Exam 3 Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What type of hypersensitivity occurs within hours if prior sensitized

A

Type II

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2
Q

How quickly can type II hypersensitivity occur if it is prior sensitized

A

within hours

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3
Q

Type II hypersensitivity can occur within hours if …

A

prior sensitized

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4
Q

What type of hypersensitivity includes the fixation of complement results in target cell lysis or phagocytosis of antibody coated phagocytes

A

Type II

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5
Q

Type II hypersensitivity has what cells involved

A

Target cell lysis

Phagocytosis

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6
Q

What Ig classes are important for type II hypersensitivity

A

IgG

IgM

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7
Q

What type of hypersensitivity uses IgG and IgM

A

Type II

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8
Q

What type of hypersensitivity has a clinical syndrome that consists of cytolysis of antibody coated cells leading to anemia, thrombocytopenia or neutropenia

A

Type II

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9
Q

Type II hypersensitivities have a clinical syndrome of

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia

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10
Q

Type II hypersensitivity is also known as

A

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

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11
Q

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type II

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12
Q

What type of hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies and complement destroy normal/healthy cells

A

Type II

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13
Q

Type II hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies and complement do what

A

destroy normal/healthy cells

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14
Q

What type of hypersensitivity has destruction of transfused RBCs when administered to mismatched recipient

A

Type II

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15
Q

Type II hypersensitivity results in destruction of what

A

transfused RBCs

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16
Q

What causes transfused RBCs to be destroyed

A

Administration to a mismatched recipient

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17
Q

What happens to RBCs when they are administered to a mismatched recipient

A

Destruction

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18
Q

When destruction of RBCs occurs disease is due to what

A

lysis of transfused RBCs

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19
Q

What components play a role in lysis of transfused RBCs

A

antibodies and complement

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20
Q

Antibodies and complement play a role in

A

lysis of transfused RBCs

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21
Q

Mothers may become sensitized by their fetus during pregnancy and make antibodies against

A

Fetal RBCs

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22
Q

Antibodies against fetal RBCs, when ingested in colostrum cause destruction of

A

Newborn animals RBCs

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23
Q

Newborn animals RBCs are destroyed when ___ is ingested in colostrum

A

Antibodies against fetal RBCs

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24
Q

When newborn animals ingest colostrum with antibodies against fetal RBCs, this disease is known as

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn

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25
Q

What happens in hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

Ingests colostrum with antibodies against fetal RBCs

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26
Q

Some vaccines may induce anti-MHC antibodies in what animals

A

cows

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27
Q

In cows, some vaccines may induce ___ antibodies

A

anti-MHC

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28
Q

In cows what can induce anti-MHC antibodies

A

Vaccine

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29
Q

In cows vaccine can induce anti-MHC ___

A

antibodies

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30
Q

What occurs if anti-MHC antibodies are ingested in colostrum

A

lethal pancytopenia in calves

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31
Q

Lethal pancytopenia in calves occurs how

A

ingestion of colostrum with anti-MHC antibodies

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32
Q

When ingested in colostrum ____ cause lethal pancytopenia in calves

A

anti-MHC antibodies

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33
Q

How do calves obtain lethal pancytopenia

A

Colostrum

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34
Q

Lethal pancytopenia in calves is due to what antibodies

A

anti-MHC

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35
Q

Lethal pancytopenia is induce by what

A

vaccines

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36
Q

Vaccines can induce what in calves due to their mother

A

Lethal pancytopenia

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37
Q

What may bind to blood cells and make them targets of antibodies in type II reactions

A

Drugs

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38
Q

Drugs may bind to what and make them targets of antibodies in type II reactions

A

blood cells

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39
Q

Drugs may bind to blood cells and make them targets of ___ in type II reactions

A

antibodies

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40
Q

Drugs may bind to blood cells and make them targets of antibodies in what type of reactions

A

Type II

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41
Q

What antibodies may cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

A

IgM

IgG

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42
Q

What antibody cannot cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

A

IgE

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43
Q

True/False

IgM, IgG and IgE may cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

A

False

NOT IgE

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44
Q

____ may cause disease by binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

A

IgM

IgG

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45
Q

What does not cause disease when binding to their target antigens in cells and tissues

A

IgE

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46
Q

IgG and IgM may cause disease by binding to their target ___

A

antigen

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47
Q

Antibodies that cause disease most often are

A

autoantibodies against self antigens

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48
Q

Autoantibodies against self antigens cause disease how often

A

Most often

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49
Q

Rare cases involve antibodies specific for ___antigens

A

foreign

microbial

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50
Q

What type of antigens are microbial

A

Foreign

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51
Q

Foreign antigens are also known as what type of antigens

A

microbial

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52
Q

Following ___ infections some invididuals produce anti-streptococcal antibodies that cross react with heart tissue

A

Streptococcal

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53
Q

Streptococcal infections cause individuals to produce anti-steptococcal antibodies that do what

A

cross react

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54
Q

What do anti-streptococcal antibodies cross react with

A

heart tissue

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55
Q

When anti-streptococcal antibodies cross react with heart tissue it induces what

A

rheumatic fever

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56
Q

Rheumatic fever is what type of disease

A

inflammatory

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57
Q

True/False

Rheumatic fever can lead to acute heart failure

A

True

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58
Q

Rheumatic fever can lead to what

A

acute heart failure

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59
Q

what inflammatory disease can lead to acute heart failure

A

rheumatic fever

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60
Q

Injury caused by anti-tissue antibody causes complement and Fc receptor mediated recruitment and activation of

A

inflammatory cells

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61
Q

What occurs to cause complement and Fc receptor mediated recruitment and activation of inflammatory cells

A

Injury caused by anti-tissue antibody

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62
Q

Antibodies can form ____ complexes

A

Immune

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63
Q

What can form immune complexes

A

antibodies

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64
Q

Where do immune complexes deposit

A
  1. Blood vessels

2. Organs

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65
Q

What deposit in blood vessels and organs

A

immune complexes

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66
Q

When immune complexes are deposited in blood vessels it causes what

A

Vasculitis

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67
Q

Vasculitis is caused when what are deposited in blood vessels

A

Immune complexes

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68
Q

Vasculitis is caused when immne complexes are deposited where

A

blood vessels

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69
Q

When immune complexes are deposited in organs, anti-streptococcal antibodies deposit where

A

Kidney gloemruli

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70
Q

When anti-streptococcal antibodies deposit in kidney glomeruli it causes what

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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71
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused when what are deposited in kideny glomeruli

A

Streptococcal antibodies

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72
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is caused when streptococcal antibodies are depostied where

A

kidney glomeruli

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73
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis can lead to

A

renal failure

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74
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is what type of disease

A

antibody-mediated

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75
Q

Rheumatic fever is what type of disease

A

antibody-mediated

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76
Q

Immune complex-mediated tissue injury causes complement and Fc receptor-mediated recruitment and activation of

A

inflammatory cells

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77
Q

Antibodies specific for cell antigens may bind to and promote ____

A

destruction of cells

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78
Q

Antibodies specific for cell antigens may bind to and interfere with

A

normal cellular functions

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79
Q

2 effector mechanisms of antibody-mediated diseases

A

opsonization and phagocytosis

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80
Q

opsonization and phagocytosis are effector mechanisms of what diseases

A

antibody-mediated

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81
Q

Antibodies specific for tissue antigens may deposit in

A

tissues

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82
Q

Antibodies specific for tissue antigens may deposit in tissues and cause injury by

A

inducing local inflammation

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83
Q

Complement and Fc receptor-mediated inflammation are effector mechanisms of what diseases

A

antibody-mediated

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84
Q

Antibodies specific for tissue antigens may deposit in tissues and cause disease by interfering with

A

normal cellular functions

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85
Q

antibodies against ach receptor cause

A

paralysis

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86
Q

Paralysis is caused when there are antibodies against

A

Ach receptor

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87
Q

What is it called when antibodies against Ach receptor cause paralysis

A

myasthenia gravis

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88
Q

myasthenia gravis is when antibodies against Ach receptor cause

A

paralysis

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89
Q

Anti-TSH antibody induce

A

hyperthyroidism

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90
Q

Graves disease is known as

A

Hyperthyroidism

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91
Q

Hyperthyroidism is known as

A

Graves disease

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92
Q

Graves disease occurs when ___ antibody induce hyperthyroidism

A

Anti-TSH

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93
Q

Antibody stimulates receptor without hormone

Antibody inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to receptor

these are 2 effector mechanisms of

A

antibody-mediated disease

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94
Q

Antibody can stimulate receptors without

A

hormone

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95
Q

Antibody inhibits binding of ___ to receptor

A

neurotransmitter

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96
Q

Antibody inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to

A

receptor

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97
Q

____inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to receptor

A

Antibody

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98
Q

___ stimulate receptor without hormone

A

Antibody

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99
Q

Does this cause cell/tissue injury

Antibody stimulates receptor without hormone

Antibody inhibits binding of neurotransmitter to receptor

A

No!

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100
Q

What disease has a target antigen of erythrocyte membrane proteins

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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101
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is what type of disease

A

antibody-mediated

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102
Q

What is the target antigen of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Erythrocyte membrane proteins

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103
Q

Examples of erythrocyte membrane proteins

A

Rh blood group antigens

I antigen

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104
Q

Rh blood group antigens
I antigen
are what type of target antigen

A

Erythrocyte membrane proteins

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105
Q

What disease has opsonization and phagocytosis of erythrocytes

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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106
Q

What is the mechanism of disease of autoimune hemolytic anemia

A

Opsonization and phagocytosis of erythrocytes

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107
Q

What is the result of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Hemolysis

Anemia

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108
Q

Hemolysis and anemia are the manifestations of what disease

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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109
Q

Autoimmune (idiopathic) thrombocytopenic purpura is what type of disease

A

Antibody-mediated

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110
Q

what disease has a target antigen of platelet membrane proteins

A

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

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111
Q

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura has what type of target antigen

A

Platlet membrane proteins

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112
Q

Examples of platelet membrane proteins

A

gbIIb/IIIa integrin

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113
Q

gpIIb/IIIa integrins are what type of target antigen

A

platelet membrane proteins

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114
Q

What disease has opsonization and phagocytosis of platelets

A

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

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115
Q

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura has what mechanism of disease

A

opsonization and phagocytosis of platelets

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116
Q

What is the result of Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Bleeding

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117
Q

What disease has the manifestation of bleeding

A

Autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura

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118
Q

What type of disease is graves disease (hyperthyroidism)

A

Antibody-mediated

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119
Q

What disease has a target antigen of thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor (TSH)

A

Graves disease

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120
Q

Graves disease has a target antigen of what

A

TSH

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121
Q

What disease has antibody-mediated stimulation of TSH receptors

A

Graves disease

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122
Q

What is the mechanism of Graves disease

A

Stimulation of TSH receptors

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123
Q

What is the result of graves disease

A

Hyperthyroidism

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124
Q

What disease has the manifestation of hyperthyroidism

A

Graves disease

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125
Q

What type of disease is myasthenia gravis

A

antibody-mediated

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126
Q

What disease has the target antigen acetylchline receptor

A

Myasthenia gravis

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127
Q

Myasthenia gravis has what target antigen

A

acetylcholine receptor

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128
Q

what disease has antibody that inhibits acetylcholine binding and down modulates receptors

A

Myasthenia gravis

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129
Q

What is the mechanism of myasthenia gravis

A

Antibody inhibits acetylcholine binding

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130
Q

What disease causes muscle weakness and paralysis

A

myasthenia gravis

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131
Q

What are the manifestations of myasthenia gravis

A

Muscle weakness

Paralysis

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132
Q

What type of disease is rheumatic fever

A

antibody-mediated

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133
Q

What disease has a target antigen of streptococcal cell wall antigen

A

Rheumatic fever

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134
Q

What disease has a target antigen of antibody cross reacting with myocardial antigen

A

Rheumatic fever

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135
Q

What are the 2 target antigens of rheumatic fever

A

Streptococcal cell wall

cross-reaction with myocardial antigen

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136
Q

What disease has a mechanism of inflammation and macrophage activation

A

rheumatic fever

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137
Q

What is the mechanism of Rheumatic fever

A

Inflammation

Macrophage activation

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138
Q

What is the overall effect of Rheumatic fever

A

Myocarditis and arthritis

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139
Q

What disease has manifestations of myocarditis and arthritis

A

Rheumatic fever

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140
Q

What type of disease is pemphigus vulgaris

A

Antibody-medited

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141
Q

What disease has proteins in intracellular junctions of epidermal cells (epidermal cadherin)

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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142
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris has a target antigen of

A

proteins in epidermal cells

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143
Q

What disease has antibody-mediated activation of proteases, and disruption of intracellular adhesions

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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144
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris has what mechanism of disease

A

Activation of proteases

Distruption of intracellular adhesion

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145
Q

What disease has manifestations of skin vesicles (bullae)

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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146
Q

What are the manifestations of Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Skin vesicles

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147
Q

Skin vesicles are also called

A

bullae

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148
Q

Bullae are known as

A

skin vesicles

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149
Q

Allo-immune reactions caused by incompatibility between donor and recipient can cause what

A

Type iI hypersensitivity

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150
Q

Allo-immune reactions are caused by ___ between donor and recipient

A

incompatibility

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151
Q

Allo-immune reactions are caused by incompatibility between ___ and ____

A

donor and recipient

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152
Q

___reactions are caused by incompatibility between donor and recipient

A

Allo-immune

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153
Q

Blood transfusion reactions are due to

A

blood group incompatibility

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154
Q

Blood group incompatibility causes

A

blood transfusion reactions

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155
Q

Allo-immune reactions can cause what type of reactions

A

blood transfusion reactions

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156
Q

____ define blood types

A

Erythrocyte Glycoproteins

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157
Q

Erythrocycte Glycoproteins are ___

A

antigens

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158
Q

Erythrocyte Glycoproteins define

A

blood types

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159
Q

Natural antibodies are made to antigens on

A

bacteria or food

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160
Q

When are natural antibodies made

A

first days of life

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161
Q

What type of antibodies are made to antigens of bacteria or food during first days of life

A

Natural

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162
Q

Antigens from natural antibodies have similar epitopes as

A

blood type glycoproteins

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163
Q

Blood type glycoproteins have similar epitopes as

A

antigens from natural antibodies

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164
Q

Anti-glycoprotein antibodies react with ____

A

RBC antigens

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165
Q

What type of antibodies react with RBC antigens

A

Anti-glycoprotein

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166
Q

What blood type is not found in cats

A

Type O

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167
Q

Type O blood type is not found in what species

A

cat

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168
Q

What are the 3 blood types of humans and cats

A

A
B
AB

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169
Q

Type A, B and AB are blood types of

A

humans and cats

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170
Q

What blood type is the universal recipient

A

Type AB

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171
Q

Type AB has what special feature

A

universal recipient

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172
Q

What blood type is the universal donor of packed red blood cells

A

Type O

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173
Q

Type O has what 2 special features

A

No antigens

Universal donor of packed RBCs

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174
Q

What blood type does not have antigens

A

Type O

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175
Q

Type O blood does not have

A

antigens

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176
Q

What is the plasma antibody for Type A blood

A

Anti-B

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177
Q

Anti-B is the plasma antibody for what blood type

A

Type A

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178
Q

What is the plasma antibody for type B blood

A

Anti-A

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179
Q

Anti-A is the plasma antibody for what blood type

A

Type B

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180
Q

Anti-A has what 2 Ig classes

A

IgG

IgM

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181
Q

IgG and IgM are found in what blood type

A

Type B

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182
Q

What plasma antibody has IgG and IgM

A

Anti-A

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183
Q

What blood type has no antibodies to red cell antigens

A

Type AB

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184
Q

What is the plasma antibody of Type AB

A

No antibodies to red cell antigens

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185
Q

What blood type has the plasma antibody Anti-A Anti-B

A

Type O

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186
Q

Type O has what plasma antibody

A

Anti-A

Anti-B

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187
Q

What is the half life of transfused blood

A

1 hour

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188
Q

Why can cats with Grp B blood type go into shock with 1 mL of Grp A blood

A

High titer IgM anti-A antibodies

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189
Q

Can cats with Grp B blood go into shock with 1 mL of Grp A blood

A

Yes

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190
Q

Which group is dominant in USA

A

Grp A (A antigen)

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191
Q

Which group has anti-B antibodies

A

Grp A

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192
Q

Which group is seen mainly in Europe/Australia (Persian cats)

A

Grp B (B antigen)

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193
Q

Which group has anti-A antibodies

A

Grp B

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194
Q

which blood type is rare in cats

A

AB antigens

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195
Q

On a card test for feline blood groups agglutination =positive/negative

A

Positive

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196
Q

On a card test for feline blood groups smooth = positive/negative

A

Negative

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197
Q

On a card test for feline blood groups what indicates negative

A

smooth

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198
Q

On a card test for feline blood groups what indicates positive

A

agglutination

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199
Q

Each spot on the card has ____ impregnated

A

antibody

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200
Q

How much blood should you add to a spot

A

a drop

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201
Q

What indicates the antibody is bound to RBC glycoproteins

A

Agglutination

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202
Q

Agglutination of RBCs indicates ___ is bound to ____

A

antibody

RBC glycoproteins

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203
Q

DEA 1.1, 1.2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 are blood types of what species

A

Dog

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204
Q

What does DEA stand for

A

Dog erythrocyte antigen

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205
Q

How many blood groups does the dog have

A

8

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206
Q

How many blood groups do cattle have

A

11

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207
Q

Which species has 11 blood groups

A

Cattle

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208
Q

How many blood groups do horses have

A

7

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209
Q

Which species has 7 blood groups

A

Horses

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210
Q

How many blood groups do pigs have

A

16

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211
Q

Which species has 16 blood groups

A

Pigs

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212
Q

HDN stands for

A

Hemolytic Disease of Newborn

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213
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is also known as

A

HDN

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214
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is what type of reaction

A

Allo-immune

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215
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is seen in what species

A
Humans
Horses
Cattle
Dogs
Cats
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216
Q

Neonatal isoerythrolysis is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type II

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217
Q

Fetal cells with parental antigen inherited from sire leak into ____

A

maternal circulation

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218
Q

when do fetal cells with parental antigen leak into maternal circulation

A

at birth

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219
Q

___ with paternal antigen leak into circulation

A

Fetal cells

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220
Q

Fetal cells with ___ leak into circulation

A

paternal antigen

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221
Q

Antibodies are produced by dam if ____ are foreign to dam (inherited from sire)

A

RBC antigens

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222
Q

____ are produced by dam if RBC antigens are foreign to dam

A

Antibodies

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223
Q

Antibodies are produced by dam if RBC antigens are

A

foreign to dam

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224
Q

if RBC antigens are foreign to dam they are inherited from

A

sire

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225
Q

Antibodies are produced by ___ if RBC antigens are foreign to dam

A

dam

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226
Q

subsequent foals or calves exposed to colostrum containing antibodies cause

A

hemolysis of RBCs

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227
Q

Subsequent foals or calves exposed to colostrum containing ____ causes hemolysis of RBCs

A

antibodies

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228
Q

Subsequent foals or calves exposed to ___ containing antibodies cause hemolysis of RBCs

A

colostrum

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229
Q

Mare with Aa-negative + Anti-Aa antibodies in colostrum =

A

hemolytic disease

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230
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is due to ___ incompatibility

A

Rh factor

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231
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is a type of what in humans

A

Neonatal Isoerythrolysis

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232
Q

Rh factor stands for

A

Rhesus factor on erythrocytes

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233
Q

Rh factor is present on

A

erythrocytes

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234
Q

What factor is present on erythrocytes

A

Rh

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235
Q

In Erythroblastosis fetalis are the following positive or negative

Mother
Father
Baby

A

Mother Rh-

Father Rh +

Baby Rh+

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236
Q

When the mother is Rh-, maternal antibody is against what

A

Rh factor

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237
Q

When the mother is Rh-, ____ is against Rh factor

A

maternal antibody

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238
Q

In erythroblastosis fetalis maternal antibody is

A

against Rh factor

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239
Q

When IgG crosses the placenta, binds to fetal erythrocytes it causes

A

lysis

[complement activation]

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240
Q

___ crosses the placenta, binds to fetal erythrocytes, causing lysis

A

IgG

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241
Q

IgG crosses what

A

placenta

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242
Q

IgG crosses placent, binds to ___ and causes lysis

A

fetal erythrocytes

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243
Q

RBC breakdown generates what

A

bilirubin

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244
Q

____ generates bilirubin

A

RBC breakdown

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245
Q

___ accumulation in brain leads to encephalopathy

A

bilirubin

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246
Q

Bilirubin accumulation in ___ leads to encephalopathy

A

brain

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247
Q

Bilirubin accumulation in brain leads to

A

encephalopathy

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248
Q

Give anti-Rh antibody at 28 weeks of pregnancy and within 72 hours after birth is prevention for

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

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249
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by giving ___

A

anti-Rh antibody

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250
Q

To prevent Erythroblastosis fetalis anti-Rh antibody needs to be given when

A

28 weeks of pregnancy and within 72 hours after birth

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251
Q

Secondary immune mediated cause of Type II hypersensitivity has altered epitopes or new epitopes created by

A

underlying causes

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252
Q

Haptenic drug mediated hypersensitivity may cause

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Neutropenia

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253
Q

What drug mediated hypersensitivity may cause anemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia

A

Haptenic

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254
Q

Complement-coated penicilling modified red blood cells are phagocytosed by

A

macrophages

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255
Q

Penicillin modified red blood cells use what receptors

A

complement

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256
Q

Macrophages present

A

peptides

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257
Q

Macrophages present peptides from

A

penicillin-protein conjugate

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258
Q

When macrophages present peptides, they activate specific CD4 T cells to become

A

Th2 cells

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259
Q

What cells become Th2 cells

A

CD4 T cells

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260
Q

B cells are activated by

A

antigen

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261
Q

B cells are activated by antigen and help from activated __ cells

A

Th2

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262
Q

Plasma cells secrete penicillin specific ___

A

IgG

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263
Q

What cells secrete penicillin specific IgG

A

Plasma

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264
Q

Penicillin-specific IgG binds to modified

A

RBC

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265
Q

Activation of complement components C1-C9 and formation of membrane attack complex causes

A

lysis of RBC

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266
Q

Activation of complement components ___ cause lysis of RBC

A

C1-C9

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267
Q

Formation of what complex causes lysis of RBC

A

membrane attack complex

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268
Q

Activation of complement components ___ leads to covalent bonding of C3b

A

C1-C3

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269
Q

Activation of complement components C1-C3 leads to covalent bonding of

A

C3b

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270
Q

Activation of complement components C1-C3 also causes phagocytosis of antibody and complement coated ___

A

RBC

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271
Q

Secondary immune mediated causes of type II hypersensitivity has altered epitopes or new epitopes created by underlying causes or

A

infectious agents

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272
Q

Hemoparasites on RBCs cause ___ to be exposed, stimulating antibody production

A

new epitope

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273
Q

____ on RBCs cause new epitopes to be exposed, stimulating antibody production

A

Hemoparasites

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274
Q

Hemoparasites on RBCs cause new epitopes to be exposed stimulating

A

antibody production

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275
Q

Hemoparasites on RBCs cause new epitopes to be

A

exposed

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276
Q

Icterus is also known as

A

Jaundice

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277
Q

Mycoplasma canis or felis is what type of agent

A

Tick borne

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278
Q

Ab coats ___ with or without complement leading to extravascular or intravascular hemolysis and icterus

A

RBCs

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279
Q

What coats RBCs with/without complement leading to hemolysis and icterus

A

Ab

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280
Q

Ab coats RBCs with or without complement leading to extravascular or intravascular ___ and ___

A

hemolysis and icterus

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281
Q

Coombs anti-globulin test is a diagnostic test for

A

Immune-mediated Hemolytic Anemia

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282
Q

What is a diagnostic test for Immune-mediated Hemolytic Anemia

A

Coombs anti-globulin test

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283
Q

What does Coombs anti-globulin test for

A

Antibody on surface of RBCs

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284
Q

What diagnostic test, tests for antibody on the surface of RBCs

A

Coobs anti-globulin

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285
Q

Coombs anti-globulin test for

A

antibody

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286
Q

Coombs tests for antibody on

A

surface of RBCs

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287
Q

Coombs tests for ___ on surface of RBC

A

antibody

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288
Q

During what diagnostic test should you look for agglutination of RBCs

A

Coombs anti-gloulin

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289
Q

During a Coombs test you should look for what on RBCs

A

agglutination

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290
Q

Patient erythrocytes have what Ig on their surface

A

IgG

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291
Q

Coombs reagent is (monoclonal/polyclonal)

A

Polyclonal sera

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292
Q

Polyclonal sera includes what 4 components

A

Anti-dog IgG
Anti-dog IgM
Anti-dog IgA
Anti-C3b

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293
Q

IgG on patient erythrocyte + Coombs reagent =

A

agglutination

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294
Q

Precipitation and agglutination assay is a diagnostic test for

A

antibodies

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295
Q

Add what amount of antigen to precipitation and agglutination assay

A

Constant

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296
Q

In precipitation and agglutination assay add constant amount of

A

antigen

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297
Q

What can cause false negatives in precipitation and agglutination assay

A

Antibody or antigen excess

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298
Q

Equivalence in Precipitation tests leads to what formation

A

lattice

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299
Q

Pro zone has an excess of

A

Antibody

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300
Q

What zone is there an excess of antibody

A

Pro zone

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301
Q

Post zone has an excess of

A

Antigen

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302
Q

What zone is there an excess of antigen

A

Post zone

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303
Q

Ab stands for

A

antibody

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304
Q

Ag stands for

A

Antigen

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305
Q

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry is a diagnostic test for

A

antibodies

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306
Q

What does the direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry detect

A

antibody-coated cells

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307
Q

What are antibody coated cells

A

RBC or platelets

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308
Q

RBCs and platelets are known as

A

antibody coated cells

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309
Q

What test detects antibody coated cells

A

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry

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310
Q

What test is more sensitive and not dependent on agglutination

A

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry

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311
Q

Direct immunofluorescence flow cytometry is more sensitive and is not dependent on

A

agglutination

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312
Q

Fluorescent anti-equine IgG antibody + patient cells coated with antibody =

A

Fluorescence

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313
Q

Indirect immunofluorescence is a diagnostic test for

A

antibodies

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314
Q

What test is used to detect antibody in serum reactive to penicillin coated RBCs

A

Indirect immunofluorescence

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315
Q

Indirect immunofluorescence detects antibody in serum reactive to

A

penicillin coated RBCs

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316
Q

Fluorescent Anti-equine IgG antibody + patient antibody from serum + donor cells + penicillin =

A

fluorescence

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317
Q

In the indirect immunofluorescence test what 2 extra things do you need beside Anti-IgG antibody and patient antibody

A

Donor cells

Penicillin

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318
Q

Secondary to drug treatment
Secondary to infectious agents
Primary IMHA due to autoimmune process

these are all causes of

A

Immune-mediated Anemia or Thrombocytopenia

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319
Q

Hapten carrier complex is seen secondary to

A

drug treatment

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320
Q

What complex is seen secondary to drug treatment

A

Hapten-carrier complex

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321
Q

Causes of Immune-mediated anemia or thrombocytopenia

A

Secondary to drug treatment
Secondary to infectious agents
Primary IMHA due to autoimmune process

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322
Q

Haptens are too small to be

A

Antigenic

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323
Q

What are too small to be antigenic

A

Haptens

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324
Q

Penicillin is a type of

A

Hapten

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325
Q

Penicillin binds to

A

RBCs

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326
Q

When penicillin binds to RBCs, RBC acts as the

A

carrier

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327
Q

Triple sulfa antibiotics bind to

A

platelets

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328
Q

When triple sulfa antibotics bind to platelets, platelets act as the

A

carrier

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329
Q

Mycoplasma canis, M felis, Anaplasma are what type of diseases

A

tick borne

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330
Q

What virus has molecular mimicry

A

Equine infectious anemia

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331
Q

This is the treatment of what disease

Withhold colostrum
Provide blood transfusion and glucocorticoids

A

Hemolytic disease of newborns

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332
Q

What are some treatment options for hemolytic disease of newborns

A

withhold colostrum
blood transfusion
glucocorticoids

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333
Q

To provide treatment for hemolytic disease in newborns you need to determine if it is ___ or ____

A

primary or secondary

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334
Q

If secondary treat for

A

underlying condition

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335
Q

(primary/secondary) treat for underlying condition

A

secondary

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336
Q

What would you treat with if bacterial

A

antibiotics

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337
Q

What would the treatment option be if disease is drug induced

A

Remove drug

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338
Q

(primary/secondary) use immunosuppressive drugs

A

Primary

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339
Q

autoimmune disease is

primary/secondary

A

primary

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340
Q

Use immunosuppressive drugs

primary/secondary

A

primary

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341
Q

Glucocorticoids
Azathioprine
used to treat (primary/secondary) disease

A

primary

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342
Q

2 drugs that can be used to treat primary disease

A

Glucocorticoids

Azathioprine

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343
Q

Azathioprine inhibits what 2 things

A

IL-2

proliferation

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344
Q

IL-2 and proliferation are both inhibited by what drug

A

Azathioprine

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345
Q

Blood transfusion reaction and neonatal isoerythrolysis are both what type of reactions

A

Allo-immune

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346
Q

Secondary immune mediated hypersensitivity are caused by what 3 things

A

Haptenic drugs
Infectious agents
Cancer

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347
Q

Cancer
Haptenic drugs
Infectious agents
are all due to what type of hypersensitivity

A

Secondary immune mediated

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348
Q

3 causes of Type II hypersensitivities

A

Allo-immune reactions
secondary immune mediated
primary immune mediated

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349
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is due to immune complex mediated tissue injuries

A

Type III

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350
Q

What type of hypersensitivity occurs within hours if prior sensitized

A

Type III

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351
Q

Type III hypersesnsitivity occurs how quickly

A

within hours

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352
Q

Type III hypersensitivity occurs within hours if

A

prior sensitized

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353
Q

What are the main cells involved in Type III hypersensitivity

A

Neutrophils

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354
Q

Neutrophils are the main cell involved in what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type III

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355
Q

Neutrophils, some mast cells, infilitrate secondary to complement activation are the cells involved in what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type III

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356
Q

What Ig classes are involved in type III hypersensitivities

A

IgG

IgA

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357
Q

IgG and IgA are the Ig classes of what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type III

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358
Q

What type of hypersensitivity has immune complexes that deposit on capillaries, complement activation leading to immune complex disease

A

Type III

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359
Q

What is the clinical syndrome of hypersensitivity type III

A

Immune complex disease

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360
Q

Vasculitis
Glomerulonephritis
Arthritis
all lead to what disease

A

immune complex disease

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361
Q

What are 3 things that lead to immune complex disease

A

Vasculitis
Glomerulonephritis
Arthritis

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362
Q

Where does immune complex formation occur in type III hypersensitivity

A

vessels

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363
Q

When immune complex formation occurs in the vessels it leads to what response

A

inflammatory response

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364
Q

Inflammatory response primarily affect what areas of the body

A
Skin
synovia
lung
eye
kidney
vessels in organs (liver)
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365
Q

Immune complex deposits
Complement cascade activated
Activation of neutrophils/mast cells

are the 3 phases of

A

Hypersensitivity type III

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366
Q

Hypersensitivity type III has what 3 phases

A
  1. Immune complex deposits
  2. Complement cascade is activated
  3. Activation of Neutrophils/Mast cells
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367
Q

Immune complex includes what 2 components

A

antigen-antibody

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368
Q

Where do immune complex components get deposited

A

tissue/blood vessels

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369
Q

What complex is deposited in tissues/blood vessels

A

Immune complex

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370
Q

What phase of Type III hypersensitivity includes chemotactic complement proteins released and recruits cells

A

Complement cascade is activated

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371
Q

What 2 cells does the complement cascade recruit when it is activated

A

Neutrophils and Mast cells

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372
Q

What are released when the complement cascade is activated

A

chemotactic complement proteins

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373
Q

C3a and C5a are what type of proteins

A

chemotactic complement

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374
Q

What phase of hypersensitivity type III leads to release of enzymes and ROS that damage tissues/vessels

A

Activation of neutrophils/mast cells

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375
Q

activation of neutrophils/mast cells leads to the release of ___ and ____

A

enzymes and ROS

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376
Q

Release of enzymes and ROS damages what

A

tissues/vessels

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377
Q

What 2 things that are released during activation of neutrophils/mast cells damage tissues/vessels

A

enzymes and ROS

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378
Q

During arthus reaction, locally injected antigen in immune individual with what type of antibody

A

IgG

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379
Q

Locally injected antigen in immune individual with IgG antibody is due to what reaction

A

Arthus reaction

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380
Q

In the arthus reaction the local immune-complex formation occurs if what is already present in circulation

A

antibody

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381
Q

What complex is formed if antibody is already present in circulation

A

Local immune-complex

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382
Q

Local immune-complex formation occurs if antibody is already present where

A

in circulation

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383
Q

Activation of complement releases ____ and induces ____

A

inflammatory mediators

Mast-cell degranulation

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384
Q

C5a, C3a, C4a and C5a are all what

A

inflammatory mediators

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385
Q

Activation of ___ releases inflammatory mediators and induces mast-cell degranulation

A

Complement

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386
Q

Local inflammation, movement of fluid and protein into tissue and blood vessel occlusion are all what reaction

A

Arthus

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387
Q

Arthus reaction causes __ inflammation

A

Local

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388
Q

Arthus reaction has movement of what into tissue

A

fluid and protein

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389
Q

In the arthus reaction movement of fluid and proteins goes where

A

into tissue

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390
Q

Arthus reaction causes what occlusion

A

blood vessel

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391
Q

Arthus reaction causes blood vessel ___

A

occlusion

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392
Q

In the arthus reaction, injecting repeatedly normal horse serum via what route

A

subcutaneous

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393
Q

In the arthus reaction what is injected repeatedly subcutaneously

A

normal horse serum

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394
Q

Later injections in arthus reaction can lead to

A

Edema

Indurations hemorrhagic necrosis

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395
Q

Edema and indurations hemorrhagic necorsis are all due to (sooner/later) injections

A

later

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396
Q

What reaction manifests as localized form of generalized hypersensitivity

A

Arthus

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397
Q

Arthus reaction manifests as what form of generalized hypersensitivity

A

localized form

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398
Q

Damage in the arthus reaction is due to what complexes

A

antigen and antibody

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399
Q

When there is damage caused due to antigen and antibody complexes it leads to activation of

A

complement

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400
Q

Arthus reaction releases what molecules

A

inflammatory

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401
Q

Arthus reaction can cause what

A

tissue necrosis

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402
Q

Arthus reaction has vascular permeability and infilitration of

A

neutrophils

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403
Q

Arthus reaction has ___ permeability and infilitration of neutrophils

A

vascular

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404
Q

In arthus reaction where is the site of immune-complex deposition

A

perivascular area

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405
Q

Perivascular area is the site of immune-complex deposition for what reaction

A

Arthus

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406
Q

In farmers lung alevolar infiltrates consist of

A

neutrophils

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407
Q

In what disease do alveolar infilitrates consist of neutrophils

A

Farmers lung

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408
Q

Farmers lung consists of immune complexes where

A

alevolar capillary walls

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409
Q

What disease has immune complexes in alveolar capillary walls

A

Farmers lung

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410
Q

In farmers lung the antigen is what type of spores

A

fungal

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411
Q

What disease has an antigen that is fungal spores

A

Farmers lung

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412
Q

What is the route of how farmers lung is obtained

A

inhaled

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413
Q

What disease has a site of imune-complex deposition at the alveolar/capillary interface

A

Farmers lung

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414
Q

In farmers lung, the site of immune-complex deposition is where

A

alveolar/capillary interface

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415
Q

Farmers lung is known as what in horses

A

heaves

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416
Q

Heaves in horses is known as what in humans

A

farmers lung

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417
Q

Intravascular antigen-antibody complex formation leads to deposit in

A

blood vessel

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418
Q

Deposit of antigen-antibody complex in blood vessel leads to

A

Vasculitis

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419
Q

Vasculitis is caused by

A

deposit of antigen-antibody complex in blood vessel

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420
Q

Vasculitis is obtained by what route

A

Intravenous (high dose)

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421
Q

What disease has a site of immune-complex deposition in blood vessel walls

A

vasculitis

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422
Q

Vasculitis has a site of immune-complex deposition where

A

blood vessel walls

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423
Q

What disease has a site of immune-complex deposition in renal glomeruli

A

nephritis

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424
Q

Nephritis has a site of immune-complex deposition where

A

Renal glmoeruli

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425
Q

what disease has a site of immune-complex deposition in joint spaces

A

arthritis

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426
Q

Arthritis has a site of immune complex deposition where

A

joint spaces

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427
Q

Immune complex formation

phase 1,2,3

A

1

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428
Q

Immune complex deposition

phase 1,2,3

A

2

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429
Q

Complex-mediated inflammation

phase 1,2,3

A

3

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430
Q

Post. strept. equin vasculitis lesions are due to what disease

A

vascultiis

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431
Q

Purpura hemorrhagia is due to what disease

A

vasculitis

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432
Q

Blue eye is what type of response

A

Local type III

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433
Q

What is an example of a local type III response

A

blue eye

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434
Q

Blue eye is specifically known as

A

corneal edema

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435
Q

Corneal edema is commonly known as

A

blue eye

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436
Q

Ag-Ab complexes to canine MLV adenovirus vaccine I or infection deposits where

A

in cornea

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437
Q

What type of complexes to canine MLV adenovirus vaccine I or infection depositions in cornea

A

Ag-Ab

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438
Q

Ag-Ab compleses to what vaccine leads to deposits in cornea

A

MLV adenovirus vaccine

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439
Q

When complement binds Ab-complement system is activated it stimulates emigration of what

A

neutrophils

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440
Q

When there is emigration of neutrophils it causes

A

anterior uveitis

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441
Q

Anterior uveitis is due to emigration of

A

neutrophils

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442
Q

Complement binds what system, and when activated stimulated emigration of neutrophils

A

Ab-complement system

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443
Q

What binds Ab-complement system and when activated sitmulates emigration of neutrophils

A

Complement

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444
Q

Enzymes/substances released from PMNs leads to

A

corneal edema

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445
Q

Corneal edema leads to

A

fluid accumulation and opacity

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446
Q

What causes fluid accumulation and opacity

A

corneal edema

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447
Q

Enzymes/substances are released from ___ leading to corneal edema

A

PMNs

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448
Q

What are released from PMNs that lead to corneal edema

A

Enzymes/substances

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449
Q

To diagnose what disease, perform a direct immunofluorsecent antibody test

A

Glomerulonephritis

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450
Q

Glomerulonephritis is diagnosed by performing what test

A

direct immunofluorescent antibody test

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451
Q

Direct immunofluorsecent antibody test uses fluorescent anti-species ___ on tissue biopsies

A

IgG

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452
Q

Immunofluorescence test to diagnose glomerulonephritis detects ___

A

antibody

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453
Q

Immunofluorescnece test to diagnose glomerulonephritis detects antibody coating

A

glomerulus

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454
Q

Blue eye due to adenovirus type I MLV is due to what type of reaction

A

Local

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455
Q
Pneumonitis 
Serum sickness
Peritonitis 
Dermal vasculitis, pneumonitis, myositis 
Glomerulonephritis 
are all (loca/systemic reactions)
A

Systemic

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456
Q

Heaves in horses is due to

A

moldy hay

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457
Q

Moldy hay causes what in horses

A

heaves

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458
Q

What reaction occurs when farmer’s lung in people or heaves in horses happens

A

Pneumonitis

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459
Q

Pneumonitis is caused by

A

Farmers lung or heaves

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460
Q

Anti-serum depositions in vessels of liver causes

A

hepatitis

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461
Q

Hepatitis is due to anti-serum depositions where

A

liver

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462
Q

Anti-serum depositions in kidney causes

A

Glomerulonephritis

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463
Q

Glomerulonephritis is due to anti-serum depositons where

A

kidney

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464
Q

Anti-serum depositions in joints causes

A

arthritis

465
Q

Arthritis is due to anti-serum depositions where

A

joints

466
Q

What reaction occurs when immune complex formation to anti-serum depositions in liver, kidney, joints

A

Serum sickness in horses/humans

467
Q

Serum sickness in horses/humans is when immune complex formation causes depositions of what

A

anti-serum

468
Q

Serum sickness depositions in what 3 spaces

A

liver
kidney
joints

469
Q

Serum sickness is caused by what 2 serum types

A

anti-tetanus

anti-venom

470
Q

Anti-tetanus serum or anti-venom serum causes what reaction

A

serum sickness

471
Q

What reaction occurs due to feline infectious peritonitis virus

A

Peritonitis

472
Q

Peritonitis is due to what virus

A

feline infectious peritonitis

473
Q

Peritonitis due to feline infectious peritonitis virus causes

A

vasculitis

474
Q

Vasculitis in peritonitis is due to accumulation of what fluid

A

peritoneal fluid

475
Q

Vasculitis of peritoneal fluid causes what reaction

A

peritonitis

476
Q

What reaction is due to strangles

A

dermal vasculitis, pneumonitis, myositis

477
Q

Dermal vasculitis, pneumonitis, myositis is due to what

A

strangles

478
Q

Streptococcus equi is what disease

A

strangles

479
Q

Strangles causes what

A

purpura hemorrhagica

480
Q

Purpura hemorrahgica is due to what disease

A

strangles

481
Q

Glomerulonephritis is caused by

A

Lyme disease

482
Q

Lyme disease causes

A

glomerulonephritis

483
Q

Streptococcus equi is due to what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type III

484
Q

What disease has the major lesion purpura

A

Streptococcus equi

485
Q

Streptococcus equi has what major lesion

A

purpura

486
Q

Staphylococcus aureus is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type III

487
Q

What disease has the major lesion dermatitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

488
Q

Staphylococcus aureus has what major lesion

A

dermatitis

489
Q

Canine adenovirus I is due to what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type III

490
Q

What disease has the major lesion uveitis, glomerulonephritis

A

Canine adenovirus I

491
Q

Canine advenovirus I has what major lesion

A

Uveitis, glomerulonephritis

492
Q

Hog cholera is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type III

493
Q

What 3 diseases have the major lesion of glomerulonephritis

A

Hog cholera
African swine fever virus
Equine infections anemia virus

494
Q

Hog cholera
African swine fever virus
Equine infectious anemia virus
all have what major lesion

A

glomerulonephritis

495
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is african swine fever virus

A

Type III

496
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is equine infectious anemia virus

A

Type III

497
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is equine viral arteritis

A

Type III

498
Q

What disease has a major lesion of arteririts

A

Equine viral arteritis

499
Q

Equine viral arteritis has what major lesion

A

Arteririts

500
Q

Treat the underlying condition if what is present

A

pathogen

501
Q

Often the pathogen is long gone and the immune response is responsible for what

A

clinical syndrome

502
Q

What 2 drugs suppress the immune system

A

Glucocorticoids

Cyclophosphamide

503
Q

Glucocorticoids and Cyclophosphamide does what to the immune system

A

Suppress

504
Q

What type of hypersensitivity has cell-mediated tissue injuries

A

Type IV

505
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is seen with what injuries

A

Cell-mediated tissue injuries

506
Q

What type of hypersensitivyt occurs in 2-3 days if prior sensitized

A

Type IV

507
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity occurs how quickly if prior sensitized

A

2-3 days

508
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity occurs within 2-3 days if

A

prior sensitized

509
Q

What type of hypersensitivity has a delayed timing of clinical signs

A

Type IV

510
Q

What type of hypersensitivity involved Th1, CTLs and macrophages

A

Type IV

511
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity involves what cells

A

Th1
CTLs
macropages

512
Q

What Ig classes are involved in type IV hypersensitivity

A

N/A

513
Q

What type of hypersensitivity has granulomas or cellular apoptosis induced by CD8’s

A

Type IV

514
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity has what clinical syndrome

A

granulomas or cellular apoptosis (CD8)

515
Q

In type IV hypersensitivity apoptosis is induced by what cell

A

CD8

516
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is known as delayed hypersensitivity

A

Type IV

517
Q

In type IV hypersensitivity what 2 Th1 cytokines are accumulated and released

A

IFN-y

TNF-a

518
Q

Type IV hypersensitivites activate what cells

A

macrophages and cytotoxic T cells

519
Q

The immune mechanism of what type of hypersensitivity activates macrophages and cytotoxic T cells

A

Type IV

520
Q

the immune mechanism of what type of hypersensitivity has Th1 CD4 T cells and CD8 T cell antigens sensitizied

A

Type IV

521
Q

IFN-y and TNF-a are cytokines of what cells

A

Th1

522
Q

The immune mechanism response of type IV hypersensitivity occurs at what time frame

A

72 hours

523
Q

Immune mechanism response of what type of hypersensitivity occurs at 72 hours

A

Type IV

524
Q

Swelling, induration or granuloma at site of antigen due to accumulation of macrophages and lymphocytes is a immune response of what type of hypersensitivity

A

IV

525
Q

What cells accumulate due to immune response in type IV hypersensitivity

A

macrophages and lymphocytes

526
Q

Granulomas form at site of

A

antigen

527
Q

___ forms at the site of antigen due to accumulation of macrophages and lymphocytes

A

Granuloma

528
Q

Cytotoxic T cells destroy cells expressing what

A

target antigen

529
Q

___ cells destroy cells expressing the target antigen

A

Cytotoxic T cell

530
Q

T cell mediated tissue injury is what type of mechanism

A

Effector

531
Q

Cytokine mediated inflammation leads to

A

Inflammation and tissue injury

532
Q

T cell mediated killing of host cells leads to

A

cell death and tissue injury

533
Q

Antigen is introduced into subcutaneous tissue and processed by local _____

A

antigen presenting cells

534
Q

Antigen is introduced into ____ tissue

A

subcutaneous

535
Q

____ is introduced into subcutaneous tissue and processed by local antigen presenting cells

A

Antigen

536
Q

a ____ cell recognizes antigen and releases cytokines which act on vascular endothelium

A

Th1 effector

537
Q

a Th1 effector cell recognizes ____

A

antigen

538
Q

A Th1 effector cell recognizes antigen and releases ____

A

cytokines

539
Q

A Th1 effector cell recognizes antigen and releases cytokines which act on

A

vascular endothelium

540
Q

Recruitment of T cells, phagocytes, fluid and protein to site of antigen injection cause

A

visible lesion

541
Q

Recruitment of T cells, phagocytes, fluid and protein to site of ____ injection cause visible lesion

A

antigen

542
Q

What type of test has Th1 immune response to mycobacterium tuberculosis antigens

A

Positive tuberculin skin test

543
Q

Positive tuberculin skin test has what type of immune response

A

Th1

544
Q

Positive tuberculin skin test has Th1 immune response to what antigens

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

545
Q

Contact dermatitis to penicillin, poison ivy, metal ions are antigens that act as

A

haptens

546
Q

when contact dermatitis to penicillin, poision ivy and metal ions act as haptens they bind what cells

A

skin cells (carriers)

547
Q

Positive tuberculin skin test is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

type IV

548
Q

contact dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction

A

Type IV

549
Q

contact dermatitis occurs due to what 3 products

A

Penicillin
Poison ivy
Metal ions

550
Q

Penicillin, poison ivy and metal ions all cause what

A

contact dermatitis

551
Q

Tissue rejection after tissue transplantation or exposure to hidden antigens is caused by what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type IV

552
Q

Tuberculin skin reaction is a memory ___ response

A

Th1

553
Q

Tuberculin skin reaction is a memory Th1 response to

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

554
Q

What reaction is a memory Th1 response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

Tuberculin skin reaction

555
Q

Purified protein derivative of M. tuberculosis (PPD) is injected into skin and processed by

A

APCs

556
Q

When purified protein derivative of M tuberculosis is injected into the skin it is processed by APCs and attracts what cells

A

memory effector T cells (CD4) and macrophages

557
Q

When protein is injected into the skin it results in induration by

A

48-72 hours

558
Q

Induration =

positive/negative reaction

A

positive reaction

559
Q

Induration casues a

A

tubercle or granuloma

560
Q

During an in vivo test tuberculin skin test is read at what time frame

A

72 hours

561
Q

TB skin test is used commonly in what species

A

cattle

562
Q

When there is no swelling or induration

negative/positive reaction

A

negative

563
Q

(positive/negative reaction) is when the animal has never been exposed to TB whole organis

A

negative

564
Q

Induration is a (positive/negative reaction)

A

Positive

565
Q

Induration causes what 2 signs

A

redness

firm swelling

566
Q

(positive/ negative reaction) means the animal was previously exposed

A

Positive

567
Q

What time frame does induration peak

A

48-72 hours

568
Q

When posion ivy oil acts as a hapten and binds to skin proteins (carrier) it causes

A

contact dermatitis

569
Q

Posion ivy oil acts as a

A

hapten

570
Q

Contact dermatitis stimulates ___ to induce apoptosis of keratinocytes

A

CTLs

571
Q

contact dermatitis stimulates CTLs to induce apoptosis of

A

keratinocytes

572
Q

contact dermatitis stimulates CTLs to induce ___ of keratinocytes

A

apoptosis

573
Q

What stimulates CTLs to induce apoptosis of keratinocytes

A

contact dermatitis

574
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction can occur due to topical drugs

A

Type IV

575
Q

What type of topical drugs can cause type IV hypersensitivity

A

Penicillin

576
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity can occur due to what type of drugs

A

Topical

577
Q

True/False

Lesions due to topical drugs are resolved after drug removal

A

True

578
Q

Chemicals can also cause what disease

A

contact dermatitis

579
Q

What chemical is in cosmetics, textiles, furinature, upholstery, newspaper dyes, paper, rubber of milking machine

A

Formaldehyde

580
Q

What chemical binds proteins easily causing skin hypersensitivity and asthma

A

formaldehyde

581
Q

Formaldehyde binds proteins easily causing ___ and ____

A

skin hypersensitivity and asthma

582
Q

What chemical dissolves in the weak acid environment of sweat and binds to proteins (albumin component)

A

Nickel

583
Q

Nickel dissolves in what environement

A

weak acid

584
Q

Nickle dissolves in the weak acid environment of ___

A

sweat

585
Q

Nickel binds to what type of proteins

A

albumin complement

586
Q

What chemical causes hypersensitivity to costume jewelry, dog collars, metal eyeglass

A

Nickel

587
Q

Nickel hapten binds to what cells

A

keratinocytes

588
Q

When nickel hapten binds to keratinocytes it causes what cells to induce apoptosis

A

cytotoxic T cells

589
Q

When nickel hapten binds to keratinocytes it causes cytotoxic T cells to induce apoptosis of

A

keratinocytes

590
Q

What is the diagnosis of contact dermatitis

A

in vivo tuberculin skin test

591
Q

Tuberculin skin test for diagnosis of contact dermatitis tests for what type of immunity

A

cell-medaited

592
Q

Tuberculin skin test for diagnosis of contact dermatitis tests for cell mediated immunity to

A

M tuberculosis

593
Q

In vitro test for T helper cell proliferation or cytotoxic T cell activity to the antigen is used to diagnose

A

Contact dermatitis

594
Q

In vitro test for T helper cell proliferation or cytotoxic T cell activity to antigen is used because there is no ____ test available

A

commerical

595
Q

In vitro test, test for ___ proliferation

A

T helper cell

596
Q

In vitro test, tests for ____ activity to antigen

A

cytotoxic T cell

597
Q

Treatment for contact dermatiits

A

avoid contact with chemical or substance

598
Q

Avoid contact with chemical or substance is a treatment option for

A

contact dermatitis

599
Q

What drugs can be used to treat contact dermatitis

A

Anti-inflammatory
Glucocorticoids
Antibiotics

600
Q

For contact dermatitis antibiotics are only used if there is what type of infection
(primary/secondary)

A

secondary

601
Q

What drugs are only used for contact dermaitis if secondary infection is ppresent

A

antibiotics

602
Q

Anti-inflammatory drugs
Glucocorticoids
Antibiotics
are all treatment options for what disease

A

contact dermaitits

603
Q

Organ graft rejection is mainly due to ___ disparity

A

MHC class I

604
Q

What is mainly due to MHC class I disparity

A

Organ graft rejection

605
Q

For tissue grafts antigen is expressed by what chromosome

A

Y

606
Q

True/False

Male tissue will be rejected by females

A

True

607
Q

Why will male tissue will be rejected by females

A

Antigen is expressed by Y chromosome

608
Q

___ vs ___ is important in bone marrow recipients

A

Graft vs Host

609
Q

What type of lymphocytes in immunosuppressed recipient destroys recipients cells and tissues

A

Foreign

610
Q

Foreign lymphocytes in what type of recipient destroys recipients cells and tissues

A

immunosuppressed

611
Q

foreign lymphocytes in immunosuppressed recipient destroys recipients ___ and ___

A

cells and tissues

612
Q

What develops in testicular tissue when spermatozoa leaks out following trauma

A

sperm granuloma

613
Q

Sperm granuloma develops where

A

testicular tissue

614
Q

Sperm granuloma develops in testicular tissue when __ leaks out

A

spermatozoa

615
Q

Sperm granuloma develops in testicular tissue when spermatozoa leaks out following

A

trauma

616
Q

Sperm granulomas can also develop what type of antibodies

A

anti-sperm

617
Q

Anti-sperm antibodies can develop in

A

sperm granuloma

618
Q

Sperm granulomas have what type of immune response

A

Th1

619
Q

What has a Th1 immune response with CTLS and activated macrophages

A

sperm granuloma

620
Q

What cells cause a Th1 immune repsonse in sperm granuloma

A

CTLs and activated macrophages

621
Q

What type of graft is indefinitely

A

Autograft

622
Q

What type of graft lasts hours

A

Zenograft

623
Q

What type of graft lasts 1-2 weeks

A

Allograft

624
Q

Type I (insulin dependent) diabetes mellitus is what type of disease

A

T cell mediated

625
Q

What type of diabetes mellitus is insulin dependent

A

Type I

626
Q

Insulin, glutamic acid, decarboxylase are all what type of antigens

A

Islet cell antigens

627
Q

what are some islet cell antigens

A

insulin
glutamic acid
decarboxylase

628
Q

what disease has a specificity of pathogenic T cells using islet cell antigens

A

Type I diabetes mellitus

629
Q

Type I diabetes mellitus uses the specificty of pathogenic T cells using what antigens

A

Islet cell antigens

630
Q

What type of disease is rheumatoid arthritis

A

T cell mediated

631
Q

What disease has specificity of pathogenic T cells using unkown antigen in joint synovium

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

632
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis uses specificity of pathogenic T cells using what

A

unkown antigen in joint synovium

633
Q

What type of disease is multiple sclerosis, experimental autoimmune encephalomelitis

A

T cell mediated

634
Q

Multiple sclerosis, experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis uses specificity of pathogenic T cells using

A

myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein

635
Q

Myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for what disease

A

multiple sclerosis, experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis

636
Q

What type of disease is inflammatory bowel disease

A

T cell mediated

637
Q

Crohns and ulcertaitve colitis are what type of disease

A

inflammatory bowel disease

638
Q

What are examples of inflammatory bowel disease

A

Crohns

Ulcerative colitis

639
Q

What is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for inlammatory bowel disease

A

Unkown

640
Q

The specificity of pathogenic T cells is unkown for what disease

A

Inflammatory bowel disease

641
Q

What type of disease is peripheral neuritis

A

T cell mediated

642
Q

Specificity of pathogenic T cells is P2 protein of peripheral nerve myelin for what disease

A

peripheral neuritis

643
Q

What is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for peripheral neuritis

A

P2 protein of pheripheral nerve myelin

644
Q

Autoimmune myocarditis is what type of disease

A

T cell medaited

645
Q

What is the specificity of pathogenic T cells for autoimmune myocarditis

A

myocardial proteins

646
Q

Specificity of pathogenic T cells is myocardial proteins for what disease

A

autoimmune myocarditis

647
Q

Tolerance goes along with regulation of what type of immunity

A

acquired immunity

adaptive

648
Q

What is known as self-nonself discrimination in the immune system and its failure

A

Tolerance

649
Q

What cells must be made tolerant to self-antigens

A

Lymphocytes

650
Q

Lymphocytes are made tolerant to what

A

self-antigens

651
Q

What are killed through central tolerance

A

self-reactive lymphocytes

652
Q

Self-reactive lymphocytes are killed through what type of tolerance

A

central tolerance

653
Q

Self reactive lymphocytes are turned off by what during peripheral tolerance

A

inappropriate signaling

654
Q

Inappropriate signaling turns off self reactive lymphocytes in what type of tolerance

A

Peripheral tolerance

655
Q

Lymphocytes must be made tolerant to self antigens and can be done what 2 ways

A

Central tolerance

Peripheral tolerance

656
Q

Central and peripheral tolerance play a role in

A

Lymphocytes becoming tolerant to self-antigens

657
Q

antigens stimulate what responses

A

immune responses

658
Q

Immune responses are stimulated by

A

antigens

659
Q

Very low or very high antigen doses cause

A

tolerance

660
Q

Tolerance is caused by very low or very high ___ doses

A

antigen

661
Q

Antibodies tend to regulate antibody production through (positive/negative) feedback mechanisms

A

Negative

662
Q

What type of feedback hinders successful vaccination of newborn animals as a result of maternal immunity

A

negative

663
Q

Immune responses may also be controlled by the activities of what cells

A

Regulatory T cells (Treg)

664
Q

Treg cells secrete what 2 cytokines

A

IL-10 and TGF-B

665
Q

IL-10 and TGF-B are secreted by what cells

A

Tregs

666
Q

Tregs control what type of responses

A

immune responses

667
Q

Th17 cells regulate what

A

inflammation

668
Q

Inflammation is regulated by what cells

A

Th17

669
Q

Th17 cells regulate inflammation by secreting

A

IL-17

interleukin-17

670
Q

IL-17 is secreted by what cells to regulate inflammation

A

Th17

671
Q

True/False

Immunity is a balance

A

True

672
Q

Normal immune response with tolerance leads to

A

immunity against pathogens

673
Q

When there is not sufficient immunity against pathogens it leads to increases in what 2 things

A

infections

cancers

674
Q

Defective response against pathogens is known as

A

immunodeficiency

675
Q

immunodeficiency is (defective or excessive response)

A

defective

676
Q
Autoimmunity
Lymphoid tumors
Hypersensitivities (allergies) 
are all what type of response 
(excessive/defective)
A

Excessive

677
Q

When there is beyond sufficient immunity against pathogens it can cause what 3 things

A

Autoimmunity
Lymphoid tumors
Hypersensitivity

678
Q

Hypersensitivities are also commonly known as

A

allergies

679
Q

TCR and BCR are both what type of receptors

A

antigen binding

680
Q

True/False

Antigen binding receptors are generated randomly in germline

A

True

681
Q

What are 2 antigen binding receptors

A

TCR and BCR

682
Q

Antigen binding receptors are generated randomly in

A

germline

683
Q

amino acid sequences of antigen binding receptors may bind to

A

self antigens

684
Q

What % of TCR and BCR’s bind self antigens

A

20-50%

685
Q

20-50% of TCR and BCR bind what

A

self antigen

686
Q

What type of tolerance requires that self-reactive lymphocytes are

  1. destroyed
  2. turned off
A

self tolerance

687
Q

Self tolerance requires self-reactive lymphocytes to be what

A
  1. destroyed

2. turned off

688
Q

When self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed this is postive or negative selection

A

negative

689
Q

When self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed by negative selection during maturation of immune cells it occurs in what type of organs (primary/secondary)

A

primary

690
Q

What happens to self-reactive lymphocytes in primary organs

A

Destroyed

691
Q

Self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed by negative selection during what phase

A

maturation

692
Q

self-reactive lymphocytes are destroyed by negative selection during maturation of what cells

A

immune cells

693
Q

what type of selection occurs in primary lymphoid organs during self tolerance

A

negative selection

694
Q

What type of tolerance has destruction of self reactive lymphocytes in primary lymphoid organs

A

Self tolerance

695
Q

During self tolerance what type of lymphocytes are destroyed

A

self reactive

696
Q

Self-reactive lymphocytes are turned off in what type of organs (primary/secondary)

A

secondary

697
Q

Self-reactive lymphocytes are turned off in secondary lymphoid organs (earlier/later) in life

A

later

698
Q

In what type of tolerance are self-reactive lymphocytes turned off in secondary lymphoid organs

A

self tolerance

699
Q

During self tolerance what type of lymphocytes are turn off later in life

A

self reactive lymphocytes

700
Q

What is the term for unresponsive to an antigen

A

tolerance

701
Q

Tolerance is unresponsive to ___

A

an antigen

702
Q

Tolerance can occur if ____ are exposed to antigen early in life

A

immature lymphocytes

703
Q

True/False
Tolerance can occur if immature lymphocytes are exposed to antigen early in life and lymphocytes remain tolerant even when exposed later in life

A

True

704
Q

What can occur if immature lymphocytes are exposed to antigen early in life

A

Tolerance

705
Q

What is the term for reactivity against self

A

Autoimmunity

706
Q

Autoimmunity is reactivity against

A

self

707
Q

If reacivity against self is severe it can result in

A

Autoimmune disease

708
Q

what is a condition characterized by a specific antibody or cell mediated immune response against the constituents of the body’s own tissues

A

Autoimmunity

709
Q

Autoantigens are constituents of the body’s own

A

tissues

710
Q

Autoimmunity is characterized by what type of antibody or what type of immune response

A

specific antibody

cell-mediated immune response

711
Q

Autoimmunity is when a specific antibody or cell-mediated immune response goes against what

A

autoantigens

712
Q

Dizygotic means identical or non-identical

A

non-identical

713
Q

What is the term when non-identical calf twins share a placenta

A

dizygotic

714
Q

Dizygotic is when non-identical calf twins share a

A

placenta

715
Q

Bone marrow cells colonize each other in what type of calves

A

Chimeric calves

716
Q

Chimeric calves have what type of cells that colonize each other

A

Bone marrow

717
Q

Each chimera is tolerant to what cells

A

its twin’s cells

718
Q

Each chimera is tolerant to its twin’s cells and will accept ___ from its twin despite the genetic differences

A

skin graft

719
Q

Each chimera is tolerant to its twin’s cells and will accept skin graft from its twin despite _____

A

genetic difference

720
Q

CTLs do not reject what

A

skin grafts

721
Q

____ do not reject skin grafts

A

CTLs

722
Q

BVDV intrauterine infection is an example of

A

Tolerance

723
Q

What type of infection is an example of tolerance

A

BVDV intrauterine infection

724
Q

Non-cytopathic BVDV infects __

A

fetus

725
Q

What type of BVDV infects fetus

A

Non-cytopathic

726
Q

Non-cytopathic -__ infects fetus

A

BVDV

727
Q

Non-cytopathic BVDV infectus fetus around what days

A

50 to 120 days

728
Q

Around 50-120 days what infects fetus

A

Non-cytopathic BVDV

729
Q

PI stands for

A

persistently infected

730
Q

Calves become persistently infected and remain ___ for life

A

carriers

731
Q

___ become persistently infected and remain carriers for life

A

Calves

732
Q

Calves become persistently infected and remain carriers for how long

A

life

733
Q

Calves persistently infected and remain carriers for life are (seronegative/seropositie) and tolerant to virus

A

seronegative

734
Q

Pregnant BVDV-PI female is (least/most) common route

A

Least

Less than 10%

735
Q
Pregnant female (non-PI) infected with BVDV virus during first half of gestation is 
(least/most) common
A

Most

Over 90%

736
Q

BVDV virus is shed from what animals

A

infected animals

737
Q

PI calf will (constantly/occasionaly) shed BVD virus

A

Constantly

738
Q

What type of BVDV pregnant cow (PI or non-PI) is the most common route

A

Non-PI

739
Q

What type of BVDV pregnant cow (PI or non-PI) is the least common route

A

PI

740
Q

Central and Peripheral are mechanisms of induction of

A

tolerance

741
Q

What are the 2 mechanisms of induction of tolerance

A

Central

Peripheral

742
Q

Central tolerance affects (primary/secondary) lymphoid organs

A

Primary

743
Q

Primary lymphoid organs are affected by what type of tolerance

A

Central

744
Q
Bone marrow
Peyer's patches
Thymus
Bursa
are all (primary/secondary) lymphoid organs
A

Primary

745
Q
Bone marrow
Peyer's patches
Thymis 
Bursa 
are all induced by what type of tolerance
A

Central

746
Q

Central tolerance induces what organs

A

Bone marrow
Peyer’s ptaches
Thymus
Bursa

747
Q

In what type of tolerance do developing lymphocytes react to self antigens

A

Central

748
Q

In central tolerance ___ react to self antigens

A

developing lymphocytes

749
Q

in central tolerance developing lymphocytes react to

A

self antigens

750
Q

In central tolerance when developing lymphocytes react to self antigens it induces (positive/negative selection)

A

negative selection

751
Q

What type of tolerance induces negative selection

A

central

752
Q

what type of selection is induced when developing lymphocytes react to self antigens

A

Negative

753
Q

What type of tolerance is induced by secondary lymphoid organs

A

Peripheral

754
Q

Peripheral tolerance is induced by (primary/secondary) lymphoid organs

A

secondary

755
Q

Peripheral tolerance is when ___ recognize self antigens in the peripheral lymphoid tissues

A

Mature lymphocytes

756
Q

In what type of tolerance do mature lymphocytes recognize self antigens in the peripheral lymphoid tissues

A

Peripheral

757
Q

When mature lymphocytes recognize self antigens in the peripheral lymphoid tissues it leads to mechanisms of

A

removal or inactivation

758
Q

In peripheral tolerance mature lymphocytes recognize

A

self antigen

759
Q

What recognize self antigen in peripheral tolerance

A

mature lymphocytes

760
Q

mature lymphocytes recognize self antigens in what tissues

A

peripheral lymphoid

761
Q

What recognize self antigens in peripheral lymphoid tissues and leads to mechanisms of removal or inactivation

A

mature lymphocytes

762
Q

What type of tolerance leads to removal or inactivation

A

Peripheral tolerance

763
Q

What type of cells are more easily made tolerant

A

T cells

764
Q

T cells are more easily made tolerant within ___ hours

A

24 hours

765
Q

T cells are more easily made __ within 24 hours

A

tolerant

766
Q

What cells remain longer in a tolerant state

A

T cells

767
Q

___ cells more easily made tolerant and remain longer in a tolerant state than ___ cells

A

T cells

B cells

768
Q

Pre-T cells become

A

Thymocytes

769
Q

Thymocytes originate from

A

Pre-T cells

770
Q

What type of tolerance involes a thymocyte

A

central tolerance

771
Q

Thymocyte in central tolerance leads to a response within

A

thymus

772
Q

Response within the thymus in central tolerance leads to ___ by apoptosis

A

clonal deletion

773
Q

What type of tolerance leads to clonal deletion by apoptosis

A

central

774
Q

what type of tolerance involves a T cell

A

Peripheral tolerance

775
Q

T cell originates from

A

thymocyte

776
Q

thymocyte produces a

A

T cell

777
Q

Low doses of antigen and lack of costimulation are both due to what type of tolerance

A

peripheral

778
Q

Peripheral tolerance leads to ___

A

anergy

779
Q

What tolerance leads to anergy, apoptosis or T cell regulation

A

peripheral

780
Q

During Central Tolerance T cell selection occurs where

A

Thymus

781
Q

In what type of tolerance are T cells selected in thymus

A

Central Tolerance

782
Q

During central tolerance what type of cells are selected in the thymus

A

T cells

783
Q

Thymic epithelial cells express what factor

A

aire transcription

784
Q

Aire transcription factor is expressed by what cells

A

Thymic epithelial cells

785
Q

expression of aire transcription factor promotes express of

A

self proteins

786
Q

what facor promotes expression of self proteins

A

aire transcription factor

787
Q

Insulin
Thyroglobulin
Myelin basic protein
are all examples of what

A

self proteins

788
Q

Name a few self proteins

A

Insulin
Thyroglobulin
myelin basic protein

789
Q

Aire transcription factor promotes expression of self proteins except antigens of what 3 organs

A

brain
eye
testis

790
Q

T cells with TcRs that bind with high affinity to many self antigens are programmed to

A

die

791
Q

What type of selection occurs when cells are programmed to die (positive/negative)

A

Negative selection

792
Q

What 2 things bind during negative selection which program self antigens to die

A

T cells with TcRs

793
Q

T cells with TcRs bind with (high/low) affinity to cause negative selection

A

high

794
Q

T cells with TcRs bind with high affinity to what

A

self antigens

795
Q

Negative selection is regulated by what gene

A

aire gene

796
Q

aire gene regulates what

A

negative selection

797
Q

aire stands for

A

Autoimmune Regulator

798
Q

if pre-T cells react strongly with self antigens what occurs

A

apoptosis

799
Q

If pre-T cells do not react strongly with self antigens they go on to react with

A

self-MHC

800
Q

When cells react weakly or not at all with self-MHC what occurs

A

apoptosis

801
Q

When cells react with self-MHC and proliferate what type of cells occur

A

MHC-restricted non-self reactive mature T cells

802
Q

When pre-T cells react or do not react with self-antigens this is negative or positive selection

A

negative

803
Q

When cells react with self-MHC or they do not this is negative or positive selection

A

positive

804
Q

What leads to ineffective central tolerance and autoimmunity

A

gene defects

805
Q

Gene defects lead to ineffective central tolerance and

A

autoimmunity

806
Q

gene defects lead to ineffective ____ and autoimmunity

A

central tolerance

807
Q

defects in ___ lead to autoimmune diseases that effects multiple organs

A

aire

808
Q

Defects in aire lead to

A

autoimmune diseases

809
Q

Mutations in ____ leads to apoptosis

A

fas

810
Q

CD95 is known as

A

fas

811
Q

Fas is what CD

A

CD95

812
Q

Death receptor pathway is also known as

A

apoptosis

813
Q

True/False

Self reactive lymphocytes do not undergo apoptosis when there is a mutation in fas

A

True

814
Q

Do self reactive lymphocytes undergo apoptosis when there is a mutation in fas

A

No

815
Q

What cannot occur when there are mutations in fas

A

negative selection of T cells

816
Q

Can negative selection of T cells occur when there are mutations in fas

A

No

817
Q

Immature B cells that bind self antigens with high affinity undergo what 2 things

A

negative selection

receptor editing

818
Q

Immature B cells bind self antigens with high or low affinity to cause negative selection or receptor editing

A

high

819
Q

What bind to self antigens with high affinity to undergo negative selection or receptor edting

A

immature B cells

820
Q

Immature B cells bind ___ with high affinity

A

self antigens

821
Q

Negative selection is also known as what process

A

apoptosis

822
Q

Receptor editing occurs on what region of genes

A

variable regions

823
Q

What happens to genes in the variable region when immature B cells bind self antigens

A

receptor editing

824
Q

Immunoglobulin genes recombine so that a new ___ chain is spliced with a __ chain

A

light

heavy

825
Q

Immunoglobulin genes ___ so that a new light chain is spliced with a heavy chain

A

recombine

826
Q

What type of genes recombine so that a new light chain is spliced with a heavy chain

A

immunoglobulin

827
Q

when immunoglobulin genes recombine it produces what type of receptor

A

B cell

828
Q

When immunoglobulin genes recombine it produces a B cell receptor that is no longer specific to

A

self antigen

829
Q

Mature self-reactive cells that leave the thymus can be suppressed by what 3 mechanisms

A

Anergy
Deletion
Supression

830
Q

Anergy
Deletion
Suppression
are all mechanisms of

A

supressed mature self-reactive cells

831
Q

Mature self-reactive cells leave the ___

A

thymus

832
Q

Mature self-reactive cells that leave the thymus are suppressed in the ___

A

periphery

833
Q

What is the term for functional inactivation

A

Anergy

834
Q

Anergy is ….

A

functional inactivation

835
Q

What is it called cells recognize self-antigens without adequate levels of costimulatory signals (second signals)

A

Anergy

836
Q

Anergy is when cells recognize self-antigens without adequate levels of

A

costimulatory signals

837
Q

Anergy is when cells recognize ____ without adequate levels of costimulatory signsl

A

self-antigens

838
Q

What is activation induced apoptosis

A

Deletion

839
Q

Deletion is activation induced

A

apoptosis

840
Q

What is it called when activation of cell by self-antigen stimulates T cell clones that kill each other

A

Deletion

841
Q

Deletion is activation of cell by self-antigen which stimulates

A

T cell clones

842
Q

T cell clones kill each other by what pathway

A

FasL/Fas

843
Q

Suppression by Tregs produces what 2 cytokines

A

TGF-B or IL-10

844
Q

TGF-B and IL-10 are produced by

A

suppresion by Tregs

845
Q

Inflammatory signals provided by ___ interactions

A

PRR-PAMP

846
Q

PRR-PAMP interactions provide

A

inflammatory signals

847
Q

Cytokines are also known as what kind of signals

A

inflammatory

848
Q

inflammatory signals are also called

A

cytokines

849
Q

TcR binding to antigen without co-stimulatory signals or inhibition of co-stimulatory pathway results in

A

anergy

850
Q

TcR binding to antigen without ____ signals or inhibition of ____ pathway results in anergy

A

co-stimulatory

851
Q

Inhibitory receptors include

A

CTLA-4

PDI

852
Q

CTLA-4 and PDI are both what types of receptors

A

Inhibitory

853
Q

What cell presents CD28

A

Naive T cell

854
Q

what cell presents B7

A

APC

855
Q

Anergy is when what cells are costimulator deficient

A

APC

856
Q

APCs are costimulator deficient during

A

anergy

857
Q

Antigen recognition without costimulation results in what type of APC

A

costimulator deficient

858
Q

What type of T cell response occurs when there is restimulation with APC expressing costimulators

A

No response

859
Q

Antigens recognized in the presence of strong co-stimulation/growth factors stimulate production of

A

anti-apoptotic proteins

860
Q

Antigens recognized in the presence of which strong co-stimulation growth factor stimulates production of anti-apoptotic proteins

A

IL-2

861
Q

Inducers of apoptosis is sequestered where

A

mitochondria

862
Q

Activated T cells leads to T cell ___ and ____

A

proliferation and differentiation

863
Q

cell death is caused by engagement of

A

death receptors

864
Q

Engagement of death receptors causes

A

cell death

865
Q

Expression of death receptor ligand and receptor leads to

A

apoptosis

866
Q

Recognition of self antigens may trigger

A

apoptosis

867
Q

Apoptosis resutls in deletion of self-reactive T cells through expression of

A

Fas/fas ligand

868
Q

What are deleted through expression of fas

A

self reactive T cells

869
Q

Regulatory T cells are generated by the combined actions of __ and ___

A

IL-2 and TGF-B

870
Q

Presence of retinoic acid generates

A

Tregs

871
Q

IL-2
TGF-B
Retinoic acid are generate

A

Tregs

872
Q

Tregs are generated bt 3 things

A

IL-2
TGF-B
retinoic acid

873
Q

Tregs characteristically produce what suppressive cytokines

A

TGF-B
IL-10
IL-35

874
Q

TGF-B
IL-10
IL-35
are

A

suppressive cytokines

875
Q

TGF-B, IL-10 and IL-35 all cause suppresion of what function

A

T cell and macrophage

876
Q

Tregs mediate suppression by secreting

A

TGF-B and IL-10

877
Q

Th1 is what type of T cell

A

Effector T cell

878
Q

Effector T cells + IFN-y create what type of cell

A

activated macrophae

879
Q

Effector T cells need what type of cytokine to become an activated macrophage

A

IFN-y

880
Q

Tregs cause contact dependent inhibition of what responses

A

T cell

881
Q

What cells cause contact dependent inhibition of T cell responses

A

Tregs

882
Q

Tregs cause cytokine mediated inhibition of what response

A

T cell

883
Q

What cells cause cytokine mediated inhibition of T cell respones

A

Tregs

884
Q

Cytokine mediated inhibition of T cell responses affects what type of T cells

A

Effector T cells

885
Q

Contect dependent inhibition of T cell responses affects what type of T cells

A

Naive

886
Q

Tregs cause ____

A

suppression

887
Q

Self-reactive B cells can occur in what type of lymphoid tissues

A

secondary lymphoid tissues

888
Q

Self-reactive ___ cells occur in secondary lymphoid tissues

A

B cells

889
Q

what type of tolerance occurs when self-reactive B cells occur in secondary lymphoid tissues

A

Peripheral B-cell

890
Q

Peripheral B cell tolerance is when — B cells occur in secondary lymphoid tissues

A

self -reactive

891
Q

Antibody diversity is generated by

A

VDJ rearrangement
Random somatic mutation
self-reactive receptors

892
Q

VDJ rearrangement
Random somatic mutation
self-reactive receptors
all generated what

A

antibody diversity

893
Q

VDJ rearranagment occurs in what type of lymphoid organs

A

primary

894
Q

Random somatic mutation occurs in what organ

A

lymph nodes or spleen

895
Q

Random somatic mutation occurs in which portion of the lymph node

A

germinal center

896
Q

55-75% of early immature B cells may have what type of receptors

A

self-reactive

897
Q

55-75% of what type of cells may have self-reactive receptors

A

immature B cells

898
Q

Mature B cells become what

A

plasma cells

899
Q

Exhaustive antigen challenge leads to

A

clonal exhaustion

900
Q

what causes clonal exhaustion

A

exhaustive antigen challenge

901
Q

Absence of costimulation
Excessive suppressor cell activity
Excessive T-independent antigen
all cause what

A

funtional deleteion

902
Q

Excessive T-independent antigen can also cause

A

receptor blockade

903
Q

receptor blockade is caused by

A

excessive T-independent antigen

904
Q

Functional deletion is caused by

A

Absence of costimulation
Excessive suppresor cell activity
Excessive T-independent antigen

905
Q

Clonal exhaustion
Functional deletion
Receptor blockade
are all mechanisms of

A

peripheral B cell tolerance

906
Q

Presence of maternal antibody in a newborn animal (delays/speeds up) the onset of immunoglobulin synthesis

A

Delays

907
Q

Presence of maternal antibody in a newborn delays onset of immunoglobulin synthesis through (positive/negative) feedback process

A

negative

908
Q

Presence of ___ in newborns delays the onset of immunoglobulin synthesis

A

maternal antibody

909
Q

presence of maternal antibody in a newborn animal delays the onset of ___

A

immunoglobulin synthesis

910
Q

CD32 has a (high/low) affinity for IgG

A

low

911
Q

FcyRIIB is the receptor for which CD

A

32

912
Q

___ has a low affinity for IgG

A

CD32

913
Q

CD32 has a low affinity for

A

IgG

914
Q

CD32 has a low affinity for IgG and (down/up) regulates antibody production

A

down

915
Q

CD32 has a low affinity for IgG and down regulates what

A

antibody production

916
Q

CD32 has a low affinity for IgG and down regulates antibody production in the presence of

A

IgG antigen complexes

917
Q

Down regulation of antibody production in the presence of IgG antigen complex is due to which CD

A

CD32

918
Q

Which CD has a low affinity for IgG

A

CD32

919
Q

Down regulation of antibody production due to IgG antigen complex lowers the production of IgG by what cells

A

B cells

920
Q

Feedback loop lowers the production of IgG by B cells when there is

A

surplus

921
Q

Feedback loop lowers the production of ___ by B cells when there is a surplus

A

IgG

922
Q

Cell death signals by what cells

A

T cells

923
Q

Encounter of the anergic B cell with a CD4 T cell leads to signaling through

A

Fas

924
Q

Signaling through Fas occurs when an anergic B cell encounters what other cell

A

CD4 T cell

925
Q

Signaling through Fas occurs when what cell encounters a CD4 T cell

A

anergic B cell

926
Q

Signaling through Fas causes

A

induced apoptosis

Eliminates autoreactive B cells

927
Q

What type of antibodies are antibodies to variable regions of a prior antibody molecule

A

idiotypic

928
Q

Idiotypic antibodies are antibodies to __ regions of a prior antibody molecule

A

variable

929
Q

Clonal exhaustion is caused by repeated ____

A

antigenic challenge

930
Q

What is caused by repeated antigenic challenge

A

clonal exhaustion

931
Q

Clonal exhaustion results in what cells

A

plasma cells

932
Q

Does clonal exhaustion result in memory B cells

A

NO

933
Q

Clonal exhaustion results in plasma cells but no

A

memory B cells

934
Q

What results in plasma cells but no memory B cells

A

clonal exhaustion

935
Q

Clonal exhaustion results in ___ but no memory B cells

A

plasma cells

936
Q

Immune complexes bind what receptors during peripheral tolerance

A

B-cell inhibitory receptors

937
Q

Immune complexes bind B cell inhibitory receptors during what type of tolerance

A

Peripheral

938
Q

CD32 (FcyRII) induces

A

anergy

939
Q

Anergy is induced by what during peripheral tolerance

A

CD32

940
Q

Myeloma patients
Maternal antibodies in neonates
are examples of what type of immune complexes

A

Those which bind B-cell inhibitory receptors

941
Q

What are examples of immune complexes that bind B-cell inhibitory receptors

A

Myeloma patients

Maternal antibody in neonates

942
Q

What is an antibody to Rh factor

A

Rhogam

943
Q

Rhogam prevents the Rh- mother from responding to

A

Rh+ cells

944
Q

Rhogam is an antibody to what

A

Rh factor

945
Q

Rhogam prevents ___ mother from responding to Rh+ cells

A

Rh-

946
Q

Rhogam prevents Rh- mother from responding to

A

Rh+ cells

947
Q

T cells induce B cell apoptosis via what expression

A

Fas

948
Q

___ induce B cell apoptosis via Fas expression

A

T cells

949
Q

T cells induce ___ via Fas expression

A

B cell apoptosis

950
Q

Idiotypic networks dampen what responses

A

antibody

951
Q

__ dampens antibody responses

A

Idiotypic networks

952
Q

Idiotypes are antibodies against

A

antibodies

953
Q

___ are antibodies against antibodies

A

Idiotypes

954
Q

What is the prevention or treatment of diseases/abnormalities with substances that stimulate or inhibit immune responses

A

Immunotherapy

955
Q

Immunotherapy is the prevention or treatment of disease/abnormaltities with substances that stimulate or inhibit

A

immune responses

956
Q

True/False

Drugs can modulate immune system

A

True

957
Q

Corticosteroids are the most widely used drugs which do what to immune responses

A

suppress

958
Q

What are the most widely used drugs that suppress immune responses

A

Corticosteroids

959
Q

Corticosteroids prevent what activation

A

NF-kB

960
Q

What prevents NF kB activation

A

Corticosteroids

961
Q

True/False

Corticosteroids block many immune functions

A

True

962
Q

What drugs are used to prevent allograft rejection/treat autoimmune disease

A

Immunosuppressive drugs

963
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs are used to prevent allograft rejection and treat

A

autoimmune disease

964
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs are used to prevent ___ and treat autoimmune disease

A

allograft rejection

965
Q

What drugs are nonspecific inhibitors of cell division

A

immunosuppressive

966
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs are nonspecific inhibitors of

A

cell division

967
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs are (specific/nonspecific) inhibitors of cell division

A

nonspecific

968
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs are nonspecific (inhibitors/activators) of cell division

A

inhibitors

969
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs specifically block T cell activation by interfering with

A

signal transduction

970
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs specifically block ___ activation by interfering with signal transduction

A

T cell activation

971
Q

What drugs speficially block T cell activation by interfering with signal transduction

A

Immunosuppressive

972
Q

What drugs are nonspecific inhibiors of cell division

A

Immunosuppressive drugs

973
Q

PAMPs activate

A

PRR

974
Q

Immune system stimulants include

A

PAMPs

975
Q

Immune system stimulants include PAMPS that activate PRRs in what type of fashion

A

nonspecific

976
Q

Immune system stimulants include PAMPs that (activate/deactiate) PRRs

A

activate

977
Q

Cytokine therapy may be used but are hindered due to what 2 things

A

Toxicity and cost

978
Q

Toxicity and cost are 2 main concerns with what type of therapy

A

cytokine

979
Q

Stimulants or Inhibitors of Immunotherapy act on what tyep of immune system

A

Innate, adaptive or both

980
Q

Can stimulants or inhibitors of immunotherapy act on innate and adaptive immune systems

A

Yes

981
Q

What does BRM stand for

A

Biological Response Modifiers

982
Q

Immunotherapy employs what substances

A

BRM

983
Q

What are the 3 biologics of BRMs used in Immunotherapy

A

Monoclonal antibodies
Cytokines
PAMPs

984
Q

ENBREL (anti TNF-a) is what aspect of biologics in BRMS

A

Monoclonal antibodies

985
Q

ENBREL is anti what

A

TNFa

986
Q

Name a monoclonal antibody used in BRM

A

ENBREL

987
Q

IL-2/GM-CSF is what aspect of biologics in BRM

A

Cytokines

988
Q

Name a cytokine used in BRM

A

IL-2/GM-CSF

989
Q

CpGs is what aspect of biologics in BRM

A

PAMPs

990
Q

Name a PAMP used in BRM

A

CpG

991
Q

Corticosteroids and non-corticosteroid inhibitors are small chemical drugs known as

A

BRMS

992
Q

Name 2 small chemical drugs of BRMS

A

corticosteroids

non-corticosteroid

993
Q

Hypersensitivity reactions
Cancer
Infectious agents
are all target diseases/abnormalities of

A

Immunotherapy

994
Q

Immunotherapy has what 3 common target diseases/abnormalitites

A

Hypersensitiity reactions
Cancer
Infectious agents

995
Q

Etanercept has the trade name

A

Enbrel

996
Q

Enbral is the trade name for

A

Etanercept

997
Q

What is a biopharmaceutical that treats autoimmune diseases by acting as a TNF-a inhibitor

A

etanercept

998
Q

Etanercept is a biopharmaceutical that treats what diseases

A

autoimmune

999
Q

Etanercept is a biopharmaceutical that treats autoimmune diseases by acting as a

A

TNF-a inhibitor

1000
Q

What is approved to treat rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, plaque psoriasis and ankylosing spondylitis

A

Etanercept

1001
Q

IL-2 is used in the treatment of

A

maligant melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

1002
Q

What cytokine is used in the treatment of malignant melanoma and renal cell carcinoma

A

IL-2

1003
Q

What is approved for use in Hairy-cell leukemia, Kaposi’s sarcoma, Follicular lymphoma, Chronic myeloid leukemia and melanoma

A

IFN-a

1004
Q

EqStim is known as what type of biologic

A

PAMP

1005
Q

Example of a PAMP

A

EqStim

1006
Q

What drug is Propionobacterium acnes (CpG DNA motifs) which stimulate TLR 9 receptors in cytosol

A

Eqstim

1007
Q

Eqstim stimulates which receptors

A

TLR 9

1008
Q

EqStim stimulates TLR 9 receptors in

A

cytosol

1009
Q

What activates sentinel cell killing mechanisms

A

EqStim

1010
Q

EqStim activates what type of cell killing mechanism

A

sentinel

1011
Q

you should treat horses prior to transport with what to reduce respiratory infections

A

EqStim

1012
Q

EqStim is used to treat horses prior to

A

transport

1013
Q

EqStim is used to reat horses prior to transport to reduce

A

respiratoryinfections

1014
Q

Zelnate is known as

A

Bayer

1015
Q

Bayer is another name for

A

Zelinate

1016
Q

Zelinate: Bayer is what type of biologic

A

PAMP

1017
Q

BCG stands for

A

Bacille Calmette-Guerin

1018
Q

BCG is what type of biologic

A

PAMP

1019
Q

BCG activates what cells

A

Macrophages

1020
Q

BCG requires which 3 components to activate macrophages

A

TNF-a, IL-12 and NO

1021
Q

What activates macrophages using TNF-a, IL-12 and NO

A

BCG

1022
Q

Theracys is what type of BCG

A

Live

1023
Q

Theracys are live BCG used to treat

A

human melanomas, bladder tumors

1024
Q

What BCG is used to treat human melanomas and bladder tumors

A

Theracys

1025
Q

what is a cell wall extract for equine sarcoids

A

Regressin

1026
Q

Regressin is a cell wall extract for what

A

equine sarcoids

1027
Q

What type of therapy is a preventative hypo-sensitizatio therapy

A

Desensitization therapy

1028
Q

Desensitization therapy is a preventative ____ therapy

A

hypo-sensitization

1029
Q

multiple increasing dose antigen immunization stimulates what

A

blocking antibody IgG

1030
Q

When multiple increasing dose antigen immunization stimulates blocking antibody IgG it binds allergen leading to

A

phagocytosis

1031
Q

What stimulates blocking antibody IgG

A

multiple increasing dose antigen immunization

1032
Q

Th1 cytokines are

A

IFN-y

1033
Q

Th1 cytokines inhibit ___

A

Th2

1034
Q

Th1 cytokines inhibit Th2 and prodyction of

A

IL-4 and IgE

1035
Q

Production of IL-4 and IgE are inhibited by

A

Th1 cytokines

1036
Q

Th1 cytokines can induce tolerance by stimulating

A

Tregs

1037
Q

What cytokine is involves with Tregs

A

IL-10

1038
Q

Th1 cytokines induce ____ by stimulating Tregs

A

tolerance

1039
Q

Increasing doses of allergens
(increase/decrease)
Type I cytokines
(IFN-g and IgG)

A

Increase

1040
Q

IFN-g and IgG are involved in what type of cytokines

A

Type I

1041
Q

Increasing doses of allergens (increase/decrease) type 2 cytokines

A

decrease

1042
Q

Increasing doses of allergen (increase/decrease) regulatory T cells

A

Increase

1043
Q

Increase in Type I cytokines and Tregs, decrease in Type 2 cytokines
reduces mediator release from

A

mast cells

1044
Q

Increase in Type I cytokines and Tregs, decrease in Type 2 cytokines decreases the number of

A

mast cells in tissues

1045
Q

Increase in Type I cytokines and Tregs, decrease in Type 2 cytokines decreases serum __ levels

A

IgE

1046
Q

Increasing doses of allergen ultimately leads to what 3 things

A

Reduces mediator release from mast cells
Decreases # of mast cells in tissues
Decreases serum IgE levels

1047
Q

What is the principle of desensitization therapy

A

Increasing doses of allergen

1048
Q

Desensitization therapy regulates the production of

A

antibody

1049
Q

During hypo-sensitization therapy what can happen

A

switches antibody class

1050
Q

True/false

During hypo-sensitization therapy switches antibody class

A

True

1051
Q

Corticosteroids are a class of

A

steroid hormones

1052
Q

What are a class of steroid hormones produced in the adrenal cortex

A

Corticosteroids

1053
Q

Corticosteroids are produced where

A

adrenal cortex

1054
Q

True/false

synthetic analogues of corticosteroids are also produced in adrenal cortex

A

True

1055
Q

What are the 2 classes of corticosteroids

A

Glucocorticoids

Mineralocorticoids

1056
Q

Glucocorticoids and Mineralocorticoids are both classes of

A

corticosteroids

1057
Q

Prednisolone is what type of drug

A

immunosuppressive

1058
Q

Prednisolone is what class of corticosteroid

A

glucocorticoids

1059
Q

What is a drug in the glucocorticoid class

A

prednisolone

1060
Q

What drug is an anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, anti-proliferative and vasoconstrictive

A

Prednisolone

1061
Q

Prednisolone has what 4 effects

A

Anti-inflammatory
Immunosuppressive
Anti-proliferative
Vasoconstrictive

1062
Q

What is a drug in the mineralocorticoid class

A

aldosterone

1063
Q

Aldosterone is in what class of corticosteroids

A

mineralocorticoids

1064
Q

What drug regulates electrolyte and water balance

A

Aldosterone

1065
Q

Aldosterone regulates __ and ___

A

electrolyte and water balance

1066
Q

Prednisolone and Aldosterone are in what general category of drugs

A

Corticosteroids

1067
Q

Corticosteroid are (lipid soluble/insoluble) molecules

A

lipid-soluble

1068
Q

What drugs are lipid-soluble molecules that enter cells by diffusing across the plasma membrane and bind to their receptors in the cytosol

A

Corticosteroid

1069
Q

Corticosteroids are lipid-soluble molecules that enter a cell by diffusing across the plasma membrane and bind to their receptor where

A

in the cytosol

1070
Q

binding of corticosteroid to the receptor displaces a dimer of a heat-shock protein

A

Hsp90

1071
Q

When the receptor displaces Hsp90 it exposes hat region of the receptor

A

DNA-binding region

1072
Q

Steroid-receptor complex enters the nucleus and binds to specific DNA sequences in what regions

A

promoter regions of steroid responsive genes

1073
Q

Corticosteroids exert their numerous effects by modulating

A

transcription

1074
Q

Corticosteroids exert their numerous effects by modulating transcription of a large or small variety of genes

A

wide

1075
Q

Steroid receptors are found in the

___

A

cytoplasm

1076
Q

Steroid receptors are found in the cytoplasm complexed with

A

Hsp90

1077
Q

Steroids cross the cell membrane and bind to the steroid receptor complex releasing

A

Hsp90

1078
Q

Once the steroid receptor releases Hsp90 the steroid: receptor complex can now

A

cross the nuclear membrane

1079
Q

In the ___ the steroid receptor binds to specific gene regulatory sequences

A

nucleus

1080
Q

when the steroid receptor binds to spcific gene regulatory sequences in the nucleus it activates

A

transcription

1081
Q

Following immune stimulation cytokine synthesis occurs when what happens

A

transcription factor NF-kB dissociates from its inhibitor IkBa

1082
Q

Following immune stimulation what occurs

A

cytokine synthesis

1083
Q

What occurs when the transcription factor NF-kB dissociates from its inhibitor IkBa

A

cytokine synthesis

1084
Q

Cytokine synthesis occurs when what dissociates from its inhibitor IkBa

A

transcription factor NFkB

1085
Q

Cytokine synthesis occurs when transcription factor NFkB dissociates from

A

its inhibitor IkBa

1086
Q

What is the inhibitor of NF-kB

A

IkBa

1087
Q

IkBa is the inhibitor of

A

NF-kB

1088
Q

NF-kB is what type of factor

A

trasncription facotr

1089
Q

What happens when IkBa is released

A

degraded

1090
Q

NF-kB continues on to do

A

transcription and cytokine synthesis

1091
Q

Corticosteroids stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of

A

IkBa

1092
Q

What stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkBa

A

corticosteroids

1093
Q

When corticosteroids stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkBa it binds to

A

NF-kB

1094
Q

when corticosteroidds stimulate the synthesis of excessive amounts of IkBa it binds to NF-kB and continues to do what

A

prevent its activation

1095
Q

What is the overall outcome of the mechanism of action of glucocorticoids

A

control immune mediated disease, autoimmune diseases and lymphoid cancers

1096
Q

Control immune mediated diseases, autoimmune diseases, lymphoid cancers are all outcomes of the mechanism of action of what

A

glucocorticoids

1097
Q

immune mediated diseases, autoimmune diseases, lymphoid cancers are all outcomes of what 2 things

A

reduced gene transcription and cytokine synthesis

1098
Q

NF-kB causes reduced gene transcription and cytokine synthesis leading to

A

immune mediated diseases, autoimmune diseases, lymphoid cancers are all outcomes

1099
Q

Decrease in IL-1, TNF-a, GM-CSF, IL-3, IL-4, IL-8 all cause what physiological effect

A

decreases inflammation caused by cytokines

1100
Q

Decreases NOS leads to what physiological effect

A

decreased NO

1101
Q

decreased phospholipase A2 and cyclooxygenase type 2 but increases lipocortin-1 cause what physiological effect

A

decreases prostaglandins and leukotrienes

1102
Q

decreased adhesion molecules cause what physiological effect

A

reduced emigration of leukocytes from vessels

1103
Q

increased endonucleases causes what physiological efect

A

induction of apoptosis in lymphocytes and eosinophils

1104
Q

What cells decrease chemotaxis

A

neutrophils

Macrophages (APCS)

1105
Q

What cells decrease phagocytosis

A

Neutrophils

Macrophages

1106
Q

What cells decrease cytokine production

A

lymphocytes

1107
Q

what cells depress antigen processing

A

macrophages

1108
Q

what cells depress lymphocyte proliferation

A

lymphocytes

1109
Q

what cells depress immunoglobulin

A

some lymphocytes decrease

B cells are fairly resistant

1110
Q

Azathioprine (Imuran) is what type of drug

A

Cytotoxic

1111
Q

Inhibits nucleic acid (purine) synthesis
Targets S phase of cell cycle
Affects T cell proliferation
is the mode of action of what drugs

A

cytotoxic

Azathioprine

1112
Q

Azathioprine inhibits what

A

nucleic acid synthesis

1113
Q

Azathioprine targets what phase of the cell cycle

A

S

1114
Q

Azathioprine affects what

A

T cell proliferation

1115
Q

Azathioprine is used in combination with steroids for the treatment of what diseases

A

immune mediated and autoimmune diseases

1116
Q

Cyclophosphamide is what type of drug

A

Cytotoxic

1117
Q

Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent that cross links what

A

DNA helices

1118
Q

Cyclophosphamide is toxic for what cells

A

resting and dividing cells

1119
Q

What drug is an alkylating agent that cross links DNA helices

A

cyclophosphamide

1120
Q

what drug is toxic for resting and dividng cells

A

cyclophosphamide

1121
Q

what drug impairs B and T cell responses

A

cyclophosphamide

1122
Q

Cyclophosphamide impairs what responses

A

B and T cell

1123
Q

what drug is used for lymphoid neoplasia, autoimmunity, immune mediated diseases

A

Cyclophosphamide

1124
Q

What drug can suppress bone marrow

A

cyclophosphamide

1125
Q

Cyclophosphamide can suppress what

A

bone marrow

1126
Q

Tacrolimus and cyclosporine are both what type of drugs

A

immunosuppressive

1127
Q

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus both prevent activation of the signaling molecule

A

calcineurin

1128
Q

Calcineurin is what type of molecule

A

signaling

1129
Q

When cyclosporine and tacrolimus prevent activation of calcineurin the transcription factor NF-AT is

A

inhibited

1130
Q

NF-AT is what type of factor

A

transcription

1131
Q

When NF-AT is inhibited activation of genes forIL-2 production are

A

prevented

1132
Q

What drugs are used for kidney transplants and autoimmune diseases

A

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus

1133
Q

True/false

Cyclosporine and tacrolimus can be used in combination with steroids

A

True

1134
Q

mTOR

A

mammalian target of rapamycin

1135
Q

what is a serine/theronine kinase which belongs to phosphatidylinositol-3 kinase (PI3K) related to kinases (PKK) family

A

mTOR

1136
Q

mTOR regulates what 3 things

A

cellular metabolism
growth
proliferation

1137
Q

what is a target for the development of mTOR inhibitors

A

mTOR

1138
Q

What is the mode of action of Rapamycin

A

blocks activation of mTOR

1139
Q

what blocks the activation of mTOR

A

rapamycin

1140
Q

Rapamycin is what type of drug

A

immunosuppressive

1141
Q

when mTOR is blocked numerous cell functions are blocked including what 2 things

A

gene activation pathways and cell cycle progression

1142
Q

NSAID stands for

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

1143
Q

what drugs provide analgesic (pain killing) and antipyretic (fever reducing) effects and in higher doses anti-inflammatory effects

A

NSAID

1144
Q

Apoquel is an example of what kind of drug

A

NSAID

1145
Q
What drug is a Janus kinase inhibitor 
JAKI
JAK2
JAK3
TKY2
A

Apoquel

1146
Q

what drug is used to control pruritius associated with allergic dermatitis and control of atopic dermatitis

A

apoquel

1147
Q

Apoquel inhibits the function of a variety of what type of cytokines

A

proinflammatory and cytokines involved in JAK1 or JAK3 activity

1148
Q

Apoquel targets specific ___ that cause itch and inflammation in allergic skin disease releving symptoms

A

cytokines

1149
Q

Steroids inhibit what

A

phospholipases

1150
Q

phospholipases are inhibited by

A

steroids

1151
Q

aspirin inhibits what

A

cyclooxygenase

1152
Q

cyclooxygenase is inhibited by

A

aspirin

1153
Q

What LT’s have increases vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction

A

C
D
E

1154
Q

LTC, LTD, LTE all have increased what

A

vascular permeability and smooth muscle contraction

1155
Q

what leukotriene involves chemotaxis of blood leukocytes (neitrophils and eosinophils)

A

LTB4

1156
Q

When aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, what is not made

A

prostaglandins

1157
Q

If prostaglandins are inhibited it makes more

A

leukotrienes

1158
Q

Prostaglandins and Leukotrienes are both what

A

vasoactive lipids

1159
Q

What are 2 vasoactive lipids

A

Leukotrienes

Prostaglandins