Exam 3 material Flashcards

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1
Q

human microbiome

A

sum total of all microbes found on and in normal humans
critically important to the health and functioning of its host organisms

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2
Q

infection

A

microbes get past host defenses, enter tissues, and multiply

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3
Q

disease

A

deviation from health that results when cumulative effects of infection damage or disrupt tissues and organs

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4
Q

infectious disease

A

a pathologic state caused directly by miroorganisms or their products

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5
Q

what is the human microbiome project?

A

worldwide research efforts to characterize microbes living on human bodies when healthy
determine how the microbiome differs on various diseases
utilizes powerful techniques of genome sequencing and big data tools

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6
Q

how many protein-encoding genes are there in human cells

A

21,000

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7
Q

are microbes found in sterile environments?

A

yes

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8
Q

how many viruses are found in human feces

A

100 million

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9
Q

what sites typically harbor normal microbiota

A

skin and adjacent mucuos membranes, upper respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, outer portion of urethra, external genitalia, vagina, external ear canal, external eye

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10
Q

what factors weaken host defenses and increase susceptibility to infection

A

old age and extreme youth(infancy and prematurity)
genetic defects in immunity and acquired defects in immunity
surgery and organ transplants
underlying disease: cancer, liver malfunction, diabetes
chemotherapy/immunosuppressive drugs
physical and mental stress
pregnancy
other infections

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11
Q

where do newborns get important microbiota

A

through its trip through the vagina
-lactobacillus provides the baby with the necessary enzymes to digest milk\

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12
Q

what are some disorders attributed to disruption of gut microbiome

A

inflammatory bowel disease, obesity

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13
Q

inflammatory bowel disease

A

chronic inflammation of the gut and disruption of homeostasis, an impaired microbiome(dysbiosis)
ulcers or sores form on superficial lining of large intestine and rectum
also called Crohn’s disease

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14
Q

dysbiosis

A

when normal colon microbiome is impaired, not in homeostasis
ex: clostridioides difficile infection(CDI)
strict anaerobic, gram-positive

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15
Q

antibiotic-associated colitis

A

primary result of antibioitic treatment for some other infection and ingestion of spores
antibiotics can drastically affect normal microbiome of colon
C.diff is allowed to proliferate, releasing toxins that attack the mucosa of the colon, causing epithelial necrosis in the colon

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16
Q

pseudomembranous colitis

A

inflammatory cells, dead cells, necrotic tissue, and fibrin that obstructs the intestine
cramping, water diarrhea, can result in death

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17
Q

microbiological factors affecting C.difficle infection and recurrence

A

microbiota(healthy microbiota inhibits to C.difficle spore colonization, but once microbiota populations are disrupted C.diff infection can occur)
c. difficle spore variability(disrupted microbiota will not lead to CDI unless spores are present in gut)

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18
Q

fecal microbial transplants

A

treatment: very potent drugs, relapse occurs
fecal transplant
combat bacterial infection of colon by infusing the colon with feces from a healthy person to displace the pathogenic c. difficle, restoring the normal balance in the colon

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19
Q

reservoirs for c. difficle

A

likely that colonized patients serve as reservoirs for c. difficle in health care settings
domestic animals(cattle, horses, dogs, cats, etc)
food supply(meat)

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20
Q

pathogen

A

a microbe whose relationship with its host is parasitic and results in infection and disease

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21
Q

pathogenicity

A

an organism’s potential to cause disease

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22
Q

true pathogens(primary pathogens)

A

capable of causing disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses
have well developed virulence properties
generally associated with specific disease

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23
Q

opportunistic pathogens

A

cause disease when the host’s defenses are compromised or when the pathogens become established in a part of the body that is not natural to them
not pathogenic to normal, healthy people

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24
Q

virulence

A

relative severity of a disease caused by a particular microbe
degree of pathogenicity

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25
Q

what is the virulence of a microbe determined by

A

its ability to establish itself in a host
enter host, attach firmly to host tissues, negotiate the microbiome, and survive host defenses
cause damage
produce toxins that damage host tissues or induce a host response that actually harms or damages the host tissues or cells

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26
Q

virulence factor

A

any characteristic or structure of the microbe that contributes to its ability to establish itself in the host and cause disease

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27
Q

what does influenza(viral infection) frequently lead to

A

pneumonia(often a bacterial infection)

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28
Q

what tracts are involved in finding a portal of entry

A

skin, GI tract, respiratory tract, urogenital tract, endogenous biota

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29
Q

what parts are involved in attaching firmly and negotiating the microbiome

A

fimbrae, capsules, surface proteins, and viral spikes

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30
Q

what parts are involved in surviving host defenses

A

avoiding phagocytosis, avoiding death inside phagocyte, absence of specific immunity

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31
Q

what parts are involved in the portal of exits

A

respiratory tract, salivary glands, skin cells, fecal matter, urogenital tract, blood

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32
Q

portal of entry

A

route that a microbe takes to enter the tissues of the body to initiate an infection

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33
Q

exogenous

A

microbe originating from a source outside the body from the environment or another person or animal

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34
Q

endogenous

A

microbe already existing on or in the body-normal biota or a previously silent infection

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35
Q

what does mycobacterium tuberculosis travel through

A

both the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract

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36
Q

what do streptococcus and staphylococcus enter through

A

through the skin, urogenital tract, and the respiratory tract

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37
Q

infectious dose

A

minimum number of microbes necessary to cause an infection to proceed

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38
Q

phagocytes

A

cells that engluf and destroy host pathogens by means of enzymes and antimicrobial chemicals

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39
Q

antiphagocytic factors

A

virulence factors used by some pathogens to avoid phagocytosis by phagocytes

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40
Q

leukocidins

A

cytotoxin that kill phagocytes outright
produced by streptococcus and staphylococcus

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41
Q

exoenzymes

A

enzymes secreted by microbes that break down and inflict damage on tissues
dissolve the host’s defense barriers to promote the spread of disease to other tissues

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42
Q

mucinase

A

digests the protective coating on mucous membranes
major factor in amoebic dysentery

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43
Q

hyaluronidase

A

digests the ground substance that cements animal cells together

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44
Q

coagulase

A

causes clotting of blood or plasma

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45
Q

kinase

A

dissolves fibrin clots

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46
Q

toxins

A

a specific chemical product of microbes that is poisonous to other organisms

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47
Q

neurotoxins

A

act on nervous system

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48
Q

enterotoxins

A

act on intestine

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49
Q

hemotoxin

A

lyse red blood cells

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50
Q

nephrotoxins

A

damage the kidneys

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51
Q

sign

A

objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer

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52
Q

symptom

A

subjective evidence of disease as sensed by the patient

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53
Q

syndrome

A

a disease identified by a certain complex of signs and symptoms

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54
Q

signs of inflammation

A

edema(swelling), granulomas and abscesses, lymphadenitis

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55
Q

edema

A

the accumulation of fluid in afflicted tissue

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56
Q

granulomas and abscesses

A

walled-off collections of inflammatory cells and microbes in the tissues

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57
Q

lymphadenitis

A

swollen lymph nodes

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58
Q

symptoms of inflammation

A

fever, pain, soreness, swelling

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59
Q

signs of infection in the blood

A

septicemia

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60
Q

septicemia

A

a general state in which microorganisms are multiplying in the blood and are present in large numbers

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61
Q

why do infections go unnoticed

A

no noticeable symptoms are produced
microbe is active in host tissues
host does not seek medical attention
asymptomatic

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62
Q

what are the major portals of exit

A

coughing/sneezing, insect bite, removal of blood, feces, urine, skin cells and lesions

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63
Q

incubation period

A

time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of symptoms
agent is multiplying but has not caused enough damage to elicit symptoms

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64
Q

prodromal stage

A

1-2 day period when the earliest notable symptoms of infections appear
vague feelings of discomfort: head and muscle aches, fatigue, upset stomach, general malaise

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65
Q

acute stage

A

infectious agent multiplying at high levels, exhibits its greatest virulence, becomes well established in its target tissue

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66
Q

convalescent period

A

patient begins to respond to infection and symptoms decline
patients health and strength gradually return due to healing nature of immune response

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67
Q

reservoir

A

primary habitat in natural world from which a pathogen originates

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68
Q

transmitter

A

individual of object from which an infection is acquired

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69
Q

syphilis

A

reservoir and transmitter are the same

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70
Q

carrier

A

an individual who inconspicuously shelters a pathogen, spreads it to others without any notice

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71
Q

what is the typical reservoir of animals

A

arthropods such as fleas, mosquitoes, flies, and ticks
larger animals:mammals=rabies, birds=psittacosis, lizards=salmonellosis

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72
Q

zoonosis

A

an infection indigenous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans
close association between animals and humans

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73
Q

communicable

A

a disease in which an infected host can transmit the infectious agent to another host and establish infection in the host

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74
Q

contagious

A

disease that is highly communicable, especially through direct contact
influenza and measles are highly contagious

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75
Q

noncommunicable

A

infectious disease that does not arise through transmission of the infectious agent from host to host

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76
Q

vertical transmission

A

disease transmitted from parent to offspring via ovum, sperm, placenta, milk

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77
Q

horizontal transmission

A

disease is spread through a population from one infected individual to another

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78
Q

direct contact

A

close contact between people

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79
Q

indirect transmission

A

an object or substance carriers the agent from one person to another

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80
Q

fomite

A

inanimate object

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81
Q

vehicle

A

natural, nonliving material like air, water, soil, and food

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82
Q

vector transmission

A

arthropods that harbor an infectious agent and transfer it to a human

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83
Q

mechanical vector

A

insect carries microbes to host on its body parts

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84
Q

biological vector

A

insect injects microbes into a host; part of microbe life cycle completed in insect

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85
Q

nosocomial infections

A

infectious diseases acquired or developed during a hospital or health care facility stay

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86
Q

what are the factors tied to healthcare-associated infections

A

compromised patients
collection point for pathogens
lowered defenses permit normal biota to enter the body
infections acquired directly or indirectly from fomites, medical equipment, other patients, medical personnel, visitors, air, and water

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87
Q

what are the most common healthcare-associated infections

A

pneumonia
gastrointestinal illness
urinary tract infections
bloodstream infections
surgical site infections

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88
Q

common hospital pathogens

A

clostridioides difficle
staphylococcus aureus

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89
Q

etiologic/causative agent

A

cause of infection and disease

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90
Q

koch’s postulates

A

series of proofs that became the standard for determining causation of infectious disease

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91
Q

obligate intracellular parasites

A

cannot multiply unless they invade a specific host cell and instruct its genetic and metabolic machinery to make and release new viruses

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92
Q

properties of viruses

A

obligate intracellular parasites
ubiquitous in nature and had major impact on development of biological life
ultramicroscopic in size

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93
Q

capsid

A

protein shell that surrounds the nucleic acid

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94
Q

nucleocapsid

A

the capsid together with the nucleic acid

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95
Q

naked viruses

A

only have a nucleocapsid

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96
Q

envelope

A

external covering of a capsid, usually a modified piece of the host’s cell membrane

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97
Q

spikes

A

can be found on naked or enveloped viruses

98
Q

virion

A

a fully formed virus that is able to establish an infection in a host cell

99
Q

capsomeres

A

identical protein subunits

100
Q

genome

A

the sum total of the genetic information carried by an organism

101
Q

dna viruses

A

single-stranded or double-stranded

102
Q

rna viruses

A

can be double-stranded but most often single-stranded

103
Q

positive-sense rna

A

ready for immediate translation into proteins

104
Q

negative-sense rna

A

must be converted before translation can occur

105
Q

segmented

A

individual genes exist on separate pieces of rna

106
Q

retroviruses

A

carry their own enzymes to create dna out of their rna

107
Q

what are most human viruses

A

rna viruses

108
Q

examples of double-stranded dna viruses

A

variola virus, herpes simplex II

109
Q

examples of single-stranded dna

A

parvovirus

110
Q

single-stranded(+) sense RNA virus

A

poliovirus, Sars-Cov-2

111
Q

polymerases

A

synthesize DNA and RNA

112
Q

replicases

A

copy RNA

113
Q

reverse transcriptase

A

synthesizes DNA from RNA

114
Q

multiplication cycles in animal viruses

A
  1. adsorption
  2. penetration and uncoating
  3. synthesis
  4. assembly
  5. release
115
Q

host range

A

the limited range of cells that a virus can infect

116
Q

hepatitis B host range

A

liver cells of humans

117
Q

poliovirus host range

A

intestinal and nerve cells of primates

118
Q

rabies host range

A

various cells of all mammals

119
Q

tropisms

A

specialties of viruses for certain tissues

120
Q

poliovirus tropism

A

tropism for tissues of the brain and spinal cord

121
Q

influenza virus tropism

A

primary tropism for the respiratory tract

122
Q

early phase of dsDNA viruses

A

viral DNA enters the nucleus, where genes are transcribed into a messenger RNA
RNA transcript moves into the cytoplasm to be translated into viral proteins

123
Q

late phase of dsDNA viruses

A

parts of the viral genome are transcribed and translated into proteins required to form the capsid and other structures
new viral genomes and capsids are assembled

124
Q

cytopathic effect

A

virus-induced damage to the cell that alters its microscopic appearance

125
Q

types of CPES

A

gross changes in shape and size
development of intracellular changes
inclusion bodies
syncytia

126
Q

inclusion bodies

A

compacted masses of viruses or damaged cell organelles in the nucleus and cytoplasm

127
Q

syncytia

A

fusion of multiple damaged host cells into single large cells containing multiple nuclei(glant cell)

128
Q

persistent infections

A

some cells maintain a carrier relationship: cell harbors the virus and is not immediately lysed
can last from a few weeks to the remainder of the host’s life
can remain latent in the cytoplasm or incorporate into the DNA of host

129
Q

provirus

A

viral dna incorporated into the dna of the host

130
Q

measles virus

A

hidden in the brain causing damage and loss of function

131
Q

chronic latent virus

A

periodically become reactivated under the influence of various stimuli

132
Q

cancer

A

a set of diseases known to disturb the normal functioning and properties of the cell

133
Q

oncogenes

A

normal cellular regulatory genes, when modified these genes code for the gene products that disturb the normal regulatory patterns of cells and can result in the loss of normal properties of cel growth and division resulting in cancer

134
Q

transformation

A

process of a virus inducing carcinogenesis(change to cancer) in a host cell

135
Q

prion

A

an abnormal form of a normally occuring brain cell protein called PrPc

136
Q

neuritogenesis

A

formation of axons and dendrites

137
Q

what is chronic wasting disease

A

affects many different species of hoofed animals
neurological condition that results in changes of body formation, changes in behavior, etc
is fatal

138
Q

what are some examples of the first line of defense

A

physical barriers, microbiota barrier, chemical barriers

139
Q

first line of defense

A

any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry
limits access to the internal tissues of the body
not considered a true response because it does not involve recognition of foreign substances

140
Q

what are some examples of the second line of defense

A

phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, antimicrobial products

141
Q

second line of defense

A

internalized system of protective cells and fluids
includes inflammation and phagocytosis
acts rapidly at both the local and systemic levels once the first line of defense has been overcome

142
Q

what are some examples of the third line of defense

A

B cells, T cells

143
Q

third line of defense

A

acquired on an individual basis as each foreign substance is encountered by lymphocytes
the reaction with each different microbe produces unique protective substances
provides long-term immunity

144
Q

immunology

A

study of all feature’s of the body’s second and third lines of defense
study of the body’s response to infectious agents
study of allergies and cancer

145
Q

what is a healthy functioning immune system responsible for

A

surveillance of the body
recognition of foreign material
destruction of entities deemed to be foreign

146
Q

what function do white blood cells have

A

constantly move throughout the body, searching for potential pathogen
recognize body cells(self)
differentiate them from any foreign material in the body(nonself)
ABILITY TO EVALUATE MACROMOLECULES AS SELF OR NONSELF IS CENTRAL TO THE FUNCTIONING OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM

147
Q

antigens

A

molecules on cell surfaces consist of proteins and/or sugars

148
Q

what is the most common method of destruction

A

phagocytosis

149
Q

pathogen-associated molecular patterns(PAMPS)

A

markers that many different kinds of microbes have in common

150
Q

pattern recognition receptors

A

used by host cells with important roles in the innate immunity of second line of defense
recognize PAMPS

151
Q

what does whole blood consist of

A

blood cells, plasma, serum

152
Q

blood cells

A

formed elements suspended in plasma

153
Q

plasma

A

clear, yellowish fluid

154
Q

serum

A

essentially the same as plasma, except that it is the clear fluid from clotted blood, used in immune testing and therapy

155
Q

hematopoiesis

A

production of blood cells

156
Q

stem cells

A

undifferentiated cells that are the primary precursor of new blood cells maintained the bone marrow
continually produced throughout life of body

157
Q

how does the immune system work as a network?

A

large, complex, diffuse network of cells and fluids that permeate every organ and tissue
promotes surveillance and recognition processes that help screen the body for harmful substances

158
Q

mononuclear phagocyte system

A

indirect contact with tissue cells and extracellular fluid
blood and lymphatic capillaries penetrate into these tissues
allow cells and chemicals that originate in the MPS and ECF to diffuse into the body and lyphatics

159
Q

lymphatic system

A

a compartmentalized network of vessels, cells and specialized accessory organs
transports lymph through an increasingly larger tributary system of vessels and lymph nodes, leading to major vessels that drain back to the circulatory system

160
Q

what are the functions of the lymphatic system

A

provide a route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system
acts as a “drainoff” system for the inflammatory response
render surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign materials through a system of lymphocytes, phagocytes, and antibodies.

161
Q

primary lymphatic organs

A

sites of immune cell birth and maturation

162
Q

what are the primary lymphatic organs

A

red bone marrow
thymus

163
Q

secondary lymphatic organs

A

sites of immune cell activation, residence, and functioning

164
Q

what are the secondary lymphatic organs

A

lymph nodes
spleen
various lymphoid tissues

165
Q

what occurs in red bone marrow

A

site of B cell maturation

166
Q

what occurs in the thymus

A

T cell maturation

167
Q

lymph nodes

A

small, encapsulated, bean-shaped organs
stationed in clusters along lymphatic channels and large blood vessels of the thoracic and abdominal cavities

168
Q

where are aggregations of lymph nodes found

A

armpit(axillary nodes)
groin(inguinal nodes)
neck(cervical nodes)

169
Q

spleen

A

found in upper-left portion of abdominal cavities
serves as a filter for blood instead of lymph
primarily removes worn-out red blood cells
also filters pathogens from the blood for phagocytosis by macrophages

170
Q

associated lymphoid tissues

A

skin-associated lymphoid tissues(SALT)
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues(MALT)
tonsils
breasts of pregnant and lactating women
gut-associated lymphoid tissue(GALT)

171
Q

tonsils

A

active source of lymphocytesin in the pharynx

172
Q

pever’s patches

A

compact aggregations of lymphocytes in the ileum of the small intestine

173
Q

cytokines

A

hundreds of small active molecules secreted to regulate, stimulate, suppress and otherwise control many aspects of cell development, inflammation, and immunity
produced by monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes, fibroblasts, mast cells, platelets, and endothelial cells

174
Q

reticulum

A

support network of collective tissue fivers that permeate the tissues of the body
interconnects nearby cells and meshes with the massive connective tissue that surrounds every o

175
Q

where is the mononuclear phagocyte system found

A

thymus
lymph nodes
tonsils
spleen
lymphoid tissue of the mucosa of the gut and respiratory tract

176
Q

first line of defense

A

physical and chemical barriers that impede the entry of microbes and foreign agents, whether living, or

177
Q

stratum corneum

A

tough outer layer of skin that is impervious and waterproof

178
Q

build-in defenses of mucous membranes

A

mucous coat impedes entry and attachment of bacteria
blinking and tear production flush the eye’s surface
constant flow of saliva carries microbes to the harsh conditions of the stomach
vomiting and defecation evacuate noxious substances of substances or microorganisms of body

179
Q

genitourinary tract

A

protection through continous trickle of urine through ureters
periodic bladder emptying flushes urethra
vaginal secretions provide cleansing of lower reproductive tract in females

180
Q

nonspecific chemical defenses

A

sebaceous secretions exert an antimicrobial effect
specialized glands of eyelids lubricate the conjunctiva with an antimicrobial secretion

181
Q

lysozyme

A

enzyme found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in the cell wall of bacteria

182
Q

what is the effect of barrier loss

A

loss of immunity or absence of normal immunity demonstrates the vital need for barriers of all types
patients with severe burns are very susceptible to all kinds of infections

183
Q

what do phagocytes do

A

survey the tissue compartments and discover microbes, particulate matter, and injured or dead cells

184
Q

what are the types of phagocytes

A

neutrophils
monocytes(macrophages, dendritic cells)

185
Q

neutrophils

A

react early in the inflammatory response to bacteria and other foreign materials and to damaged tissues

186
Q

what do monocytes turn into

A

macrophages after they migrate out of the bloodstream and into tissues

187
Q

histocytes

A

live in a certain tissue and remain there during their life span
alveolar(lung) macrophages
knupffer cells in liver
dendritic cells in skin
macrophages in spleen

188
Q

histiocyte cells

A

differentiated macrophage cells that take up residence in organs or tissues

189
Q

phagocytosis

A

physical process of engulfment
attack and dismantling of foreign cells
can be an isolated event or as part of the orchestrated events of inflammation

190
Q

events of phagocytosis

A
  1. chemotaxis
  2. adhesion
  3. ingestion(engulfment)
  4. phagolysosome formation
  5. phagolysosome formation and killing
  6. destruction
  7. excretion
191
Q

pathogen-associated molecular patterns

A

signal molecules found on microbial surfaces recognized by phagocytes and other defensive cells
molecules shared by many organisms, but not present in mammals
serve as “red flags” for phagocytes and other cells of innate immunity

192
Q

what are the bacterial PAMPS

A

peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide

193
Q

pattern recognition receptors

A

found on phagocytes, dendritic cells, and lymphocytes
recognize and bind PAMPS
cells possess PRRs whether they have encountered PAMPS before or not

194
Q

inflammasomes

A

PRRS found within the cytoplasm of phagocytic cells of the innate immune system

195
Q

rubor

A

redness caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in the injured tissue

196
Q

calor

A

warmth caused by heat given off by increased flow of blood

197
Q

tumor

A

swelling caused by fluid escaping into the tissues

198
Q

dolor

A

pain caused by the simulation of nerve endings

199
Q

inflammatory response

A

can be local or systemic

200
Q

factors that elicit inflammation

A

trauma from infection
tissue injury or necrosis due to physical or chemical agents
specific immune reactions

201
Q

chief functions of inflammation

A

to mobile and attract immune components to the site of injury
to set in motion mechanisms to repair tissue damage and localize and clear away harmful substances
destroy microbes and block their further invasion

202
Q

chemotaxis

A

migration of cells in response to a specific chemical stimulus
cells swarm from many compartments to the site of infection and remain there to perform general and specific immune functions

203
Q

cytokines

A

released by phagocytic cells to other lymphocytes
small soluble proteins have specific roles in host defense

204
Q

chemokines

A

cytokines that attract more phagocytes to infection site

205
Q

mast cells

A

do not circulate in blood, found in connective tissue and mucosa
role in inflammation, wound healing, allergic responses

206
Q

degranulation

A

release contents of granules(contain histamine) into extracellular environment causing vasodilation
influence tone and diameter of blood vessels

207
Q

pus

A

accumulation of dead phagocytes
injured or damaged cells
remains of ingested organisms

208
Q

benefits of edema

A

influx of fluid dilutes toxic substances
fibrinclot can trap microbes to prevent further spread

209
Q

pyogenic

A

bacteria such as streptococci, staphylococci, gonococci, and meningococci that stimulate the formation of pus

210
Q

fever

A

abnormally elevated body temperature
nearly universal symptom of infection

211
Q

fever of unknown origin

A

don’t know why they have fever

212
Q

low-grade fever

A

37.7-38.3 celsius; 100 to 101 fahrenheit

213
Q

high-grade fever

A

40.0 to 41.4 celsius; 104 to 106 fahrenheit

214
Q

pyrogens

A

substances that reset the hypothalmic thermostat to a higher setting

215
Q

exogenous pyrogens

A

products of infectious agents such as viruses, bacteria, protozoans, fungi, endotoxin, blood, blood products, vaccines, or injectable solutions coming from outside the body

216
Q

endogenous pyrogens

A

liberated by monocytes, neutrophils, and macrophages during phagocytosis such as interleukin-1 and tumor necrosis factor

217
Q

benefits of fever

A

inhibits multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms such as the poliovirus, cold viruses, herpes zoster virus, and systemic and subcutaneous fungal pathogens
impedes nutrition of bacteria by reducing the availability of iron
increases metabolism and stimulates immune reactions and naturally protective physiological processes

218
Q

interferons alpha and beta

A

produced by lyphocytes, fibroblasts, and macrophages

219
Q

interferons gamma

A

produced by T cells

220
Q

characteristics of interferon

A

binding of viruses and other microbes to receptors on a host cell, signals the cell to produce interferon
interferon molecules are rapidly secreted into the extracellular space binding to other host cells

221
Q

alternate complement pathway

A

does not require antibody to get started
initiated by the presence of foreign cell antigen
quicker response than the classical pathway

222
Q

four steps in the alternative complement pathway

A
  1. initiation
  2. activation and cascade
  3. polymerization
  4. membrane attack
223
Q

what is different about the third line of defense?

A

it is acquired only after an immunizing event such as infection

224
Q

immunocompetence

A

the ability of the body to react to countless foreign substances

225
Q

antigens

A

molecules that can be seen and identified by the immune system

226
Q

immunogens

A

antigens that provoke a response

227
Q

epitope

A

the precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response

228
Q

specificity

A

antibodies produced against chickenpox virus will not function against the measles virus

229
Q

memory

A

lymphocytes have been programmed to recall their first engagement with the invader and rush to attack once again

230
Q

major histocompatibility complex

A

one set of genes that codes for human cell markers or receptors

231
Q

class I genes

A

code for markers that appear on all nucleated cells, display unique characteristics of self, allow for recognition of self molecules and regulation of immune reactions

232
Q

class II genes

A

also code for immune regulatory markers found on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells, and are involved in presentation of antigens to T cells

233
Q

class III genes

A

encode proteins involved with the complement system, among others

234
Q

cluster of differentiation

A

cell surface glycoproteins that identify and differentiate white blood cells

235
Q

lymphocyte receptors

A

major role is to accept or grasp antigens in some form

236
Q

B cell lymphocyte receptors have

A

receptors that bind antigens

237
Q

T cell lymphocyte receptors have

A

receptors that bind antigens that have been processed and complexed with MHC molecules on the presenting cell surface

238
Q

helper t cells(Th)

A

activate macrophages, assist B-cell processes, and help activate cytotoxic T cells

239
Q

regulatory T cells(Treg)

A

control the T-cell response by secreting anti-inflammatory cytokines or preventing proliferation

240
Q

cytotoxic t cells(Tc)

A

lead to the destruction of infected host cells and other foreign cells