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sociology exam 1 > Exam 3 review > Flashcards

Exam 3 review Flashcards

1
Q

In the absence of oxygen, can cells utilize the electron transport chain?
A. Yes, all cells can make use of the electron transport chain in the absence of oxygen via fermentation.
B. No, oxygen is a required cofactor for the complexes in the electron transport chain.
C. Yes, if a cell can use a terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen, it can make use of the electron transport chain.
D. No, oxygen is the primary electron acceptor in electron transport chains in all cell types.

A

C. Yes, if a cell can use a terminal electron acceptor other than oxygen, it can make use of the electron transport chain.

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2
Q

What would be the ATP yield for a molecule that is catabolized to form one molecule of pyruvate in a eukaryotic cell?
A. 10 ATP
B. 12.5 ATP
C. 25 ATP
D. 30 ATP
E. 11.5 ATP

A

B. 12.5 ATP

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3
Q

In the reaction: C4H6O4 + FAD →C4H4O4 + FADH2, what type of reaction took place to remove the protons from C4H6O4?
A. Decarboxylation
B. Reduction
C. Dehydrogenation
D. Oxidation

A

C. Dehydrogenation

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4
Q

Why are the components of the electron transport chain embedded in the inner mitochondrial membrane rather than floating freely in the cytoplasm of the mitochondrial matrix?
A. To generate and maintain the proton gradient essential for ATP production.
B. To separate the ATP from the ADP.
C. Because electrons cannot float in the matrix.
D. Because NADH cannot localize to the mitochondrial matrix.

A

A. To generate and maintain the proton gradient essential for ATP production.

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5
Q

If ATP synthase had a mutation in the F1 complex portion of the protein, which function of ATP synthase would most likely be affected?
A. The rotation of the rotor
B. The flow of protons through the channel
C. The conversion of ADP and Pi to ATP
D. The insertion of the enzyme into the membrane

A

C. The conversion of ADP and Pi to ATP

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6
Q

What molecule can oxidize NADH?
A. Acetaldehyde
B. Lactate
C. Ubiquinone
D. Glucose

A

A. Acetaldehyde

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7
Q

The energy released in the mitochondrial electron transport chain is used to transport protons into the
A. mitochondrial matrix
B. cytoplasm.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
D. intermembrane space of the mitochondria.
E. nucleus

A

D. intermembrane space of the mitochondria.

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8
Q

Many types of cancer cells secrete significant levels of lactate. Do you think it is likely these cells are undergoing beta-oxidation?
A. Yes, because beta-oxidation can generate intermediates that would lead to the production of lactate
B. No, because if lactate is being produced, the cell is not likely making use of the pathways needed to make use of the products of beta-oxidation.
C. Yes, because lactate stimulates beta-oxidation.
D. No, because lactate is consumed in beta-oxidation

A

B. No, because if lactate is being produced, the cell is not likely making use of the pathways needed to make use of the products of beta-oxidation.

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9
Q

In the reaction catalyzed by aconitase, the conversion of citrate to isocitrate is inhibited by fluoroacetate. Fluoroacetate is used as a pesticide. Why is this an effective pesticide?
A. It inhibits glycolysis
B. It inhibits pyruvate oxidation
C. It inhibits the Citric acid cycle
D. It inhibits the electron transport chain
E. It inhibits ATP synthase

A

C. It inhibits the Citric acid cycle

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10
Q

A biochemist wants to control the initial substrate-level phosphorylation that occurs in the tracheal cells of grasshoppers once glucose has crossed the plasma membrane. He has access to the following inhibitors: Rotenone, an electron transport chain inhibitor; Oligomycin, an ATP synthase inhibitor; and TLN-232, an inhibitor of glycolysis. Which inhibitor should he use to slow down initial substrate-level phosphorylation that occurs once glucose has crossed the plasma membrane?
A. Rotenone
B. Oligomycin
C. TLN-232
D. None of these inhibitors would be effective in preventing substrate-level phosphorylation

A

C. TLN-232

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11
Q

It is thought that the oldest stage of cellular respiration from an evolutionary perspective is
A. the Citric acid cycle.
B. the electron transport chain.
C. fermentation.
D. glycolysis.

A

D. Gylcolysis

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12
Q

Glucose is not our only food source, nor the only one we can utilize in our bodies to generate energy. Other primary sources of energy include other sugars, proteins, and fats. What metabolic intermediate are fats primarily converted into?
A. Pyruvate
B. Acetyl-CoACorrect
C. Citric acid cycle intermediates
D. Electron transport chain components
E. ATP Synthase

A

B. Acetyl-CoA

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13
Q

What oxidizing agent is used to temporarily store high energy electrons harvested from glucose molecules in a series of gradual steps in the cytoplasm?
A. FADH2
B. ADP
C. NAD+
D. Oxygen

A

C. NAD+

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14
Q

You are working on a research project that involves a mutational analysis of the light harvesting complex Lhca1, which is an important light harvesting complex found in plants. Your lab mate asks where this complex is located. You say it is in the
A. outer chloroplast membrane
B. inner chloroplast membrane
C. thylakoid membrane
D. stroma
E.matrix

A

C. Thylakoid membrane

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15
Q

Molecules that absorb light are called
A. enzymes.
B. electron carriers.
C. pigments.
D. photosynthesizers.
E. absorbers.

A

C. pigments

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16
Q

Light-dependent reactions generate
A. ATP and NADPH.
B. NADP+.
C. CO2.
D. light.
E. glucose.

A

A. ATP and NADPH.

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17
Q

Fall leaf color on deciduous trees is a result of
A. the production of more accessory pigments because of the cooler temperatures.
B. the reduction in the production of accessory pigments.
C. cessation of chlorophyll production, which allows the accessory pigments to be revealed.
D. the increased angle of the sun during the fall, which reflects more of the accessory pigments.

A

C. cessation of chlorophyll production, which allows the accessory pigments to be revealed.

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18
Q

The photosynthetic electron transport causes the accumulation of protons in which part of the chloroplast?
A. matrix
B. stroma
C. outer membrane
D. internal thylakoid space

A

D. internal thylakoid space

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19
Q

If you exposed a C4 plant to 14CO2 in the light, which would be the first organic molecule labeled with 14C?
A. oxaloacetate
B. malate
C. pyruvate
D. phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

A

A. oxaloacetate

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20
Q

The photosystem channels the excitation energy gathered by absorption of light by any one of the pigment molecules to a specific reaction center chlorophyll, which in turn passes the energy to
A. photosystem I.
B. photosystem II.
C. the primary electron acceptor.
D. the secondary electron center.
E. cytochrome.

A

C. the primary electron acceptor.

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21
Q

Chlorophyll b absorbs green wavelengths of light that chlorophyll a cannot absorb. In this respect, chlorophyll b acts as
A. an accessory pigment.
B. an energizer for photosynthetic bacteria.
C. a light absorber in the green light.
D. a more efficient pigment

A

A. an accessory pigment.

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22
Q

Light consists of units of energy called
A. electrons.
B. photons.
C. calories.
D. neutrons.
E. pigments.

A

B. photons.

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22
Q

Which color of light chlorophylls absorb has the highest energy?
A. green
B. violet-blue
C. red
D. yellow-orange

A

B. violet-blue

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23
Q

The splitting of water and the generation of oxygen occur where?
A. Photosystem I
B. The Krebs Cycle
C. The Calvin Cycle
D. Photosystem II

A

D. Photosystem II

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23
Q

The ATP generated from cellular respiration is not sufficient to drive the Calvin cycle in plants, even if appropriate levels of NADPH and CO2 are present. Why not?
A. Plants do not undergo cellular respiration
B. Breaking down sugar to provide the energy needed to synthesize sugar would be a futile cycle
C. The Calvin cycle requires more ATP than can possibly be made from cellular respiration
D. Cellular respiration and photosynthesis do not happen in the same cells in plants

A

B. Breaking down sugar to provide the energy needed to synthesize sugar would be a futile cycle

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23
Q

This stage of mitosis is characterized by the disassembly of spindle apparatus, the reestablishment of the nuclear membrane, and the decondensation of the chromosomes:
A. Prometaphase
B.Telophase
C. Anaphase
D. Metaphase

A

B.Telophase

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23
Q

The Calvin cycle requires all of the following except
A. carbon dioxide.
B. oxygen.
C. ATP.
D. NADPH.
E. water.

A

B. oxygen.

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24
Q

At what checkpoint(s) does the cell arrest in response to DNA damage?
A. G1/S
B. G2/M
C. spindle
D. G1/S and G2/M
E. G2/M and spindle

A

D. G1/S and G2/M

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25
Q

What is the sequence of events in a typical eukaryotic cell cycle?
A. G1 to G2 to S to mitosis to cytokinesis
B. G1 to S to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis
C. G1 to S to G2 to cytokinesis to mitosis
D. G1 to G2 to mitosis to S to cytokinesis
E. S to G1 to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis

A

B. G1 to S to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis

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26
Q

If a chromosome contains a mutation such that it cannot bind to the kinetochore complex, what would be the consequence?
A. That chromosome would not be able to be replicated.
B. That chromosome would not be able to condense.
C. That chromosome would not be able to bind to the mitotic spindle.
D. That chromosome would not be able to interact with histone proteins.

A

C. That chromosome would not be able to bind to the mitotic spindle.

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26
Q

Interphase is made up of what stages of the cell cycle?
A. G1 + G2 + S
B. S + cytokinesis
C. prophase + metaphase + anaphase + telophase
D. cytokinesis + mitosis
E. G0 + G1 + G2

A

A. G1 + G2 + S

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27
Q

You are studying cell cycle progression in yeast cells. If you could prevent cdc2 from associating with the mitotic cyclin, the cells would:
A. arrest in G1.
B. arrest in G2.
C. arrest in S.
D. arrest in prometaphase.
E. arrest in metaphase.

A

B. arrest in G2.

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28
Q

Eukaryotic chromosome complexes are composed of 60% protein and 40% DNA. This complex is referred to as:
A. The histone complex
B. Chromatin
C. The kinetochore
D. Cohesin

A

B. Chromatin

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29
Q

A somatic cell from a garden pea plant normally contains 14 chromosomes. How many sister chromatids would that cell contain during G1 of the cell cycle?
A. 0
B. 7
C. 14
D. 28

A

A. 0

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30
Q

If a drug that inhibited transport from the trans face of the Golgi was applied to plant cells, which stage of the cell cycle would be directly affected?
A. G2
B. S
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Cytokinesis

A

E. Cytokinesis

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31
Q

The number of chromosomes in diploid eukaryotic cells:
A. is 46.
B. can be predicted by the size of the organism.
C. changes as each organism grows and ages.
D. varies considerably from 2 to over 1000 in different species.

A

D. varies considerably from 2 to over 1000 in different species.

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32
Q

This is the stage of mitosis characterized by the alignment of the chromosomes in a ring along the inner circumference of the cell:
A. Interphase
B. Telophase
C. Prophase
D. Metaphase

A

d. Metaphase

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33
Q

Crossing over between homologous chromosomes takes place during
A. prophase II.
B. prophase I.
C. interphase II.
D. interphase I.
E. metaphase II.

A

B. prophase I.

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34
Q

What immediately follows meiosis I?
A. DNA replication
B. Prophase II
C. Metaphase II
D. Synapsis of homologues
E. Crossing over of homologues

A

B. Prophase II

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35
Q

Meiosis results in a reassortment of maternal chromosomes (inherited from the mother) and paternal chromosomes (inherited from the father). If n=4 for a given species, and ignoring the effects of crossing over, what is the probability that a gamete will receive only paternal chromosomes?
A. 1/2
B.1/4
C. 1/8
D. 1/16

A

1/16

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35
Q

Evidence of crossing over can often be seen under the light microscope as a structure called a _________
A. kinetochore
B. centromere
C. chiasma
D. centriole

A

C. chiasma

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36
Q

Which statement about the reductive division of meiosis is false?
A. During the reductive division, homologues migrate to opposite poles of the cell.
B. During the reductive division, sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell.
C. During the reductive division, centromeres do not divide.
D. At the end of the reductive division, each daughter nucleus has one-half as many centromeres as the parental nucleus.

A

B. During the reductive division, sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell.

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37
Q

Edouard van Beneden proposed that an egg and a sperm, each containing half the complement of chromosomes found in somatic cells, fuse to produce a single cell called a(n) _________
A. zygote
B. karyotype
C. embryo
D. oocyte

A

A. zygote

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38
Q

You are studying meiosis in an organism where 2n = 28. How many chromosomes will be present in each cell after meiosis I is complete but before meiosis II begins?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 28
D. 56

A

B. 14

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39
Q

The most common form of gene therapy involves inserting a normal gene into cells that contain a defective version of the gene. In order to use gene therapy to prevent a man from passing a defective gene on to future generations, you should try to insert normal copies of the gene into
A. blood cells.
B. germ-line cells.
C. somatic cells in the testes.
D. bone marrow cells.

A

B. germ-line cells.

40
Q

The pairing of chromosomes along their lengths, which is essential for crossing over, is referred to as
A. syngamy.
B. synapsis.
C. prophase.
D. recombination.
E. centromere.

A

B. synapsis.

41
Q

is a process of nuclear division that reduces the number of chromosomes per cell from 2 sets to 1 set.
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission
D. Syngamy

A

B. Meiosis

42
Q

During anaphase I, which best represents segregation of the chromatids that make up one pair of homologues? (M represents a maternal chromatid and P represents a paternal chromatid. Assume no crossing over occurs.)
A. M and M to one pole; P and P to the other pole.
B. M and P to one pole; M and P to the other pole.
C. M to one pole; P to the other pole.
D. half of M and half of P to each pole.
E. the segregation of these chromatids is completely random.

A

A. M and M to one pole; P and P to the other pole.

43
Q

In plants and animals, the zygote develops by which of the following processes?
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
C. Syngamy
D. Synapsis
E. Reduction division

A

A. Mitosis

44
Q

What molecule can oxidize NADH?
A. Acetaldehyde
B. Lactate
C. Ubiquinone
D. Glucose

A

A. Acetaldehyde

45
Q

When substrate-level phosphorylation occurs, it means that:
A. NAD+ is converted into NADH.
B. ATP is formed by the enzyme ATP synthase using energy from a proton gradient.
C. ATP is formed by the transfer of a phosphate group from an intermediate molecule.
D. NADH is converted into NAD+
plus a proton.

A

C. ATP is formed by the transfer of a phosphate group from an intermediate molecule.

46
Q

What is common to all of the oxidation reactions in the Citric acid cycle?
A. They all lead to the generation of NADH.
B. They are all decarboxylation reactions.
C. They are all characterized by a loss of electrons from an organic molecule coupled to the reduction of an electron acceptor.
D. They all lead to substrate-level phosphorylation of ADP to generate ATP.

A

C. They are all characterized by a loss of electrons from an organic molecule coupled to the reduction of an electron acceptor.

46
Q

Cardiac muscle cells need to generate significant amounts of ATP to allow for constant contractile activity. As a result, they primarily depend upon beta-oxidation of fatty acids, which has a higher energy yield than the catabolism of glucose. What would be the ATP yield for beta-oxidation of a hypothetical 10-carbon fatty acid?
A. 32 ATP
B. 35 ATP
C. 50 ATP
D. 62 ATP
E. 65 ATP

A

D. 62 ATP

47
Q

Organisms that can manufacture their own chemical energy are called _________
A. autotrophs
B. heterotrophs
C. oligotrophs
D. chemotrophs

A

A. autotrophs

47
Q

If you take into account the amount of ATP generated by ATP synthase per molecule of NADH and per molecule of FADH2 produced, and the number of ATP molecules produced by substrate-level phosphorylation, what is the predicted energy yield of the Citric acid cycle, per molecule of glucose in eukaryotic cells?
A. 18 ATP
B. 2 ATP
C. 10 ATP
D. 20 ATP
E. 30 ATP

A

D. 20 ATP

47
Q

When amino acids are degraded in cells, into what intermediate(s) of the aerobic respiration process are the carbon skeletons of amino acids primarily converted?
A. Pyruvate
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Citric acid cycle intermediates
D. Pyruvate and acetyl-CoA
E. Pyruvate and Citric acid cycle intermediates

A

E. Pyruvate and Citric acid cycle intermediates

48
Q

What happens to the oxygen that is used in cellular respiration?
A. It is converted to carbon dioxide
B. It is used to make glucose
C. It is used to make Citric acid cycle intermediates
D. It is reduced to form water

A

D. It is reduced to form water

49
Q

What is different about the way that NADH and FADH2 donate electrons to the electron transport chain?
A. NADH is oxidized and FADH2 is reduced.
B. NADH contributes its electrons to the first transmembrane complex in the electron transport chain and FADH2 contributes its electrons after the first transmembrane complex.
C. More protons are transported into the intermembrane space of the mitochondria in response to one molecule of FADH2 as compared to the number of protons transported in response to one molecule of NADH.
D. The electrons from NADH ultimately go on to reduce oxygen to generate water, whereas the electrons from FADH2 are used to reduce pyruvate to lactate.

A

B. NADH contributes its electrons to the first transmembrane complex in the electron transport chain and FADH2 contributes its electrons after the first transmembrane complex.

49
Q

Organisms that depend on the energy stored in chemical bonds by other organisms for their food energy are called _________
A. Autotrophs
B. Heterotrophs
C. Oligotrophs
D. Chemotrophs

A

B. Heterotrophs

50
Q

In the photosystem I reaction center, light energy captured by pigment molecules is passed to a special reaction center chlorophyll a called
A. P680.
B. P700.Correct
C. chlorophyll I.
D. chlorophyll II.
E. retinal.

A

B. P700

50
Q

If you take into account the amount of ATP generated by ATP synthase per molecule of NADH produced in aerobic respiration, the net number of ATP molecules produced by substrate-level phosphorylation, and the fact that NADH molecules produced in the cytoplasm have to be transported into the mitochondria, what is the predicted energy yield of glycolysis in eukaryotic cells?
A. 2 ATP
B. 5 ATP
C. 7 ATP
D. 32 ATP
E. 30 ATP

A

B. 5 ATP

50
Q

Most plants incorporate carbon dioxide into sugars by means of a cycle of reactions called the
A. CAM cycle.
B. carbon cycle.
C. Calvin cycle.
D. Krebs cycle.

A

C. Calvin cycle.

50
Q

Many types of cancer cells secrete significant levels of lactate. Do you think it is likely these cells are undergoing beta-oxidation?
A. Yes, because beta-oxidation can generate intermediates that would lead to the production of lactate.
B. No, because if lactate is being produced, the cell is not likely making use of the pathways needed to make use of the products of beta-oxidation.
C. Yes, because lactate stimulates beta-oxidation.
D. No, because lactate is consumed in beta-oxidation

A

B. No, because if lactate is being produced, the cell is not likely making use of the pathways needed to make use of the products of beta-oxidation.

50
Q

For photosynthesis in green plants, the electron donor for the light-dependent reaction is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. oxygen.
C. RuBP.
D. chlorophyll II.
E. water.

A

E. water.

51
Q

In green plants, which photosystem absorbs photons to excite electrons in the reaction center?
A. Photosystem I
B. Photosystem II
C. Photosystem III
D. Photosystem I and II
E. Photosystem I, II and III

A

D. Photosystem I and II

52
Q

In eukaryotes, photosynthesis takes place inside the _________
A. chloroplasts
B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm
D. Golgi apparatus

A

A. chloroplasts

53
Q

During the light-dependent reactions, due to electron transport, the thylakoid space becomes
A. the site of ATP synthesis.
B. the site of NADPH production.
C. the site where the Calvin cycle occurs
D. more acidic than the stroma.

A

D. more acidic than the stroma.

53
Q

If the Calvin cycle of a plant exposed to light during the day is suddenly put in the dark, then it:
A. cannot run, as it requires light energy directly.
B. can still run as long as there is ATP, CO2, and NADPH present.
C. runs in a different place in the plant.
D. uses a different source of carbon.

A

B. can still run as long as there is ATP, CO2, and NADPH present.

54
Q

Fall leaf color on deciduous trees is a result of
A. the production of more accessory pigments because of the cooler temperatures.
B. the reduction in the production of accessory pigments.
C. cessation of chlorophyll production, which allows the accessory pigments to be revealed.
D. the increased angle of the sun during the fall, which reflects more of the accessory pigments.

A

C. cessation of chlorophyll production, which allows the accessory pigments to be revealed.

55
Q

The number of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate molecules that would be produced from 24 turns of the Calvin cycle would be
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 12
E. 48

A

B. 8

56
Q

Jan Baptista van Helmont performed an important experiment related to photosynthesis. He weighed a small willow tree and a pot of soil. Jan then planted the tree in the pot. Over the course of five years, he added only water to the pot. At the end of five years, he weighed the tree and found that it had gained 74.4 kg. He weighed the soil, and it was only 57 g less. What do the results of this specific experiment demonstrate about what is needed for a plant to grow and increase its mass?

A. All of the food a plant needs to grow comes from the soil
B. Plants do not need soil to grow
C. Plants must be able to increase their mass using substances in addition to what is found in soil
D. All of the food a plant needs to grow comes from the water
E. Plants need oxygen to grow

A

C. Plants must be able to increase their mass using substances in addition to what is found in soil

56
Q

Why is eating carrots thought to be useful for enhancing vision?
A. High levels of chlorophyll in carrots helps with photosynthesis in the eyes.
B. High levels of beta-carotene can lead to the production of a pigment used in vision.
C. High levels of carotenoids in carrots can allow vertebrate eyes to perform the dark reactions.
D. High levels of NADPH in carrots can allow vertebrate eyes to perform the light reactions.

A

B. High levels of beta-carotene can lead to the production of a pigment used in vision.

56
Q

The role of the antenna complex in a photosystem is to
A. transfer excited electrons to the primary electron acceptor.
B. generate glucose.
C. generate NADPH.
D. capture photons from sunlight.

A

D. capture photons from sunlight.

57
Q

If the Calvin cycle were to be temporarily restricted, the highest concentration of NADPH would likely be in the
A. thylakoid space.
B. thylakoid membrane.
C. stroma.
D. chloroplast outer membrane.

A

STROMA

58
Q

You are leading a team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company. Your goal is to design drugs that help fight cancer. Specifically, you want to focus on drugs that bind to and inactivate certain proteins, thereby halting cell cycle progression. One of your team members suggests targeting the retinoblastoma (Rb) protein and inhibiting this protein. Will this approach be successful? Why or why not?

A. This approach will not be successful. Rb is tumor-suppressor protein, and functions to inhibit the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would essentially create the same situation as in a cell that lacks both copies of the Rb gene. Lack of Rb activity would release the inhibition of cell cycle regulatory proteins, thereby promoting cell cycle progression, rather than halting it.

B. This approach will be successful. Rb is an oncogene, and functions to activate a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would halt the cell cycle in cells that contain an active Rb. As a result, cancer cells expressing a constitutively active Rb protein would be good targets for this type of therapeutic.

C. This approach will be successful. Rb is tumor-suppressor protein, and functions to inhibit the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would activate cell cycle inhibition. Lack of Rb activity would therefore inhibit the cell cycle regulatory proteins.

D. This approach will not be successful. Rb is an oncogene, and functions to activate a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would actually activate cell cycle progression. As a result, this drug would likely make this situation worse for patients whose cancer cells contain mutant Rb.

A

A. This approach will not be successful. Rb is tumor-suppressor protein, and functions to inhibit the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would essentially create the same situation as in a cell that lacks both copies of the Rb gene. Lack of Rb activity would release the inhibition of cell cycle regulatory proteins, thereby promoting cell cycle progression, rather than halting it.

59
Q

The physical distribution of cytoplasmic material into the two daughter cells in plant cells is referred to as:
A. The gap phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Binary fission
D. Interphase

A

B. Cytokinesis

60
Q

If a cell contained a mutation in the gene that encodes FtsZ, which process would be affected?
A. Septation
B. Cytokinesis
C. Prophase
D. DNA Synthesis
E. Cohesin cleavage

A

A. Septation

61
Q

If a cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis, each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8

A

B. 32

61
Q

The progress of the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated primarily by what proteins?
A. Cyclins
B. Histone proteins
C. Condensins
D. FtsZ

A

A. Cyclins

62
Q

Plant cells typically achieve cytokinesis by:
A. binary fission.
B. forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell.
C. forming a cleavage furrow that pinches the cell into two.
D. chromosome condensation.

A

B. forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell.

62
Q

The portion of the cell cycle when the cell is growing and does not contain a replicated genome is referred to as:
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. Mitosis

A

A. G1

63
Q

A cell biologist produces a karyotype of mouse somatic cells arrested in mitosis. She sees 40 chromosomes, which is completely normal for mice. Based on this information, what is the haploid number of chromosomes for mice?
A. 10
B.20
C. 40
D. 80

A

B.20

63
Q

A somatic cell from a corn plant normally contains 20 chromosomes. How many sister chromatids would that cell contain during G2 of the cell cycle?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

A

40

63
Q

If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, how many chromosomes are there?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

A

B. 16

64
Q

All of the following increase genetic variation EXCEPT
A. crossing over.
B. random fertilization.
C. independent assortment.
D. mitosis.
E. mutation

A

MITOSIS

65
Q

The most common form of gene therapy involves inserting a normal gene into cells that contain a defective version of the gene. In order to use gene therapy to prevent a man from passing a defective gene on to future generations, you should try to insert normal copies of the gene into

A. blood cells.
B. germ-line cells.
C. somatic cells in the testes.
D. bone marrow cells.

A

Germ line cells

66
Q

Non-disjunction is the failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I, or the failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis. As a result, both homologous chromosomes or both sister chromatids migrate to the same pole of the cell. This produces daughter cells with an imbalance of chromosomes. A cell biologist examines the final products of meiosis in an earthworm (2n=36) and finds 2 cells with 20 chromosomes, and 2 cells with 16 chromosomes. Most likely this was because

A. 2 pairs of sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis II.
B. 1 pair of sister chromatids failed to separate during meiosis II.
C. 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis I.
D. 1 pair of homologous chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis I.

A

C. 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis I.

67
Q

Which structure holds two homologous chromosomes together?
A. Centromere
B. Kinetochore
C. Polar microtubules
D. Spindle apparatus
E. Synaptonemal complex

A

E. Synaptonemal complex

68
Q

A cell in G2 before meiosis begins, compared with one of the four cells produced at the end of meiosis II, has

A. twice as much DNA and twice as many chromosomes.
B. four times as much DNA and twice as many chromosomes
C. twice as much DNA but the same number of chromosomes.
D. four times as much DNA and four times as many chromosomes.

A

B. four times as much DNA and twice as many chromosomes.

69
Q

You are studying meiosis in an organism where 2n = 28. How many chromosomes will be present in each cell after meiosis I is complete but before meiosis II begins?

A. 7
B. 14
C. 28
D. 56

A

B. 14

70
Q

Which statement about the reductive division of meiosis is false?
A. During the reductive division, homologues migrate to opposite poles of the cell.
B. During the reductive division, sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell.
C. During the reductive division, centromeres do not divide.
D. At the end of the reductive division, each daughter nucleus has one-half as many centromeres as the parental nucleus.

A

B. During the reductive division, sister chromatids migrate to opposite poles of the cell.

70
Q

The cell produced by the fusion of an egg and a sperm is the
A. gamete.
B. oocyte.
C. zygote.
D. germ line cell.

A

C. zygote.

71
Q

In meiosis, sister kinetochores are attached to the same pole of the cell during meiosis I, and sister chromatid cohesion is released during anaphase II. What would be the likely result if sister kinetochores were attached to different poles of the cell during meiosis I and sister chromatid cohesion was released during anaphase I?

A. Sister chromatids would migrate to opposite poles during anaphase I.
B. Sister chromatids would migrate to opposite poles during anaphase II.
C. Sister chromatids would migrate to the same pole during anaphase I.
D. Sister chromatids would migrate to the same pole during anaphase II.

A

A. Sister chromatids would migrate to opposite poles during anaphase I.

72
Q

A geneticist examines a somatic cell from a fly during metaphase of mitosis and determines that 16 chromatids are present. If a germ-line cell from this species divides by meiosis, then at the end of meiosis I (including the first cytokinesis) each cell will contain

A. 8 chromosomes with 8 DNA molecules.
B. 8 chromosomes with 16 DNA molecules.
C. 4 chromosomes with 4 DNA molecules.
D. 4 chromosomes with 8 DNA molecules.

A

4 CHROMOSOMES WITH 8 DNA MOLECULES

73
Q

In glycolysis a major portion of the energy remains in the final product which is called
A. Pyruvate
B. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)
C. Citrate
D. Glucose

A

PYRUVATE

74
Q

This process is common to all living things
A. electron transport chain reactions.
B. The citric acid cycle
C. pyruvate oxidation
D. glycolysis
E. alcohol fermentation

A

GYLCOLYSIS

75
Q

What is the end-product of glycolysis?
A. alcohol
B. NAD+
C. pyruavte
D. oxaloacetate
E. ADP

A

pyruvate

76
Q

Pyruvate oxidation in eukaryotic cells occurs in the
A. Plasma membrane
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleus
D. Golgi body
E. Mitochondria

A

MITOCHONDRIA

77
Q

What are the products of one turn of the Citric Acid Cycle?
A. 4 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
B. 4 CO2, 12 NADH, 4 FADH2, 4 ATP
C. 1 CO2, 2 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP
D. 2 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 ATP
E. 2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

A

E. 2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP

78
Q

The energy released in the mitochondrial electron transport chain is used to transport protons into the
A. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria
B. cytoplasm
C. endoplasmic reticulum
D. mitochondrial matrix
E. nucleus

A

A. Intermembrane space of the mitochondria

79
Q

What is the net number of ATP generated directly during glycolysis per molecule of glucose?
A. 8
B. 0
C. 2
D. 6
E. 4

A

2

79
Q

Where do the carbon atoms in glucose come from?
A. NADPH
B. Sunlight
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Water

A

NADPH

80
Q

Carbon dioxide and water can combine to form glucose, water and oxygen. What is required for that process to occur?
A. Light energy from the sun
B. Energy from the process of cellular respiration
C. Mitochondria
D. Nothing, this is a spontaneous reaction.

A

LIGHT ENERGY FROM THE SUN

81
Q

If you tagged organic carbon inside a chloroplast with a fluorescent label, the location most likely to have a high concentration of labeled carbon would be in the
A. Thylakoid membrane
B. Between the outer and inner membranes
C. Stroma
D. Inside the thylakoid

A

stroma

82
Q

In order to generate one glucose molecule, the Calvin cycle has to turn how many’s times?
A. 6
B. 1
C. 12
D. 2
E. 3

A

6

83
Q

Which plants utilize a specialized carbon fixation enzyme and a unique cell structure to reduce the problems of photorespiration?
A. C4
B. Artic
C. Desert
D. C3

A

C4

84
Q

In photosynthesis, carbon fixation occurs
A. In the Calvin cycle
B. During photorespiration
C. In the electron transport chain
D. In photosystem I
E. In photosystem II

A

In the calvin cycle

85
Q

For photosynthesis in the green plants, the electron donor for the light-dependent reaction is
A. Water
B. RuBP
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Chlorophyll II
E. Oxygen

A

Chlorophyll II

86
Q

Flattened sacs of internal membranes associated with photosynthesis are called
A. Cristae
B. The stroma
C. Thylakoids
D. Chloroplasts
E. Photosystems

A

Thylakoids

87
Q

In the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, CO2 is added to a five-carbon molecule known as
A. Ribose
B. Cellulose
C. CAM
D. Deoxyribose
E. RuBP

A

CAM

88
Q

Light consists of unit of energy called
A. Photons
B. Electrons
C. Calories
D. Neutrons
E. Pigments

A

photons

89
Q
A

sociology exam 1 (3 decks)

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