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Spinal Anatomy > Exam 3 Quizzies > Flashcards

Exam 3 Quizzies Flashcards

1
Q

what are the classifications of scoliosis according to the Scoliosis Research Society?

A

magnitude, location, direction, etiology, structural scoliosis and non-structural scoliosis

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2
Q

what does magnitude of scoliosis refer to?

A

the length and angle of the curve deviation on x-ray

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3
Q

what is often used to measure the magnitude of scoliosis?

A

the Cobb Method

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4
Q

what does location of scoliosis infer?

A

the location on the vertebral segment forming the apex of the curve deviation

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5
Q

what does direction of scoliosis refer to?

A

the side the convexity of the curve will bend toward

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6
Q

what does etiology of scoliosis mean?

A

the cause of the scoliosis

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7
Q

what is structural scoliosis?

A

a more radical form of scoliosis, it may worsen, associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or intervertebral disc, frequently has a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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8
Q

what is nonstructural scoliosis?

A

a mild form of scoliosis, unlikely to worsen, not associated with structural deformities of the vertebra or intervertebral disc and lacks a fixed angle of trunk rotation

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9
Q

what are some of the classifications of scoliosis based on etiology?

A

congenital, neuromuscular, neurofibromatosis, nerve root irritation, idiopathic

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10
Q

what is the classification of scoliosis that is unique to the individual patient?

A

idiopathic scoliosis

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11
Q

what does idiopathic scoliosis infer?

A

the scoliosis is unique to the individual, it has no known cause unknown etiology

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12
Q

what is the incidence of idiopathic scoliosis in the population?

A

1-4% of the population

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13
Q

based on age of onset, what are the types of idiopathic scoliosis?

A

infantile, juvenile, and adolescent

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14
Q

what is the age range for infantile idiopathic scoliosis?

A

from birth to 3 years old

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15
Q

what is the age range for juvenile idiopathic scoliosis?

A

from 3-10 years old

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16
Q

what is the age range for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis?

A

over 10 years old

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17
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of infantile idiopathic scoliosis.

A

left thoracic, male, less than 1% incidence

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18
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of juvenile idiopathic scoliosis.

A

right thoracic, females over 6 years old, and 12-21% incidence

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19
Q

identify curve direction, location, gender bias and incidence of adolescent idiopathic scoliosis.

A

right thoracic or right thoracic and left lumbar, females, and 80% incidence

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20
Q

what are the transition zones of the vertebral column?

A

occipitocervical, cervicothoracic, thoracolumbar, lumbosacral, and sacrococcygeal zones

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21
Q

what are the possible transition zone-segmental combinations?

A
  1. cervicalization of occiput, occipitalization of C1
  2. dorsalization of C7, cervicalization of T1
  3. lumbarization of T12, dorsalization of L1
  4. sacralization of L5, lumbarization of S1
  5. coccygealization of S5, sacralization of Co1
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22
Q

what is/are the characteristic(s) of cervicalization of occiput?

A

an increase in occipital bone size, formation of new or larger lines, on the occipital bone

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23
Q

what is/are the characteristic(s) of occipitalization of C1?

A

the atlas may be partially or completely fused to the occiput

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24
Q

what is another way of implying occipitalization of C1?

A

atlas assimilation

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25
Q

what is the incidence of occipitalization of C1?

A

0.1-0.8%

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26
Q

when do the centers of ossification for the odontoid process first appear?

A

during the last trimester in utero

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27
Q

when do the bilateral ossification centers for the odontoid process fuse?

A

at or shortly after birth

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28
Q

what joint forms between the odontoid process ossification centers and the centrum of C2?

A

the subdental synchondrosis

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29
Q

ossification between the odontoid process and centrum joint of C2 first appears at what age?

A

4 years old

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30
Q

a joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 is last identified at what age?

A

7 years old

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31
Q

what is the name given to the condition in which the joint formed between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 persists beyond the age 7?

A

os odontoideum

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32
Q

what is the name given to the joint between the odontoid process and centrum of C2 which is still evident beyond age 7?

A

persistent subdental synchondrosis

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33
Q

what is the name given to the joint formed between the tip of the dens and the odontoid process centers of ossification?

A

tip of the dens synchondrosis

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34
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens center of ossification appear?

A

sometime in early adolescence

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35
Q

at what age will the tip of the dens fuse with the odontoid process?

A

before age 12

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36
Q

what is a terminal ossicle?

A

a persistence beyond age 12 of the joint formed between the tip of the dens and odontoid process center of ossification

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37
Q

what is a basilar impression?

A

persistence of the nonunion of the basilar and condylar parts of the chondrocranium such that the cartilage deforms due to the weight of the brain

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38
Q

what is a basilar invagination?

A

the upper cervical spine appears to be invaginated into the skull on x-ray analysis

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39
Q

what is/are the characteristic(s) of dorsalization of C7?

A

the addition of a rib and changes in superior articular facet orientation are typical

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40
Q

what is the incidence of rib-related changes following dorsalization of C7?

A

from 1/2 to 2 and 1/2 % of the population

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41
Q

what is the gender bias suggested in dorsalization of C7?

A

female

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42
Q

what alteration in C7 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization?

A

the superior articular facet of C7 may change from BUM to BUL; the inferior articular facet is unchanged

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43
Q

what alteration in C6 facet orientation may accompany dorsalization?

A

C6 inferior articular facet orientation changes from FoLD to to ForMeD; the superior articular facet is unchanged

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44
Q

what percent of the population may demonstrate thoracic-like features at C7?

A

up to 46%

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45
Q

what rib-related changes may accompany cervicalization of T1?

A

the first rib may decrease in mean relative length or become absent

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46
Q

what will result from fusion of a short rib to the T1 transverse process?

A

the transverse foramen

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47
Q

what T1 facet orientation changes may accompany cervicalization?

A

the superior articular facet may change from BUL to BUM; inferior articular facet is unchanged

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48
Q

what C7 facet orientation changes may accompany cervicalization?

A

the inferior articular facet may change from ForMeD to FoLD; superior articular facet is unchanged

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49
Q

what is the incidence of cervicalization of T1 in the population?

A

up to 28% of the population

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50
Q

what rib-related changes may accompany dorsalization of L1?

A

elongated bones shaped like ribs may appear

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51
Q

what is the incidence of lumbar ribs in the population?

A

over 7% of the population demonstrates lumbar ribs

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52
Q

what L1 facet orientation changes may accompany dorsalization?

A

the superior articular facet may change from concave-BUM to flat-BUL; inferior articular facet is unchanged

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53
Q

what T12 facet orientation changes may accompany dorsalization?

A

the inferior articular facet may change from convex-FoLD to flat-ForMeD; the superior articular facet is unchanged

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54
Q

what is the gender bias associated with dorsalization of L1?

A

males are 2-3 times more affected

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55
Q

what rib-related changes may accompany lumbarization of T12?

A

a significant shortening of the mean relative length of 113 mm of the 12th rib or it becomes basent

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56
Q

what T12 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization?

A

the superior articular facet may change from flat-BUL to concave-BUM; inferior articular facet is unchanged

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57
Q

what T11 facet orientation changes may accompany lumbarization?

A

the inferior articular facet may change from flat-ForMeD to convex-FoLD; superior articular facet is unchanged

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58
Q

what unique characteristics of lumbarization of S1 were stressed in class?

A

squaring of the vertebral body of S1 and flaring of the sacral ala

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59
Q

what is squaring of the vertebral body of S1?

A

the S1 vertebral body has similar anterior and posterior heights, hence a lack of wedging

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60
Q

what is flaring of the sacral ala?

A

the transverse process of the ala appears to elevate as though separating from the rest of the sacral ala

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61
Q

what is characteristic of sacralization of L5?

A

L5 may be partially or completely fused to the sacrum

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62
Q

what is the incidence of sacralization of L5 in the population?

A

41-85%

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63
Q

which segment demonstrates the greatest morphological variation along the spine?

A

L5

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64
Q

what is the incidence of variation within the sacrococcygeal region in the population?

A

up to 14%

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65
Q

what is characteristic of sacralization of Co1?

A

the premature fusion of Co1 to the sacrum

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66
Q

which of the muscles attaching to spinous processes represent layer 1 of the true back?

A

trapezius and latissimus dorsi

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67
Q

which of the muscles attaching to spinous processes represent layer 2 of the true back?

A

rhomboid major and minor

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68
Q

which muscles attaching to transverse processes represent layer 2 of the true back?

A

levator scapulae

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69
Q

the trapezius is innervated by what nerve?

A

spinal accessory nerve

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70
Q

what forms the spinal accessory nerve innervating the trapezius?

A

C1-C5 cord levels contribute to the spinal root

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71
Q

the latissimus dorsi is innervated by what nerve?

A

thoracodorsal nerve

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72
Q

what forms the thoracodorsal nerve innervating the latissimus dorsi?

A

ventral rami C6-C8

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73
Q

which of the muscles of the true back are innervated by the dorsal scapular nerve?

A

levator scapulae, rhomboid major and minor

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74
Q

what forms the dorsal scapular nerve?

A

ventral ramus C5

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75
Q

the levator scapula is innervated by what nerves?

A

dorsal scapular nerve (ventral ramus of C5) and branches from C3, C4 ventral rami

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76
Q

the rhomboid major is innervated by what nerves?

A

dorsal scapular nerve (dorsal ramus C5) and branches from C4 ventral ramus

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77
Q

the rhomboid minor is innervated by what nerves?

A

dorsal scapular nerve (dorsal ramus C5) and branches from C4 ventral ramus

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78
Q

what muscles lie just beneath the trapezius in the neck?

A

splenius capitis and cervicis

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79
Q

what does the word “splenius” mean?

A

Greek for bandage

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80
Q

what part of the vertebra forms the osseous origin for the splenius muscles?

A

spinous process

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81
Q

what is the innervation of the splenius capitis?

A

dorsal rami of middle cervical spinal nerves (C3-C5 cord levels)

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82
Q

splenius cervicis will attach to what location on the spine?

A

lateral mass of C1 and posterior tubercle of transverse process on C1-C4

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83
Q

what is the innervation of splenius cervicis?

A

dorsal rami of lower cervical spinal nerves (C5-C7 cord levels)

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84
Q

which muscles represent layer 4 of the true back?

A

erector spinae or sacrospinalis muscles

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85
Q

which muscles are identified as erector spinae or sacrospinalis muscles?

A

iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis

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86
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis lumborum?

A

spinous process of T11-T12, L1-L5, median sacral crest, lateral sacral crest

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87
Q

what is the insertion for the iliocostalis lumborum?

A

costal angles of the lower 6-9 ribs (rib 6- rib12 or rib 3- rib 12)

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88
Q

what is the innervation of the iliocostalis lumborum?

A

dorsal rami of lower thoracic and all lumbar spinal nerves

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89
Q

which subdivision of the iliocostalis muscle appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion?

A

iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum

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90
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis thoracis?

A

none (costal angles of the lower 6-7 ribs; rib 5/6- rib 12)

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91
Q

what osseous part of the vertebral column serves as an insertion for the iliocostalis thoracis?

A

transverse process of C7

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92
Q

which subdivision of the iliocostalis primarily originates and inserts on ribs?

A

iliocostalis thoracis

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93
Q

what is the innervation of the iliocostalis thoracis?

A

dorsal rami of upper 6 thoracic spinal nerves (T1-T6 cord levels)

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94
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the iliocostalis cervicis?

A

none

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95
Q

what is the innervation of the iliocostalis cervicis?

A

dorsal rami T1, T2 spinal nerves, sometimes C8 spinal nerve (C8, T1, T2 cord levels)

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96
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the longissimus thoracis?

A

accessory process and transverse process of L1-L5, spinous processes of L3-L5 and median sacral crest S1-S3

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97
Q

which erector spinae muscle is attached to the accessory process?

A

longissimus thoracis

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98
Q

what is the innervation of the longissimus thoracis?

A

dorsal rami of all thoracic and lumbar spinal nerves (cord levels T1-T12, L1-L5)

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99
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the longissimus thoracis pars lumborum?

A

accessory process and medial part of transverse process of L1-L5

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100
Q

what is the insertion for the longissimus thoracis pars lumborum?

A

posterior superior iliac spine of innominate bone

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101
Q

which subdivision of the longissimus muscles appears to have a reversal of origin-insertion?

A

longissimus thoracis pars lumborum

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102
Q

what is the innervation of the longissimus cervicis?

A

dorsal rami of C4-C8 and T1-T2 spinal nerves (C4-C8 and T1-T2 cord levels)

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103
Q

what is the innervation of the longissimus capitis?

A

dorsal rami of C1-C3 or C4 spinal nerves, (C1-C3 or C4 cord levels)

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104
Q

which erector spinae muscles attach to cervical articular processes?

A

longissimus cervicis and capitis

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105
Q

what is the innervation of the spinalis thoracis?

A

dorsal rami or all thoracic and upper lumbar spinal nerves

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106
Q

what is the innervation of the spinalis cervicis?

A

dorsal rami of all cervical spinal nerves (C1-C8 cord levels)

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107
Q

which muscles are identified as transversospinalis muscles?

A

semispinalis, multifidis, and rotators

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108
Q

based on the name of this group, what is the origin-insertion of the transversospinalis?

A

transverse process origin, spinous process insertion

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109
Q

how many vertebrae can be attached to a single segment by transversospinalis muscles?

A

as many as 9 vertebrae

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110
Q

what segment will represent the lowest attachment site for the spinalis thoracis?

A

T12

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111
Q

what is the innervation of the semispinalis thoracis?

A

dorsal rami of T1-T6 spinal nerves (cord levels T1-T6)

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112
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the semispinalis cervicis?

A

transverse tubercles of T1-T5 or T6 and articular processes of C4-C7

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113
Q

what is the innervation of the semispinalis cervicis?

A

dorsal rami of C6-C8 spinal nerves (cord levels C6-C8)

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114
Q

what osseous parts of the vertebral column serve as an origin to the semispinalis capitis?

A

transverse tubercles of C7, T1-T6 or T7 and articular processes of C4-C6

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115
Q

what is the innervation of the semispinalis capitits?

A

dorsal rami of C1-C6 spinal nerves (cord levels C1-C6)

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116
Q

the biventer cervicis is formed by the fusion of what muscles?

A

semispinalis capitis and spinalis capitis

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117
Q

what region subdivisions are now identified with multifidis muscles?

A

lumbar, thoracic, and cervical multifidis

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118
Q

which transversospinalis muscle attaches to articular and mammillary processes along the spine?

A

multifidis

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119
Q

what is the innervation of the classic multifidis?

A

dorsal rami of C3-C8, T1-T12, L1-L5 and S1 spinal nerves (cord levels C3-C8, T1-T12, L1-L5, and S1)

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120
Q

contraction of multifidis cervicis will result in what movements?

A

alters the zygapophyseal capsular ligament response to load distribution
determines the cervical spine response to injury as evidenced by neck pain and is a significant contributor to postural control of the head and neck

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121
Q

which subdivision of multifidis may demonstrate a reversal of origin-insertion?

A

multifidis lumborum

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122
Q

contraction of multifidis lumborum will result in what movements?

A

lateral flexion and rotation of the lumbar spine, maintains the lumbar lordotic curve and prevents entrapment of lumbar zygapophyseal capsular ligament during movement

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123
Q

which muscles of the spine exhibit a reversal of the expected origin-insertion combination?

A

iliocostalis lumborum pars lumborum, logissimus thoracis pars lumborum, and multifidis lumborum

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124
Q

what will replace muscles spanning one or two segmental levels in the cervicals and lumbars?

A

deep layers of the multifidis

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125
Q

which suboccipital muscle lacks an attachment to the skull?

A

obliquus capitis inferior

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126
Q

which nerve will innervate all suboccipital muscles?

A

dorsal ramus C1, suboccipital nerve

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127
Q

what is the origin of the obliquus capitis inferior?

A

C2 spinous process and lamina

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128
Q

what is the insertion of the obliquus capitis inferior?

A

transverse process of C1

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129
Q

contraction of obliquus capitis inferior will result in what movement?

A

turns the face to the side

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130
Q

an increase in the density of muscle spindles is most apparent in which suboccipital muscle?

A

obliquus capitis inferior

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131
Q

suboccipital muscle feedback relays to what additional locations in the brain?

A

extraocular nuclei of origin, primary visual cortex and vestibular nuclei

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132
Q

what is the result of communication between suboccipital muscles, visual centers and vestibular centers?

A

coordination of head and eye position

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133
Q

what is the proposed function of the suboccipital muscle group?

A

postural stabilizers of the atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints

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134
Q

which suboccipital muscles are known to attach to dura mater?

A

rectus capitis poserior major and minor and obliquus capitis inferior

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135
Q

interspinalis is paired in which regions of the spine?

A

cervical and lumbar regions

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136
Q

based on the density of muscle spindles, what is the proposed function of the interspinalis?

A

acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with intertransversarii to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

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137
Q

intertransversarii are paired in which region(s) of the spine?

A

cervical and lumbar regions

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138
Q

which muscle group is innervated by both dorsal rami and ventral rami of spinal nerves?

A

intertransversarii

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139
Q

based on the density of muscle spindles, what is the proposed function of the intertransversarii?

A

acts as a proprioceptive transducer in conjunction with interspinalis to coordinate the smooth movement of the spine and to maintain appropriate posture

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140
Q

what is the origin of the longus colli?

A

vertebral bodies of C5-C6, T1-T3 and anterior tubercles of transverse processes C3-C5

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141
Q

what will innervate the longus colli?

A

ventral rami of C2-C6 or C7 spinal nerves

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142
Q

what is the insertion of the longus capitis?

A

basilar part of the occipital bone

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143
Q

what will innervate the longus capitis?

A

ventral rami of C1-C3 spinal nerves

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144
Q

what is the origin of the rectus capitis anterior?

A

lateral mass and costal element of the transverse process of C1

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145
Q

what will innervate the rectus capitis anterior?

A

ventral rami of C1-C2 spinal nerves

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146
Q

what is the insertion of the rectus capitis lateralis?

A

jugular process of the occipital bone

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147
Q

what will innervate the rectus capitis lateralis?

A

ventral rami of C1-C2 spinal nerves

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148
Q

what is the insertion of the anterior scalene?

A

ridge and anterior scalene tubercle of the first rib

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149
Q

what will innervate the anterior scalene?

A

ventral rami C2-C6 spinal nerves

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150
Q

what is the insertion of the middle scalene?

A

between the tubercle and groove for the subclavian artery on the first rib

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151
Q

contraction of middle scalene will result in what movements?

A

laterally flex the neck; elevate the first rib

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152
Q

what will innervate the middle scalene?

A

ventral rami C3-C8 spinal nerves

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153
Q

what will innervate the posterior scalene?

A

ventral rami C6-C8 spinal nerves

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154
Q

the quadratus lumborum is implicated in the formation of which ligament?

A

iliolumbar ligament

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155
Q

what osseous part of the vertebral column serves as an origin to the quadratus lumborum?

A

transverse process of L5

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156
Q

what will innervate the quadratus lumborum?

A

ventral rami T12 and L1-L3 sometimes L4 spinal nerves

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157
Q

what is the origin of the psoas major?

A

vertebral bodies T12, L1-L5, S1 and transverse processes of L1-L5

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158
Q

what will innervate the psoas major?

A

primarily ventral rami of L2 and L3, may include ventral rami of L1 and L4 spinal nerves

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159
Q

what is the origin of the psoas minor?

A

vertebral bodies T12 and L1

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160
Q

what will innervate the psoas minor?

A

ventral ramus of L1 spinal nerve

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161
Q

what will innervate the iliacus?

A

femoral nerve, primarily ventral rami of L2 and L3

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162
Q

what will innervate the levator costarum brevis?

A

dorsal rami of T1-T12 spinal nerves

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163
Q

what will innervate the levator costarum longus?

A

dorsal rami of the lower thoracic spinal nerves

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164
Q

what will innervate the serratus posterior superior?

A

ventral rami of T2-T5 spinal nerve… intercostal nerve

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165
Q

what will innervate the serratus posterior inferior?

A

ventral rami of T9-T11 spinal nerve, intercostal nerve

and ventral ramus of T12 spinal nerve, subcostal nerve

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166
Q

the ligamentous sacro-iliac joints (or most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column) are examples of which joint classification?

A

syndesmosis

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167
Q

what are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints?

A

articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid

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168
Q

what is the generic function of ligaments?

A

stimulate reflex contraction of muscles around the joint

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169
Q

what are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”

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170
Q

what are the characteristics of the type 2 articular receptors?

A

located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal ROM

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171
Q

what are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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172
Q

what is the function of type 4 articular receptors?

A

nociceptive, they monitor pain

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173
Q

type 4a articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

fibrous capsule, articular fat pads or adventitia of blood vessels

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174
Q

type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory ligamentsin general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine

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175
Q

what are the 3 modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A
  1. synovial villi
  2. articular fat pads or Haversian glands
  3. synovial menisci and intra-articular discs
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176
Q

what is the apparent function of synovial villi?

A

increase the surface of synovial membrane available for secretion-absorption phenomena

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177
Q

articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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178
Q

what are the specific functions of type A synovial cells?

A

phagocytic

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179
Q

what are the specific functions of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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180
Q

which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

A

type 2

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181
Q

what is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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182
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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183
Q

what is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoelastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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184
Q

what are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

it is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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185
Q

what is a complex synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint of the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

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186
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

plane (diarthrosis arthrodial)

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187
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

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188
Q

what morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal, and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

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189
Q

what morphological classification of synovial joints would be classified as multiaxial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis, spheroidal, cotyloid)

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190
Q

diarthrosis ginglymus joints are commonly called ______ joints based on action.

A

synovial hinge

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191
Q

diarthrosis trochoid joints are commonly called _______ joints based on action.

A

synovial pivot

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192
Q

what are the common ligaments of the vertebral column?

A

those ligaments commonly found between vertebral couples from C2/3 to L4/5

193
Q

what is the maximum number of common ligaments identified with a vertebral couple?

A

8

194
Q

what is the reason that 9 common ligaments are identified but only 8 will attached at any specific vertebral couple?

A

ligamentum nuchae and supraspinous ligaments attach to the spinous tubercles, but only one of these will be identified at a single vertebral couple

195
Q

in the fetus, which vertebral levels will demonstrate intervertebral discs?

A

those between C2 and Co1 inclusive

196
Q

what is the number of true intervertebral discs identified in the adult?

A

23

197
Q

in the adult, which vertebral levels will demonstrate a true intervertebral disc?

A

those between C2 and S1 inclusive

198
Q

what is the percent of intervertebral disc height contribution to the length of each region of the vertebral column?

A

cervical: 22-25%
thoracic: 20%
lumbar: 33%

199
Q

what is the effect of aging on the intervertebral disc nucleus pulposus?

A

it becomes more fibrous as water and proteoglycan concentrations diminish

200
Q

what is the cervical nucleus pulposus composed of?

A

fibrocartilage

201
Q

what is the consequence of non-aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar nucleus pulposus?

A

nucleus pulposus will lost water under deformation conditions

202
Q

what cells are associated with the nucleus pulposus until about age 11?

A

notochord cells

203
Q

what type of collagen is dominant in the nucelus pulposus?

A

type 2 collagen

204
Q

what is unusual about the cervical annulus fibrosus?

A

it lacks any lamellar or layered organization

205
Q

what is the appearance of the cervical annulus fibrosus?

A

a horse-shoe with the anterior margin thick and the lateral margins tapering to the uncinate processes; the posterior margin is thin

206
Q

what is the organization of the lumbar annulus fibrosus?

A

it has 12-14 concentric cylindrical lamellae

207
Q

what is the consequence of aggregated glycosaminoglycans in the lumbar annulus fibrosus?

A

the annulus fibrosus will retain water under deformation conditions

208
Q

which type of collagen is dominant in the annulus fibrosus?

A

collage type 1

209
Q

what is the organization pattern for collagen fibers in the annulus fibrosus?

A

they are parallel with one another in a single lamellus and angled

210
Q

what is the organization of collagen fibers between lamellae?

A

collagen fibers will be angled in the opposite direction such that a spiral- couterspiral organization is observed

211
Q

what is the average angle of collagen fibers within the annulus fibrosus?

A

they average 50-60 degrees

212
Q

what is the principal type of collagen fiber within the cartilage end plate?

A

type 2 collagen fiber

213
Q

what is the direction of collagen fibers within the cartilage end plate?

A

collagen fibers are aligned anterior to posterior

214
Q

what cell type is associated with the cartilage end plate?

A

chondrocytes

215
Q

what is the earliest indicator of intervertebral disc pathology or degeneration?

A

changes in the histology of the cartilage end plate

216
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc is the “growth plate”?

A

the transition zone

217
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc is innervated?

A

the outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus

218
Q

what are the types of receptor endings in the intervertebral disc?

A

nociceptors and proprioceptors

219
Q

what is the relationship between size of the intervertebral disc and receptor endings?

A

the larger the disc, the greater the variety of receptor endings

220
Q

what is the proposed function of receptor ending density in the anterior part of the intervertebral disc?

A

they provide feedback during extension

221
Q

what forms the posterior neural plexus of the vertebral column?

A

the sinu-vertebral nerve

sinus vertebral nerve, recurrent meningeal nerve

222
Q

what forms the anterior neural plexus of the vertebral column?

A

fibers from the ventral primary ramus

223
Q

what is the name given to the white ramus communicans which becomes embedded within the annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral disc?

A

the paradiscal ramus communicans

224
Q

what innervates the outer lamellae of the annulus fibrosus at the lateral part of the intervertebral disc?

A

fibers from the ventral primary ramus, white ramus communicans, paradiscal ramus communicans, gray ramus communicans

225
Q

what structure is formed following migration of sclerotomes to surround the notochord?

A

the perichordal blastema

226
Q

what is formed within the perichordal blastema between the sclerotomites?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

227
Q

what does the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner becomes?

A

the perichordal disc

228
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc will the notochord form?

A

the nucleus pulposus

229
Q

what part of the intervertebral disc will the perichordal disc form?

A

the annulus fibrosus

230
Q

what is the earliest indicator of the position of the adult intervertebral disc?

A

the intrasclerotomal fissure or fissure of von Ebner

231
Q

what vertebral levels will the anterior longitudinal ligament attach to?

A

those between occiput and S3 inclusive are traditionally indicated

232
Q

what is the function of the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

brakes or limits dorsi-flexion or hyperextension of the vertebral column

233
Q

what was ossification of the anterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar region identified as?

A

Forestier’s Disease

234
Q

anterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the lumbar region is now identified as _____?

A

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis or DISH

235
Q

what vertebral levels will the posterior longitudinal ligament attach to?

A

those between C2 and S3 inclusive are traditionally indicated

236
Q

newer research suggests what regional variation in the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

prominent in the cervicals, occasional in the thoracics, rate in the lumbars

237
Q

what is the relationship of the posterior longitudinal ligament to the vertebral foramen?

A

it forms the anterior boundary of the spinal cord

238
Q

what is the appearance of the posterior longitudinal ligament in the lumbar spine?

A

hourglass shaped along its lateral margins

239
Q

where is ossification of the posterior longitudinal ligament most commonly identified?

A

cervical spine with an 80% incidence

240
Q

what is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the cervical spine?

A

a loss of hand and finger dexterity

241
Q

what is the clinical sign of posterior longitudinal ligament ossification in the lumbar spine?

A

faltering gait

242
Q

what is the gender, age, and ethnic bias associated with ossification of the PLL?

A

greater in Japanese males over 50

243
Q

what is the acronym for ossification of the PLL?

A

OPLL

244
Q

at one time ossification of the PLL was an example of what condition?

A

DISH

Diffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyerostosis

245
Q

what vertebral levels will the ligamentum falvum be attached to?

A

between C2 and S1 inclusive are traditionally indicated

246
Q

what are the specific bony attaching sites for the ligamentum flavum?

A

the laminae

247
Q

what will the ligamentum flavum attach to in addition to the lamina?

A

they may blend with the capsular ligament of the zygapophysis

248
Q

what is the name given to the ligamentum flavum based on appearance and histology?

A

yellow elastic ligament

249
Q

what fibers are most ligaments made up of?

A

type 1 collagen fibers which are whitish in appearance

250
Q

what is the color of most ligaments in the body?

A

whitish

251
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the ligamentum flavum?

A

early prime factor in extension of the vertebral column

252
Q

where is ossification of the ligamentum flavum most common identified?

A

thoracic spine or thoracolumbar transition zone

253
Q

what is the acronym for ossification of the ligamentum flavum?

A

OLF

254
Q

what is the relationship between the capsular ligament and mobility?

A

the more lax/loose the capsular ligament is, the greater the motion of the joint

255
Q

what regions of the vertebral column demonstrate the greatest laxity of capsular ligaments?

A

the cervical and thoracic regions

256
Q

what layers are present in the capsular ligament?

A

superficial layer of collagen fibers and a deep layer of elastic fibers

257
Q

the capsular ligament may blend with which other common ligament?

A

ligamentum flavum

258
Q

what muscle will blend with the capsular ligament posteriorly?

A

multifidis

259
Q

what is the pattern of innervation for the zygapophysis capsular ligament?

A

typically innervated by 3 spinal nerves

260
Q

if the zygapophyseal capsular ligament is not significantly involved in restricting motion, what is its’ function?

A

it is probably involved in proprioceptive feedback to the muscles stabilizing the vertebral couple during movement

261
Q

what vertebral levels will the interspinous ligament be attached to?

A

those between C2 and S1 inclusive are traditionally indicated

262
Q

what is the status of the human interspinous ligament compared with other common ligaments?

A

they are poorly developed as ligaments although collagen fibers are present

263
Q

what is the status of the cervical interspinous ligament?

A

lacking, poorly developed, or simply considered the deep anterior part of the ligamentum nuchae

264
Q

what is the status of the lumbar interspinous ligament?

A

broad and thick with three layers identified from anterior to posterior

265
Q

what is the classic function of the interspinous ligament?

A

brakes or limits flexion of the vertebral column

266
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the interspinous ligament?

A

more likely a proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

267
Q

what will the ligamentum nuchae be attached to?

A

the EOP, external occipital crest, posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of C1, spinous tubercles between C2 and C7 inclusive are traditionally indicated

268
Q

what is the name given to the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

funicular layer or part

269
Q

what is the name given to the deep layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

lamellar layer or part

270
Q

what are the attachment sites for the superficial layer of the ligamentum nuchae?

A

EOP, external occipital crest, and spinous tubercle of C7

271
Q

what is the histological make-up of the ligamentum nuchae in quadrupeds?

A

yellow elastic ligament

272
Q

what is the primary yellow elastic or elastic ligament of the spine?

A

ligamentum flavum

273
Q

what will the supraspinous ligament be attached to?

A

spinous tubercles along the vertebral column from C7 to sacrum

274
Q

what is the termination level inferiorly for the supraspinous ligament according to current literature?

A

primarily at L4 (73%); between L4 and L5 (5%)

275
Q

where is the supraspinous ligament said to be best developed?

A

lumbar spine

276
Q

what is now thought to be a major function of the supraspinous ligament?

A

proprioceptive transducer for the spinal reflex

277
Q

what will the intertransverse ligament be attached to?

A

transverse tubercles and transverse process of adjacent vertebrae along the vertebral column from C1 to L5

278
Q

what is the status of the cervical intertransverse ligament?

A

said to be paired with an anterior and posterior intertransverse ligament present

279
Q

what is the status of the lumbar intertransverse ligament?

A

well developed with two parts identified, ventral and dorsal slip

280
Q

what part of the lumbar intertransverse ligament covers the intervertebral foramen?

A

ventral slip

281
Q

what part of the intertransverse ligament in the lumbar spine divides the body wall into an anterior muscular compartment and a posterior muscular compartment?

A

dorsal slip

282
Q

what are the attachment sites of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A

upper margin of the anterior arch of C1 and to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum

283
Q

what is the median thickening of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament called?

A

anterior longitudinal ligament

284
Q

what is the classic function of the anterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A

brakes or limits “extension” of the skull over the cervical bone

285
Q

what is the classic function of the posterior atlanto-occipital ligament?

A

brakes or limits axial rotation, flexion, and perhaps lateral bending of the skull on atlas

286
Q

what amount of flexion-extension is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about 25 degrees

287
Q

what amount of axial rotation is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

3-8 degrees one side axial rotation

288
Q

what amount of lateral bending is accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

about 5 degrees

289
Q

which motion is best accommodated by the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

flexion-extension

290
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the median atlanto-axial joint at the anterior bursa?

A

fovea dentis of C1 and facet for fovea dentis of C2

291
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the median atlanto-axial joint at the posterior bursa?

A

groove for the transverse atlantal ligament of C2 and the transverse atlantal ligament

292
Q

what ligament is formed by the transverse atlantal ligament and its perpendicular extension?

A

cruciate ligament or cruciform ligament

293
Q

what is the function of the transverse atlantal ligament?

A

primary stabilizer of the atlanto-axial joint restricting the distance of C2 from the anterior arch of C1

294
Q

what is the ADI?

A

Atlanto-Dental Interspace, a radiographic distance between the surface of the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint

295
Q

what is the ADI of children compared with that of adults?

A 
children= 4.5 mm
adults= range of 2-3 mm or about 2.5 mm
296
Q

what are the characteristics of the capsular ligament of the lateral atlanto-axial joint?

A

lax or loose and demonstrates a meniscoidal fold within the joint cavity

297
Q

where is accessory atlanto-axial ligament observed?

A

anterior to the membrane tectoria/tectorial membrane

298
Q

what are the attachment sites for the accessory atlanto-axial ligament?

A

base of the odontoid process and vertebral body of axis to the tubercle for the transverse atlantal ligament on the lateral mall of C1;
superior continuation may attach on the occipital bone just behind that of the alar ligament

299
Q

what ligament forms the posterior boundary of the spinal canal at the C1/C2 vertebral couple?

A

posterior atlanto-axial ligament

300
Q

what are the degrees of movement facilitated at the atlanto-axial joint?

A

about 20 degrees flexion-extension
40 degrees one side axial rotation
5 degrees of lateral bending

301
Q

the occiput-C1-C2 joint complex accounts for what percent of all cervical axial rotation?

A

about 60%

302
Q

what name is given to the occipital-C2 region of the spine?

A

craniovertebral junction

303
Q

what ligaments are present at the occipito-axial joint?

A

apical ligament of the dens/apicodental ligament, alar ligament and membrana tectoria/tectorial membrane

304
Q

what ligament attaches to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum and the tip of the odontoid process of C2?

A

the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament

305
Q

embryologically, what forms the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament?

A

the notochord

306
Q

what is the function of the apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament?

A

has no know function

307
Q

what ligament attaches to the posterolateral part of the odontoid process of C2 and to surfaces on the medial border of the occipital condyle or as far anterior as the anterolateral margin of the foramen magnum?

A

alar ligament

308
Q

what is the function of the alar ligament?

A

together they function to resist axial rotation

309
Q

what forms the cranial continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane

310
Q

what ligament is anterior to the dura mater of the medulla oblongata-spinal cord junction?

A

membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane

311
Q

what is the function of the membrana tectoria or tectorial membrane?

A

resists flexion and extension of the skull on the upper cervical spine

312
Q

list, in order, the ligaments in a midsagittal plane from the dura mater at the level of the medulla oblongata to the anterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint.

A
  1. membrane tectoria/tectorial membrane
  2. cruciate ligament
  3. capsular ligament of the posterior bursa of the median atlanto-axial joint
  4. apical ligament of the dens or the apicodental ligament
313
Q

for the cervical spine below C2, what is the range of flexion-extension?

A

about 90 degrees or about 18 degrees per couple

314
Q

for the cervical spine below C2, what is the range of one side lateral bending?

A

about 50 degrees or about 10 degrees per couple

315
Q

for the cervical spine below C2, what is the range of one side axial rotation?

A

about 33 degrees or about 6 degrees per couple

316
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the costocentral joint of the first, 11th, and 12th ribs?

A

the superior costal facet on the vertebral body of T1, T11, or T12 and the articular surface of the head of the first, 11th or 12th rib

317
Q

an intra-articular ligament will be identified with which ribs?

A

ribs 2-9

318
Q

at what rib will the superior costotransverse ligament be absent?

A

1st rib

319
Q

what ligaments will attach to the neck of the 12th rib?

A

superior costotransverse ligament from T11 and the lumbocostal ligament from L1

320
Q

which ribs will have an attachment from the inferior costotransverse ligament?

A

rib 1- rib 11

321
Q

which ligament “fills” the costotransverse foramen?

A

inferior costotransverse ligament

322
Q

which vertebrae will have an attachment for the lateral costotransverse ligament?

A

T1-T11

323
Q

at what rib will the lateral costotransverse ligament be absent?

A

12th rib

324
Q

which vertebral couples of the thoracic spine have the greatest motion?

A

T11/T12 and T12/L1

325
Q

which range of motion is greatest for lower thoracic vertebral couples?

A

flexion-extension

326
Q

which range of motion is least for lower thoracic vertebral couples?

A

one side axial rotation

327
Q

which ligaments replace the intertransverse ligament at the lumbosacral joint?

A

iliolumbar and lumbosacral ligament

328
Q

what muscle is intimately attached to the superior iliolumbar ligament?

A

quadratus lumborum

329
Q

which of the current ligaments from the iliolumbar complex represents the iliolumbar ligament of classical descriptions?

A

superior iliolumbar ligament

330
Q

which ligament from the iliolumbar ligament complex represents the lumbosacral ligament classical descriptions?

A

inferior iliolumbar ligament

331
Q

which vertebral couple of the lumbar spine has the greatest range of motion?

A

L5/S1

332
Q

which range of motion is least for L1-L5 vertebral couples?

A

one side axial rotation

333
Q

which range of motion is least for the L5/S1 vertebral couple?

A

one side lateral bending

334
Q

what ligament represents the continuation of the posterior longitudinal ligament at the sacrococcygeal joint?

A

deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

335
Q

list, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the anterior boundary of the spinal canal.

A
  1. membrana tectoria
  2. PLL
  3. deep posterior sacrococcygeal ligament
336
Q

what ligament represents the homolog of the ligamentum flavum at the sacrococcygeal joint?

A

superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament

337
Q

list, in order, from cranial to caudal the ligaments forming the posterior boundary of the spinal canal.

A
  1. posterior atlanto-occipital ligament
  2. posterior atlanto-axial ligament
  3. ligamentum flavum
  4. superficial posterior sacrococcygeal ligament
338
Q

what is homolog of the intertransverse ligament at the sacrococcygeal joint?

A

lateral sacrococcygeal ligament

339
Q

what is homolog of the capsular ligament at the sacrococcygeal joint?

A

intercornual ligament

340
Q

what is the auricular surface of the sacrum composed of?

A

true articular cartilage, a modification of hyaline cartilage

341
Q

what is the auricular surface of the ilium composed of?

A

articular cartilage, interspersed with fibrocartilage

342
Q

which gender has greater unevenness of the auricular surface of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

males

343
Q

what forms the accessory sacro-iliac joint?

A

the sacral tuberosity and iliac sulcus

344
Q

what pathological or age related modification of the sacro-iliac joint may occur?

A

degenerative arthrosis and ankylosis

345
Q

what is the age and surface bias associated with degenerative arthorsis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

age 40, iliac auricular surface

346
Q

what is the age and gender bias associated with ankylosis of the sacro-iliac joint?

A

age 50 and male bias particularly n African American males

347
Q

which is the strongest of the sacro-iliac ligaments?

A

interosseous sacro-iliac ligament

348
Q

what passes between the layers of the interosseous sacro-iliac ligament?

A

dorsal rami from the sacral spinal plexus

349
Q

what ligament blends with the lateral border of the long posterior sacro-iliac ligament?

A

sacrotuberous ligament

350
Q

what is formed by the continuation of the sacrotuberous ligament along the ischial ramus?

A

the falciform process

351
Q

what separates the greater sciatic and lesser sciatic foramina?

A

the sacrospinous ligament

352
Q

what vertebral levels correspond to the position of the manubrium sterni?

A

T3-T4

353
Q

what separates the manubrium sterni and the corpus sterni?

A

manubriosternal symphysis

354
Q

what vertebral levels correspond to the position of the corpus sterni?

A

T5-T9

355
Q

how many sternabrae form the corpus sterni?

A

4 sternabrae

356
Q

what surface feature on the corpus sterni identifies the location of the synchondroses?

A

transverse lines

357
Q

what articular sites for the costal cartilage of ribs will be identified on the corpus sterni?

A

costal notches II-VII

358
Q

what feature of the corpus sterni is present in 4-7% of the population?

A

a sternal foramen

359
Q

what are the primary parts of the vertebral end of a typical rib?

A

the head, neck, and tubercle

360
Q

what attaches to the crest of the neck of the rib?

A

superior costotransverse ligament

361
Q

what attaches to the non-articular surface of the tubercle of a rib?

A

the lateral costotransverse ligament

362
Q

what features may be identified on the body (corpus or shaft) of a typical rib?

A

the costal angle and costal groove

363
Q

what attaches to the costal angle of a rib?

A

iliocostalis muscle and thoracolumbar aponeurosis/fascia

364
Q

what attaches to the scalene tubercle of the first rib?

A

anterior scalene muscle

365
Q

which groove on the body (corpus or shaft) of the first rib is close to the vertebral end?

A

the groove for the subclavian artery and the first thoracic nerve

366
Q

which groove on the body of the first rib is close to the sternal end?

A

groove for the subclavian vein

367
Q

is either the costal angle or costal groove apparent on the first rib?

A

neither the costal angle not costal groove are apparent on the first rib

368
Q

what does the interarticular ligament of the head of the second rib joint with?

A

the interarticular crest on the head of the second rib and the intervertebral disc between T1 and T2

369
Q

what specifically will attach to the crest of the neck of the second rib?

A

superior costotransverse ligament from the transverse process of T1

370
Q

what specifically attaches to the back of the neck of the second rib?

A

inferior costotransverse ligament from the transverse process of T2

371
Q

what specifically attaches to the non-articular surface of the tubercle of the second rib?

A

lateral costotransverse ligament from the transverse tubercle of the T2

372
Q

what unique feature is present on the body of the second rib?

A

tuberosity for the serratus anterior

373
Q

what features are identified on the body of rib 10?

A

costal angle and costal groove

374
Q

what features may be present on the body of the 11th rib?

A

costal angle and costal groove are under-developed

375
Q

what are the classifications of rib 3-7 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs

376
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical, true ribs, costa verae, vertebrosternal ribs

377
Q

what are the classification of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, vertebrochondral ribs

378
Q

what are the classifications of rib 10 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, vertebrochondral ribs

379
Q

what are the classifications of ribs 11 and 12 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

atypical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, vertebral ribs

380
Q

what are the examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?

A

most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and anterior thorax

381
Q

which cartilage joint forms between ossification centers within a cartilage template?

A

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

382
Q

what classification of cartilage joint is primary, temporary, and composed of hyaline cartilage?

A

(amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

383
Q

what are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

costochondral joints of the first sternochondral joint

384
Q

which cartilage joint occurs between bones formed by endochondral ossification?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

385
Q

what are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

386
Q

which ribs demonstrate costochondral joints?

A

all 12 ribs

387
Q

what are the joint surfaces of the costochondral joint?

A

costal cartilage with the sternal end of each rib

388
Q

what is the joint classification of the costochondral joint?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

389
Q

what is the sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

the joint between the costal cartilage and the costal notches of the sternum

390
Q

what ribs will participate in the sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

rib 1-7

391
Q

what is the classification of the first sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis

392
Q

what is the classification the second-seventh sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia)

393
Q

which of the sternocostal or sternochondral ligaments is unique to the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

the intra-articular ligament

394
Q

what joint classification is associated with the intra-articular ligament of the second sternocostal or sternochondral joint?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

395
Q

what is the classification of the 6th-9th interchondral joints?

A

synovial plane (diarthorsis arthordia)

396
Q

what is the classification of the 5th-6th or 9th to 10th interchondral joint?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

397
Q

which costal cartilages fail to form a joint at their sternal end?

A

11th and 12 costal cartilages

398
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the manubrium?

A

1-3 centers have been identified

399
Q

how many primary centers of ossification appear in the corpus sterni?

A

typically 6

400
Q

what are the locations of the primary centers of ossification in the corpus sterni?

A

one in each of the first two sternabrae and bilateral centers in the last two sternabrae

401
Q

in what part of the sternum will a secondary center of ossification appear?

A

the xiphoid process

402
Q

in what part of the rib will primary centers of ossification appear?

A

body (corpus, shaft)

403
Q

in what parts of the rib will secondary centers of ossification appear?

A

head, articular and non-articular surface of the tubercle

404
Q

which ribs will demonstrate primary centers of ossification for the body?

A

all ribs (1-12)

405
Q

which ribs will demonstrate secondary centers of ossification?

A

ribs 1-10

406
Q

how does rib 1 differ in ossification centers from typical ribs?

A

rib 1 has two secondary centers of ossification: one for the head and one for the tubercle; typical ribs have three secondary centers of ossification

407
Q

how do ribs 11 and 12 differ in ossification centers from typical ribs?

A

ribs 11 and 12 do not have secondary centers of ossification

408
Q

what are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints based on Latin groupings?

A

suture, gomphosis, schindylesis, and syndesmosis

409
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura vera (true sutures)?

A

sutures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembranous ossification

410
Q

what are the characteristics of sutura notha (false sutures)?

A

sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

411
Q

which sutures will interlock and overlap at their edges?

A

limbous sutures

412
Q

what sutures demonstrate non-interlock, but will overlap at their edges?

A

squamous sutures

413
Q

which sutures will neither interlock not overlap at their edges?

A

harmonia sutures

414
Q

what is the classification of a joint with a “fissure-like” condition?

A

schindylesis

415
Q

what are the typical examples of the plane suture or harmonia suture?

A

cruciate suture made up of the intermaxiallry, interpalatine and palato-maxillary sutures

416
Q

what are the examples of the gomphosis joint?

A

maxilla- root of tooth; mandible- root of tooth

417
Q

what forms a bullet-like chin?

A

a large mental protuberance

418
Q

what forms an indented chin?

A

well developed bilateral mental tubercles and a slight mental protuberance

419
Q

what is the tip of the external occipital protuberance called?

A

inion

420
Q

what is the name of the linear elevation lateral to the EOP?

A

superior nuchal line

421
Q

what is the appearance of suture intersections just above the zygomatic arch called?

A

pterion

422
Q

what points on the skull are used to measure the skull size?

A

nasion, vertex, inion, and gnathion

423
Q

what points on the skill are used to measure cranial vault capacity?

A

nasion vertex, and inion

424
Q

what is the appearance of the suture intersections over the hard palate called?

A

cruciate or cruciform suture

425
Q

what is the posterior boundary of the anterior cranial fossa?

A

a line drawn along the lesser wing of the sphenoid, anterior clinoid processes, and sphenoidal jugum

426
Q

what ostia are observed in the anterior cranial fossa?

A

cribriform plate, anterior and posterior ehtmoid formina and foramen cecum

427
Q

what passes through the cribriform plate?

A

fila olfactoria of cranial nerve I, the olfactory nerve

428
Q

what is the posterior boundary of the middle crania fossa?

A

superior border of petrous part of temporal bone, posterior clinoid processes and dorsum sella of sphenoid bone

429
Q

what prominent parts of the brain rest on the middle cranial fossa?

A

temporal poles of temporal lobes of cerebrum, hypophyseal cerebri, optic chiasm

430
Q

what bony feature is prominent in the median place of the middle cranial fossa?

A

sella turcica

431
Q

which cranial nerves exit the skull via middle cranial fossa ostia?

A

cranial nerves II, III, IV, V, and VI

432
Q

what are the contents of the optic canal?

A

the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

433
Q

what are the contents of the superior orbital fissure?

A

ophthalmic veins, oculomotor nerve, trochlear nerve, ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and the abducent nerve

434
Q

the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via which opening?

A

the foramen rotundum

435
Q

what are the contents of the foramen ovale?

A

mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (Vc) and the lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve

436
Q

the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve exits the middle cranial fossa via which opening?

A

the foramen ovale

437
Q

what are the contents of the foramen spinosum?

A

nervus spinosus from the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve and the middle meningeal artery

438
Q

what opening allows a branch of cranial nerve Vc to enter the middle cranial fossa from the infratemporal region?

A

foramen spinosum

439
Q

which ostia will not exit the skull from the middle cranial fossa in the living person?

A

foramen lacerum, hiatus for the greater (superficial) petrosal nerve and the hiatus for the lesser petrosal nerve

440
Q

what forms the roof of the posterior cranial fossa?

A

tentorium cerebelli

441
Q

what part of the central nerve system occupies the posterior cranial fossa?

A

cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata

442
Q

which cranial nerves exit posterior cranial fossa ostia?

A 
CN VII (facial)
CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)
CN IX (glossopharyngeal) 
CN X (vagus)
CN XI (spinal accessory) 
CN XII (hypoglossal)
443
Q

meningeal nerves in the foramen magnum are derived from which cord levels?

A

C1-C3 cord levels

444
Q

which arteries arise in the posterior cranial fossa and descend through the foramen magnum to supply the spinal cord?

A

anterior and posterior spinal arteries

445
Q

what are the contents of the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CNs VII and VIII
nervus intermedius/nerve of Wrisberg/sensory root of VII and the motor root of VII
vestibular and cochlear roots of VII
internal auditory/internal labyrinthine artery and vein

446
Q

what are the contents of the jugular foramen?

A

jugular bulb
inferior petrosal sinus
tympanic body/tympanic glomus or jugular body/glomus
CNs IX, X, and XI

447
Q

what can the five layers of the scalp spell?

A 
S- skin
C- connective tissue
A- aponeurosis
L- loose connective tissue
P- periosteum
448
Q

what are the principal sources of blood to the scalp?

A

internal and external carotid artery branches

449
Q

which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the scalp?

A

all 3 divisions:
ophthalmic nerve
maxillary nerve
mandibular nerve

450
Q

what ventral rami nerve(s) and cord levels of origin supply the scalp?

A

greater auricular nerve- C2, C3 ventral rami branches; lesser occipital nerve- C2 (C3) ventral rami branches

451
Q

which dorsal ramus nerve branch (name and cord level of origin) supplies the scalp?

A

greater occipital nerve- C2, C3 communicating ramus

452
Q

what type of motor fibers to skeletal muscle are given off by the facial nerve?

A

Branchial Efferent (BE)

453
Q

what are the lymph nodes located along the base of the head collectively called?

A

collar chain nodes

454
Q

what is third layer of the scalp associated with?

A

muscular component of the scalp

455
Q

what is unusual/unique about the muscle of the face?

A

they do not act as lever muscles; they do not attach to bone at both origin and insertion

456
Q

which muscles lack any attachment to bone?

A

orbicularis oris, procerus, and risorius

457
Q

what is the source of innervation for all muscles of facial expression?

A

facial nerve branches

458
Q

which divisions of the trigeminal nerve receive sensory information from the face?

A

all 3 divisions: ophthalmic nerve, maxillary nerve, and mandibular nerve

459
Q

what opening(s) are located along the superior wall of the orbit?

A

optic canal

460
Q

what is the name given to the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lamina papyracea

461
Q

what features may be observed on the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lacrimal groove, fossa for the lacrimal sac, anterior ethmoid foramen and posterior ethmoid foramen

462
Q

what opening(s) are located along the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

superior orbital fissure

463
Q

what opening(s) are located along the inferior wall of the orbit?

A

inferior orbital fissure

464
Q

what is contained in the inferior orbital fissure?

A

maxillary division of trigeminal nerve

465
Q

what are the layers of the eyelid?

A

skin, orbicularis oculi muscle, tarsal plate/tarsus, and palpebral conjunctiva

466
Q

what are the names given to the modified sebaceous gland in the tarsus of the eyelid?

A

tarsal or Meibomian gland

467
Q

what is the function of the Meibomian gland?

A

produces a thick, hydophobic substance that prevents tears from overflowing onto the cheeks along the margin of the eyelid

468
Q

what is the ciliary gland?

A

modified sebaceous gland at the base of the eyelash

469
Q

what are the names given to the modified sebaceous glands of the palpebra?

A

tarsal gland or Meobomian gland and ciliary gland

470
Q

what is the name given to the inner mucous membrane of the eyelid?

A

palpebral conjunctiva

471
Q

which cranial nerves are involved in the Visceral Efferent (VE) parasympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

facial and trigeminal (maxillary and ophthalmic divisions/branches)

472
Q

preganglionic visceral efferent fibers of CN VII will exit the pons in what nerve?

A

nervus intermedius, nerve of Wrisberg, sensory root of facial nerve

473
Q

what are the names of the ganglion of synapse in the efferent pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

pterygopalatine ganglion, sphenopalatine ganglion, Meckel’s ganglion

474
Q

parasympathetic stimulation of blood vessels in the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasodilation of blood vessels, increased availability of water to secretory units, thinner or more watery product in lumen

475
Q

what is the origin for the sympathetic pathway to the lacrimal gland?

A

lateral horn/intermediolateral cell column T1, T2

476
Q

sympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland will result in what events?

A

vasoconstriction of blood vessels, limited availability of water to secretory units, more viscous or thicker product formed in glandular lumen

477
Q

what are the names of the layers of the eyeball?

A

fibrous tunic, uveal tract, and retina

478
Q

what are the parts of the fibrous tunic of the eyeball?

A

cornea and sclera

479
Q

what are the parts of the uveal tract of the eyeball?

A

iris, ciliary body, choroid, and pupil

Spinal Anatomy (4 decks)

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