Exam 3 - Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is a non-progressive motor impairment secondary to fetal or infantile brain injury?

A

Cerebral palsy

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2
Q

What is the most common subtype of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic

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3
Q

What are all the subtypes of cerebral palsy?

A
  • Spastic
  • Ataxic
  • Dyskinetic
  • Mixed
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4
Q

The following signs/symptoms are concerning for what disorder?

  • Abnormal tone/posture
  • Retained primitive reflexes
  • Not reaching milestones
  • Excessive irritability
  • Poor feeding, drooling
  • Poor visual attention
A

Cerebral palsy

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5
Q

What is the symptomatic management of cerebral palsy?

A
  • OT, PT, bracing
  • Anti-spasmodics
  • Botulism toxin (for contractures)
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6
Q

The following signs/symptoms are concerning for what disorder?

  • Asymptomatic
  • Bradycardia, HTN, altered respiratory rate
  • Headaches, n/v, behavior changes, papilledema
  • Macrocephaly
  • Hyperreflexia, spasticity
A

Hydrocephalus

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7
Q

How is Hydrocephalus diagnosed?

A

Newborns/infants - US

Older infants/children - MRI or CT

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8
Q

What is the management for hydrocephalus?

A

Refer to neurosurgery for possible shunt placement

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9
Q

When should occipitofrontal circumference (OFC) be measured?

A

Each well child visit b/w birth to 3 y/o

Any child w/ neurologic symptoms or developmental complaints

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10
Q

How is microcephaly defined?

A

Head circumference 2 or more standard deviations below the mean or < 5th percentile

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11
Q

What are the two types of microcephaly?

A

Primary (congenital) - lack of brain development or abnormal development due to timing of insult

Secondary (postnatal) - injury or insult to previously normal brain

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12
Q

If symptomatic microcephaly, what might you expect to see in regards to possible signs/symptoms?

A
  • Delayed milestones
  • Seizures or spasticity
  • Fontanelle may close early and sutures may be prominent
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13
Q

How is macrocephaly defined?

A

Head circumference 2 or more standard deviations above the mean or > 97th percentile

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14
Q

What are the three types of growth patterns seen in macrocephaly and what do they suggest?

A

Rapid growth
- Increased ICP

Catch-up Growth
- Seen in premature infants, neurologically intact (under growth curve and then shoot up, catching up to normal growth)

Normal growth rate
- Familial macrocephaly or megaloencephaly

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15
Q

What is the management for microcephaly and macrocephaly?

A
  • Neurology referral for labs and imaging

- Treat underlying cause

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16
Q

What are the standard rates of growth in head circumference for the following age groups:
1-3 months
4-6 months
6-12 months

What would you do if a child’s measurement was above the average?

A

1-3 months: 2 cm/month
4-6 months: 1 cm/month
6-12 months: 0.5 cm/montn

1) Re-measure to ensure accuracy
2) If measurement is the same, consult neurology due to concern for increased ICP

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17
Q

What is it called when cerebellar tonsils are abnormally shaped and displaced caudally below the foramen magnum?

A

Chiari Malformation - Type I

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18
Q

When do symptoms of Chiari Malformation - Type I typically present?

A

Not until teen or adult

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19
Q

What is a syringomyelia and what can it be associated with?

A

Fluid filled cyst within the spinal cord

Can be associated with Chiari Malformation - Type I

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20
Q

What are signs/symptoms associated with Chiari Malformation - Type I?

A
  • Asymptomatic
  • Neck pain, headaches
  • Increased ICP
  • UMN symptoms (hyperreflexia, weakness)
  • Sleep apnea
  • Worse with Valsalva, coughing, sneezing
  • Syringomyelia symptoms
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21
Q

What are signs/symptoms associated with a syringomyelia?

A
  • Cape-like sensory loss

- Loss of abdominal reflex

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22
Q

What is a Chiari Malformation - Type II?

A

Type I + myelomeningocele

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23
Q

When is Chiari Malformation - Type II typically detected?

A

Prenatally or at birth

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24
Q

What are signs/symptoms associated with Chiari Malformation - Type II?

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Apneic spells and aspiration
  • UE weakness
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25
How are Chiari Malformations diagnosed if not at birth?
MRI (tonsils are 5 or more mm below foramen magnum)
26
What is the management for Chiari Malformations?
- Neurosurgery consultation - Asymptomatic Type I - conservative - Type II - surgical
27
What are etiologies/risk factors for spina bifida?
- Low folate - Genetics - Fever/hyperthermia in 1st trimester - Poorly managed diabetes - Obesity
28
What are the type of spinal bifida?
Closed = Spina bifida occulta Open = Meningocele, Myelomeningocele
29
What is Closed Spinal Dysraphism/Spina Bifida Occulta?
Incomplete closure of the spinal cord
30
What is the presentation of Closed Spinal Dysraphism/Spina Bifida Occulta?
Can range from asymptomatic to severe abnormalities. Hairy patch, dimple, dark spot, swelling on the back at the site of the gap in the spine.
31
What is Open Spinal Dysraphism/Meningocele?
Outpouching of the spinal fluid and meninges through the vertebral cleft.
32
What is Open Spinal Dysraphism/Myelomeningocele?
Meninges and spinal cord protrude from the vertebral cleft.
33
What symptoms are associated with Open Spinal Dysraphism/Myelomeningocele?
- Sensory loss - Paralysis - Loss of bladder/bowel control
34
What is associated with Open Spinal Dysraphism/Myelomeningocele in a majority of cases?
Chiari II malformation and hydrocephalus
35
How is Spina Bifida diagnosed?
MRI
36
The following clinical manifestations are associated with what disorder? - Cafe-au-lait macules - Neurofibromas - Axillary/inguinal freckling - Lisch nodules - Optic pathway glioma
Neurofibromatosis (NF1)
37
What are neurological abnormalities associated with Neurofibromatosis (NF1)?
Macrocephaly, seizures, cognitive deficits
38
What is the management for Neurofibromatosis (NF1)?
Multi-disciplinary team of neurology, genetics, and ophthalmology
39
What is the diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis (NF1)?
Two or more of the following clinical features must be present: - Six or more cafe-au-lait macules - Two or more neurofibromas - Axillary/inguinal freckling - Optic glioma - Two or more Lisch nodules - Distinctive bony lesion - First-degree relative with NF1
40
What are the most common types of primary headaches?
Migraine and tension
41
What are the most common types of secondary headaches?
Acute febrile illness
42
The following description is associated with which type of headache? - Location - focal - Duration - 2-72 hours - Character - moderate to severe, pulsatile/throbbing - Aggravated with activity - Associated N/V, photo/phonophobia, +/- aura
Migraine (primary)
43
The following description is associated with which type of headache? - Location - diffuse - Duration - 30 min to 7 days - Character - mild to moderate, pressure/non-throbbing - Not aggravated with activity - May have photo or phonophobia, but not both
Tension (primary)
44
How are headaches managed/prevented?
- Track/avoid triggers - Exercise, hydration, meal schedule - Symptomatic treatment w/ ibuprofen, Tylenol - Relaxation therapy, decrease screen time
45
What are some worrisome headache features and when should you considering referring the patient?
- Abnormal neurologic or visual exam - Severe headache upon awakening/awaken in middle of night - Daily symptoms with progressive worsening - Accompanied with persistent vomiting - Acute onset without previous history - Increased with coughing or bending
46
In what population is pseudotumor cerebri typically seen?
Obese teenage girls
47
What is the hallmark symptom of pseudotumor cerebri?
Papilledema
48
What are the following signs/symptoms associated with? - Headache - Papilledema - Visual symptoms - Pulsatile tinnitus - Neck stiffness/back pain
Pseudotumor Cerebri
49
How is Pseudotumor Cerebri diagnosed?
Diagnosis of exclusion Neurological evaluation - MRI - LP Ophthalmologic evaluation
50
What is the management for Pseudotumor Cerebri?
- Acetazolamide (reduce rate of CSF production) - Topiramate (help control HA) - Weight loss
51
What is a sudden, transient disturbance of brain function manifested by involuntary sensory, motor, autonomic symptoms with or without loss of consciousness?
Seizure
52
Define epilepsy.
2 or more unprovoked seizures occuring more than 24 hours apart
53
What are the phases of a seizure?
- Aura: sense of physical or emotional warning of imminent seizure - Ictal: active seizure - Post-ictal: recovery period
54
What are focal seizures?
Seizures occurring in localized region of the brain
55
Describe the presentation of a simple focal seizure.
Conscious: motor, sensory, autonomic symptoms lasting seconds to minutes
56
Describe the presentation of a complex focal seizure.
Impaired awareness: interruption of behavior or staring, yelling, arm movements lasting < 3 minutes
57
What are generalized seizures?
Abnormal electrical charges in both hemispheres simultaneously
58
Describe the varying types of seizures below: - Absence - Myoclonic - Tonic - Clonic - Atonic
All are with loss of consciousness or awareness and varying post-ictal state Absence = blank stare, automatisms Myoclonic = sudden, brief muscle contractions Tonic = rigid Clonic = rhythmic jerking Atonic = sudden loss of muscle control
59
What is the most common type of generalized seizure?
Tonic/clonic = Rigid/Rhythmic jerking
60
The following clinical features are associated with what type of seizure? - Sudden impairment of consciousness w/o loss of tone - Provoked by hyperventilation - Presents b/w age 4-10 and often remits by puberty - Lasts 9-10 seconds and may occur 10 times/day
Absence Seizures
61
How are absence seizures diagnosed?
History, exam, EEG
62
What is the 1st line medication for absence seizures?
Ethosuximide
63
What are absence seizures provoked by?
Hyperventilation
64
What are clinical features associated with febrile seizures?
- Convulsion with temp > 38C (100.4F) - Age 6 months to 5 years - Often associated with virus - (+) genetic predisposition
65
Compare a simple febrile seizure to a complex febrile seizure.
Simple - most common, lasting < 15 minutes Complex - focal (one side of body), lasting > 15 minutes or occurs > 1 in 24 hours
66
What is the management for febrile seizures?
- Generally self-limiting | - IV benzodiazepines if symptoms lasting > 5 minutes
67
What is an acute immune-mediated polyneuropathy that is typically preceded by illness, most commonly Campylobacter jejuni?
Guillian-Barre Syndrome
68
What is the most common cause of acute flaccid paralysis in healthy infant/child?
Guillian-Barre Syndrome
69
The following signs/symptoms are associated with what disorder? - Ascending symmetric weakness - Neuropathic pain - Gait instability or refusal to walk - Absent reflexes
Guillian-Barre Syndrome
70
How is Guillian-Barre Syndrome diagnosed?
- Electrodiagnostic studies (EMG/NCV) - CSF analysis (increased protein with normal WBC) - Spinal MRI with and w/o contrast
71
What is the management of Guillian-Barre Syndrome?
- Hospitalization and close monitoring if rapidly progressing - IVIG or plasma exchange in severe cases
72
The following signs/symptoms are associated with what disorder? - Descending weakness - Constipation, poor feeding - Hypotonia, loss of DTR's - Irritable and lethargic
Botulism
73
What diagnostic studies are used to evaluate for botulism?
- Stool sample | - EMG/NCV
74
What is the management for Botulism?
Hospitalization and close monitoring | - Botulism immune globulin
75
In Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, what may be elevated before onset of symptoms?
Elevated muscle enzymes (CK > 10-20 times normal)
76
What specific sign is associated with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
Gower's sign (use hands to push up from floor)
77
The following signs/symptoms are associated with what disorder? - Progressive weakness (proximal before distal, UE before LE) - Gower's sign - Pseudohypertrophy of calves
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
78
What are some conditions associated with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
- Cardiomyopathy - Orthopedic complications (scoliosis, fractures) - Growth delay - Cognitive impairment
79
What diagnostic studies can be used to evaluate for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
- Elevated muscle enzymes (CK > than 10-20 times normal) | - Genetic testing
80
What is the management of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
Glucocorticoids
81
What is the typical age of onset in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
Age 2-3 (earlier onset then Becker's)
82
How does Becker Muscular Dystrophy differ from Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?
- Symptom onset is later - Muscle involvement not as severe - CK elevated > 5 times normal, not > 10-20 - Cardiomyopathy may be more predominant
83
Is Guillian-Barre Syndrome associated with descending or ascending weakness?
Ascending
84
Is Botulism associated with descending or ascending weakness?
Descending