Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Environmental Systems Science > Exam 3 Lecture Slide Content > Flashcards

Exam 3 Lecture Slide Content Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

OZONE

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Where does the ozone layer exist and what is its primary function?

A

The ozone layer primarily exists in the stratosphere and is used to block harmful incoming UV waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is ozone good and where is ozone harmful?

A

Ozone is good in the stratosphere but is harmful in the troposphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three chemical reactions that take place for ozone to be created?

A

Ozone exists in the stratosphere as a process of three fast chemical reactions driven by UV light:
-O2+hv (UV light)= 2O
-O+O2= O3
-O3+hv= O2+O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are CFCs (Chloroflurocarbons)?

A

CFCs are halogen compounds designed to be inert in the troposphere- they are compounds that act as ideal refrigerants and propellants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Halogen Depletion Hypothesis?

A

Halogen Depletion Hypothesis: Hypothesis that CFCs can make their way into the stratosphere where the process of photo disassociation frees the CL from the original CFC molecule; the CL then reacts with the O3 to reduce the overall amount in the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is photodissociation?

A

Chemical reaction in which molecules of a chemical compound are broken down by photons (a quantum of light or electromagnetic radiation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How was the Halogen Depletion Hypothesis tested and verified?

A

A spy plane was used to scan evidence to test for three hypothesis-found that “Elevated levels of reactive chlorine in the ozone depleted zone – allowed them to reject the null hypothesis of no relationship between the two.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What were the other two plausible hypothesis for ozone reduction in the stratosphere? Explain them

A

Find this lol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two key roles of the southern Polar Vortex

A

-Traps gases like CFCs
-Forms polar stratospheric clouds where the breakdown of CFCs is accelerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the three steps to the formation of the polar vortex

A

-cold winter air forms a vortex
-early spring brings more solar radiation which then causes photodissasociation freeing more Cls from CFCs
-In late spring, warmth returns, breaking up the polar vortex. Throughout the summer, ozone levels increase again as polar air mixes with the surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two reasons why ozone depletion is less of an issue in the North Pole?

A

-Land mass is unevenly distributed (weaker vortex, trapping less air)
-Comparatively warmer temperatures (limits the formation of polar winds forming the vortex and formation of stratospheric clouds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What was the target set in the Montreal Protocol?

A

the Montreal Protocol set a target for 50% reduction in CFCs by 1997 (this number was not determined by anything) which jogged the industry into looking into alternatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What alternatives were used instead of CFCs and why?

A

HFCs and HCFCs were used instead which emulated similar cooling effects to CFCs but could be broken down in the troposphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

POLLUTION

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary pollutants?

A

-Primary pollutants: Enter the atmosphere in a form that is harmful to life or things (ex.) carbon monoxide)
-Secondary pollutants: Formed in the atmosphere by the interaction between primary pollutants and sunlight and other gases (ex.) ozone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the five important pollutants as discussed by Kaufman and Cleveland?

A

-Carbon monoxide (CO)
-Hydrocarbons (VOX)
-Particulates/Aerosols
-Nitrous Oxides (NOX)
-Ozone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is carbon monoxide?

A

A product of imcomplete combustion of hydrocarbons

Produced in reactions where:
-oxygen is insufficient
-temperature is too low
-air supply rate is too fast
-mixing in combustion chamber is insufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary source of CO emissions? Secondary source?

A

-Mobile engines (on and off road) are responsible for 80% of emissions
-Stationary sources are responsible for only 6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does carbon monoxide harm species?

A

Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin, an iron based compound that binds to oxygen, transporting oxygen to the bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are particulates?

A

Solid or condensed liquids that are suspended or floating in the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are aerosols?

A

Mixture of liquid and solid particulates- this term can be used interchangeably with particulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary source of particulate pollution? Secondary?

A

-40% come from industry
-20% from road vehicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the three variations of particle size for particulates?

A

-PM(10): between 10 and 2.5 microns (also called coarse particles)
-PM(2.5): below 2.5 (also called fine particles)
-PM(0.1): below 0.1 (ultra fine particles)

Important to note that the smaller the particle size, the more dangerous the particle is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do the different particle sizes differ from eachother?

A

Particle size determines how long a particle can stay in the atmosphere- larger than PM(10) settle more quickly, fine and coarse particles can travel longer distances, and ultra fine particles can resist gravity settling but may be more likely to stick to larger particles or be deposited onto the surface

Particle size also determines how particles affect human health- larger than PM10 can be blocked by nose hairs and mucus, fine particles may be inhaled deeply, and ultra fine particles can influence body chemistry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do aerosols impact rainfall?

A

Aerosols cause the “weekend effect” on rainfall- water droplets condense on particles (nucleation). This causes more rainfall to occur during the end of the week as pollutants from the work week form clouds by the weekend.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is Sulfur Dioxide?

A

SO2 is a compound that can act as either a primary or secondary pollutant.

-As a primary pollutant, SO2 has effects on human respiration and plant growth.

-As a secondary pollutant, SO2 can form droplets along with the acid H2SO4 causing acid rain precipitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are Nitrogen Oxides (NOX)?

A

a catch-all for all reactive nitrogen compounds; NOX are generated during fossil fuel combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the chemical reactions that cause NOX?

A

-As a first step NO is produced (odorless and colorless gas)
-NO oxidizes to NO(2) (also mostly harmless)
-However, when confronted with hv, NO2 dissociates into nitric oxide and oxygen
-O radical reacts with oxygen to form ground-level ozone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Why is ground-level ozone harmful?

A

Ground level ozone is harmful as a secondary pollutant. It is a component of photochemical smog which has consequential effects on human health, plant growth, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where are NOX emissions most common?

A

NOX emissions are most common in cities but can remain in kilometers outside of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are hydrocarbons? More specifically, what are VOCS?

A

hydrocarbons are a compound of hydrogen and carbon. VOCs are a subsect of hydrocarbons called volatile organic compounds (VOCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where do VOCs come from?

A

VOCs arise from combustion or industrial processes but are also common to find in nature? VOCs are important in plant-plant and plant-animal communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What role do VOCs play as primary pollutants?

A

VOCs as primary pollutants are harmful towards indoor air quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What role do VOCs as secondary components?

A

When combined with NOX, VOCs act as a component of photochemical smog, contributing to a greater production of ozone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What three factors shape the concentration of emissions?

A

-Emissions
-Volume of air that they are emitted into
-Reaction and deposition removal processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the vertical mixing height/layer?

A

Altitude or “ceiling” to which pollutants are able to rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the horizontal movement?

A

Distances that pollutants are carried from their source by the wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is advection and convection? What is the difference between these two movement patterns?

A

-Advection pertains to horizontal movements of pollutants driven by pressure gradients (wind movements).
-Convection pertains to vertical movements through the turbulent, vertical exchange of air. Convection is limited by stability of the troposphere

-it is important to consider that advection doesn’t necessarily alter the concentration of pollutants rather simply carrying them to a new location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In regards to atmospheric stability, what is the lapse rate?

A

The temperature change as you go up in latitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In regards to atmospheric stability, what is the adiabatic lapse rate?

A

In contrast to the actual lapse rate, the adiabatic lapse rate is the “ideal” lapse rate. Comparing this to the actual lapse rate can help assess how stable or unstable an atmosphere is.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Using the actual and adiabatic lapse rate, how do we categorize unstable, neutrally stable, and stable atmospheres?

A

-Unstable atmospheres are atmospheres when the upper air is cooler than the adiabatic lapse rate. The adiabatic air parcel is warmer than the environment surrounding it causing it to rise.
-Neutrally stable atmospheres are atmospheres where the adiabatic air parcel is the same temperature as the environment surrounding it causing it to stay in place.
-Stable atmospheres are atmospheres when the upper air is warmer than the adiabatic lapse rate. In this, the adiabatic air parcel is cooler and denser causing it to sink.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a radiation inversion?

A

Radiation inversion is when the temperature rises with altitude rather than becomes cooler. In this case, adiabatic parcels definitely will not rise at all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When does radiation inversion normally occur? What are some of the consequences if it does not occur at this time?

A

Radiation inversion usually occurs at night. However, sometimes it occurs during the day which traps pollution underneath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are subsidence inversions?

A

Subsidence inversions occur as a large air mass sinks causing it to heat up relative to the air underneath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where are subsidence inversions most common?

A

Subsidence inversions are most common in cities near 30 degrees latitudes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Unstable, neutrally stable, and stable atmospheres all correlate with different types of mixing depths. What is fanning and which atmosphere does it correlate with?

A

-Fanning is when stable atmospheres cause exhaust to move downwind without much vertical motion only spreading out horizontally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Unstable, neutrally stable, and stable atmospheres all correlate with different types of mixing depths. What is fumigation and which atmosphere does it correlate with?

A

-Fumigation is caused by downward mixing and is common in stable atmospheres and atmosphere with inversions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Unstable, neutrally stable, and stable atmospheres all correlate with different types of mixing depths. What is looping and which atmosphere does it correlate with?

A

-Looping is the process of upward mixing and is common in unstable atmospheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What policy framework has decreased the atmospheric concentration of air pollutants?

A

NAAQs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the two sets of air quality standards and what are the difference between them?

A

-Primary standards protect public health including sensitive populations such as children or the elderly.
-Secondary standards protect public welfare including damage to crops, animals, vegetation, or property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are non attainment areas?

A

Areas where these standards are not viable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How did NAAQs internalize externalities to decrease atmospheric pollution?

A

NAAQs established nationwide standards which forced firms to pay the cost of compliance rather than individual citizens. NAAQs were enforced nationally therefore disincentivizes corporations to relocate inter or internationally as the cost of compliance was lower than the cost of relocating.

However, it is important to note that this is a concern for other pollutants where weaker environmental standards internationally would appeal to polluters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In regards to NAAQ standards, what are the three classes of zones? How did enforcement standards effect these regions?

A

Not all areas were emitting pollutants close to NAAQs- so should they be allowed to expand upon the standard? Well that depends on the class:

-Class I areas are areas where no increases were allowed (i.e. national parks)
-Class II areas are areas where some degree of increase is allowed but not close to NAAQs (i.e. most of the US)
-Class III areas are areas where increases up to NAAQs is permitted

55
Q

How does the Clean Air Act use command-and-control mechanisms to enforce air quality standards?

A

The increasingly strict standards set by the government restricted pollutants used in transportation mechanisms including buses, trains, planes, etc.

Also, the invention of the three-way catalytic converter helped meet these standards without sacrificing changes from the drivers themselves.

56
Q

FOSSIL FUELS

A
57
Q

What percent of the total final energy use is oil, gas, renewables, nuclear, and coal?

A

-30%- oil
-28%- coal
-22%- natural gas
-17%- renewables
-3%-nuclear

58
Q

Out of the renewables, what is the percent of total renewable energy use in biomass, biofuels, wind/solar/geothermal power generation, hydropower, biomass/geothermal water heating?

A

-51% traditional biomass
-20% biomass/geothermal water heating
-20% hydropower
-5% wind/solar/geothermal power generation
-4% biofuels

59
Q

What are fossil fuels?

A

Fossil fuels are dead, living things that left the short-term carbon cycle by getting trapped in geological formations millions of years ago.

60
Q

What are the two necessary conditions for fossil fuel creation?

A

-Lots of organic material in a small area
-Cut off from aerobic decay (decay in the presence of oxygen)

61
Q

In particular, how is coal formed?

A

Coal is formed when the two conditions of fossil fuel formation where met with swamps in which organic material was submerged and was trapped in sediment as sea levels fluctuated.

62
Q

What are some of the concerns with coal production?

A

-It is the dirtiest in terms of air pollution
-Contributes to the production of several primary pollutants (sulfur dioxide and carbon dioxide) and secondary pollutants (sulfur dioxide, nitrous oxide, hydrocarbons)
-Most carbon intensive
-Mines contain radioactive material
-Land clearing is a main by-product of surface mining
-Acidic mine drainage erodes nearby landscapes

63
Q

In particular, how is oil and natural gas formed?

A

Oil and natural gas are formed in estuaries as phytoplankton and zooplankton died and were trapped by sediment.

64
Q

In regards to oil and gas production, what is enhanced production and recovery?

A

This pertains to the idea that oil and gas recovery from low-permeability formations can be improved by:
-Thermal injection (reduce oil viscosity)
-Chemical injection (reduce viscosity of water)
-Miscible gas injection (reduce viscosity of oil)

64
Q

In regards to oil and gas production, what is the difference in primary and secondary production?

A

-Primary production: Oil and gas flow up into a well from the internal pressure of the reservoir underground
-Secondary production: Oil and gas drillers inject water into the reservoir, displacing oil up into the well

65
Q

What is extraction efficiency? What are the three factors that contribute to extraction efficiency?

A

Extraction efficiency is the percentage of total oil that gets extracted in the process of production and recovery.

Extraction efficiency depends on:
-How permeable the rock is
-How viscous the oil is
-What enhanced techniques are used

66
Q

What are the two examples of unconventional sources of oil recovery?

A

-Oil sands
-Shale oil and gas-> extracted through “fracking”

67
Q

What are some concerns about oil and gas extraction?

A

-Lots of water in the procedure
-Water takes on many pollutants through use
-Oil spills

68
Q

What are the three sources of key non-conventional fossil fuel deposits?

A

-Tar/oil sands
-Shale gas and oil
-Methane hydrates

69
Q

What are tar oil and sands?

A

Sand mixed with viscous bitumen; requires lots of processing and dilution to make fuel

70
Q

What is shale oil and gas?

A

Shale is a type of rock fragment that is poorly permeable and holds gas between its grains.

71
Q

What is fracking? How is shale oil recovered through the process of fracking?

A

Fracking is the process of releasing the gas from shale by breaking up the shale with high-pressure chemically treated water.

72
Q

Once recovered, what are the stages of crude oil processing?

A

-Shipped to refineries
-Distilled to separate different hydrocarbons by weight and boiling temperature

Lighter hydrocarbons are ideal as they have lower boiling points and will stay vaporized for much longer

73
Q

What are some concerns with shale oil and gas?

A

-Numerous avenues for water contamination
-Potential for methane to escape into the atmosphere

74
Q

What is the most common use of oil? What about natural gas?

A

-Most oil is used to fueling vehicles
-Natural gas is spread amongst industrial, commercial, and residential uses as well as electricity production

75
Q

RENEWABLE ENERGY

A
76
Q

What is the difference in intermittent and firm energy?

A

Intermittent energy are energy sources that do not provide equal amounts of energy year round due to extraneous factors like climate and weather patterns.

Firm energy sources are energy sources where energy generation is not contingent on these same factors.

77
Q

What are the examples of intermittent energy sources?

A

-Solar energy
-Wind energy

78
Q

What are the examples of firm energy sources?

A

-Electric storage
-Hydropower
-Biofuels
-Geothermal
-Tides
-Waves

79
Q

What are the three conduction layers in a Photovoltaic (PV) Panel?

A

N, P, Depletion Zone

80
Q

How does a PV panel work?

A

-A photon with a visible wavelength dislodges an electron from the Depletion Zone into the N zone
-The photon then seeks to find its way back to the P layer which is able to accept electrons
-These layers are then connected with a wire so that the electrons can pass through creating a current of electricity

81
Q

How do area requirements impact the amount of energy generated by PV panels?

A

-Areas of less sunlight means that the array needs to be wider to capture certain amounts of solar energy
-Large solar farms are challenging in areas where land cost is high, but they can be adapted to be put on top of buildings to save these costs

82
Q

How are aspects of solar energy generation variable?

A

-Peak electricity usage hours differ from peak sunlight hours
-Seasonal flux is much lower in the winter

83
Q

How do area requirements impact the amount of energy generated by wind farms?

A

-Wind turbines do not have the same area requirements that PV panels do because they do not disturb the area around it for farming

84
Q

How do wind turbines work?

A

-Wind turbines use the air to blow fan blades that are attached to a magnetic core, which rotates around a copper coil

85
Q

What type of energy is generated from wind energy?

A

Kinetic to electric

86
Q

What type of energy is generated from solar energy?

A

solar radiation to electrical energy

87
Q

What is the importance of storage in the discussion of renewable energy?

A

Storage is vital in ensuring that renewable energy forms can be transformed from intermittent to firm sources.

88
Q

How does hydropower work?

A

-Dams are used for flood control and irrigation and are a source of hydropower

89
Q

How do the carbon emissions of hydropower differ from other renewable energy sources?

A

Although not containing combustion, dams are not entirely carbon neutral. Decomposition of organic material occurs and because there is a limited storage of oxygen, this decomposition can result in methane generation.

Because of this, emissions are lower than fossil fuel sources but are not quite as low as solar or wind energy generation.

89
Q

What are some concerns about hydropower in the form of dams?

A

-Displacing local people
-Aquatic habitat disruption (dams can disrupt fish migration patterns and contribute to the ‘downstream’ effect)

90
Q

What are some consequences of biofuels?

A

-Cropland displaces arable land viable for agriculture that could be used to feed more people
-Cropland displaces local prairies

91
Q

NUCLEAR ENERGY

A
92
Q

What is binding energy?

A

Binding energy is the energy contained in the nuclear bonds between nucleus particles (protons and neutrons)

93
Q

What is the mass defect?

A

The mass defect is the difference in the mass of all of the individual particles in the nucleus (protons and neutrons) minus the mass of the actual nucleus

94
Q

What is the formula for calculating energy?

A

Follows Einstein’s basic formula of E=MC(2)

E(binding)= [M(mass neutrons)+M(mass protons) -M(mass nucleus) ] C(2)

95
Q

Why is the mass defect important in measuring energy?

A

The mass defect lets us know how much mass was lost by an atom in a fission or fusion reaction, consequently telling us how much energy was freed.

96
Q

What is radioactivity?

A

Property exhibited by some types of matter of emitting some energy and subatomic particles (mass) spontaneously

97
Q

What is fissile?

A

Can undergo fission after absorption of a slow-moving neutron

98
Q

What is fertile?

A

Cannot undergo fission but can turn fissile after absorption of a slow-moving neutron

98
Q

What is ionizing radiation?

A

Any type of radiation that has the power to discharge an electron, breaking the molecular bonds of an atom

99
Q

How does binding energy correlate to the stability of a nucleus? Likewise, how does the density of a nuclei compare to its stability?

A

-Higher binding energy typically means more stable nucleus
-Light nuclei can be fused together to form more stable nuclei
-Heavier nuclei can be fissioned apart, forming more stable nuclei

100
Q

What are radioisotopes? How are they related to nuclear reactions?

A

Molecules that naturally decay emitting particles at specific rates.

Alpha decay is a type of neutron emission. When enough alpha radioisotopes are together in one place they will set off a chain reaction.

101
Q

What are the role of U235, U238, and PU239 in nuclear reactions?

A

-U235 is fissile meaning that it can participate in a sustained fission reaction
-U238 is fertile meaning that it can absorb neutrons to become fissile; U238 absorbs neutrons to become P239, which is fissile and makes up roughly 1/2 of all nuclear fuel

102
Q

Why can’t nuclear reactions happen on their own?

A

-Conditions have to be just right
-A neutron ejected from a radioactive nucleus has to hit another fissile nucleus
-It has to hit at just the right speed

103
Q

What are moderators? What is their role in nuclear reactions?

A

Substances that absorb energy from neutrons and slow them down without absorbing too many neutrons. Ex.) water and graphite

Moderators help control nuclear reactions so that they do not occur sporadically.

104
Q

Other than moderators, what are some other ways that nuclear reactions are controlled?

A

-‘Control Rods’ are materials that absorb neutrons without themselves fissioning

-‘Poisioning’ of a coolant or moderator with neutron-absorbant materials

105
Q

What are the steps to general thermal power production?

A

-Transport and Prep
-Burner
-Boiler
-Steam Turbine
-Condenser
-Cooling Tower
-Emissions Control

106
Q

What are the three cycles in the pressurized water reactor?

A

-Coolant/Moderator Cycle: Contains the reactor itself
-Steam Cycle: Generates the electricity
-Cooling/Condensor Cycle: Condenses steam and dissipates heat to the greater environment

107
Q

What is the fuel usage cycle?

A

-Natural uranium is mined a ore
-In order to be useful, uranium must first be processed
-Depending on a country’s rule it might be recycled
-Ultimately ends up as a long-term radioactive liability that must be stored carefully

108
Q

What are the steps to fuel production?

A

-Raw ore is milled to produce ‘yellowcake’
-Yellow cake is then converted to UF6 which has high vapor pressure (meaning it becomes gas at relatively low temperature)
-Gassified 235UF6 moves quickly through the air
-Centrifuges bring 235UF6 up to about 3-5%
-UF6 is then converted to UO2
-UO2 is processed into ceramic pellets
-Ceramic pellets are then sealed into fuel rods

109
Q

How is uranium fuel reprocessed and stored?

A

-‘Spent fuel’ typically leaves the process with fissile U235, fertile U238 and fissile PU239
-These materials can then be reprocessed to return it to concentrations which were designed for the reactor
-Depending on the radioactivity, waste from nuclear processes may need to be stored securely for years, centuries, or millennia
-

110
Q

What are the risks of nuclear energy?

A

-Nuclear reactor accidents
-Spent fuel contaminant failure
-Ore mining

111
Q

What are the three examples of nuclear reactor incidents in history?

A

-Three Mile Island
-Chernobyl
-Fukushima

112
Q

Briefly explain the incident of Three Mile Island

A

(in lecture slides)
INES 5

113
Q

Briefly explain the incident of Chernobyl

A

(in lecture slides)
INES 7

114
Q

Briefly explain the incident of Fukushima

A

(in lecture slides)
INES 7

115
Q

What are the two types of plants that have arisen out of concern for nuclear safety? How do these plants differ from those used previously and from each other?

A

-In the 1990s, Generation III plants were developed that use passive nuclear safety measures. These measures create a default state of “not working” in the plant.

-In the 2000s, Generation IV plants were developed that use the same safety measures of Generation III plants with additional advancements in safety, smaller nuclear cores, and fuel of uranium alloys which prevents runaway reactions at extreme temperatures.

116
Q

What are the “passive nuclear safety” mechanisms employed by Generation III plants?

A

-No moving working fluid
-No moving mechanical part
-No signal inputs of ‘intelligence’
-No external power input or forces

117
Q

How do the economics of nuclear power compare to other energy sources?

A

-Nuclear energy has a very high upfront capital cost- building, officiating, and protecting plants are extremely costly
-However, the O&M (operation and maintenance costs) of nuclear operation are smaller than coal and natural gas

118
Q

What are some other considerations regarding nuclear energy regarding fusion?

A

Fusion reactions have the potential to yield more energy than fission reactions without producing as high of radioactive by-products. There are a range of possible reactions involving isotopes of hydrogen- colliding them together basically makes a “sun” on Earth.

119
Q

What are millisieverts?

A

Derived units of ionizing radiation dose after exposure; for use in categorizing human health impacts; dignified with the unit (mSv)

120
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL JUSTICE

A
121
Q

What is environmental racism? What are some examples of environmental racism?

A

Environmental racism: Any policy, practice, or directive that differently affects or disadvantages individuals, groups, or communities based on race or color.

Ex.) Putting nuclear power plants or toxic waste dumps near communities of color

122
Q

What is Environmental Justice?

A

Environmental Justice: Fair treatment and meaningful involvement of all people regardless of race, color, national origin, or income, with respect to the development, implementation, and enforcement of environmental laws, regulations, and policies.

123
Q

What does Professor Chahim mean when he states that environmental justice is ‘against class reductionism’?

A

He means that the disparities we see in environmental justice cannot solely be explained by class; several other factors come into play that explain this disparity.

124
Q

What four assertions does Professor Chaim make regarding environmental justice?

A

-Environmnetal justice is primarily about waste
-Waste is inextricably linked to economic growth
-Economic growth is inextricably linked to capitalism
-Where we place waste is inextricable from cultural ideas about how we perceive the value of the lives of others

125
Q

Review: What are K&Cs Four Principles of Sustainability?

A

-Do not use natural resources or produce waste faster than it can be regenerated or assimilated by the environment
-Connections between different parts of the environment can cause decisions to succeed or fail (system thinking)
-Principles 1&2 must be guided by fairness among nations (and creeds, sects, races), genders, and current and future generations
-Social rewards must favor those who act sustainably and dissuade individuals from acting in a non-sustainable manner

126
Q

THE END

A
127
Q

Review: What are feedback loops? What is the difference between positive and negative feedback loops?

A

Feedback loops are the concept that factors of an ecosystem are all inter-related and a change in one factor will impact changes in several other factors in a cyclical pattern.

Positive feedback loops reinforce feedback behavior causing a system to “spin out of control”. Positive feedback loops can be cited as feedback loops with an even number of negative relationships.

Negative feedback loops reinforce system stability. Negative feedback loops can be cited as feedback loops with an odd number of negative relationships.

128
Q

Review: What is the IPAT equation? What does it measure? More specifically, what is the Kayas variation and what does it measure?

A

IPAT measures environmental impact through the general equation

Impact= Pop x Affluence x Tech

Kayas equation is a variation of the IPAT equation that measures these variables in relation to CO2 emissions specifically.

CO2= Pop x (GDP/Capita) x (Energy/GDP) x (CO2/Energy)

129
Q

Review: In regards to economic reformation regarding environmental change, what is scale? what is efficiency?

A

Scale: Scale is the concept of reducing the scale of contributing factors such as population, affluence, and total economic activities.

Efficiency: Efficiency calls for reforming current “business as usual” procedure in manners such as shifting to renewable energy, better technology, and agricultural shifts

130
Q

Homework 5 Review: What is a null hypothesis? What is an alternative hypothesis?

A

A null hypothesis states that there is no relationship between the variables in the hypothesis

An alternative hypothesis states that there is a relationship between the variables in the hypothesis

131
Q

Homework 6: This is your reminder to review homework 6 right now!

A

Environmental Systems Science (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions