A (PKA) phosphorylates Glycogen synthase a (active) into glycogen synthase b (inactive).
C: Protein kinase G (PKG) phosphorylates several smooth muscle proteins.
D: Pyruvate kinase, pyruvate carboxylase, glycogen synthase enzymes are regulated by Ca+2 and or phosphorylation.

A

ABCD

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29
Q

Which of the following statements about hormone action and signal transduction is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Excessive, deficient, or inappropriate production and release of hormones and other regulatory molecules are major causes of disease.
B: Glucocorticoids diffuse through the plasma membrane and bind to the receptor in the cytoplasm before binding to the GRE on DNA, which has no corepressor attached to the GRE.
C: Thyroid hormones enter the nucleus and bind to its hormone response element but fails to activate transcription because it exists in complex with a corepressor.
D: Water soluble hormones have a transport protein that help them initiate a response by binding to the cell surface receptor.

A

ABD

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30
Q

The incorporation of fatty acid into lecithin occurs in three ways. Which one of the following is not one of the ways? (Select all that apply)
A: By complete synthesis of the phospholipid.
B: By transacylation between cholesteryl ester and lysolecithin C: By direct acylation of lysolecithin by acyl-CoA.
D: By phosphorylation of lysolecithin.

A

D

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31
Q

Which of the following statement is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: small ncRNA termed miRNA and siRNA typically inhibit gene expression
B: The D-arm or D-loop contains pseudo uridine.
C: snRNA are significantly involved in rRNA and mRNA processing and gene regulation. D: The acceptor arm in tRNA terminates in the nucleotides CCA.

A

ACD

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32
Q

Which of the following statements is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: When proteins bind to nucleotides they usually do not disrupt the base pairing between the DNA molecules. B: Endonucleases cleave internal phosphodiester bonds.
C: The cap on the 5’ terminal end of mRNA helps prevent attacks by 3’ exonucleases.
D: The 3’ end of tRNA carries the amino acid for protein synthesis.

A

ABD

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33
Q

What types of lipids are involved in Multiple sclerosis and Lipidosis? (Select all that apply)
A: Phospholipids B: Spingolipids C: Glycerolipids D: Glycolipids

A

AB

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34
Q

Which two molecules begin the acylglycerol biosynthesis of triacylglycerols and phosphoglycerols? (Select all that apply)
A: Glycerol-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate. B: Plasmalogen and Platelet activation factors.
C: Phosphotidate and diacylglycerol
D: Cardiolipin and Phosphatidylinositol

A

A

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35
Q

Which of the following statements about hormones and neurotransmitters is correct (True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Adrenergic catecholamines, Adrenocorticotropic hormones, glucagon, parathyroid hormones all use cAMP as secondary messenger.
B: Atrial natriuretic factor and nitric oxide use cGMP as secondary messenger.
C: Angiotension II, Oxytocin uses Ca+2 or PI as secondary messenger.
D: Polypeptides, proteins, glycoproteins and catecholamines are considered as Group I hormones.

A

ABC

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36
Q

Which of the following statements about biosynthesis of nutritionally nonessential amino
acids is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Glutamine is formed from glutamate by amidation reaction, using the ammonium ion.
B: Transamination of pyruvate forms alanine and transamination of oxaloacetate forms aspartate. C: Aspartate is converted to Asparagine using the ammonium ion provided by Glutamine.
D: Phenylalanine hydroxylase converts Tyrosine into Phenylalanine

A

ABC

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37
Q

37 Which of the following statements about the urea cycle is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Urea cycle disorders are characterized by hyperammonemia, encephalopathy, and respiratory alkalosis. B: Four of the five metabolic diseases result in accumulation of precursors of urea, principally ammonia and glutamine.
C: Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I initiates urea biosynthesis.
D: Cleavage of Arginine releases urea and re-forms Citrulline.

A

ABC

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38
Q

Which of the following statement about protein catabolism is correct (or True)? (Select all
that apply)
A: Glutamine or Glutamate is converted into alpha ketoglutarate by transamination. B: Tyrosine or phenylalanine is converted into Fumarate by a series of reactions. C: Asparagine or aspartate is converted into Oxaloacetate
D: Alanine is converted into AcetoacetylCoA

A

ABC

39
Q

Which of the following is true of Angiotensin derivatives? (Select all that apply)
A: Angiotensinogen is a large alpha2 globulin made in the liver.
B: Angiotensinogen is converted into Angiotensin using Renin which is produced in the juxtaglomerular cells of the renal afferent arteriole.
C: Angiotensin converting enzyme is a glycoprotein that converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II by removing two N-terminal amino acids.
D: Angiotensins II and Angiotensin III are rapidly inactivated by angiotensinases.

A

ABD

40
Q

Which of the following statements about Thyroxine and Triidothyronine is correct (or true). (Select all that apply)
A: Thyroglobin is the precursor of T3 and T4.
B: They are stored in an intracellular reservoir (as colloid) C: There is a peripheral conversion of T3 to T4
D: T3 is the more active form.

A

ABD

41
Q

Which of the following statements is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Catecholamines are synthesized in final form and stored in secretion granules.
B: Tyrosine hydroxylase is rate limiting for catecholamines.
C: DOPA decarboxylase is present in all tissues.
D: Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl (PNMT) catalyzes the production of Norepinephrine.

A

ABC

42
Q

Which of the following statements is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Testosterone is obtained from Androstenedione by oxidation of the C-17 OH group. B: Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is the reduced product of Testosterone.
C: Testostrone can be converted into Estradiol by the action of 5 alpha reductase.
D: Hydroxylation of Vitamin D3 at C#25 (or C-25) takes place in the kidney.

A

B

43
Q

Which of the following statements is correct (or True)? (Select all that apply)
A: Oxidation of the side chain of cholesterol by CYP450scc results in the formation of progesterone.
B: Pregnenolone is converted to Dehydroepideandrosterone using 17 alpha hydroxylase and 17,20 lyase.
C: Corticosterone is converted into Aldosterone by oxidation of the C18 methyl group.
D: Androstenedione which is formed from dehydroepiandrosterone, has an alpha beta unsaturated ketone in the A ring.

A

BCD

44
Q

Of the receptors listed below, which can conduct a flow of ions across the plasma membrane when bound to their cognate ligand?
A: Receptor Tyrosine kinase (RTKs)
B: G-protein coupled receptors (GPCR) C: Steroid hormone receptors
D: Ligand gated channels

A

D

45
Q

What happens to protein kinase A (PKA) following the binding of cAMP?
A: The regulatory subunits of PKA dissociate, thereby activating the catalytic subunits.
B: PKA catalytic subunits then bind to two regulatory subunits, thereby activating the catalytic subunits.
C: Phosphodiesterase binds to the catalytic subunits, which results in enzyme inactivation (or deactivation). D: The stimulatory subunits dissociate from the catalytic subunits, inhibiting the enzyme.

A

A

46
Q

Which of the following hormones termed “flight-or-fight” hormone is secreted by adrenal medulla?
A: Glucagon B: insulin
C: Epinephrine D: Oxytocin

A

C

47
Q

Which of the following is not a natural ligand that binds to G protein-coupled receptors?
A: Hormones
B: Neurotransmitters. C: Opium derivatices D: Steroid hormones.

A

D

48
Q

Which of the following statements regarding membrane lipids is false?
A: Phosphatidylcholine and phosphatidylethanolamine are located primarily on the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane.
B: Adenylyl cyclase is the marker enzyme for plasma membrane.
C: Insulin, by recruiting glucose transports to the plasma membrane, increases uptake of glucose in fat cells but not in muscle.
D: The major phospholipid by mass in human membrane is generally phosphatidylcholine.

A

B

49
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: Phospholipases allow degradation and remodeling of phosphoglycerols.
B: Lysolecithin can be formed by using Phospholipase A2 on phosphatidylcholine.
C: Plasmalogen contains a saturated ether, an acyl group and an phosphoethanolamine on a glycerol molecule. D: PAF contains a saturated ether, an acyl group and a phosphocholine on a glycerol molecule.

A

C

50
Q

Which of the following statements is correct (or False)?
A: Triacylglycerols are the major energy storing lipids.
B: Glycosphingolipids, sphingomyelins have structural functions in cell membranes.
C: Phospholipids and sphingolipids are involved in several disease processes including infant respiratory distress syndrome, multiple sclerosis and sphingolipidosis.
D: GlcCer (glucosylceramide) is the major glycosphingolipid of extraneural tissues, whereas GalCer (Galactosylceramide) is the major lipid of myelin.

A

D

51
Q

Which of the following statements in the metabolism of acylglycerols and sphingolipids is incorrect (or False)?
A: Hydrolysis initiates catabolism of triacylglycerols.
B: Diacylglycerol is the common precursor in the biosynthesis of many phosphoglycerols and cardiolipin. C: Triacylglycerols and phosphoglycerols are formed by acylation of triose phosphates.
D: Deficiency of lung surfactant causes respiratory distress syndrome.

A

B

52
Q

Consider the various examples of Sphingolipidoses. Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: Tay-Sachs disease is due to the deficiency in hexosamindase A B: Fabry’s disease is due to the deficiency in alpha Galactosidase. C: Gaucher’s disease is due to the deficiency in beta Glucosidase. D: Niemann-Pick disease is due to the deficiency in Ceramidase

A

D

53
Q

Consider the overview of the acylglycerol biosynthesis. Which of the followings statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: Phosphatidate is used to make Cardiolipin and Phosphatidylinositol
B: Diacylglycerol is used to make Lecithin, Cephalin and Triglycerides.
C: Dihydroxyacetone phosphate is used to make Plasmalogens and PAFs. D: Phosphatidate can be converted to diacylglycerol by phosphorylation.

A

D

54
Q

Consider the biosynthesis of ceramide. Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: Ceramide is made by condensing StearoylCoA and Serine.
B: In the biosynthesis process, an intermediate: 3-ketosphinganine is oxidized to dihydrosphingosine C: In the final step, dihydroceramide desaturate oxidizes dihydroceramide to ceramide.
D: Dihydrosphingosine is a reduced product of 3-ketosphinganine.

A

A

55
Q

Which of these statements about ALA synthase is incorrect (or False)?
A: ALA synthase is the key regulatory enzyme in hepatic biosynthesis of heme. B: Many drugs increase cytochrome P450 biosynthesis.
C: Many drugs induce ALAS1 biosynthesis and this increases heme production. D: ALAS2 is also regulated by heme and also induced by drugs.

A

D

56
Q

Which of the following statements about the protoporhyrin ring is correct (or True)?
A: It contains a tetrapyrrolidine ring in its structure
B: The acetate group in uroporphyrin III is reduced to methyl groups in Coporphyrinogen
C: In the metabolism of the heme, biliverdin is a linear chain containing three lactam (2-oxopyrrole) rings. D: In the metabolism of heme, bilirubin is the oxidized form of biliverdin.

A

B

57
Q

Which of the following statements about the catabolism of heme is incorrect (or False)?
A: Catabolism of heme produces bilirubin.
B: Bilirubin is transported to the liver where the degradation takes place in two stages. C: Bilirubin in the liver is picked up (or taken up) by the parenchymal cells.
D: Bilirubin conjugates with the acid group of glucoruronic acid.

A

B

58
Q

Which of the following statements about hemoproteins is not correct (or False)?
A: Cytochrome c is hemoprotein involved in the electron transport chain.
B: Cytochrome P450 is also a hemoprotein involved in hydroxylation of xenobiotics. C: Catalase is a hemoprotein involved in the degradation of hydrogen peroxide.
D: ALA synthase is a hemoprotein involved in the synthesis of delta aminolevulinate.

A

D

59
Q

59 Which of the following statements about Heme biosynthesis and metabolism is incorrect (or False)?
A: Catabolism of the heme ring by the mitochondrial enzyme heme oxygenase, produces biliverdin. B: Oxidation of biliverdin produces bilirubin which is transported to the liver bound to serum albumin. C: Most of the bilirubin excreted in bile of mammals is bilirubin diglucouronide.
D: Intestinal bacteria reduce conjugated bilirubin to urobilinogen.

A

B

60
Q

Which of the following statements about Heme biosynthesis and metabolism is incorrect 1/1 (or False)?
A: There are 4 methyls, 2 propionate and 2 vinyl group groups present in the four pyrrole rings of heme.
B: Biosynthesis of heme involves 6 enzyme catalyzed reactions.
C: Synthesis of heme commences with the condensation of succinylCoA and Glycine.
D: Genetic abnormalities of seven of the eight enzymes of heme biosynthesis result in inherited porphyrias.

A

B

61
Q

Which of the following statements about disorders of bilirubin metabolism is incorrect (or False)?
A: Neonatal physiologic jaundice, also called as the Dubin Johnson syndrome, results from decrease in the hemolysis of bilirubin because of the immature hepatic system for uptake, and conjugation of bilirubin.
B: Hyperbilirubinemia causes jaundice.
C: If 30% of the bilirubin UDP-glucouronosyl transferase activity is retained, Gilbert syndrome is harmless. D: Obstruction in the biliary tree is the most common cause of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

A

A

62
Q

Which of the following statements about classification of porphyrias is correct (or True)?
A: Porphyrias may be termed as erythropoietic or hepatic based on the organ most affected. B: Barbiturates induce production of cytochrome P450
C: Individuals with low ALAS2 develop anemia, not porphyria
D: There is no known defect of ALAS1

A

C

63
Q

Which of the following statements about biosynthesis of heme is incorrect (or False)?
A: Synthesis on of heme takes place in the cytosol
B: Ferrochelatase enzyme acts on protoporphyrin III in the mitochondria.
C: Oxidation of Coporphyrinogen III takes place twice in the mitochondria to form protoporphyrin III. D: Synthesis of coproporphyrinogen III takes place in the cytosol.

A

A

64
Q

64 Which of the following statements about ALA synthase is incorrect (or False)?
A: There are two isoenzymes of ALA synthase.
B: Heme acts as a positive regulator of the synthesis of ALAS1 C: ALAS2 is expressed in erythrocytes.
D: ALAS1 is expressed throughout the body.

A

B

65
Q

Rapid uptake or release of glucose takes place in the liver. Which of the following glucose transporters facilitates the bidirectional transport of glucose?
A: GLUT 1 B: GLUT 2 C: GLUT 3 D: GLUT 4

A

B

66
Q

Which of the following statement is not correct (or False)?
A: Phospholipids constitute one of the major components of a lipid membrane B: Glycolipids constitute one of the major components of a lipid membrane
C: Cholesterol constitutes one of the major components of a lipid membrane
D: Triacylglycerols constitute one of the major components of a lipid membrane

A

D

67
Q

Which of the following molecules is transported very easily through the lipid bilayer? 1/1
A: O2
B: Na+ C: Cl-
D: Indole

A

A

68
Q

Which of the following membranes has a higher Lipid to protein ratio?
A: Mitochondrial
B: Myelin
C: Sarcoplasmic reticulum D: Retinal rods

A

B

69
Q

Which of the following descriptions represents the stoichiometry of a Na+-K+ ATpase?
A: 3 Na+ ions moving in and 1 K+ ions out.
B: 3 Na+ ions moving out and 1 K+ ions moving in. C: 3Na+ ions moving out and 2K+ ions moving in. D: 3Na+ ions moving out and 2K+ ions moving out.

A

C

70
Q

In the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines, which of the following amino acids combines with CO2 to form carbamoylphosphate?
A: Asparagine B: Glutamine C: Lysine
D: Aspartate

A

B

71
Q
Humans catabolize purines to which of the following metabolized products?
A: Arginine
B: Xanthine
C: Uric acid
D: Beta-alanine
A

C

72
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the following is the first amino acid to be incorporated onto the phosphoribosylpyrophosphate molecule?
A: Glycine
B: Glutamine C: Aspartate D: Asparagine

A

B

73
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the following molecules lost in one of the processes is an intermediate in the TCA cycle?
A: Succinate B: Fumarate C: Maleate D: Citrate

A

B

74
Q

Which of the following is considered a secondary messenger? 1/1
A: ATP
B: Xanthine
C: AcetylCholine D: cAMP

A

D

75
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, the N#3 atom is contributed by which amino acid? 1/1
A: Glycine
B: N5,N10-Methenyltetrahydrofolate C: Glutamine
D: Aspartate

A

C

76
Q

Which of the following nucleotide derivatives act as intermediates for lipid biosynthesis?
A: UDP-Glucose
B: CDP-Acylglycerol C: cAMP
D: ATP

A

B

77
Q

In which of the following bases is the amino group (-NH2) at the #2 carbon of the fused heterocyclic ring?
A: Adenine B: Guanine C: Cytosine D: Uracil

A

B

78
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, the N#1 atom is contributed by which amino acid?
A: Glycine
B: N5,N10-Methenyltetrahydrofolate C: Glutamine
D: Aspartate

A

D

79
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, the N#9 atom is contributed by which amino acid?
A: Glycine
B: N5,N10-Methenyltetrahydrofolate C: Glutamine
D: Aspartate

A

C

80
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines. Inosine monophosphate (IMP) is converted to AMP in a two step process using which of the following amino acids?
A: Glutamine B: Glutamate C: Arginine D: Aspartate

A

D

81
Q

In the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines, which of the following amino acids combines with Carbamoylphosphate?
A: Asparagine B: Glutamine C: Lysine
D: Aspartate

A

D

82
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, Inosine monophosphate is converted to GMP in a two-step 1/1 process using which of the following amino acids?
A: Glutamine B: Glutamate C: Arginine D: Aspartate

A

A

83
Q

Which of the following is one of the intermediates in the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines?
A: Beta-Alanine
B: Inosine monophosphate C: Orotic acid
D: Xanthine

A

C

84
Q

In the biosynthesis of purines, which of the following is the second amino acid to be 1/1 incorporated onto the phosphoribosylamine molecule?
A: Glycine B: Glutamine C: Aspartate D: Alanine

A

A

85
Q

In the biosynthesis of Pyrimidines, UMP is converted to CTP using which of the following amino acids?
A: Asparagine B: Glutamine C: Lysine
D: Aspartate

A

B

86
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: When Mononucleotides linked 3 prime to 5 prime are represented as TGATCA, 5 prime is on the left.
B: Synthetic analogs of purines and pyrimidines are used as anticancer drugs.
C: Nucleotides participate in metabolic functions, energy metabolism, protein synthesis, regulation of enzyme activity, and signal transduction.
D: Adenine contains a 1o amine on carbon number 2

A

D

87
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)?
A: Nucleoside triphosphates have a low group transfer potential.
B: The Nucleoside triphosphates participate in covalent bond synthesis. C: cAMP and cGMP function as intracellular second messengers.
D: All phosphodiester bonds are 3 prime to 5 prime.

A

A

88
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)? 1/1
A: Carbon 2 on Cytosine contains the oxo group.
B: Thymine and Uracil have Oxo groups on 2 and 4.
C: Guanine has a 1o amine on carbon 4.
D: Cytidine and Uridine have glycosidic bond at carbon number 1

A

C

89
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect (or False)? 1/1
A: The ribose or deoxy ribose is linked to N-1 of a purine and N-9 of a pyrimidine.
B: The bond formed between the N-1 and N-9 with the purine and pyrimidine is a B-glycosidic bond.
C: Purines are considered as heterocycles that are formed by the fusion of pyrimidine and imidazole.
D: A prime number indicates the amine to which the phosphoryl group of the sugars mononucleotides is attached.

A

D

90
Q

Which of the following best fits the description of an inactive G-protein? 1/1
A: It is heterotrimeric which is bound by GTP
B: It is heterodimeric which is bound by GDP C: It is heterotetrameric which is bound by GDP D: It is heterotrimeric which is bound by GDP

A

D

91
Q

The production of which of the following is increased by the binding of Atriopeptins, a 1/1 family of peptides that cause vasodilation in the cardiac muscle.
A: cAMP B: cGMP C: AMP D: GTP

A

B

92
Q

94 Uric acid is a derivative of which of the following heterocyclic bases? 1/1
A: Adenine B: Cytosine C: Uracil
D: Thymine

A

A

93
Q

Which of the following statements about Group I and Group II hormones are incorrect (False)? (Select all that apply)
A: Calcitriol are classified as Group II hormones and are Lipophilic in nature.
B: Catecholamines are classified as hormones that interact via (or with) intracellular receptors. C: The half life of Group I hormones are very short (minutes)
D: Group II hormones use secondary messengers like Ca+2, cAMP, cGMP
1/1


A

ABC