Exam 3 Flashcards
Methods of Conferring/Inducing Immunity
Acquired Immunity
What are the 2 types of Acquired Immunity
Passive and Active
What are 2 ways Passive Immunity occurs
Artificial immune globulins
Colostral antibodies
What are 2 ways Active Immunity occurs
Artificial immunization
Natural infection
Passive and Active are _____
Types of Acquired Immunity
Artificial immune globulins and Colostral antibodies are what immunity
Passive Immunity
Artificial immunization and natural infection are what immunity
Active Immunity
Artificial immunization occurs in which 2 types of organisms
Living and Non-living
Living and non-living organisms can be used in what form of active immunity
Artificial immunization
Recombinant organisms come from (living/non-living) organisms
Living
Viral vectors and Bacterial vectors come from
Recombinant organisms
Recombinant organisms give rise to what 2 vectors
Viral and Bacterial
Fully virulent
Ex and Living/Non-living
Contagious ecthyma
Living
Heterologous
Ex and Living/Non-living
Measles
Living
Culture attenuated
Ex and Living/Non-living
Distemper
Living
Genetically attenuated
Ex and Living/Non-living
Pseudorabies
Living
Contagious ecthyma
Measles
Distemper
Pseudorabies
are all examples of what type of organisms
Living
Contagious ecthyma is what type of living organism
Fully virulent
Measles is what type of living organism
Heterologous
Distemper is what type of living organism
Culture attenuated
Pseudorabies is what type of living organism
Genetically attenuated
Fully virulent
Heterologous
Culture attenuated
Genetically attenuated
are all what type of organism
Living
Killed organisms
Isolated antigens
are what type of organism
Non-living
Killed organisms include
Bacterins
Viruses
Non-living organisms include what 2 groups
Killed organisms
Isolated antigens
Isolated antigens include what 4 groups
Cloned antigens
Toxoids
DNA vaccines
Synthetic antigens
Cloned antigens
Toxoids
DNA vaccines
Synthetic antigens
are from what group of non-living organisms
Isolated antigens
Example of cloned antigens
Feline leukemia
Feline leukemia is an example of what type of isolated antigen
Cloned antigen
Does Active Immunity have:
Specificity
Memory
Yes
Yes
What type of Immunity has both specificity and memory
Active Immunity
Microbial antigen (vaccine or infection)
Days/weeks
Challenge infection
Recovery immunity
This is the process of what type of immunity
Active Immunity
Does Passive Immunity have:
Specificity
Memory
Yes
No
What type of Immunity has only specificity, no memory
Passive Immunity
Serum (antibodies) from immune individual
Administration of serum to uninfected individual
Infection
Recovery immunity
Is what type of Immunity
Passive Immunity
What immunity is given when serum from immune individual is administered to uninfected individuals
Passive Immunity
What immunity is given when microbial antigen (vaccine or infection) is used
Active Immunity
What type of immunity occurs days to weeks later
Active Immunity
What type of Passive Immunization (Homologous/Heterlogous)
Horse immune globulin administered to dog
Heterologous
Horse immune globulin given to horse is what type of passive immunization
Homologous
Passive Immunization
2 types:
Heterologous
Homologous
Heterologous and Homologous are 2 types of what Immunization
Passive
Amount of anitbody in serum lasts steady until 21 days when horse immune globulin is given
(Heterologous/Homologous)
Homologous
Horse
Amount of antibody in serum, severe decrease and ends at 7 days when horse immune globulin is given
(Heterologous/Homologous)
Heterlogous
Dog
Which type of Passive Immunization lasts longer
Homologous
Major consideration of an ideal vaccine
Correlate of protection
Correlate of protection =
Major consideration of an ideal vaccine
4 qualities of an ideal vaccine
- Mimic natural infection without actual pathogen
- Prolonged and enhanced immunity
- Safe with few or no side effects
- Stable and easy to administer
Prolonged and enhanced immunity must have
Efficient antigen presentation
Efficient antigen presentation is needed for
Prolonged and enhanced immunity
Activation of T and B cells to several epitopes of the pathogen to enhance immunity in individuals of an outbred population is needed for
Prolonged and enhanced immunity
Prolonged and enhanced immunity not only needs efficient antigen presentation it also needs
Activation of T and B cells to several epitopes of the pathogen
Activation of T and B cells to several epitopes of the pathogen enhances immunity in what indivduals
Outbred population
Prolonged and enhanced immunity not only needs activation of T and B cells to several epitopes it also needs
Efficient antigen presentation
Successful Vaccination Programs
Smallpox
Rinderpest
Mad itch
Mad itch is also known as
Pseudorabies
Pseudorabies is also called
Mad itch
Pseudorabies was eradicated in pigs with what type of vaccine
Recombinant or gene deleted
Vulnerable populations are when
No one is immunized
Contagious disease spreads through the population when
No one is immunized
When no one is immunized what happens
Contagious disease spreads through the population
Contagious disease spreads through some of the population when
Some of the population is immunized
When some of the population is immunized what happens
Contagious disease spreads through some of the population
Ability of the population to resist infection occurs when
Most of the population gets immunized
Spread of contagious disease is contained when
Most of the population gets immunized
When most of the population gets immunized what happens
Spread of contagious disease is contained
What are 3 types of available vaccines
- Killed vaccines/purified subunit
- Modified live vaccines (infectious)
- Recombinant vaccines
What type of the available vaccines are infectious
Modified live
Killed vaccines have what type of subunit
Purified
Purified subunits are seen in which type of vaccines
Killed
Processing of non-infectious vaccine induces B-cell and Th2 responses
What type of vaccine
Killed
Killed vaccines induce what type of response
B cell
Th2
B cell and Th2 responses are caused by what type of vaccine
Killed
Dendritic cells performs these tasks in killed vaccines
Uptake of extracellular antigen
Inactivated bacteria/virus
Inactivated Toxins
What cell performs these tasks in killed vaccines
Uptake of extracellular antigen
Inactivated bacteria/virus
Inactivated toxins
Dendritic cells
There is no ___ activation in killed vaccines
CD8
What type of vaccine has no CD8 activation
Killed
MHC II presentation uses what 2 Interleukins
IL-1
or IL-4
What class presentation uses IL-1 or IL-4
MHC II
Th2 activation uses what Interleukins
IL-4
IL-4
IL-10
What activation uses IL-4, IL-5, IL-10
Th2
Antibody production with Th2 bias produces what Ig
IgE
some IgG
IgE and some IgG is produced during the production of
Antibody with Th2 bias
These advantages are what type of vaccines:
Stable on storage (lyophilization)
Killed by heat, chemical, irradiation
Noninfectious and cannot cause disease
Killed
Stable of storage is known as
Lyophilization
Lyophilization is
Stable on storage
Advantages of Killed Vaccines
Stable on storage
Killed by heat, chemical, irradiation
Noninfectious and cannot cause disease
What type of vaccine is noninfectious and cannot cause disease
Killed
What type of vaccine is killed by heat, chemical, irradiation
Killed
What type of vaccine is stable on storage
Killed
These Disadvantages are what type of vaccine:
Does not elicit strong Th1 response or cytotoxic T cells
Elicits principally antibody responses (Th2)
Strain specific
Requires adjuvants
Increase risk of adverse reactions
Killed
Disadvantages of Killed Vaccines
Does not elicit strong Th1 response or cytotoxic T cells
Elicits Th2 responses
Strain specific
Requires adjuvants
Increase risk of adverse reactions
What type of vaccine
Does not elicit strong Th1 response or cytotoxic T cells
Killed
Killed vaccines do not elicit what type of response
Th1
What type of vaccine
Elicits principally antibody responses Th2
Killed
What type of vaccine is
Strain specific
Killed
What type of vaccine
Requires adjuvants
Killed
What type of vaccine
Increase risk of adverse reactions
Killed
Killed vaccines require
Adjuvants
Killed vaccines increase the risk of
Adverse reactions
Immune response enhancer is ____
Adjuvant
Depot
Particulate
Immuno-stimulatory are 3 types of
Adjuvants
3 types of adjuvants
Depot
Particulate
Immuno-stimulatory
Adjuvant is an immune response ____
Enhancer
What Potentiates killed/subunit antigens by causing inflammation to increase cytokines and co-stimulatory molecules
Adjuvant
Adjuvant causes what ___
Inflammation
Adjuvant causes inflammation to increase what
Cytokines
Co-stimulatory molecules
Inflammation causes increase in cytokines and co-stimulatory molecules in what substance
Adjuvants
What stimulates inflamation and delays antigen decay
Depot adjuvants
Depot adjuvants stimulate
Inflammation
Depot adjuvants delay
Antigen decay
Aluminum salts and Water-in-oil are what types of adjuvants
Depot
2 examples of depot adjuvants
Aluminum salts
Water-in-oil
What type of depot adjuvant
Produces strong Th2 responses
and is Associated with sarcomas in cats
Aluminum salts (alum)
Aluminum salts produce strong ___ responses
Th2
Aluminum salts are asscoiated with ___ in cats
Sarcomas
Aluminum salts are what type of adjuvant
Depot
What type of depot adjuvant
Induces Th1
Water-in-oil
Freund’s incomplete adjuvant is also known as what depot adjuvant
Water-in-oil
Water-in-oil is also known as
Freund’s incomplete adjuvant
Mineral oil is very irritating and causes tissue damage in
Food animals
Can mineral oil cause hides of food animals to be condemned
Yes
What type of depot adjuvant induces Th1
Water-in-oil
What type of depot adjuvant induces Th2
Aluminum salts
What type of adjuvant enhance antigen-presentation and co-stimulation of T cells
Particulate adjuvants
What do particulate adjuvants do
Enhance antigen-presentation and co-stimulation of T cells
What are 2 types of particulate adjuvants
Liposomes
Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrate antigens
Liposomes and Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrate antigens are what type of adjuvants
Particulate
What are lipid-based microparticles containing antigens
Liposomes
Liposomes are lipid-based microparticles containing
Antigens
What are readily trapped and processed in endosomes
Liposomes
Liposomes are readily trapped and processed in
Endosomes
MHC-II
Hapten-carrier principle improve immunogenicity by activating T-cells
Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrates antigens
Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrates antigens are what type of carrier
Hapten
Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrate antigens improve
immunogenicity
How do carrier proteins improve immunogenicity
Activating T-cells
Toxoids + Haemophilius influenza b polysaccharides
Example of what type of particulate adjuvants
Carrier proteins linked to carbohydrates antigens
3 types of Immunostimulatory adjuvants
CpG motifs of bacteria
Saponins
BCG or Muramyl dipeptide of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
CpG motifs of bacteria
Saponins
BCG or Muramyl dipeptide of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
are what types of adjuvant
Immunostimulatory
Proprionobacterium acnes in Eqstim stimulate
TLR9
Eqstim is what type of immunostimulatory adjuvants
CpG motifs of bacteria
When CpG motifs of bacteria are added to Bordetella pertussis vaccine it enhances
Th1
B pertussis killed vaccine stimulates
Th2 and IgE production
____ is an immunostimulatory adjuvant extracted from bark of tree Quillaja saponaria (Quil A)
Saponins
What type of immunostimulatory adjuvant creates pores in the cell membrane
Saponins
Saponins do what to the cell membrane
create pores
Saponins direct antigens into
Cystosol
Why do saponins direct antigens into the cytosol
MHC I processing and presenting
What type of Immunostimulatory adjuvants create pores in cell membrane and directs antigens into cytosol for MHC I processing and presenting
Saponins
Saponins activates ____ T lymphocytes
cytotoxic
What type of Immunostimulatory Adjuvants activates cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Saponins
What type of Immunostimulatory adjuvant enhances Th1 immune responses by stimulating IL-12 secretion
BCG
Murmayl dipeptide of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is what type of Immunostimulatory adjuvant
BCG
BCG enhances what immune responses
Th1
How does BCG enhance Th1 immune responses
Stimulates IL-12 secretion
RSV is
Respiratory syncytial virus
RSV is an adverse reaction caused by
adjuvants
Adverse reactions of adjuvants can cause
RSV
True/False
RSV is similar to Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus (BRSV)
True
What disease is seen as a vaccine enhanced disease in children exposed to the virus
RSV
Formalin-inactivated vaccine was given ID in 1960 for what disease
RSV
What is the leading cause of respiratory disease in infants
RSV
Stimulated systemic IgE antibody to glycoprotein epitopes but not neutralizing antibody to viral epitopes is an example of
Inappropriate immune response (Th2)
Inappropriate immune response (Th2)
Stimulated systemic IgE antibody to glycoprotein epitopes but does not
Neutralize antibody to viral epitopes
IL-4 and IgE produced in mice and cattle is induced by what vaccine
Killed BRSV
Killed BRSV causes what 2 things to be produced in mice and cattle
IL-4 and IgE
Attenuated vaccines are what type of vaccine
Modified Live
Modified Live Vaccines are also known as
Attenuated
What type of vaccine is infectious
Modified Live
MLV=
Modified Live Vaccine
What vaccine is made by reducing virulence of a pathogen
MLV
Polio
Measles
Chicken pox
Yellow fever
are all examples of what type of MLV
Viral
BCG
Typhoid
Brucellosis
are all examples of what type of MLV
Bacterial
Polio
(Viral/Bacterial) MLV
Viral
BCG
(Viral/Bacterial) MLV
Bacterial
Measles
(Viral/Bacterial) MLV
Viral
Typhoid
(Viral/Bacterial) MLV
Bacterial
Chicken pox
(Viral/Bacterial) MLV
Viral
Yellow fever
(Viral/Bacterial) MLV
Viral
Brucellosis
(Viral/Bacterial) MLV
Bacterial
In a MLV what is removed
Virulence gene
What vaccine is non-replicating
MLV
What vaccine develops a strain of organism that lacks ability to cause disease
MLV
MLV develops a strain of organism that lacks ability to cause disease in 2 examples
Modify genes of virulence
Pseudorabies vaccine for pigs
In what instance is thymidine kinase and gE removed
Pseudorabies vaccine for pigs
When thymidine kinase and gE are removed what happens
Virus cannot replicate and spread via nerves
When thymidine kinase and gE are removed serologic testing for Ab to gE should be (+/-)
Negative
What does it mean when Ab test for gE is positive
Exposed to the field virus
DIVA stands for
Differentiating Infected from Vaccinated Animals
What is considered a marker vaccine or DIVA
Pseudorabies for pigs
Advantages of MLV are
- Replicates
- Less virulence than field strain
- No adjuvant needed
Replicates
Less virulence than field strain
No adjuvant needed
are all advantages of what type of vaccine
MLV
What advantage of MLV: Exposes immune system to numerous epitopes and persists longer than killed
Replicates
What advantage of MLV: Is grown in non target cells (attenuated)
Less virulence than field strain
What advantage of MLV: Activates cytotoxic T cells and is Good for herd immunity
No adjuvant needed
There is good _____ which is why MLV do not need adjuvant
Co-stimulation
Replicates is an advantage of what type of vaccine
MLV
Less virulence than field strain is an advantage of what type of vaccine
MLV
No adjuvant needed due to good co-stimulation is an advantage of what type of vaccine
MLV
In MLV, when ______ is needed, it is good for herd immunity
No adjuvant
When no adjuvant is needed in MLV, _____ are activated
Cytotoxic T cells
What part of a MLV exposes the immune system to numerous epitopes and persists longer than killed
Replicates
These are disadvantages of what type of vaccine
Can cause illness or mild disease
Immunocompromised hosts are at risk
Can revert to virulence
MLV
MLV disadvantages are
- Can cause illness or mild disease
- Immunocompromised hosts are at risk
- Can revert to virulence
Can cause illness or mild disease
disadvantage of what type of vaccine
MLV
Immunocompromised hosts are at risk
disadvantage of what type of vaccine
MLV
Can revert to virulence
disadvantage of what type of vaccine
MLV
MLV stimulates what 3 responses
B cell
Th1
CTL
B cell
Th1
CTL
responses are due to what type of vaccine
MLV
CD8 T cells can become what cells
Memory CTL cells
Memory CTL cells are derived from what cells
CD8 T cells
Th1 activated cells need what 2 factors to be CD8 T cells
IFN-y
IL-2
IFN-y and IL-2 are both used by Th1 activated cells to become
CD8 T cells
Th1 activation can become B cell activation = ____production
IgG
B cell activation IgG production is derived from
Th1 activation
Apoptotic cell + MHC -II =
Th1 activation
What does an apoptotic cell need for Th1 activation
MHC -II
Apoptotic cell + MHC-I =
CD8 T cell
What does an apoptotic cell need to become a CD8 T cell
MHC-I
Presentation on MHC-I by what cell can also lead to CD8 T cells
Virus-infected cells
Virus infected cells + presentation on MHC-I =
CD8 T cells
MHC-II presentation from Apoptotic cell to Th1 activation requires what factor
IL-12 by APCs
IL-12 by APC’s is required for what process
Th1 activation
When CD4 T cells are activated in MLV it helps to activate what else
Macrophages
CD8 T cells
B cells
Macrophages
CD8 T cells
B cells
are all activated when what cells are activated
CD4 T cells
Brucella abortus strain I 9 caused lifelong immunity in what vaccine risk
MLV
What strain caused lifelong immunity as a MLV vaccine risk
I 9
Fever, drop in milk production
Abortion of pregnant cows, orchitis in bulls
Undulant fever in humans
are all residual virulence of
Brucella abortus I 9
I 9 causes lifelong immunity, but can also cause
Fever Drop in milk production Abortion of pregnant cows Orchitis in bulls Undulant fever in humans
How long do killed vaccines of Brucella abortus protect
<1 year
Is an adjuvant needed in killed Brucella abortus vaccines
Yes
What is the new live attenuated strain of Brucella abortus
RB51
RB51 does not produce what
LPS antigens
LPS antigens are not produced in what strain of vaccine
RB51
RB51 is what type of vaccine
Live attenuated
RB51 stimulates strong ___ responses
Th1
Strong Th1 responses are stimulated by what strain of Brucella abortus
RB51
Is RB51 (more/less) pathogenic than strain I 9
Less
I 9 is less pathogenic than
RB51
RB51 is more pathogenic than
I 9
Can the new live attenuated strain be differentiated from field bacteria
Yes
RB51 can be differenetiated from what
Field bacteria
What happened when the North American PRRS vaccine introduced into Denmark for European PRRs
Vaccine virus reverted and spread within vaccinated herds
What % similarity did North American PRRs have to European PRRs
60%
What happens when a vaccine virus is reverted
Spreads within vaccinated herds
Can MLV cause cattle abortions
Yes
Do administration routes influence the type of response
Yes
Administration route influences what
Type of Response
What are the 3 Local Administration Routes
Intranasal
Oral
Vaginal
Intranasal
Oral
Vaginal
are all what type of Administration Route
Local
Mucosal immunity through local routes produces what antibody
IgA
IgA is produced by what immunity during local administration
Mucosal
Systemic immunity through local routes produces what antibody
IgG
IgG is produced by what immunity during local administration
Systemic
What are the 3 Systemic Administration Routes
Subcutaneous
Intradermal
Intramuscular
Subcutaneous
Intradermal
Intramuscular
are all 3 types of what administration route
Systemic
Systemic Adminsitration can cause ___
Draining
Draining is caused by what Administration Route
Systemic
Systemic Administration causes lymph nodes to release what antibody
IgG
IgG is released by lymph nodes by what administration route
Systemic
What administration route stimulates only systemic immunity
Systemic
What specific vaccine can induce systemic and mucosal immunity
Poliovirus
Poliovirus vaccines induce what immunity
Systemic and Mucosal
What type of vaccine is Salk vaccine
Killed
Salk vaccine can be given what 2 ways
IM or SQ
What vaccine induces antibodies in blood
Salk vaccine
What vaccine prevents paralytic syndrome
Salk
Salk vaccine prevents what
Paralytic syndrome
Salk vaccine induces ____ in blood
antibodies
What type of vaccine is Sabin vaccine
MLV
What vaccine is given as an oral sugar cube
Sabin
Sabin vaccine is given how
oral sugar cube
what vaccine stimulates mucosal IgA
Sabin
What vaccine prevents poliovirus infection at the intestine
Sabin
What vaccine has the risk of paralytic poliomyelitis
Sabin
Sabin vaccine stimulates what antibody
Mucosal IgA
Sabin vaccine prevents poliovirus infection at _____
the intestine
Sabin vaccine has the risk of
paralytic poliomyelitis
What antibody has reactivity to vaccine stabilizers
IgE
IgE can have reactivity to what
Vaccine stabilizers
IgE reactivity to vaccine stabilizers has (Immediate/slow) allergic reaction after vaccination
Immediate
Immediate allergic reactions after vaccination are caused by what antibody
IgE
Why is there an immediate allergic reaction after vaccination
Reactivity to vaccine stabilizers
When there is a reactivity to vaccine stabilizers it causes what
Immediate allergic reaction after vaccination
Immediate allergic reactions after vaccination can cause
Dyspnea
Facial edema
Vomiting
Circulatory collapse
Dyspnea Facial edema Vomiting Circulatory collapse are all severe reactions of what
Immediate allergic reactions after vaccination
___ reactivity to fetal calf serum in 7/10 small breed dogs is due to what
IgE
Bovine serum albumin is ____ mg/dose in canine vaccines
> 1.0
IgE reactivity to ____ and ___ used in vaccines as stabilizers
Gelatin and Casein
Gelatin and Casein are used as
Vaccine stabilizers
Gelatin and Casein are used as vaccine stabilizers and cause what
IgE reactivity
WHO dictates ____ of BSA/dose in human vaccines
<50 ng
How many types of Recombinant vaccines are there
4
USDA uses the 4 types of recombinant vaccines to classify
Genetically engineered vaccines
Genetically engineered vaccines are ___ vaccines
Recombinant
What type is subunit vaccine
Type I
Type I is what type of vaccine
Subunit vaccine
What type of vaccine has purified protein from recombinant organisms (E coli)
Type I
Example of a recombinant organism
E coli
What type of vaccine stimulates Th2
Type I
Type I vaccine stimulates
Th2
Type I vaccines
Purified protein from
recombinant organisms
What type of vaccine is gene deleted
Type II
Type II vaccine is
Gene deleted
What type of vaccine has live replicating organisms with gene deletions
Type II
Type II vaccines have live replicating organisms that contain
gene deletions
What type of vaccine is live vectored vaccine
Type III
Type III vaccines are
Live vectored vaccines
What type of vaccine has replicating vectors
Type III
Adenoviruses Canarypox Vaccinia virus Salmonella are all examples of
Replicating vectors
Examples of replicating vectors
Adenoviruses
Canarypox
Vaccinia virus
Salmonella
Replicating vectors contain (heterologous/homologous) genes
Heterologous
Type III vaccines contain what type of genes
Heterologous
Heterologous genes are found in what type of vaccine
Type III
What type of vaccine are DNA vaccines
Type IV
Type IV vaccines are
DNA vaccine
What type of vaccine has naked DNA that is expressed into the protein of interest
Type IV
Type IV vaccines have what type of DNA expressed into protein
Naked DNA
What are the 4 types of recombinant vaccines
- Subunit vaccine
- Gene Deleted
- Live Vectored Vaccine
- DNA vaccine
Subunit vaccine Gene Deleted Live Vectored Vaccines DNA Vaccine are all what type of vaccines
Recombinant
What type of vaccines have genes excised and inserted into a plasmid
Recombinant protein/subunit vaccine
Recombinant protein/subunit vaccines have genes that are
Excised and inserted into a plasmid
What type of vaccine consist of a fragment of a microbial pathogen expressed using recombinant DNA technology
Recombinant protein/subunit vaccines
Recombinant antigen is formulated in
adjuvant
Adjuvant formulates
Recombinant antigen
Feline leukemia Vaccine
Hepatitis B Virus
Human Papillomavirus
are all examples of what vaccines
Recombinant vaccine
3 examples of Recombinant vaccines
Feline Leukemia
Hepatitis B
Human papillomavirus
What had the 1st commercially available subunit vaccine
Feline leukemia
Feline leukemia had the 1st commercially available
subunit vaccine
What is composed of the virus surface proteins produced in yeast
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis B is composed of the virus surface proteins produced in
yeast
What is composed of the major capsid protein
Human papillomavirus
Human papillomavirus is composed of the major ___protein
capsid
- Safe
- Non-replicating
- Isolate protective antigen
are all advantages of what type of vaccine
Subunit (Type I) vaccine
Subunit (Type I) vaccines have what 3 advantages
- Safe
- Non-replicating
- Isolate protective antigen
Safe
Advantage of what type of vaccine
Subunit (Type I)
Non-replicating
Advantage of what type of vaccine
Subunit (Type I)
Isolate protective antigen
Advantage of what type of vaccine
Subunit (Type I)
- Present limited number of epitopes to immune system
- Require repeated administration and adjuvants
- Post translational modification of protein may not mimic native protein
Disadvantages of what type of vaccine
Subunit (Type I)
3 Disadvantages of Subunit (Type I) vaccines
- Present limited number of epitopes to immune system
- Require repeated administration and adjuvants
- Postr translational modification of protein may not mimic native protein
True/False
E coli does not have golgi
True
Does E coli have golgi
No
Present limited number of epitopes to immune system
Disadvantage of what type of vaccine
Subunit (Type I)
Require repeated administration and adjuvants
Disadvantage of what type of vaccine
Subunit (Type I)
Post translational modification of protein may not mimic native protein
Disadvantage of what type of vaccine
Subunit
Type I
What type of vaccine is Live-vectored recombinant vaccine
Type III
Type III vaccines are what type of vaccine
Live-vectored recombinant vaccine
In what type of vaccine has DNA encoding protein of interest inserted into a live vector
Type III
DNA encoding protein of interest is inserted into a live vector in what type of vaccine
Live-vectored recombinant vaccine
Vaccinia virus Canarypox Salmonella Adenovirus are all examples of
Vectors
What are some vectors that can be used
Vaccinia virus
Canarypox
Salmonella
Adenovirus
When a recombinant pox virus containing viral gene is given as a vaccine what happens
Virus invades host cell
When virus invades a host cell then what happens
Viral antigen expressed on target cell surface
Where is viral antigen expressed
Target cell surface
When viral antigen is expressed on target cell surface it triggers what
Immune response
Recombinant Canine Distemper Vaccine is what type of vaccine
Type III
What is an example of a Live-vectored recombinant vaccine
Recombinant Canine Distemper Virus
Recombinant Canine Distemper Vaccine is what type of vaccine
Live-vectored recombinant vaccine
HA protein =
Hemagglutinin
F protein=
Fusion
What is the 1st step of Recombinant Canine Distemper Vaccine
RNA is reverse transcribed into cDNA
cDNA is what
DNA copy of RNA
DNA copy of RNA is known as
cDNA
cDNA is used for what 2 proteins
F and HA
Does Canarypox have a large enough genome to accommodate extra nuclear material
Yes
What step uses an in vitro procedure where cDNA is inserted into the genome of the canarypox virus
Step 2
When cDNA is inserted into genome of canarypox it makes what
rDistemper virus master seed
In step 3, rDistemper virus master seed is propagated in chick embryo fibroblast cell culture to produce
vaccine virus
- Safe
- Accommodate large foreign genes
- Infect host cells but do not replicate
- Express vaccine antigen in host cells
- Stimulates both B cell and T cell responses
- Can be administered orally
- No interference with maternal antibodies
are all advantages of what type of vaccine
Type III
Live-vectored recombinant vaccine
- Virulence
- Immunity to vector may reduce effectiveness
are disadvantages of what type of vaccine
Type III
Safe
is an advantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
Accommodate large foreign genes
an advantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
Infect host cells but do not replicate
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
Type III vaccines infect host cells but do not
replicate
Express vaccine antigen in host cells
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
Stimulated both B cell and T cell responses
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
Can be administered orally
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
When Type III vaccines are given orally it stimulates
Mucosal immunity
Mucosal immunity is stimulated when Type III vaccines …
are given orally
No interference with maternal antibodies
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
Virulence
disadvantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
Virulence in Type III vaccines is especially dangerous in
immunocompromised host
Immunocompromised hosts are seen with what virus
Vaccinia virus
Vaccinia virus causes what type of host
immunocompromised
Immunity to vector may reduce effectiveness
Disadvantage of what type of vaccine
Type III
rLyme is what type of vaccine used in veterinary medicine
Type I
An example of Type I vaccines
rLyme
rPseudorabies virus is what type of vaccine used in veterinary medicine
Type II
An example of Type II vaccines
rPseudorabies virus
The following are what type of vaccine
rFeLV rFeline Rabies rFerret Distemper rEquine West Nile and Influenza rCanine Distemper virus Raboral V-RG
Type III
rFeLV is what type of vaccine
Type III
rFeline Rabies is what type of vaccine
Type III
rFerret Distemper is what type of vaccine
Type III
rEquine West Nile and Influenza is what type of vaccine
Type III
rCanine Distemper virus is what type of vaccine
Type III
Raboral V-RG in canines and wildlife is what type of vaccine
Type III
r-Lyme r-Pseudorabies r-FeLV r-Ferret Distemper r-Equine West Nile and Influenza r-Canine Distemper virus Raboral V-RG
are all __________ vaccines
Live-vectored recombinant
What is the antigen/vector of rLyme
Osp-A
Osp-A is the antigen/vector of what
r-Lyme
What is the antigen/vector of rPseudorabies
gE/thymidine kinase gene deleted
gE/thymidine kinase gene deleted is the antigen/vector of what
rPseudorabies
What is the antigen/vector of rFeLV
Canarypox
What is the antigen/vector of rFeline Rabies
Canarypox
What is the antigen/vector of rFerret Distemper
Canarypox
What is the antigen/vector of rEquine West Nile and Influenza
Canarypox
What is the antigen/vector of rCanine Distemper virus
Canarypox
What is the antigen/vector of Raboral V-RG
Vaccinia virus
Canarypox is the antigen/vector of what
rFeLV rFeline Rabies rFerret Distemper rEquine West Nile and Influenza rCanine Distemper virus
Vaccinia virus is the antigen/vector of what
Raboral V-RG
What type of vaccine uses recombinant plasmid DNA engineered to express a gene encoding an antigen
Type IV
DNA vaccines use recombinant plasmid DNA to express a gene encodign what
an antigen
Cloned microbial DNA in plasmid can go 1 of 2 ways (which cells)
Immature DC
Transfected cell
Transfected cell can cause 1 of 2 processes
Apoptosis
Immune Response
Immature DC has 1 process which is
Matures to DC1 or DC2 =Immune resonse
Can apoptosis lead to an immune response?
Yes
Alum Polysaccharides Synthetic polymers TLR agonists are all (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Conventional adjuvants
Cytokines
Chemokines
Costimulatory molecules
are all (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Genetic
Alum is
(Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Convential
Polysaccharides are (Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Conventional
Synthetic polymers are
(Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Conventional
TLR agonists are
(Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Conventional
Cytokines are
(Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Genetic
Chemokines are
(Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Genetic
Costimulatory molecules are
(Conventional/Genetic) adjuvants
Genetics
When CD4 T cell interacts with B cell what is produced
Antibodies
When CD8 T cell is presented on MHC I what happens
Activated lymphocytes
West Nile Virus Innovator vaccine
Infectious hematopoiesis necrosis virus of salmon
DNA melanoma vaccine
are all examples of what type of vaccines
Type IV
DNA vaccines
West Nile Virus Innovator vaccine 1st licensed in what animals
Horses
Infectious hematopoiesis necrosis virus of salmon is what brand
Apex-IHN
Novartis
Apex-IHN and Novartis are vaccines of
Infectious hematopoiesis necrosis virus of salmon
DNA melanoma vaccine for what animals
Dogs
- Safe
- Do not require cold chain
- Will be processed in host cells and proteins expressed by host cells
- Stimulates B cell and T cell responses
- Can add cytokines or CpGs
- Can be administered orally
- No interference with maternal antibodies
are advantages of what type of vaccine
Type IV (DNA vaccines)
- Not very effective
- Possible integration of DNA into host genome and activate oncogenes
are disadvantages of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Safe
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Do not require cold chain
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Will be processed in host cells and proteins expressed by host cells
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Stimulates B cell and T cell responses
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Can add cytokines or CpGs
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Can be administered orally
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
What type of vaccine stimulates mucosal immunity when administered orally
Type IV
How do Type IV vaccines stimulate mucosal immunity
By being administered orally
Type IV vaccines stimulate what when administered orally
mucosal immunity
No interference with maternal antibodies
advantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Not very effective
Disadvantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
Prime boost strategy and DNA followed by killed antigens do what to Type IV vaccines
Make them not very effective
Possible integration of DNA into host genome and activate oncogenes
Disadvantage of what type of vaccine
Type IV
What vaccines protect against dangerous diseases
Core Vaccines
What is the goal of core vaccines
Protect against dangerous diseases
Failure to use core vaccines does what
Places an animat risk
4 core vaccines for cats
Parvovirus
Calcivirus
Herpes
Rabies
4 core vaccines for dogs
Parvovirus
Distemper
Adenovirus 2
Rabies
Rhinotracheitis is commonly known as
Herpes
Parvovirus Distemper Adenovirus 2 Rabies Core vaccines for which animal
Dog
Parvovirus Calcivirus Herpes Rabies Core vaccines for which animal
Cat
Parvovovirus is core for
dogs and cats
Distemper is core for
Dogs
Adenovirus 2 is core for
dogs
Calcivirus is core for
cats
Herpes (rhinotracheitis) is core for
cats
Rabies is core for
Dogs and cats
What vaccine are used against rare diseases, mild diseases or untested vaccines
Noncore vaccines
What vaccines are used for geographical risk
Noncore vaccines
Noncore vaccines are used for
Mild-rare diseases, untested vaccines or geographical risk
These are all what type of vaccine
Lyme disease Giardia Canine Adenovirus-1 Coronavirus Leptopspirosis Parainfluenza Influenza
Noncore vaccines
Lyme disease
Core/Noncore
Noncore
Giardia
Core/Noncore
Noncore
Canine Adenovirus-1
Core/Noncore
Noncore
Coronavirus
Core/Noncore
Noncore
Leptospirosis
Core/Noncore
Core
Parainfluenza
Core/Noncore
Noncore
Influenza
Core/Noncore
Noncore
AAEP vaccines are given how often
Annual
Tetanus
Eastern/Western Equine Encephalomyelitis
West Nile Virus
Rabies
Core/Noncore vaccines
Core
Equine herpes virus 1 and 2
Equine influenza virus
Core/Noncore vaccines
Noncore
At RISK Vaccines
Tetanus
Core/At risk
Core
Eastern/Western Equine Encephalomyelitis
Core/At risk
Core
West Nile Virus
Core/At risk
Core
Rabies
Core/At risk
Core
Equine herpes virus 1 and 2
Core/At risk
At risk
Equine influenza virus
Core/At risk
At risk
DOI stands for
Duration of Immunity
Rabies vaccine has a duration of immunity for how long
3 years
what vaccine has a DOI of 3 years
Rabies
Protective titers for feline panleukopenia lasts for
7 years
which protective titers last 7 years
Feline panleukopenia
Canine distemper vaccine protects how long
5-7 years
Which vaccine protects for 5-7 years
Canine Distemper
Why should we monitor vaccine titers in older animals
To make decisions about revaccination
AAHA/AAFP guidelines state core vaccines DOI is
> or equal to 3 years
What are the 5 requirements of a vaccine prior to licensure by USDA
Purity Safety Potency Efficacy Relevance
Purity Safety Potency Efficacy Relevance are all requirements of what
Vaccine prior to licensure
Who licenses vaccines
USDA
Free of extraneous microorgansims =
Purity
Purity = free of
extraneous microorganisms
Free of causing local/systemic reactions =
Safety
Safety = free of causing
local/systemic reactions
Relative strength =
Potency
Potency = relative
strength
Effective according to the indication on the label (demonstrated by statistically valid host animal vaccination-challenge studies) =
Efficacy
What is demonstrated by statistically valid host animal vaccination-channelge studies
Efficacy
Efficacy is effective according to
Indication on the label
Is the product clinically relevant? =
Relevance
Relevance = Is the product
Clinically relevant
Vaccine failure can be due to 2 things
Correct or incorrect administration
Correct or incorrect administration can cause
Vaccine failure
Correct administration has 2 outcomes
Animal responds or Animal fails to respond
In what type of administration does the animal either respond or the animal fail to respond
Correct administration
When the animal responds there are 3 outcomes
Vaccine given too late, animal already infected
Wrong strain or organism used
Nonprotective antigens used
Vaccine given too late, animal already infected
animal responds/fails to respond
Animal responds
Wrong strain or organism used
animal responds/fails to respond
Animal responds
Nonprotective antigens used
animal responds/fails to respond
Animal responds
Vaccine given too late, animal already infected
Wrong strain or organism used
Nonprotective antigens used
causes what response
Animal responds
4 outcomes when the animal fails to respond
Prior passive immunization
Animal immunosuppressed
Biological variation
Inadequate vaccine
Prior passive immunization
animal responds/fails to respond
Fails to respond
Animal immunosuppressed
animal responds/fails to respond
Fails to respond
Biological variation
animal responds/fails to respond
Fails to respond
Inadequate vaccine
animal responds/fails to respond
Fails to respond
Prior passive immunization
Animal immunosuppressed
Biological variation
Inadequate vaccine
causes what response
Animal fails to respond
Incorrect administration of vaccine causes what 3 outcomes
Inappropriate route of administration
Death of live vaccine
Administered to passively protected animal
Inappropriate route of administration is due to
(correct/incorrect) administration
Incorrect administration
Death of live vaccine is due to
(correct/incorrect) administration
Incorrect administration
Administered to passively protected animal
(correct/incorrect) administration
Incorrect administration
Inappropriate route of administration
Death of live vaccine
Administered to passively protected animal
are due to what type of administration
Incorrect administration
Vaccine given too late, animal already infected
Wrong strain or organism used
Nonprotective antigens used
Prior passive immunization
Animal immunosuppressed
Biological variation
Inadequate vaccine
are due to what type of administration
Correct administration
Cancer cells may differ ____ from normal cells
Antigenically
___ cells may differ antigenically from normal cells
Cancer cells
What cells may trigger weak immune response
Cancer cells
Cancer cells trigger what type of immune response
Weak
True/False
Cancer cells can mutate as they grow
True
Survivors are selected for
lack of antigenicity
Spontaneous tumors are more likely killed by
NK cells
what type of tumors are more likely killed by NK cells
Spontaneous
NK cells recognize and attack cells that fail to express what
MHC I molecules
What cells recognize and attack cells that fail to express MHC I molecules
NK cells
CTLs, activated macrophages or antibodies can kill
cancer cells
Cancer cells can be killed by what 3 things
CTLs
Activated macrophages
Antibodies
Failure of what type of immunity is due to tumor cell selection, Tregs, masking antibodies
Antitumor
Failure of antitumor immunity is due to
Tumor cell selection
Tregs
Masking antibodies
True/False
There is no effective, consistent antitumor immunotherapy
True
What are some stategies for antitumor immunotherapy
Cytokine/antibody administration
Active immunization using tumor antigens
Cytokine/antibody adminsitration and active immunization using tumor antigens is a strategy for
Antitumor immunotherapy
True/False
Many tumors are immunosuppressive
True
Many tumors are
Immunosuppressive
Differentiation antigens Excessive amounts of normal proteins Mutated proteins Cancer/testis antigens Viral coded proteins are all....
Tumor antigens
What are 5 tumor antigens
Differentiation antigens Mutated proteins Viral coded proteins Cancer/testis antigens Excessive amounts of normal proteins
What type of tumor antigen:
Proteins associated with specific stages of cell differentiation
Differentiation antigens
Differentiation antigens are ____ associated with specific stages of cell differentiation
Proteins
What type of tumor antigen:
Altered forms of normal cellular proteins
Mutated proteins
Mutated proteins are altered forms of ____ proteins
normal cellular
What type of tumor antigen:
Products of genes of oncogenic viruses
Viral coded proteins
Viral coded proteins are products of genes of ____ viruses
Oncogenic
What type of tumor antigen:
Proteins of unknown function
Cancer/testis antigens
Cancer/testis antigens are proteins of ____function
unknown
What type of tumor antigen:
Over production of normal cell products
Excessive amounts of normal proteins
Excessive amounts of normal proteins = ____ of normal cell products
Over production
Tumor localized inflammation promotes what
Tumor formation
Tumor formation is promoted by tumor ____
localized inflammation
Example of tumor localized inflammation which promotes tumor formation
post-vaccinal sarcoma in a cat
Inflammation causes the use of what transcription factors
NF-a and B
STAT3
Transcription factors NF-a and B and STAT3 are both caused by
Inflammation
Transcription factors NF-a and B and STAT3 recruit what 3 things
Chemokines
Cytokines
Prostaglandins
Chemokines
Cytokines
Prostaglandins
are recruited by what transcription factors
NF-a and B and STAT3
Chemokines
Cytokines
Prostaglandins
cause what recruitment
Inflammatory cell recruitment
Inflammatory cell recruitment is initiated by what 3 things
Chemokines
Cytokines
Prostaglandins
Inflammatory cell recruitment causes
Cancer related inflammation
Cancer related inflammation is caused by
Inflammatory cell recruitment
Oncogenic virus and Chemical carcinogen both cause
Maligant transformation
Malignant transformation is caused by what 2 things
Oncogenic virus
Chemical carcinogen
Which source of malignant transformation causes identical new antigens
Oncogenic virus
Oncogenic virus + Malignant transformation =
identical new antigens
Which source of malignant transformation causes dissimilar new antigens
Chemical carcinogen
Chemical carcinogen + malignant transformation =
Dissimilar new antigens
Oncogenic virus causes
(identical/dissimilar) new antigens
Identical
Chemical carcinogen causes
(identical/dissimilar) new antigens
Dissimilar
Oncogenic virus
=(homogenous/heterogenous maligancies)
Homogeous
Chemical carcinogen
=(homogenous/heterogenous maligancies)
Heterogeneous
CML stands for
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
CTL stands for
Cytotoxic T lymphocyte
EBNA stands for
Epstein-Barr nuclear antigen
EBV stands for
Epstein-Barr virus
Ig stands for
immunoglobulin
MART stands for
Melanoma antigen recognized by T cells
Ras mutations are caused by what human tumor antigen
Oncogenes
Example of Oncogenes
Ras mutations
10% of human carcinomas are caused by
Ras mutations
p210 product of Bcr/Abl rearrangments are due to
CML
Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Overexpressed Her-2/neu (breast and other carcinomas) are what type of human tumor antigen
Oncogens
Ras mutations
p210
Her-2
are all what type of human tumor antigens
Oncogenes
Mutated p53 is what type of human tumor antigen
Tumor suppressor gene
What is present in 50% of human tumors
mutated p53
Example of Tumor suppresor gene
p53
Example of oncogenes
Ras mutations
Various mutated proteins in melanomas are recognized by
CTLs
CTLs recognize what
melanomas
p91A mutation in mutagenized murine mastocytoma are mutants of cellular genes not involved in
tumorigenesis
Cancer/testis antigens are expressed in ___ and many ____
melanomas
Carcinomas
Products of genes that are silent in most normal tissues are usually expressed where
Testis and placenta
Products of genes that are silent in most normal tissue are what kind of antigens
Cancer/testis
Tyrosinase, gp100, MART in melanomas (normally expressed in melanocytes) are products of
overexpressed genes
Papillomavirus E6 and E7 proteins (cervical carcinomas) are products of
oncogenic viruses
EBNA-1 protein of EBV (EBV associated lymphomas, nasopharyngeal carcinoma) are products of
Oncogenic viruses
SV40 T antigen (SV40 induced rodent tumors) are products of
Oncogenic viruses
Papillomavirus
EBNA-1
SV40
are all products of
Oncogenic viruses
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) on many tumors, also expressed in liver and other tissues during inflammation is what type of antigen
Oncofetal antigen
Where is CEA expressed during inflammation
Liver
CEA stands for
Carcinoembryonic antigen
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is what type of antigen
Oncofetal antigen
AFP stands for
Alpha-fetoprotein
CEA and AFP are what types of antigen
Oncofetal antigens
GM2 and GD2 on melanomas are what
Glycolipids and glycoproteins
Prostate-specific antigen -differentiation antigens normally present where
In tissue of origin
Markers of lymphocytes include
CD10
CD20
Ig idiotypes on B cells
CD10
CD20
Ig idiotypes in B cells are
Markers of lymphocytes
Markers of lymphocytes -differentiation antigens normally present where
In tissue of origin
Prostate-specific antigen and markers of lymphoctes are both what types of antigens
Differentiation antigens present in tissue of origin
4 ways to manage tumors
Surgical removal
Chemotherapy/Radiation Therapy
Immunotherapy
Immuno-modulation
3 parts of Immunotherapy
Antibody
CTL
Inhibit Tregs
What way to manage tumors includes
Antibody
CTLs
Inhibit Tregs
Immunotherapy
Surgical removal of solid tumors
Treat with chemotherapy/Radiation Therapy
Immunotherapy
Immuno-modulation and Vaccine development
are all ways to do what
Manage tumors
What are the 2 ways tumors escape immune defenses
Anti-tumor immunity
Immune evasion by tumors
Anti-tumor immunity and Immune evasion by tumors are how tumors…
Escape immune defenses
T cell recognition of tumor antigen leading to T cell activation is what type of escape
Anti-tumor immunity
During Anti-tumor immunity T cell recognition of tumor antigen leads to
T cell activation
Immune evasion by tumors can have 3 outcomes
Failure to produce tumor antigen
Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing
Production of immuno-suppresive proteins
Failure to produce tumor antigen
Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing
Production of immuno-suppressive proteins
are what type of escape
Immune evasion by tumors
Which 2 forms of immune evasion by tumors lacks T cell recognition of tumor
Failure to produce tumor antigen
Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing
Which form of immune evasion by tumors has inhibition of T cell activation
Production of immuno-suppressive proteins
Failure to produce tumor antigen leads to lack of
T cell recognition of tumor
Mutations in mhC gene/genes needed for antigen processing leads to lack of
T cell recognition of tumor
Production of immuno-suppressive proteins leads to inhibition of
T cell activation
Which immune evasion has an antigen-loss variant of tumor cells
Failure to produce tumor antigen
Which immune evasion has Class I MHC deficient tumor cell
Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing
which immune evasion has inhibitory ligand (PD-L1) and Immunosuppressive cytokines (TGFB)
Production of immuno-suppreive proteins
Failure to produce tumor antigen = what type of tumor cell
Antigen-loss variant of tumor cell
Mutations in MHC genes or genes needed for antigen processing = what type of tumor cell
Class I MHC deficient tumor cell
Production of immuno-suppressive proteins have what 2 factors
Inhibitory ligand (PD-L1) Immunosuppressive cytokines (TGFB)
Lack of T cell recognition of tumor and Inhibition of T cell activation are both which mode how tumors escape immune defenses
Immune evasion by tumors
Evasion of Immune System by Tumors loose expression of
Tumor antigens
MHC-I and TAP are both
Tumor antigens
Tumors loose expression of which tumor antigens
MHC-I and TAP
During evasion of immune system by tumors they secrete what
immunosuppressive cytokines
IL-10 and TGF-B are both …
Immunosuppressive cytokines
Tumors secrete what immunosuppressive cytokines
IL-10 and TGF-B
Tumor cells present antigens in what form to mature lymphocytes
Tolerogenic form
Tumor cells present antigens in tolerogenic form to
Mature lymphocytes
When tumor cells present antigens to mature lymphocytes it causes what
Depressed or lack of co-stimulatory molecules
Depressed or lack of co-stimulatory molecules are present when tumor cells do what
present antigens to mature lymphocytes
Tumor cells may induce
anergy
When tumor cells induce anergy =what kind of cells
Tregs
Tregs are produced by tumor cells when what happens
Anergy is induced
Production of programed death ligands that bind death receptors on T cells is known as
anergy
Anergy-production of programed death ligands that bind death receptors on
T cells
Antigen masking is known as
Blocking antibodies
Blocking antibodies is known as
Antigen masking
What is known as : Non-complement activating antibody may bind and mask tumor antigens
Antigen masking
Non-compliment activating antibody may do what to tumor antigens
Bind and mask
Antibody blinds and masks
tumor antigens
Major cell types involved in tumor destruction
T cell
Macrophage
NK cell
T cell
Macrophage
NK cell
are all major cell types invovled in
Tumor destruction
Major cytokines involved in Tumor Destruction
IFN-y
IL-2
TNF-a
IL-12
IFN-y IL-2 TNF-a IL-12 are all major cytokines involved in
Tumor destruction
what 3 cells fight off tumor cells
T cell
NK cell
Macrophage
Macrophage
NK cell
T cell
are important for
Tumor destruction
T cell to NK cell uses what 2 cytokines
IFN-y
IL-2
IFN-y
IL-2
are important cytokines for what
T cell to NK cell
What cytokine is important for NK cells
IFN-y
NK cell to Macrophage uses what cytokine
IFN-y
Macrophage to NK cell uses what cytokines
TNF-a
IL-12
NK cells Activated macrophages Depressed regulatory cells Immunotoxins Activated cytotoxic cells are important components to fight tumor cells for what
Protective anti-tumor immune strategies
Protective anti-tumor immune strategies use what components to fight tumor cells
NK cells Activated macrophages Depressed regulatory cells Activated cytotoxic cells Immunotoxins
Protective anti-tumor immune strategies use what 2 categories
Immune stimulants
Cytokines
Cytokines and Immune Stimulanats are used for
Protective anti-tumor immune strategies
NK cells use
Immune stimulants/Cytokines
Immune stimulants
Activated macrophages use
Immune stimulants/Cytokines
Immune stimulants
Depressed regulatory cells use
Immune stimulants/Cytokines
Immune stimulants
Activated cytotoxic cells use
Immune stimulants/Cytokines
Cytokines
Immunotoxins use
Immune stimulants/Cytokines
Neither
Using a mouse with chemical carcinogen-induced tumor demonstrates
Tumor immunity
Using a mouse with chemical carcinogen-induced tumor has 1 of 2 pathways
Resect tumor
Isolate CD8 T cells
Transplant tumor cells into original tumor-bearing mouse uses
(resect tumor or isolate CD8 T cells)
Resect tumor
Transplanting tumor cells into original tumor-bearing mouse = (tumor growth or no tumor growth)
No tumor growth
Transplant tumor cells into syngenetic mouse uses (resect tumor or isolate CD8 T cells)
Isolate CD8 T cells
Transplant tumor cell into syngeneic mouse = (tumor growth or no tumor growth)
Tumor growth
Adoptively transfer T cells into recipient of tumor transplant (resect tumor or isolate CD8 T cells)
Isolate CD8 T cells
Adoptively transfer T cells into recipient of tumor transplant
(tumor growth or no tumor growth)
Eradication of tumor
Induction of anti-tumor T cell response is known as
Cross-priming
Cross-priming is when there is what response
Induction of anti-tumor T cell response
Tumor cells and antigens are ingested by
Host APCs
Host APCs ingest
Tumor cells and antigens
Does differentiation of tumor specific T cells occur
Yes
Effector phase of anti-tumor = what response
CTL response
What phase of anti-tumor = CTL response
Effector phase
What cell recognizes tumor cells
Tumor-specific CD8 CTL cells
Tumor specific CD8 CTL cells do what
Recognize tumor cells
What happens when Tumor specific CD8 CTL recognizes tumor cells
Killing of tumor cell
